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Q0001:Patient presents with decreased pain and temperature sensation over the lateral aspects of both arms;What is the lesion?
Syringomyelia`
Q0002:Penlight in patient's right eye produces bilateral pupillary constriction. When moved to the left eye there is paradoxical dilation;What is the defect
Q0003:patint describes decreased prick sensation on the lateral aspect of her leg and foot;deficit of what muscular action is expected?
Q0004:elderly woman presents with arthritis and tingling over the lateral digits of her right hand;what is the diagnosis?
Q0005:decreased reports decreased plantar flexion and decreased sensation over the back of thigh; calf; and lateral half of foot;what spinal nerve is involved
tibial (L4-S3)
10
Q0006:patient cannot turn her head to the left and has right shoulder droop?;what structure is damaged?
11
Right CNXI (runs thru jugular foramen with IX and X) innervating sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles
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Q0008:patient with cortical lesion does not know that he has a disease;where is the lesion
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16
Q0009:patient cannot protruede tongue toward left side and has a right sided spastic paralysis;wehre is the lesion?
17
left medulla
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Q0010:after fall that injures elbow; pt can't feel medial palm;which nerve and what injury?
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Q0012:patient cannot blink right eye or seal lips and has mild ptosis on right side;what is diagnosis; what nerve affected?
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Q0013:patient complains of pain; numbness; and tingling. on exam; wasting of thenar eminence;what diagnosis; what nerve?
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Q0014:during a particular stage of sleep; man has variable blood pressure; penile tumescence; and variable eeg;what stage?
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rem
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prolactinoma
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Q0017:middle aged pt with dizziness and tinnitus. ct shows enlarged internal acoustic meatus;what dx?
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schwannoma
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Q0018:25 year old female with uniocular vision loss; slurred speech. history of weakness and paresthesias that have resolved;dx?
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MS
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37
absence seizure
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39
tricyclic antidepressants
40
Q0021:woman on MAO inhibitor has hypertensive crisis after a meal;what did she ingest?
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42
Q0022:patient has his right arm hanging by his side; medially rotated and his forearm is pronated. What is this condition called and what part of the brachial plexus is injured?
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Q0023:injury to what part of the brachial plexus results in a hand that looks like a claw?
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46
Q0024:what are symptoms of an injury to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus?
47
1. atrophy of the thenar and hypothenar eminences;2. atrophy of the interosseous muscles;3. sensory deficits on the medial side of the forearm and hand;4. disappearance of the radial pulse upon moving the head toward the opposite side
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Q0025:Which nerves arise from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?
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C5; C6; C7
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winged scapula
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Q0029:What nerve supplies function to the deltoid muscle? From where on the brachial plexus does it derive?
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wrist drop (extensor muscles of wrist) and sensory deficit on posterior arm and dorsal hand of first 3.5 digits
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Q0031:what muscle protects the brachial plexus from injury during a clavicle fracture?
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subclavius muscle
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Q0033:abduction and opposition of thumb and finger flexion is controlled by what nerve?
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median nerve
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67
Motor: adduction of thumb; palmar and dorsal interosseus muscles. Sensory: palmar and dorsal aspect of little finger and half of ring finger
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either radial nerve causing a wrist drop and posterior arm and dorsal hand paresthesia or musculocutaneous nerve affecting flexion of arm at elbow and sensory loss of lateral arm
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Q0037:a supracondylar humerus fracture or a palmar wrist injury will affect what nerve?
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median nerve affecting flexion of fingers and abduction/opposition of thumb as well as sensation of majority of palmar aspect of hand
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Q0038:a fracture of medial epicondyle of humerus or wrist fracture on medial aspect of wrist will affect what nerve?
75
ulnar nerve; resulting in an inability to adduct or abduct fingers or adduct thumb and sensation of last 1.5 digits
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Q0040:What motor and sensory functions does the obturator nerve serve?
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obturator nerve
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femoral nerve
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Q0043:what motor and sensory functions does the femoral nerve have?
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flexion of thigh and extension of leg; sensory on anterior thigh and medial leg
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Q0044:trauma to lateral aspect of leg or fibula neck fracture may damage what nerve?
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88
Q0045:what motor and sensory functions does the common peroneal nerve serve?
89
eversion and dorsiflexion of foot; extension of toes; sensory on anterolateral leg and dorsal foot
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tibial nerve
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inversion and plantarflexion of foot and flexion of toes; sensory to sole of foot
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inability to jump; climb stairs; or rise form seated position (gluteus maximus paralysis)
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FOOT DROP; paresthesia in webspace between big toe and second toe
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Q0052:Femoral Nerve
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(from posterior division of L2; L3; L4);longest branch is saphenous nerve - sensation over area of great saphenous vein; impaired ability to flex at hip and extend knee; decreased patellar reflex
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(L4; L5; S1 - exits via greater sciatic foramen above piriformis) innervates gluteus medius; minimus and tensor fascia latae; impaired hip abduction ; in walking - "Trendlenburg" gait: pelvic tilt (sag) toward opposite side form lesion
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(L5-S2; gluteus maximus - exits greater sciatic foramen below piriformis w/ pudendal and sciatic);impaired lateral rotation and extension of thigh at hip; DIFFICULTY GETTING UP FROM A CHAIR; gluteus minimus gait = thrust torso posteriorly
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Q0056:Tibial Nerve
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"tarsal tunnel syndrome" = decreased flexion of big toe; difficulty standing on tiptoe
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Q0057:Obdurator Nerve
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(L2-4; anterior division; medial thigh-adductors- exits via obdurator canal);impaired adduction of thigh at hips
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Q0058:Terrible triad
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pain when leg is rotated medially at the knee (abnl passive abduction)
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gastroc and soleus;Tibial N;(L4-S3);TIP: Tibial Inverts and Plantarflexes (if injured; can't stand on TIPtoes)
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Femoral Nerve;L2;3;4
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Obdurator (L2;3;4)
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SLEDsA to CSF;Skin/superficial fascia;Ligaments (supraspinous; interspinous and ligmentum flavum if puncture is off midline);Epidural space and intralaminal space;Dura mater;subdural potential space;Arachnoid;CSF is in the subarachnoid space
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femoral
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Tibial
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Q0069:Nerves that contain fibers from the superior rami of the plexus (L2-L4) innervate muscles in the
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138
Q0070:Nerves that contain fibers from the inferior rami of the plexus (S1-S3) innervate muscles of
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L3
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L4
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L5
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S1
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L4
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S1
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Q0078:Femoral
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L4 L5 S1 S2 (posterior division)
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extension of knee
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L3/obturator
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Femoral
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1) compression at fibula neck;2) hip fracture or dislocation;3) misplaced gluteal injection;4) piriformis syndrome
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Q0089:Recurrent Laryngeal nerve The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of which cranial nerve?
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CN X
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180
Q0091:Recurrent Laryngeal nerve What structure does the right recurrent laryngeal nerve wrap around?
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182
Q0092:Recurrent Laryngeal nerve What structure does the left recurrent laryngeal nerve wrap around?
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184
Q0093:Recurrent Laryngeal nerve In what kind of surgery can this nerve be damaged in?
185
thyroid surgery
186
Q0094:Recurrent Laryngeal nerve What happens when this nerve gets damaged?
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hoarseness
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191
192
Q0097:Recurrent Laryngeal nerve What space is found between the dura and arachnoid?
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subdural space
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CSF
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tibial (L4-S3) (TIP = Tibial Inverts and Plantarflexes; if injured; can't stand on TIPtoes)
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Femoral (L2-L4)
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Obturator (L2-L4)
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L1-L2
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S2
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Q0108:What cell is responsible for physical support and repair; as well as K+ metabolism
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astrocytes
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microglia
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oligodendricytes
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Schawnn cells
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224
Q0113:Do nonpolar/lipid soluble substances or polar; watersoluble substances pass through the BBB more easily?
225
Nonpolar/lipid soluble
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229
Thirst; Adenohypophysis control; Neurohypophysis hormone synthesis; Hunger; Autonomic regulation (including circadian rhythms); Temperature regulation; Sexual urges (TAN HATS)
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Lateral nucleus
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238
Q0120:Which nuclei of the hypothalamus project axons into the posterior pituitary?
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244
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Motor
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Mammillary body; anterior nucleus of thalamus; cyngulate gyrus; entorhinal cortex; hippocampus
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Q0130:Basal ganglia What are the roles of the direct and indirect pathways?
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Putamen (inhibitory) => Gpi (inhibitory) => Thalamus: inhibition of Gpi => activation of thalamus
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Putamen (inhibitory) => GPe (inhibitory) => {STN (excitatory)=>GPi (inhibitory)} =>Thalamus; induces excitation of Gpi => inhibition of thalamus
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Loss of substantia nigra pars compacta (SNc) dopamine output to putamen => activation of indirect pathway and inhibition of direct pathway
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sudden; jerky; purposeless movements; caused by basal ganglia lesionChorea= dancing; think choreography
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276
Q0139:in smaller muscles; how many muscle fibers does an alpha motor neuron innervate?
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ipsilateral - projects to contralateral motor cortex and red nuclei whose fibers cross back over
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285
as it descends through the inferior aspect of the medulla through the medullary pyramids
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between their nuclei in the brainstem and the thalamus via the arcuate fibers of the medial lemniscus
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290
291
ipsilateral motor loss and loss of touch; vibration; propriceptive sense; contralateral pain and temperature loss
292
Q0147:where do the motor and sensory deficits manifes in patients with a lesion of the internal capsule?
293
corticospinal tract; dorsal columns; and spinothalamic tract travel to or from the cerebral cortex through the posterior limb - contralateral hemiplegia and contralateral sensory loss
294
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296
Q0149:what disorder is characterized by loss of pyramidal cells in the cerebral motor cortex that leads to fibrosis of the lateral corticospinal tracts
297
ALS
298
299
300
301
spastic paralysis; hyperactive deep tendon reflexes; and clonus - UMNs are tonically inhibitory to LMNs
302
303
304
305
mutations in the zinc/copper superoxide dismutase gene; which plays an important role in scavenging free radicals in metabolically active cells such as neurons
306
Q0154:periventricular plaques on MRI and oligoclonal bands in CSF are indicative of what?
307
MS
308
309
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313
anticholinergic - relative excess of Ach because of dopamine deficiency; anticholinergics can be useful in treating motor symptoms
314
Q0158:what compound that may be found in ilicit drugs can cause PD?
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thymoma
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321
322
323
324
325
326
327
328
329
excessive PNS stimulation - diarrhea; miosis; bronchospasm; excessive urination; bradycardia; salivation; lacrimation; also sweating because SNS stimulates sweating via ACh
330
331
treatment aimed at reducing total cholinergic activity palidoxine regenerates active cholinesterase; and anticholinergic atropine
332
333
AI disease with antibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels located in terminal bouton of presynaptic neurons result in impaired ACh release
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335
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337
syringomyelia
338
Q0170:what is syringomyelia?
339
expanded fluid-filled cavity in spinal cord that affects the spinothalamic tract
340
Q0171:what produces atrophy of the muscles of hands and hypoactive reflexes of the upper extremities in syringomyelia?
341
expansion of the syrinx to compress the ventral horns produces LMN signs
342
Q0172:what should you examine for masses in a patient with trigeminal neuralgia?
343
posterior fossa
344
345
carbamazapine - reduces rate of nerve transmission by inhibiting voltage-gated sodium channels of neurons
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347
oligoclonal immunoglobulin bands (absent in serum); elevated IgG; and myelin basic protein
348
Q0175:this is a disease that involves demyelination of various white matter areas of the CNS
349
MS
350
351
oligodendrocytes
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353
Guillan-Barre
354
Q0178:this type of stroke primarily results from atherosclerosis and subsequent thrombus/embolism or from hypercoaguability in LA (e.g. atrial fibrillation) or LV (after MI)
355
ischemic stroke
356
Q0179:this type of stroke results predominantly from trauma; ruptured AV malformation; ruptured aneurysm; or vessel rupture due to hypertension
357
hemorrhagic
358
359
makes it easier for blood to pool and clot within the atria; and the clots can then embolize to brain
360
Q0181:what serves the motor and sensory cortex devoted to the contralateral leg?
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362
363
motor and sensory cortex for contralateral upper extremity; head; neck; and face
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368
369
subarachnoid hemorrhage
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372
373
374
Q0188:patients with PKD most often have berry aneurysms in what location?
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376
Q0189:almost one-half of cases of this are idiopathic; the rest develop after meningitis; subarachnoid hemorrhage; or intracranial surgery or develop as a result of a tumor
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hydrocephalus
378
Q0190:CSF flows from the lateral ventricles into the third ventricle via what?
379
foramen of Monroe
380
Q0191:CSF flows from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle via what?
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382
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384
Q0193:trauma that causes unconsciousness followed by lucid interval followed by confusion; lethargy; disorientation
385
epidural hematoma - intracranial bleeding that dissects periosteal dura away from skull
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Q0194:this is composed of a periosteal layer adherent to bone and a meningeal layer continuous with the arachnoid layer
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dura mater
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390
391
pia
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393
394
395
bridging veins that interconnect the subarachnoid space and the dural (venous) sinuses - more common in elderly people whose brains have atrophied
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397
398
399
V1
400
401
phenytoin
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403
valproic acid
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405
lamotrigine; ethosuximide
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407
phenobarbital; diazepam
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409
carbamazepine
410
411
gabapentin
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413
ethosuximide
414
415
decrease the frequency of neuronal discharge by increasing the threshold for neuronal discharge - most do so by blocking sodium or calcium channels; but benzos activate chloride channels to hyperpolarize neurons
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417
AD: diffuse cerebral atrophy;Pick's: selecive atrophy of frontal and temporal lobes
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419
420
Q0211:if a patient with AD has depression; what drugs should not be prescribed?
421
TCAs because they have powerful anticholinergic side effects that may exacerbate the cognitive decline due to AD
422
Q0212:what is the mechanism whereby short-term memory is consolidated into long-term memory?
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424
425
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427
astrocytoma
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429
glioblastoma multiforme
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431
glioblastoma multiforme
432
Q0217:why are lomustine and carmustine more suitable for treating brain tumors?
433
belong to a class of alkylating agents - nitrosureas - can effectively penetrate the BBB
434
Q0218:what is a meningioma?
435
benign tumor that arises from the arachnoid cells of the meninges - external to brain and so usually can be surgically resected
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437
III
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439
VII
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441
VII
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443
VII
444
445
VII
446
447
IX
448
449
IX
450
Q0226:Which cranial nerve monitors carotid body and sinus chemo and baroreceptors?
451
IX
452
453
454
455
456
457
458
Q0230:Where in the brain stem is the nucleus of the follow cranial nerve: 3
459
Midbrain
460
Q0231:Where in the brain stem is the nucleus of the follow cranial nerve: 4
461
Midbrain
462
Q0232:Where in the brain stem is the nucleus of the follow cranial nerve: 5
463
Pons
464
Q0233:Where in the brain stem is the nucleus of the follow cranial nerve: 6
465
Pons
466
Q0234:Where in the brain stem is the nucleus of the follow cranial nerve: 7
467
Pons
468
Q0235:Where in the brain stem is the nucleus of the follow cranial nerve: 8
469
Pons
470
Q0236:Where in the brain stem is the nucleus of the follow cranial nerve: 9
471
Medulla
472
Q0237:Where in the brain stem is the nucleus of the follow cranial nerve: 10
473
Medulla
474
Q0238:Where in the brain stem is the nucleus of the follow cranial nerve: 11
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Medulla
476
Q0239:Where in the brain stem is the nucleus of the follow cranial nerve: 12
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Medulla
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479
480
481
482
Q0242:What CNs are in the following nucleus and what kind of information does it carry: Nucleus Solitarius
483
484
Q0243:What CNs are in the following nucleus and what kind of information does it carry: Nucleus Ambiguens
485
9; 10; 11;Motor innervation of pharynx larynx and upper esophagus (aMbiguens is Motor)
486
Q0244:What CNs are in the following nucleus and what kind of information does it carry: Dorsal motor nucleus
487
488
Q0245:What opening does the following structure pass through: Ophthalmic artery
489
Optic canal
490
Q0246:What opening does the following structure pass through: Central retinal vein
491
Optic canal
492
493
494
495
496
497
498
499
500
Q0251:What opening does the following structure pass through: Ophthalmic vein
501
502
503
504
505
506
Q0254:What opening does the following structure pass through: Middle meningeal artery
507
Foramen spinosum
508
Q0255:What opening does the following structure pass through: Middle meningeal vein
509
Foramen spinosum
510
Q0256:What opening does the following structure pass through: Recurrent branch of V3
511
Foramen spinosum
512
Q0257:What opening does the following structure pass through: Accessory meningeal artery
513
Foramen ovale
514
Q0258:What opening does the following structure pass through: Lesser petrosal nerve
515
Foramen ovale
516
Q0259:What opening does the following structure pass through: Bridging veins
517
Foramen ovale
518
519
520
521
522
523
Jugular foramen
524
525
Jugular foramen
526
Q0264:What opening does the following structure pass through: cranial roots of CN XI
527
Jugular foramen
528
Q0265:What opening does the following structure pass through: Jugular vein
529
Jugular foramen
530
Q0266:What opening does the following structure pass through: Inferior petrosal nerve
531
Jugular foramen
532
Q0267:What opening does the following structure pass through: Posterior meningeal artery
533
Jugular foramen
534
Q0268:What opening does the following structure pass through: Sigmoid sinus
535
Jugular foramen
536
Q0269:What opening does the following structure pass through: spinal roots of XI
537
Foramen magnum
538
Q0270:What opening does the following structure pass through: brain stem
539
Foramen magnum
540
Q0271:What opening does the following structure pass through: vertebral artery
541
Foramen magnum
542
543
Hypoglossal canal
544
545
1) Adrenal Meduall;2) Ganglia (Sensory + Autonomic);3) Pigment Cells (Melanin);4) Schwann Cells;5) Meninges (Pia + Arachnoid);6) Pharyngeal Arches;7) Odontoblasts;8) Parafollicular (C) Cells;9) Aorticopulmonar Septum;10) Endocardial Cushions
546
547
548
549
550
551
552
553
554
555
556
Q0279:What level does the Lateral Horn of the Sympathetic system comprises?
557
T1-L2
558
559
560
561
562
563
564
565
566
567
Parasymp. CN III;Ciliary m.
568
569
570
571
572
573
574
575
Down Syndrome
576
577
Telencephalon;Diencephalon;Mesencephalon;Metencepahol; Myelencephalon
578
579
580
581
582
Q0292:Mesencephalon? CNS/Ventricle
583
584
Q0293:Metencephalon
585
586
Q0294:Myelencephalon
587
588
589
Mesencephalon
590
591
592
593
Kinesin
594
595
Dyenin
596
597
Herpes;Polio;Rabie;Tetanus
598
Q0300:Oligodendrocyte vs Schwan?
599
600
601
Ectoderm
602
603
Basal
604
605
Anencephaly
606
Q0304:Oligohydramnios?
607
Potter's Syndrome (Bilateral Renal Agenesis); Oligohydramnios causes limb deformities and pulmonary hipoplasia
608
609
610
611
Acueduct of Sylvius
612
Q0307:What connects the ventricles and the subarachnoid space? And where is this located?
613
Located in the 4th ventricle;Three openings;1) Two Lateral formaina of Luschka;2) Median foramina of Magendie
614
Q0308:Normal pH of CSF?
615
7.33
616
617
618
619
Lower
620
621
622
623
624
625
626
Q0314:Define Hydrocephalus?
627
628
629
It is due to oversecretion of CSF by;1) Choroid Plexus Papilloma;2) Tumor in Subarachnoid space;3) Meningitis (limits absorption into superior saggital sinus)
630
Q0316:Noncommunicating Hydrocephalus
631
undersecretion/ obstruction of CSF flow;1)tumor blocking foramen Monro; cerebral aqueduct; 4th ventricle or Fomanina Magendie or Lushka.
632
633
- CSF not absorbed by arachnoid villi;- ventricles enlarged;ventricles press agains cortex and skull
634
635
1) confusion;2) gait apraxia;3) urinary incontinence;stiff legs; dementia ;confused with Alzheimer;like magnetic feet stuck to the ground
636
637
638
639
Choroid Plexus
640
641
642
643
- Eyes open wide + pupil dilation (to see better);- Perspire (to slip from it);- Hair Sticks up (to look ferocious);- Sphincters close (don't wanna go to the bathroom in the middle of the chase);- Increase HR;- Epinephrine increase adrenalin;- liver incre
644
645
646
647
Motorneurons
648
649
Sensory neurons
650
651
652
653
654
655
656
Q0329:Neural Systems
657
658
659
660
661
1) Red nucleus;2) Reticular Formation;3) Lateral Vestibular Nuclei of the brain stem;4) Cerebral Cortex (Most Important)
662
663
Corticospinal Tract
664
Q0333:Where is the motor cortex located in the brain? What lobe of the brain?
665
1) Precentral Gyrus of the Frontal Lobe;2) Premotor Area both 60%;3) 1ry + 2ry somatosensory cortical areas of parietal lobe 40% of fibers
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667
668
669
Sensory
670
671
672
673
674
675
676
677
Decerebrate Rigidity
678
679
1) Babinski Reflex (extension instead of flexion);2) Abdominal Reflex Lost;3) Cremasteric Reflex Lost
680
681
682
683
684
685
- Starts in Brain stem or Spinal Cord before crossing ;- it then crosses;Second Order Always crosses
686
687
688
689
Propioception and Stereoception;- sensory info. for discriminatory touch;- joint position;- vibratory;- pressure sensation from trunk and limbs
690
Q0346:What type/class of fibers does the Dorsal Column (DC-ML) system have?
691
Class II or A-beta
692
693
Fasciculus Gracilis
694
695
Lower Extremities;- Remember that you are graceful when you walk;- Also; gracilis muscle is on the medial aspect of the leg/thigh
696
697
Medulla
698
Q0350:Does the second order neuron for sensory pathway cross the midline?
699
YES! It crosses; axon doesn't cross but dendrite and body crosses
700
701
702
Q0352:Where do 3rd order of the Dorsal Column-Medial Leminiscus System (DC-MLS) cells synapse?
703
Medial Leminiscus like its name;Part of the Thalamus;in the Ventroposterolateral Nucleus (VPL)
704
705
Lower Extremities;- Remember that you are graceful when you walk;- Also; gracilis muscle is on the medial aspect of the leg/thigh
706
707
Medulla
708
Q0355:Does the second order neuron for sensory pathway cross the midline?
709
710
711
712
Q0357:Where do 3rd order of the Dorsal Column-Medial Leminiscus System (DC-MLS) cells synapse?
713
Medial Leminiscus like its name;Part of the Thalamus;in the Ventroposterolateral Nucleus (VPL)
714
715
716
717
718
719
Propioception and Stereoception;- sensory info. for discriminatory touch;- joint position;- vibratory;- pressure sensation from trunk and limbs
720
Q0361:What type/class of fibers does the Dorsal Column (DC-ML) system have?
721
Class II or A-beta
722
723
Fasciculus Gracilis
724
725
726
727
Decerebrate Rigidity
728
729
1) Babinski Reflex (extension instead of flexion);2) Abdominal Reflex Lost;3) Cremasteric Reflex Lost
730
731
732
733
734
Q0368:Where can you find 2nd order neuron in the Dorsal Column pathway? What Nuclei?
735
736
737
The 2nd order neuron always crosses; need two lines to make a cross
738
Q0370:Where is the 3rd order neuron located in the Dorsal Column Medial Leminiscus (DC-MLS) Pathway? Which nucleus?
739
Brainstem;- Thalamus;- At the medial lemniscus like its name;- It is found in the Ventroposterolateral Nucleus
740
Q0371:Where do the 3rd order Neurons project in the Dorsal Column Pathway?
741
To the ANTERIOR portion of the PARIETAL Lobe;Primary somethetic (somatosensory) area;- located in the Postcentral gyrus
742
743
Loss of Joint sensation;- vibratory ;- pressure sensation;two-point discrimination;- loss of the ability to identify characteristics of an object
744
Q0373:What is asterognosis?
745
Identify;- shape;- size;- consistency;- form;of an object using the sense of TOUCH
746
747
ask patient to close his eyes and place feet together;- positive if patient sways;- if patient sways with eyes open then the lesion/damage is at the cerebellum and not dorsal column
748
749
750
751
752
Q0377:Via what fibers do the dorsal root ganglia enter the spinal cord?
753
754
755
The backup is that 20% of the fibers do not cross;- the conscious crosses;unconscious doesn't cross
756
757
758
759
760
761
762
763
It is a scanning neuron
764
Q0383:Where are 3ry (Tertiary) neurons of the Dorsal Column Systems located?
765
766
Q0384:What happens to all the lesions that are unilateral in the Spinal Cord or the Brain Stem?
767
768
Q0385:Where is the 2nd Neuron located for the Anterolateral (Spinothalamic) System?
769
770
771
772
773
774
Q0388:Where does the analgesia begin after a lesion of the anterolateral/spinothalamic tract?
775
776
777
778
779
780
Q0391:Where are the 2nd order neuron from the Dorsal Spinocerebellar tract found?;(What nucleus);At what level?
781
782
Q0392:Where are the bodies of the cuneocerebellar tact found? (What nucleus);At what level?
783
784
785
786
787
Propioceptive input to the cerebellum from upper extremities and upper trunk
788
789
Friederich's Ataxia
790
791
Autosomal Recessive
792
793
1) ipsilateral spastic paresis below injury;2) ipsilateral loss of joint position sense; tactile discrimination and vibratory sensations below lesion;3) contralateral loss of pain and temperature starting 1 or 2 segments below lesion
794
795
Brown-Sequard Sx
796
797
798
799
800
801
802
803
LMN
804
805
Dorsal Column
806
807
808
809
- LMN;- Spinothalamic tract (SpTh);- Corticospinal tract (CST);- LMN;Except Dorsal Column (DC) is spared
810
811
812
813
814
815
816
817
818
819
- DC;- CST;- SpTh;- LMN;All of them!;If lesion is above T1 then Horner Sx. (Ipsilateral)
820
821
822
823
824
825
826
Q0414:Patient with paresthesias; bilateral spastic weakness; Babinksi sign and antibodies to intrinsic factor? Diagnosis Dx:?
827
Dx: Subacute combined degeneration;Intrinsic Factor is deficient and wont let the ileum absorb Vitamin B12
828
Q0415:How are Multiple Sclerosis; Vitamin B 12 deficiency and Subacute Combined Degeneration similar?
829
830
831
Oligodendrocytes;- they create the myelin for all axons inside the CNS and tracts of white matter
832
833
834
835
Cells in the Ventral Root;- they contain myelin from Schwann Cells which promote regeneration of cut axons.
836
837
838
839
840
841
842
Q0422:Charactestic of Syringomyelia?
843
844
845
T5 segment
846
847
848
Q0425:What cells manage the reflex contraction of muscle and extension of oposite muscles?
849
Muscle Spindles
850
851
Ventrolateral 2/3's of the spinal cord;- DC are spared;- NO problems in pain and temp.
852
853
854
855
856
857
pg. 363
858
859
860
861
862
863
864
865
IX; X; XII
866
867
868
869
870
871
872
873
Ipsilateral paralysis of the soft palate;- uvula deviates away from the lesion;- nasal regurgitation of liquids;- hoarseness;difficulty swallowing
874
875
solitary sounds like salivary and taste;- it controls the taste and visceral sensory neurons
876
877
Trigeminal nerve V
878
Q0440:What is the major parasympathetic nucleus in the brain stem? Where is it located?
879
880
881
882
883
884
885
886
887
888
889
- ipsilateral facial paralisis of the VII nerve;- inability to look to the side of the lesion
890
891
pontomedullary junction
892
893
It receives auditory impulses from both ears by cochclear nuclei;- cochclear nuclei at pontomedullary junction
894
895
896
897
898
899
900
901
Mesencephalon
902
903
904
905
906
907
908
909
910
911
912
913
914
915
916
Q0459:How does the ear protect itself against damage to the inner ear from loud sounds?
917
918
Q0460:What happens to the Upper Face and Lower Face in a corticobulbar lesion?
919
The Upper Face has normal function since it has a bilateral innervation;The Lower Face is affected contralaterally since there is only one set of fibers going there.
920
921
922
923
924
925
926
927
malleus;stapes;incus
928
929
930
931
932
933
934
935
hair cells in the organ of Corti are conected to the spiral ganglion;- to cochlear part of CN VIII;- ventral cochlear nuclei --> Superior Olivary N. --> Inferior Colliculus --> Midbrain
936
937
938
939
940
941
Toward
942
943
944
945
Striola;Otoconia;Kinocillium
946
947
948
949
950
951
952
953
- Damage to the superior colliculus center for upward gaze;pupillary constriction for accomodation;- decrease in melatonin;- decrease in sleep patterns;- headache from tumor compression
954
Q0478:- Can't follow Upward gaze;- Hydrocephalus;Headache;- Pupils Accomodate but not react;Diagnostic?
955
Pinnealoma/Parinaud Sx
956
957
958
959
Nucleus Ambiguus
960
961
962
963
CN-5 to CN-8
964
965
CN-9 to CN-12
966
967
CN II-VI
968
Q0485:pathway of CNI
969
cribiform plate
970
Q0486:CN's which pass through bones of posterior cranial fossa (temporal or occipital)
971
CNVII-XII
972
973
Optic canal
974
975
976
977
Foramen rotundum
978
979
Foramen Ovale
980
981
Foramen spinosum
982
983
984
985
jugular foramen
986
987
hypoglossal canal
988
989
foramen magnum
990
Q0496:decreased pain and temp sensation over lat. aspects of both arms. where is the lesion
991
syringomyelia
992
Q0497:penlight in pts right eye produces bilateral pupillary constriction. when moved to the left eye; there is paradoxical dilation;what is the defect?
993
atrophy of L optic nn
994
Q0498:decresassed prick sensation on lateral aspect of leg and foot;deficit in what mm action can also be expected
995
996
997
998
Q0500:decreased plantar flexion and decreased sensation over back fo thigh; calf; and latereal half of foot;what spinal nn
999
tibial (L4-S3)
1000
Q0501:pt in MVA can't turn head to L & has rightt shoulder droop;What sx is damaged.
1001
1002
1003
1004
Q0503:pt w/ cortical lesion does not know he has a dz. where is the lesion?
1005
1006
Q0504:pt cannot protrude tongue toward L side and has a Rsided spastic paralysis. Where is the lesion?
1007
L medulla; CN XII
1008
Q0505:teen falls while rollarblading and hurts his elbow. He can't feel the medial part of his palm;What is the nn & what is the injury.
1009
1010
Q0506:pt presents to ER after falling on arm. X-ray shows midshaft break of the humerus? Which nn & aa are most lkely damaged?
1011
1012
Q0507:pt cannot blink his R eye or seal his lips and has mild ptosis on R side. What is the dx and which nn is affected.
1013
1014
Q0508:pt c/o numbness; & tingling sensation. She has wasting of thenar eminence. What is the dx/ What nn is affected?
1015
1016
Q0509:stage of sleep where there is variable BP; penile tumescence & variable EEG.
1017
REM
1018
Q0510:person demands only the best & most famous doctor in town;what personality d/o
1019
1020
Q0511:nurse has episodes of hypoglycemia; blood analysis shows no elevation in C protien. What is the dx.
1021
1022
1023
prolactinoma
1024
Q0513:pt experiences dizziness & tinnitis. ct shows enlarged internal acoustic meatus. What is the dx
1025
schannoma
1026
Q0514:25 y/o female presents w/ sudden uniocular vision loss & slightly slurred speech. She has hx of weekness & parasthesias that have resoved. what is the dx
1027
MS
1028
Q0515:10 y/o child "spaces out" in class (e.g; stops talking midsentance & then continues as if nothing happened. During spells there is slight quivering of lips. Dx?
1029
absence seizures
1030
Q0516:man on several meds including antidepressants and antihypertensives; has mydriasis and becomes constipated. What is the cause of his symptoms
1031
TCA
1032
Q0517:woman on MAO inhibitor has hypertensive crisis after a meal. What did she ingest?
1033
1034
Q0518:This CNS support cell helps maintain the blood-brain barrier. It's cell marker is GFAP
1035
astrocyte
1036
Q0519:this CNS support cell makes up the inner lining of the ventricles
1037
ependymal cells
1038
Q0520:this CNS support cell is the macrophage of the brain phagocytosing in areas of inflammation or neural damage. Like the macrophage; this cell is mesodermal in origen.
1039
microglia.
1040
1041
oligodendroglia
1042
1043
schwann cell
1044
Q0523:All CNS/ PNS support cells (except the microglia which originates from mesoderm)originate from this primary germ cell layer.
1045
ectoderm
1046
Q0524:autopsy done on pt w/ HIV shows these support cells transformed into virus filled multinucleated giant cells in CNS
1047
microglia
1048
1049
oligodendroglia
1050
Q0526:Acoustic neuroma is a neoplasm of this PNS support cell commonly associated with the internal acoustic meatus (CN VII; VIII)
1051
schwann cell
1052
Q0527:Give following peripheral nn layers from inner most to outermost ;nn fibers;endoneurium;epineurium;perineurium
1053
endoneurium-perineurium-epineurium-nn fibers
1054
1055
perineurium
1056
Q0529:this sensory corpuscle is a small; encapsulated nn ending found in the dermis of palms; soles; and digits of skin. It is involved in light discriminatory touch of glabrous (hairless) skin.
1057
meissner's corpuscle
1058
Q0530:this sensory corpuscle is a large; encapsulated nn ending found in deeper layers of skin at ligaments; joint capsules; serous membranes; and mesenteries. It is involved in pressure; coarse touch; vibration; and tension.
1059
pacinian corpuscle
1060
Q0531:this sensory corpuscle is a cup-shaped nn ending in dermis of fingertips; hair follicles; hard palate. It is involved in light; crude touch
1061
merkel's corpuscle
1062
Q0532:when you hear high frequency sound; this part of the cochlea is responding (narrow & stiff)
1063
base
1064
Q0533:when you hear low frequency sound; this part of the cochlea is responding (wide and flexible)
1065
apex
1066
1067
1068
Q0535:when you hear high frequency sound; this part of the cochlea is responding (narrow & stiff)
1069
base
1070
1071
ICF (K+)
1072
Q0537:Utricle and saccule of the inner ear contain maculae which detect which type of acceleration?
1073
linear
1074
Q0538:Semicircular canals of the inner ear contain ampullae which detect which type of acceleration?
1075
angular
1076
Q0539:hearing loss in the elderly usually begins with which type of frequency
1077
high frequencies
1078
1079
1080
Q0541:glucose and amino acids cross the blood-brain barrier by which method.
1081
1082
Q0542:what crosses blood brain barrier more redily. water soluble substances or lipid soluble substances?
1083
lipid soluble
1084
Q0543:the hypothalamus wears TAN HATS is a mneumonic for the fxns of the hypothalamus? ;What does the T stand for (2 chances to get it right.
1085
either;1)Thirst;or;2)Temperature
1086
Q0544:the hypothalamus wears TAN HATS is a mneumonic for the fxns of the hypothalamus? ;What does the A stand for (2 chances to get it right.
1087
1088
Q0545:the hypothalamus wears TAN HATS is a mneumonic for the fxns of the hypothalamus? ;What does the A stand for (2 chances to get it right.
1089
1090
Q0546:the hypothalamus wears TAN HATS is a mneumonic for the fxns of the hypothalamus? ;What does the N stand for
1091
1092
Q0547:the hypothalamus wears TAN HATS is a mneumonic for the fxns of the hypothalamus? ;What does the H stand for
1093
Hunger
1094
Q0548:the hypothalamus wears TAN HATS is a mneumonic for the fxns of the hypothalamus? ;What does the S stand for?
1095
Sexual urges
1096
Q0549:destruction of the lateral nucleus of the hypothalamus results in what type of food intake?
1097
1098
Q0550:destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus results in what type of food intake?
1099
1100
1101
parasympathetic
1102
1103
Sypathetic
1104
1105
suprachiasmatic nucleus
1106
1107
supraoptic nucleus
1108
Q0555:This part of the hypothalamus (anterior or posterior) kicks in and regulates heat concervation when cold.
1109
posterior hypothalamus
1110
Q0556:This part of the hypothalamus (anterior or posterior) coordinates cooling when hot.
1111
anterior hypothalamus
1112
1113
septal nucleus
1114
Q0558:The posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis) recieves hypothalamic axonal projections from the supraoptic nucleii and releases what hormone?
1115
ADH
1116
Q0559:The posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis) recieves hypothalamic axonal projections from the paraventricular nucleii and releases what hormone?
1117
oxytocin
1118
Q0560:this part of the brain is the major relay for ascending sensory informationthat ultimately reaches the cortex?
1119
thalamus
1120
Q0561:This geniculate nucleus of the thalamus (lateral or medial) is involved in relaying visual sensory information to the cortex.
1121
lateral
1122
Q0562:This geniculate nucleus of the thalamus (lateral or medial) is involved in relaying auditory sensory information to the cortex.
1123
1124
Q0563:This nucleus of the thalamus is involved in relaying BODY sensation information (proprioception; pressure; pain; touch; vibriation) to the cortex via the dorsal columns & the spinothalamic tract.
1125
1126
Q0564:This nucleus of the thalamus is involved in relaying FACIAL sensation information to the cortex via CN V
1127
1128
Q0565:This nucleus of the thalamus is involved in relaying motor information to the cortex.
1129
1130
Q0566:This "system" of the brain is responsible for the 5 Fs. Feeding; Fighting; Feeling; Flight; and Fucking.
1131
limbic system
1132
Q0567:This part of the brain is important in voluntary movements and making postural adjustments.
1133
basal ganglia
1134
Q0568:Parkinson's dz symptoms are do to decreased imput from this part of the basal gangia.
1135
substantia nigra.
1136
Q0569:In Parkinson's dz the symptoms are due to decreased input from the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia. This leads to _______ (increased or decreased) stimulation of the direct pathway and _______ (increased or decreased) inhibition of the indirect pathway
1137
decreased ;decreased
1138
1139
direct pathway
1140
1141
indirect pathway
1142
Q0572:In the cerebral cortex associative auditoritory fx is associated with which area?
1143
1144
Q0573:In the cerebral cortex speech motor fx is associated with which area?
1145
broca's area
1146
Q0574:Your pt has become recently more and more disorganized. He reports problems concentrating and poor social judgement. What lobe of the brain could be involved.
1147
frontal lobe
1148
Q0575:anterior cerebral artery hemarrage could result in sensory motor problems in which location of the body?
1149
lower extremity
1150
1151
medial surface
1152
Q0577:hemhorrage of the middle cerebral aa would involve what part of the brain.
1153
lateral
1154
1155
motor & sensory deficits of teh trunk-arm-face; Broca's and Wernicke's speech areas
1156
Q0579:Anterior communicating artery lesion is the most common circle of Willis aneurism. It may cause this deficit.
1157
1158
Q0580:Posterior communicating artery is also a common area of aneurism. It can result in this cranial nn palsy.
1159
CN III
1160
Q0581:A stroke in this general part of the circule of wilis can cause general sensory and motor dysfunction and aphasia
1161
anterior circle
1162
Q0582:A stroke in this general part of the circle of wilis can cause cranial n deficits (vertigo; visual deficits); coma; cerebellar deficits (ataxia)
1163
posterior circle
1164
Q0583:this division of the middle cerebral aa is a common site of stroke. It feeds the internal capsule; caudate; putamen; & globus pallidus
1165
lateral striate
1166
Q0584:Cerebral veins drain into the venous sinuses which drain into what?
1167
internal jugular vv
1168
Q0585:lateral ventricle drains into the 3rd ventricle via the foramen of _______.
1169
monro
1170
Q0586:3rd ventricle drains into the 4th ventricle via the aquaduct of ________
1171
sylvius
1172
Q0587:4th ventricle drains into the subarachnoid space via the foramina of ________ (laterally) and the foramina of ________ (medially
1173
Luschka;Magendie
1174
1175
31;8-C;12-T;5-L;5-S;1-coccygeal
1176
1177
L5-S1
1178
1179
L3-L5 ;(spinal cord extends to lower border of L2; Subarachnoid space extends to lwer border of S2)
1180
Q0591:You perform an LP at the level of L4/L5 (iliac crest levels). List the following sx in the order that you will pierce them?;Ligaments ;Arachnoid;Epidural space;Subdural space;skin/superficial fascia;Dural matter;Subarachnoid space CSF
1181
1182
1183
No
1184
Q0593:These columns relay sensation of pressure; vibration; touch; and proprioception to the cerebral cortex.
1185
dorsal columns
1186
Q0594:This fasciculus within the dorsal column relays the sensation of pressure; vibration; touch; and proprioception from the upperbody and extremities to the cerebral cortex.
1187
fascciculus cuneatus
1188
Q0595:This fasciculus within the dorsal column relays the sensation of pressure; vibration; touch; and proprioception from the lower body and extremities to the cerebral cortex.
1189
fasciculus gracilis
1190
Q0596:These tracts relay sensation of pain and temperature up the spinal cord to the cerebral cortex
1191
spinothalamic tract
1192
Q0597:These tracts relay motor signals from the brain down teh spinal cord.
1193
1194
Q0598:what is more lateral in the dorsal columns the fasciculus cuneatus or fasciculs gracilis
1195
fasciculus cuneatus
1196
Q0599:Describe the path of a vibratory (or pressure; touch; proproceptive) sensation as after it signals a sensory nn up until its first synapse (must get 3 key points)
1197
Sensation enters the DORSAL ROOT GANGLION to ascent the spinal cord IPSILATERALLY in the DORSAL COLUMN.
1198
Q0600:Describe the location of the first synapse of that vibratory (or pressure; touch; proproceptive) sensation (must give nucleus and brain location)
1199
1200
Q0601:Describe the 2nd order neuron of that vibratory (or pressure; touch; proproceptive) sensation. (decussation & ascention)
1201
1202
Q0602:Describe the 2nd synapse of that vibratory (or pressure; touch; proproceptive) sensation. (Nucleus and brain location)
1203
1204
Q0603:Describe the final destination of the 3rd order neuron of that vibratory (or pressure; touch; proproceptive)sensation
1205
SENSORY CORTEX
1206
Q0604:Describe the path of an ascending pain (or temperature) sensation after it signals a sensory nn up until its first synapse
1207
travels from sensory nn endigns (A-delta and C-fibers)and enters spinal cord ipsilaterally.
1208
1209
1210
Q0606:Describe the 2nd order neuron transmission of the ascending pain and temperature sensation. (decussation & ascention)
1211
Decussates at the ANTERIOR WHITE COMMISSURE and ascends CONTRALATERAL in the SPINOTHALAMIC TRACT
1212
Q0607:Describe the 2nd synapse of the ascending pain and temp sensation?
1213
VPL of thalamus
1214
Q0608:Describe the 3rd order neuron final destination of the ascending pain and temperature sensation.
1215
sensory cortex
1216
Q0609:You want to move you're right arm? Describe the 1st order neuron pathway.
1217
begin in the LEFT HEMISPHERE PRIMARY MOTOR CORTEX. The UPPER MOTOR NEURONS descends IPSILATERALLY until decussating at CAUDAL MEDULLA (PYRAMIDAL DECUSSATION) and then descend CONTRILATERALLY.
1218
Q0610:You want to move you're right arm? Describe where the 1st synapse occurs.
1219
1220
Q0611:You want to move you're right arm? Describe the 2nd order neuron.
1221
1222
Q0612:You want to move you're right arm? Describe where the 2nd synapse occurs.
1223
neuromuscular jx
1224
Q0613:Give the brachial plexus dx from the BP damage;Upper trunk (C5; C6)
1225
waiters tip
1226
Q0614:Give the diagnosis from the location of Brachial Plexus damage;Lower trunk (T1;C8)
1227
claw hand
1228
Q0615:Give the diagnosis from the location of Brachial Plexus damage;Posterior chord (C5-T1)
1229
Wrist drop
1230
Q0616:Give the diagnosis from the location of Brachial Plexus damage;Long Thoracic Nerve
1231
Winged scapula
1232
1233
Deltoid paralysis
1234
1235
1236
1237
1238
1239
1240
Q0621:Give the diagnosis from the location of Brachial Plexus damage;Ulnar branch
1241
1242
Q0622:What mm protects brachial plexus from injury in the case of the relatively common clavicle fracture
1243
subclavius
1244
Q0623:This nn is known as the "great extensor nn" it provides innervation of the Brachioradialis; Extensors or the wrist and fingers; Supinator; and Triceps.
1245
Radial nn;mneu:RAD=BEST;Brachioradialis; Extensors or the wrist and fingers; Supinator; and Triceps.
1246
1247
Opponens pollicis; Abuctor pollicis brevis; Flexor pollicis brevis;Opponens digiti minimi; Abductor digiti minimi; Flexor digiti minimi;Both groups perform the same fx: Oppose; Abduct; and Flex (OAF)
1248
Q0625:Clinically important Landmarks;-Ischial spine?;-2/3 of the way from the umbilicus to the anterior superior Iliiac Spine;-Iliac Crest
1249
1250
1251
C2
1252
1253
C3
1254
1255
C4
1256
Q0629:Landmark Dermatomes: T4
1257
1258
1259
T7
1260
1261
1262
1263
L1 ;L1 is IL
1264
1265
1266
1267
1268
1269
phrenic nn
1270
Q0636:This work in prallel w/ mm fibers. When a mm is stretched it causes the intrafusal to stretch which stimulates the Ia afferent which in turn stimulates the alpha motor neuron which causes a reflex muscle (extrafusal ) contraction
1271
muscle spindle
1272
Q0637:these monitor mm lenth. For example help you pick up a heavy suitcase when you didn't know how heavy it was.
1273
muscle spindles
1274
Q0638:This senses tension and provides inhibitory feedbach to alpha motor neurons
1275
1276
Q0639:These monitor mm tension. For example make you drop a heavy suitcase you've been holding for too long
1277
1278
Q0640:CNS stimulates the gamma motor neuron which contracts intrafusal fiber and causees an increased sensitivity of the reflex arc
1279
gamma loop
1280
Q0641:Clinical reflexes;-Achillies;-Patella;-Biceps;-Triceps:
1281
S1;2;L3;4;C5;6;C7;8
1282
Q0642:Dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of other toes; sign of UMN lesion; but normal reflex in 1st year of life
1283
Babinski
1284
Q0643:Primitive Reflexes;extension of limbs when startled;(normally disappear w/in 1st year. May reemerge following a frontal lobe lesion)
1285
moro reflex
1286
Q0644:Primitive Reflexes;nipple seeking;(normally disappear w/in 1st year. May reemerge following a frontal lobe lesion)
1287
rooting reflex
1288
Q0645:Primitive Reflexes;grasps objects in palm;(normally disappear w/in 1st year. May reemerge following a frontal lobe lesion)
1289
palmar reflex
1290
Q0646:Primitive Reflexes;large toe dorsiflexes w/ plantar stimulation;(normally disappear w/in 1st year. May reemerge following a frontal lobe lesion)
1291
babinski reflex
1292
1293
1294
1295
CNI-olfactory(S)
1296
1297
1298
Q0650:Give Cranial nn by Fx: Is it Motor or sensory or Both?;Fx;Eye movement (up(lateral & medial) down (lateral); pupil constriction; accommodation; eyelid opening
1299
1300
Q0651:Give Cranial nn by Fx: Is it Motor or sensory or Both?;Fx;Eye movement (down & medial)
1301
1302
1303
CN V: Trigeminal (B)
1304
1305
1306
Q0654:Give Cranial nn by Fx: Is it Motor or sensory or Both?;Fx;Facial mvmt; taste from anterior 2/3 of tongue; lacrimation; salivation (submaxillary and sublingual glands; eyelid closing.
1307
1308
1309
1310
Q0656:Give Cranial nn by Fx: Is it Motor or sensory or Both?;Fx;Taste from post 1/3 of tongue; swallowing; salivation (parotid gland); monitoring carotid body and sinus chemo-and baroreceptors
1311
1312
Q0657:Give Cranial nn by Fx: Is it Motor or sensory or Both?;Fx;Tastte from epiglottic region; swallowing; palate elevaton; talking; throacoabdominal viscera; monitoring aortic arch chemo-and baroreceptors
1313
CN X: Vagus (B)
1314
1315
1316
1317
1318
1319
CN III; IV
1320
1321
CN V-VIII
1322
1323
IX-XII
1324
1325
CN III; IV
1326
Q0664:Cranial nn more lateral in the brainstem tend to be ______; those more medially tend to be _______
1327
sensory;motor
1328
Q0665:This vagal nucleii recieves visceral sensory information (e.g; taste baroreceptors; and gut distension) from cranial nn VII; IX; & X
1329
Nucleus Solitarius
1330
Q0666:This vagal nucleii is responsible for Motor inervation of the pharynx; larynx and upper esophagus (e.g; swallowing; palate elevation)via CN IX;X;XI.
1331
Nucleus aMbiguous
1332
Q0667:This vagal nucleii sends autonomic (parasympathetic) fibers to heart; lungs; and upper GI
1333
1334
1335
CN I
1336
1337
1338
1339
1340
1341
CN V2
1342
1343
CN V3
1344
1345
middle meningeal aa
1346
1347
CN VII; VIII
1348
1349
CN IX;X;XI; jugular vv
1350
1351
CN XII
1352
1353
1354
1355
cavernous sinus
1356
1357
1358
Q0680:pt presents w/ opthalmoplegia; & opthalmic and mandibular sensory loss;what is a possible dx?
1359
1360
1361
1362
1363
1364
Q0683:All mm with the root glossus in their names are innervated by?;Except one exception. What is it and what is the innervation.
1365
1366
Q0684:All mm with the root palat in their names are innervated by this;One exception what is it innervated by?
1367
1368
1369
1370
1371
LR-laterally
1372
Q0687:What reflex? Light in either retina sends a signal via CN III to PRETECTAL nucleii in midbrain that activate bilateral EDINGER-WESTPHAL nucleii;pupls contract bilaterally (consensual reflex)
1373
1374
1375
1376
1377
1378
1379
alpha
1380
Q0691:What waveform?;light sleep;What stage of sleep is this? What percentage of total sleep time is this in young adults?
1381
Theta;1;5%
1382
Q0692:What waveform?;deeper sleep;What stage of sleep is this? What percentage of total sleep time is this in young adults?
1383
1384
Q0693:What waveform?;Deepest sleep; sleepwalking; night terrors; bed wetting;What stage of sleep is this? What percentage of total sleep time is this in young adults?
1385
1386
Q0694:What waveform?;dreaming; loss of motor tone; possibly memory procesing fx; erections; increase brain oxygen use;What stage of sleep is this? What percentage of total sleep time is this in young adults?
1387
1388
Q0695:What type of sleep is this?;increase variable pulse; rapid eye movements; inceased and variable blood pressure; penile/clitoral tumenescence. Occurs every 90 min; duration increases throughout the night.
1389
REM
1390
1391
Ach
1392
1393
decreases
1394
Q0698:neural tube defects are associated with lack of this vitamen intake during pregnancy
1395
folic acid
1396
Q0699:neural tube defects are associated with elevated levels of this in amniotic fluid and maternal serum
1397
1398
Q0700:This describes failure of bony spinal canal to close; but no structural herniation. Usually seen at lower vertebral levels
1399
1400
Q0701:This describes when the meninges herniate throgh a spinal canal defect
1401
meningocele
1402
Q0702:This describes when meninges and spinal cord herniate through spinal canal defects
1403
meningiomyelocele
1404
Q0703:Give the area of the brain lesion?;motor (nonfluent/expressive) aphasia with good comprehension
1405
broca's area
1406
Q0704:Give the area of the brain lesion?;sensory (fluent/receptive) aphagia with poor comprehension
1407
Wernicke's area
1408
Q0705:Give the area of the brain lesion?;conduction aphagia; poor repitition with good comprehension; fluent speech
1409
1410
Q0706:Give the area of the brain lesion?;Kluver-Bucy Syndrome (hyperorality; hypersexuality; disinhibited behavior)
1411
Amygdala (bilateral)
1412
Q0707:Give the area of the brain lesion?;Personality changes and deficits in concentration; orientation; and judgement; may have reemergence of primitive reflexes
1413
frontal lobe
1414
Q0708:Give the area of the brain lesion?;Spacial neglect syndrome (agnosia of the contralateral side of the world)
1415
1416
1417
1418
1419
1420
1421
basal ganglia
1422
1423
cerebellar hemisphere;mneu: cerebellar hemispheres are LATERALLY located--affect LATERAL limbs. Vermis is CENTRALLY located-affects CENTRAL body
1424
1425
cerebellar Vermis ;mneu: cerebellar hemispheres are LATERALLY located--affect LATERAL limbs. Vermis is CENTRALLY located-affects CENTRAL body
1426
1427
subthalamic nucleus
1428
Q0715:Chorea--sudden; jerky; purposeless movements are characteristic of a lesion in this part of the brain. Give the classic dz example.
1429
Basal ganglia;Huntington's dz
1430
Q0716:Athetosis are slow; writhing movements; especially of the fingers. This is characteristic of a lesion in this part of the brain
1431
basal ganglia
1432
Q0717:hemiballismus involves the sudden wild flailing of 1 arm. What kind of lesion does this indicate (& on what side)
1433
1434
Q0718:Broca's lesion is nonfluent aphagia with intact comprehension it involves this gyrus
1435
1436
Q0719:Wernicke's aphagia is fluent aphagia with impared comprehension it involves this gyrus
1437
1438
Q0720:most common cause of dementia in the elderly. Associated w/ senile plaques (extracellular; Beta amyloid core) and neuro fibrillary tangles (intracellular; abnormally phosphorylated tau protiein)
1439
Alzheimers dz
1440
Q0721:Familial form of alziemers is associeted w/ genes on chromosomes 1; 14; 19 (APOE4 allele); and 21 (p-App gene) is thought to be responsible for this percent of alzheimers cases
1441
10%
1442
1443
1444
Q0723:pt presents with dementia; aphasia; parkinsonian aspects; associated with intracellular aggregated tau protien and is specific for frontal and temporal lobes.
1445
Pick's dz
1446
Q0724:pt presents with chorea and dementia. Autopsy shows atrophy of caudate nucleus (loss of GABAergic neurons).
1447
Huntinton's dz
1448
1449
1450
Q0726:dz associated w/ Lewy bodies and depigmentation of the substantia nigra pars compacta (loss of dopaminergic neurons) Rare cases have been linked to exposure to MPTP; a contaminant in illicit sreet drugs.
1451
Parkinson's dz;mneu: TRAP=Tremor (at rest); Rigidity; Akinesia; and Postural instability (you are TRAPped in your body.
1452
Q0727:Dz associated with BOTH LMN & UMN signs; no sensory defect. Also known as Lou Gehrig's dz
1453
1454
Q0728:presents as birth as a "floppy baby"; tongue fasciculations; median age of death is 7 months. Associated w/ degeneration of anterior horns. Autosomal-recessive inheritance.
1455
Werdnig-Hoffmann dz
1456
Q0729:dz follws infection with poliovirus; LMN signs. Associated with degeneration of anterior horns.
1457
Polio
1458
Q0730:Pt presents w malaise; headache; fever; nausea abdominal pain; sore throught. Progreses to signs of LMN lesions--mm weakness & atrophy; fasciculations; fibrillation; & hyporeflexia;LP of CSF shows lymphocytic pleocytosis w/ slight elevation of protein;What do you suspect?
1459
Poliomyelits
1460
Q0731:this dz is causesd by the poliovirus; which is transmitted by the fecal-oral route. It replicates in the oropharynx and small intestine before spreading through the bloodstream to the CNS where it leads to the destruction of cells in the anterior horn of the spinal cord; leading in turn to LMN destruction.
1461
poliomyelitis
1462
Q0732:This dz shows increased prevalence with increased distance from the equator.
1463
MS
1464
Q0733:This dz shows periventricular plaques (areas of oligodendrocyte loss and reactive gliosis)with preservation of actions. There is an increase in protein (IgG) in CSF.
1465
MS
1466
1467
MS
1468
Q0735:With this dz pts often present w/ optic neuritis (sudden loss of vision) MLF syndrome (internuclear ophtalmoplegia); hemiperesis; hemisensory symptoms; or bladder/bowel incontinence.
1469
MS
1470
Q0736:This dz classically presents with scanning speech; intension tremor; and nystagmus. It most often affects women in their 20s and 30s. And is more common in whites. Tx is Beta interferon or immunosuppressant therapy.
1471
MS
1472
Q0737:This demyelinating dz is associated with the JC virus and is seen in 2-4% of AIDS pts.
1473
1474
Q0738:This dz is associated with inflammationand demyelination of peripheral nn and motor fibers of the ventral roots (sensory effects are less severe than motor). This results in symmetric ASCENDING mm weakness begining in distal and lower extremities;LP of CSF shows elevated protein with normal cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation). Elevated protien levels may lead to papilledema;Pts usually recover completely.
1475
1476
1477
1478
1479
partial seizures
1480
1481
1482
1483
1484
Q0743:generalized seizures
1485
1486
1487
1488
1489
myoclonic
1490
1491
tonic-clonic
1492
Q0747:Pt hit in the side of the head with a baseball and fracturs his temperal bone. Rupture of the middle meningeal aa results. CT shows a "bioconvex disk" that does not cross suture lines. What is your dz of the Intracranial hemorrhage?
1493
epidural hematoma
1494
Q0748:Alcoholic presents to the ER. He fell and hit his head the previous night but thought he was fine until neurological symptoms appeared the next morning. MRI shows a crescent-shaped hemorrhage that crosses suture lines. You suspect a venous bleed. What is your dx of this intracranial hemorrhage?
1495
Subdural hematoma
1496
Q0749:Pt complains of "worst headache of their life." You worry it may be a rubture of a berry aneurism. Spinal tap is bloody. What is the d of this intracranial hemorrhage?
1497
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
1498
Q0750:This type of aneurism often occurs at the bifurcation in the circule of Willis. The most common site is the bifurcation of the anterior communicating artery. Risk factors include adult polycystic kidney dz; Ehlers-Danlos syndrome; & Marphan's syndrome.
1499
Berry aneurysms
1500
Q0751:most _______ (childhood v. adult) tumors are supratentorial; while most ________childhood v. adult) tumors are infratentorial.
1501
1502
Q0752:This tumor has an adult peak incidence. It is the most common primary brain tumor and it has a grave prognosis (<1 yr life expectancy). It is found in the cerebral hemisphere and can cross the corpus callosum;"Pseudopalisading" tumor cells border central areas of necrosis and hemorrhage. Stain astrocytes with GFAP.
1503
1504
Q0753:This tumor has an adult peak incidence. It is the second most common primary brain tumor. It most often occurs in the convexities of hemispheres and parasagital region. It arises from arachnoid cells external to the brain. It is usually resectable.
1505
Meningioma
1506
Q0754:On pathology this primary brain tumor shows spindle cells concentrically arranged in a whorled pattern and psammoma bodies (laminated calcification) What is it?
1507
Meningioma
1508
Q0755:This brain tumor has an adult peak incidence. It is the 3rd most common primary brain tumor. It is of Schwann cell origin and is often localized to the 8th nerve. It is resectable. What is it?
1509
Schwannoma
1510
1511
neurofibromatosis type 2
1512
Q0757:This primary brain tumor with an adult peak incidence is relatively rare. It is slow growing and most often occurs in the frontal lobes.
1513
Oligodendroma
1514
Q0758:On pathology this tumor has "fried egg" cells-round nucleii with clear cytoplasm. They are often calcified.
1515
Oligodendroma
1516
Q0759:This priary brain tumor that has an adult peak incidence most commonly comes in a prolactin secreting form. Often it occurs with bilateral hemianopia (due to pressure on optic chiasm)
1517
pituitary adenoma
1518
Q0760:This primary brain tumor has a peak incidence in childhood. It is a diffusely infiltrating glioma. It is most often found in the posterior fossa. It is benign and carries a good prognosis.
1519
1520
Q0761:On pathology this primary brain tumor shows Rosenthal fibers (eosinophilic; corkscrew fibers)
1521
1522
Q0762:This primary brain tumor that occurs with a peak incidence in children is a highly malignant cerabellar tumor. It is a form of primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PneT). It can compress the 4th ventricle causing hydrocephalus. It is highly radiosensitive.
1523
Medulloblastoma
1524
Q0763:On pathology this tumor shows Rosettes or perivascular pseudorosette pattern of cells
1525
medulloblastoma
1526
Q0764:This primary brain tumor that occurs with a peak incidence in children is an ependymal cell tumor most commonly found in the 4th ventricle. It can cause hydrocephalus and carries a poor prognosis.
1527
ependymoma
1528
Q0765:On pathology this tumor has characteristic perivascular pseudorosettes. Rod shaped blepharoplasts (basal ciliary bodies) found near the nucleus
1529
ependymoma
1530
Q0766:This primary brain tumor that occurs with a peak incidence in children is most often cerebeller. It is associated with Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome when found with retinal angiomas. Can produce EPO and lead to secondary polycythemia;On pathology: Foamy cells and high vascularity are characteristic.
1531
Hemangioblastoma
1532
Q0767:This primary brain tumor that occurs with a peak incidence in children is a benign tumor which can be confused with pituitary adenoma (can also cause bitemporal hemianopia). This is the most common childhood supratentorial tumor. It is derived from remnants of Rathke's pouch and calcification is common.
1533
Craniopharyngioma
1534
1535
Both;mneu: LOWER MN= everything is LOWERED (less mm mass; less mm tone; less reflexes; downgoing toes. UPPER MN= everything UP (tone; DTRs; toes)
1536
1537
LMN;mneu: LOWER MN= everything is LOWERED (less mm mass; less mm tone; less reflexes; downgoing toes. UPPER MN= everything UP (tone; DTRs; toes)
1538
1539
LMN;mneu: LOWER MN= everything is LOWERED (less mm mass; less mm tone; less reflexes; downgoing toes. UPPER MN= everything UP (tone; DTRs; toes)
1540
1541
UMN;LMN;mneu: LOWER MN= everything is LOWERED (less mm mass; less mm tone; less reflexes; downgoing toes. UPPER MN= everything UP (tone; DTRs; toes)
1542
1543
UMN;LMN;mneu: LOWER MN= everything is LOWERED (less mm mass; less mm tone; less reflexes; downgoing toes. UPPER MN= everything UP (tone; DTRs; toes)
1544
1545
UMN;mneu: LOWER MN= everything is LOWERED (less mm mass; less mm tone; less reflexes; downgoing toes. UPPER MN= everything UP (tone; DTRs; toes)
1546
Q0774:These diseases result in lower motor neuron lesions only. They are due to destruction of the anterior horns and result in flacid paralysis. [pic]
1547
1548
Q0775:This dz effects mostly the white matter of the cervical region. Random and asymmetrical demyelinating lesions are seen. Often pt presents with scanning speech; intention tremor; and nystagmus [pic]
1549
MS
1550
Q0776:These diseases result in lower motor neuron lesions only. They are due to destruction of the anterior horns and result in flacid paralysis. [pic]
1551
1552
Q0777:This dz involves combined UMN and LMN deficits with no sensory deficit. Pt often presents with both UMN & LMN neuron signs [pic]
1553
ALS
1554
Q0778:When this happpens the only thing spared are the dorsal columns and tract of Lissauer[pic]
1555
1556
Q0779:This results in degeneration of the dorsal roots and dorsal columns. Pt presents with impared proprioception and locomotor ataxia.
1557
1558
Q0780:This resultswhen the crossing fibers of the corticospinal tract are damaged. Pt presents with bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation
1559
syringomyelia
1560
Q0781:This results in demyelination of dorsal columns; lateral corticospinal tracts; and spinocerebellar tracts. Pt often presents with ataxic gait; hyperreflexia; impared position and vibration sense
1561
1562
Q0782:This results when the central canal of the spinal cord is enlarged for some reason. The crossing fibers of spinothalamic tract are thus damaged. Pt shows bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation in upper extremities with preservation of touch sensation.
1563
Syringomyelia
1564
1565
Arnold-Chiari malformation
1566
1567
C8-T1
1568
Q0785:This disorder is due to degeneration of the dorsal columns and dorsal roots due to tertiary syphilis. It results in impared proprioception and locomotor ataxia. Pt often presents with Charccot's joints (neuropathy of the joint); Argyll Robertson pupils (reactive to accommidation but not to light); and absensce of DTRs
1569
Tabes dorsalis
1570
Q0786:Brown Sequard syndrome is a complete hemisection of the spinal cord. Give the findings.
1571
1. Ipsilateral UMN signs(corticospinal tract) below lesion;2) Ipsilateral loss of tactile; vibration; proprioception sense (dorsal column) below lesion;3) Contralateral pain and temperature loss (spinothalamic tract) below the lesion;4) Ipsilateral loss of all sensation at the level of lesion;5) LMN signs at the level of the lesion;*note: if the lesion occurs above T1 the pt will present with Horner's syndrome
1572
Q0787:What are the symptoms of Horner's syndrome?;What spinal levels is it associated with?;What is a common cancer that may result in it?
1573
1)Ptosis (droopy eyelid);2)Anhydrosis (no sweating or flushing of effected side of face;3)Miosis (pupil constriction);HS is associated with lesion of spinal cord above T1;Pancoast tumor
1574
Q0788:The 3 neuron OCULOSYMPATHETIC PATHWAY projects from 1)hypothalamus to the 2)intermediolateral column of the spinal cord; then to the 3) superior cervical (sympathetic) ganglion; and finally to the 4) pupil; the smooth mm of the eyelids; and the sweat glands of the forehead and face. Interruption of these pathways results in _________
1575
Horner's syndrome
1576
Q0789:What nerve was injured?;Pt fractures the shaft of humerus. He presents with "wrist drop" ( extensor carpi radialis longus damage); loss of triceps and brachioradialis reflexes;Loss of sensation on posterior surface of arm and forearm (posterior brachial cutaneous and posterior antebrachial cutaneous)
1577
Radial nn
1578
Q0790:The 3 neuron OCULOSYMPATHETIC PATHWAY projects from 1)hypothalamus to the 2)intermediolateral column of the spinal cord; then to the 3) superior cervical (sympathetic) ganglion; and finally to the 4) pupil; the smooth mm of the eyelids; and the sweat glands of the forehead and face. Interruption of these pathways results in _________
1579
Horner's syndrome
1580
Q0791:What nerve was injured?;Pt reports hitting his "funny bone" (medial epicondyle) hard! He now has impared wrist flexion and adduction. He can't adduct his thumb or the 4th and 5th digits resulting in a "claw hand";He has a loss of sensation over the medial palm and his pinky finger.
1581
ulnar
1582
Q0792:What nerve was injured? ;pt experiences a break through the surgical neck of the humerus or has an anterior shoulder dislocation. He now has trouble abducting his arm above 30 degrees.
1583
Axillary
1584
Q0793:What nerve was injured?;Pt presents with a loss of function of biceps; coracobrachialis; and brachialis muscle. He has no biceps reflex?
1585
musculocutaneous
1586
1587
radial
1588
1589
median
1590
1591
ulnar
1592
Q0797:Child presents with "waiter's tip" appearance: arm hanging to one side (paralysis of abductors); medially rotated (paralysis of lateral rotators); and forarm is pronator (loss of biceps;What is the dx? What are the nerve roots and what are you concerned about?
1593
Erb-Duchenne palsy;traction tear of the upper trunk of the brachial plexis (C5 & C6 roots) often follows blow to shoulder;could be due to trauma during delivery or child abuse.
1594
Q0798:What nerve was injured?;Pt presents with loss of dorsiflexion resulting in "foot drop"
1595
Common peroneal nerve (L4-S2);PED= Peroneal Everts & Dorsiflexes; if injured; foot is dropPED
1596
1597
anterior;lateral
1598
1599
1600
Q0801:What nn is damaged?;Pt presents with loss of knee extension and deminished pateller reflex.
1601
Femoral (L2-L4)
1602
1603
Obturator
1604
Q0803:Pt presents with;1) atrophy of the thenar and hypothenar eminences;2) atrophy of the interosseous mm;3) sensory deficits on the medial side of the forearmand hand;4) disappearance of the radial pulse upon moving the head towards the opposite side;What do you suspect? Discribe this disorder?
1605
Thoraci outlet syndrome (Klumpke's palsy);Compression of subclavian aa and inferior trunk of brachial plexus (C8;T1)
1606
Q0804:In a LMN lesion of CN XII the tongue will deviate _____ (away or towards) the side of the lesion?
1607
1608
Q0805:In a CN V motor lesion the jaw deviates ______ (towards or away) the side of the lesion
1609
towards
1610
Q0806:in a CN X lesion the uvula will deviate _______ (towards or away) of the side of the lesion.
1611
away
1612
Q0807:In a unilateral lesion of the cerebellum the pt tends to fall _______ (towards or away) the side of the lesion.
1613
towards
1614
Q0808:In a CN XI lesion there is weakness turning head to the side _________ (ipsi or contralateral) to the lesion. There is also a shoulder droop (ipsi or contralateral) to the lesion
1615
contralateral;ipsilateral
1616
Q0809:pt presents with paralysis of the lower half his face only. What do you suspect.
1617
contralateral UMN lesion ;(either of motor cortex or connection between cortex and facial nucleus)
1618
Q0810:pt presents with paralysis of one side of his entire face (upper and lower). What do you suspect?
1619
1620
Q0811:This disorder is due to a destruction of the facial nucleus itself or it's brancchial efferent fibers (facial nn). It results in ipsilateral facial paralysis with an inability to close the eye of the involved side. It is often idiopathic and there is gradual recovery in most cases
1621
Bell's palsy
1622
1623
Aids; Lyme dz; Sarcoidosis; Tumors; Diabetes;mneu: ALexander BELL with STD: AIDS; Lyme; Sarcoid; Tumors; Diabetes
1624
1625
1626
Q0814:These 3 herniation syndrome can result in coma and death if brain stem is compressed.
1627
1)downward transtentoral (central herniation;2) Uncal herniation (Uncus=medial temporal lobe);3)Cerebellar tonsillar herniation into the foramen magnum
1628
Q0815:In the case of an uncal herniation you may see ipsilateral dilated pupil/ptosis. This is due to what?
1629
Stretching of CN III
1630
Q0816:In the case of an uncal herniation you may see contralateral homonymous hemianopia. This is due to what?
1631
1632
Q0817:In the case of an uncal herniation you may see ipsilateral paresis. This is due to what?
1633
1634
Q0818:In the case of an uncal herniation you may see Duret hemorrhages (paramedian artery rupture). This is due to
1635
1636
Q0819:Pt can't see at all out of his right eye (right anopia) Where is the lesion?
1637
Right optic nn
1638
Q0820:Pts has bilateral temporal visual field defects (bitemporal hemianopia) Where is the lesion?
1639
Optic chiasm
1640
Q0821:Pt can't see the left visual field in either eye (Left homonymous hemianopia) Where is the lesion?
1641
1642
Q0822:Pt has Left upper quadratic anopsia (cant see up and to the right on both sides) Where is the lesion?
1643
1644
Q0823:Pt has left lower quandrantic anopia (can't see down and to the left in either eye) Where is the lesion?
1645
1646
1647
???visual cortex??
1648
Q0825:this syndrome is seen in many patients with multiple sclerosis. It results in medial rectus palsy on attempted lateral gaze & nystagmus in the abducting eye. Convergence is normal.
1649
1650
Q0826:explain the pathology of Internuclear opthalmoplegia (Medial longitudinal fasciculus [MLF] syndrome)[pic]
1651
When looking left; the left nucleus of CN VI fires; which contracts the left lateral rectus and stimulates the contralateral (right) nucleus of CN III via the right MLF to contract the right medial rectus. Lesion in the MLF interrupts this process.
1652
Q0827:give the dz indicated by the following neurotransmitter changes;increased NE;decreased GABA;decreased 5HT
1653
Anxiety
1654
Q0828:give the dz indicated by the following neurotransmitter changes;decreased NE & decreased 5HT
1655
depression
1656
1657
Alzheimer's dementia
1658
1659
Huntington's dz
1660
1661
Schizophrenia
1662
1663
Parkinson's dz
1664
Q0833:When a person becomes disoriented they generally lose concept of person(their name; who they are); place (where they are); and time. In what order does this loss usually occur?
1665
1st-time;2nd-place;last-person
1666
Q0834:what is anosognosia?
1667
1668
Q0835:what is autotopagnosia
1669
1670
Q0836:what is depersonalization
1671
1672
1673
1674
1675
1676
1677
maladaptive pattern of substance use defined as 3 or more of the follwing signs in 1 yr;1)tolerance;2)withrawal;3)substance taken in larger amounts or over longer period of time than desired;4) persistant desire or attempts to cut down;5) significant energy spent obtaining; using; or recovering from substance;6 Important social; occupational; or recreational activities reduced because of substance use;7) continued use in spite of knowing the problems it causes
1678
1679
maladaptive pattern leading to clinically significant imparment or distress. Symptoms have not met criteria for substance dependance. 1 or more of the follwing in 1 yr;1) recurrent use resulting in failure to fulfill major obligations at work; school; or home;2) recurrent use in physically hazardous situations;3) recurrent substance-related legal problems;4)Continued use in spite of problems caused by use
1680
Q0841:intoxication of this drug results in disinhibition; emotional lability; slurred speech; ataxia; coma; blackouts.
1681
alcohol
1682
1683
alcohol
1684
Q0843:withdrawal from this drug results in tremor tachycardia; hypertension; malaise; nausea; seizures; delerium tremens (DTs); tremulousness; agitation; hallucinations
1685
alcohol
1686
Q0844:intoxication of this substance results in CNS depression; nausea and vomiting; constipation; pupillary constriction (pinpoint pupils); seizures;*overdose is life threatening
1687
opiods
1688
Q0845:withdrawal from this substance results in anxiety; insomnia; anorexia; sweating; dilated pupils; piloerection (goose pimples); fever; rhinorrhea; nausea; stomach cramps; diarrhea ("flulike" symptoms); yawning
1689
opiods
1690
Q0846:intoxication of this substance results in psychomotor agitation; impared judgement; pupillary dilation; hypertension; tachycardia; euphoria; prolonged wakefulness and attention; cardiac arrhythmias; delusions; hallucinations; fever
1691
amphetamines
1692
Q0847:withdrawal from this substance results in post use "crash"; including depression; lethargy; headache; stomach cramps; hunger; hypersomnolence
1693
amphetamines
1694
Q0848:intoxication of with this substance results in euphoria; psychomotor agitation; impared judgement; tachycardia; pupillary dilation; hypertension; hallucinations (including tactile); paranoid ideations; angina; sudden cardiac death
1695
cocaine
1696
Q0849:withdrawal from this substance results in a post-use "crash"; including severe depression and suicidality; hypersomnolence; fatigue; malaise; and severe psychological craving
1697
cocaine
1698
Q0850:intoxication with this substance results in belligerence; impulsiveness; fever; psychomotor agitation; vertical and horizontal nystagmus; tachycardia; ataxia; homicidality; psychosis; delirium
1699
PCP
1700
Q0851:with this drug recurrence of intoxication symptoms can occur due to reabsorption in the GI tract; resulting in a sudden onset of severe; random; homicidal violence
1701
PCP
1702
Q0852:intoxication with this substance can result in marked anxiety or depression; delusions; visual hallucinations; flashbacks; and pupil dilation
1703
LSD
1704
Q0853:Intoxication with this substance can result in euphoria; anxiety; paranoid delusions; perception of slowed time; impared judgement; social withdrawal; increased appetite; dry moth; hallucinations
1705
Marijuana
1706
Q0854:Intoxication with this drug is dangerous because of its low safety margin. higher doses result in respiratory depression
1707
barbituates
1708
Q0855:withdrawal from this substance results in anxiety; seizures; delerium; and life-threatening cardiovascular collapse
1709
barbiturates
1710
Q0856:These medications have a greater safety margin than barbituates. Intoxication can result in amnesia; ataxia; somnolence; minor respiratory depression.
1711
benzodiazepines
1712
1713
benzodiazepines
1714
Q0858:withdrawal from these drugs results in rebound anxiety; seizures; tremor; and insomnia
1715
benzodiazepines
1716
Q0859:excessive use of this drug results in restlessness; insomnia; increased diuresis; muscle twitching; and cardiac arrhythmias
1717
caffeine
1718
Q0860:withdrawal from this drug results in headache; lethargy; depression; and weight gain
1719
caffiene
1720
Q0861:use of this drug results in restlessness; insomnia; anxiety; and arrhythmias-no increased diuresis
1721
nicotine
1722
Q0862:withdrawal from this drug results in irritability; headache; anxiety; weight gain; and extreme cravings
1723
nicotine
1724
Q0863:use of this drug results in restlessness; insomnia; anxiety; and arrhythmias-no increased diuresis
1725
nicotine
1726
Q0864:This dz is charachterized by physiologic tolerance and alcohol dependence with symptoms of withdrawal (tremor; tachycardia; hypertension; malaise; nausea; DTs when intake is interrupted. Pts will show continued drinking despite medical and social contradictions and life disruptions.
1727
Alcoholism
1728
1729
disulfiram
1730
1731
image p. 360
1732
1733
1734
Q0868:In alcoholics in withdrawal what occurs 1st-autonomic system hyperactivity (tachycardia; tremors; anxiety) or psychotic symptoms (hallucinations; delusions)
1735
1736
1737
benzodiazpenes
1738
Q0870:Long-term alcohol use leads to this involving micronodular cirrhosis with accompaning symptoms of jaundice; hypoalbuminemia; coagulation factor deficiencies; and portal hypertension.
1739
alcoholic cirrhosis
1740
Q0871:This syndrome caused by vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency; is common in malnourished alcoholics. They classically present with a triad of confusion; opthallmoplegia; and ataxia. This may progress to memory loss; confabulation; and personality change. It is associated with periventricular hemorrhage/necrosis; especially in mamillary bodies.
1741
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
1742
1743
IV vitamine B1 (thiamine)
1744
Q0873:this complication of alcoholism consists of longitudinal lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction caused by excessive vomiting. In contrast to esophageal varices it is associated with pain.
1745
Mallory-Weiss syndrome
1746
1747
1748
Q0875:addicts of this drug are at increase risk of hepatitis; abscesses; overdose; hemorrhoids; AIDS; and right sided endocarditis.
1749
heroine
1750
1751
1752
Q0877:This long acting oral opiate is used for heroine detoxification or long term maitenance
1753
methadone
1754
Q0878:this psychiatric illnesss involves rapid decrease in attention span and level of arousal. Pts show disorganized thinking; have hallucinations; illusions; misperceptions; disturbance in sleep wake cycle; and cognitive disfunction;The key to diagnosis is its rapid onset and the waxing and waning of level of conciousness.
1755
1756
Q0879:this is the most common psychiatric illness on medical and surgical floors.
1757
delerium
1758
Q0880:delerium is often iatrogenic and reversable. Look at pts meds for ones with this effect.
1759
anticholenergic
1760
Q0881:This psychiatric illness ivolves a gradual decrease in cognition--memory deficits; aphasia; apraxia; agnosia; loss of abstract thought; behavior/ personality changes; and impared judgement;Be sure to differentiate this from delerium. The key to diognosis is the more gradual onset and the fact that pt is alert with no change in his/her level of conciousness.
1761
1762
Q0882:In elderly pts this disease can often present like dementia.
1763
depression
1764
1765
characterized by at least 5 of the following for 2 weeks; including either depressed mood or anhedionia;1) Sleep disturbance;2)decreased Interest ;3)Guilt or feelings of worthlessness;4)decreased Energy;5)decreased Concentration;6)?Appetite;7)Psychomotor retardation/agitation;8)Suicidal ideations;mneu: SIG E CAPS
1766
Q0884:Lifetime prevalence of a major depressive episode is _____ for males and _____ for females
1767
1768
Q0885:This variation on Major depressive disorders invoves 2 or more major depressive episodes with a symptom free interval of 2 months
1769
1770
1771
dysthymia
1772
Q0887:Pts with depression typically have the follwing 3 changes in their sleep stages.
1773
1)decreased slow wave sleep;2)decreased REM latency;3) Early-morning awakening (important screening question
1774
1775
Sex (male);Age (teenager or elderly);Depression;Previous attempt;Etoh (or drug use);Rational thinking (loss of);Sickness (3 perscriptions) ;Organized plan;No spouce (esp if childless);Social support lacking;mneu: SAD PERSONS
1776
1777
1778
1779
1780
1781
1782
Q0892:This psychiatric disorder is characterized by a period of abnormally and persistantly elevated; expansive; or irritable mood lasting at least one week.
1783
Manic episode
1784
1785
During a manic episode; 3 or more of the follwing are present;1) Distractibility;2) Irresponsibility;3) Grandiosity;4) Flight of ideas;5)increased Activity;6)decreased Sleep;7)Talkativeness;mneu: DIG FAST
1786
Q0894:this psychiatric disturbance is like a manic episode except mood disturbance is not severe enough to cause marked imparement in social and/or occupational functioning or to necessitate hospitalization. There are no psychotic features
1787
Hypomanic episode
1788
Q0895:In this disorder pt consciosly fakes or claims to have a disorder in order to attain a specific gain (e.g; avoiding work; obtaining drugs)
1789
malingering
1790
1791
lithium
1792
1793
1794
Q0898:In this disorder the pt conciously creates symptoms in order to assume the "sick role" and to get medical attention.
1795
factitious disorder
1796
Q0899:This form of factitious disorder is manifested by a chronic history of multiple hospital admissions and willingness to receive invasive procedures.
1797
Munchausen's syndrome
1798
Q0900:This factitious disorder is seen when an illness in the child is caused by the parent. The motivation is unconscious. It is a form of child abuse and must be reported.
1799
1800
Q0901:In this psychiatric disorder both illness production and motivation are unconcious drives. These are more common in women and manifest themselves in a variety of ways.
1801
Somatoform disorders
1802
Q0902:Type of somatoform disorder in which pt presents with motor or sensory symptoms (e.g; paralysis; pseudoseizure) that suggest neurologic of physical disorder; but tests and physical exam are negative. Onset of symptoms often follow an acute stressor. Pt may seem strangely unconcerned about symptoms
1803
Conversion disorder
1804
Q0903:Type of somatoform disorder in which pt presents with prolonged pain that is not explained completely by an illness.
1805
1806
Q0904:Type of somatoform disorder in which pt presents with preoccupation with and fear of having a serious illness in spite of medical reassurance
1807
hypochondriasis
1808
Q0905:Type of somatoform disorder in which pt presents with a variety of complaints in multiple organ sytems with no identifiable underlying physical findings
1809
Somatization disorder
1810
Q0906:Type of somatoform disorder in which pt presents with preoccupation with minor or imagined physical flaws. Pts often seek cosmetic surgery
1811
1812
Q0907:Type of somatoform disorder in which pt presents with false belief of being pregnant associated with objective physical signs of pregnancy
1813
pseudocyesis
1814
Q0908:What type of gain: primary; secondary; tertiary?;What the symmptom does for the patients internal psychic economy
1815
primary gain
1816
Q0909:What type of gain: primary; secondary; tertiary?;What the symptom gets the patient (sympathy; attention)
1817
secondary gain
1818
Q0910:What type of gain: primary; secondary; tertiary?;What the caretaker gets (like an doctor on an interesting case)
1819
tertiary
1820
1821
recurrent periods of intense fear and discomfort peaking in 10 minutes with 4 of the following;Palpitations;Paresthesias;Abdominal distress;Nausa;Intense fear of dying or losing control;lIght headedness;Chest pain;Chills;Choking;disConnectedness;Sweating ;Shaking;Shortness of breath;mneu: PPANIICCCCSSS;note: panic disorder is descrribed in context of occurrence (e.g; panic d/o w/ agoraphobia)
1822
Q0912:This psychiatric disorder involves a specific fear that is excessive or unreasonable. It is cued by presence or anticipation of a specific object or situation. Exposue to this object or situation provokes an anxiety response. Person recognizes the fear is excessive (insight). This fear interfears with normal routine.
1823
specific phobia
1824
1825
systematic desensitation
1826
Q0914:gamophobia
1827
fear of marrage
1828
Q0915:algophobia
1829
fear of pain
1830
Q0916:acrophobia
1831
fear of heights
1832
Q0917:agoraphobia
1833
1834
Q0918:In this disorder person experiences or witnesses an event that involved actual or threatened death or serious injury. response involves intense fear; helplessness; or horror. The traumatic event is persistently reexperienced as nightmares or flashbacks. The person persistantly avoids stimuli associated with the trauma and experiences persistant symptoms of increased arousal. Disturbance lasts > 1mo and cuases distress or socia/occupation imparent. This disorder often follwos acute stress disorder which lasts up to 2-4 weeks.
1835
1836
Q0919:In this disorder emotional symptoms (anxiety; depression) causing impairment follw an identifiable psychosocial stressor (e.g; divorse; moving). This lasts less than 6 months
1837
Adjustment disorder
1838
Q0920:This psychiatric disorder is characterized by uncontrollable anxiety for at least 6 months that is unrelated to a specific person; situation; or event. Sleep disturbance; fatigue; and difficulty concentrating are common.
1839
1840
Q0921:children with this disorder have severe communication problems and difficulty forming relationships. This disorder is characterized by repetitive behavior; unusual abilities (savants); and usually below-normal intelligence.
1841
Autistic disorder
1842
Q0922:This disorder is a milder form of autism involving problems with social relationships and repetitive behavior. These children are of normal intellegence and lack social or cognitive deficits.
1843
Asperger disorder
1844
Q0923:This is an X-linked disorder seen only in girls (affected males die in utero). It is characterized by a loss of development and mental reatardation appearing at approximately age 4. There is steriotyped hand-wringing.
1845
Rett disorder
1846
Q0924:this disorder is characterized by limited attention span and hyperactivity. Children are emotionally labile; impulsive; and prone to accidents. These children typically have normal intellegence.
1847
1848
1849
methylphenidate
1850
Q0926:This psychiatric disorder of childhood is characterized by behavior that continually violates social norms. At >18 y/o this disorder is recategorized as antisocial personality disorder.
1851
Conduct disorder
1852
1853
1854
Q0928:This psychiatric disorder of childhood is characterized by motor/vocal tics and involuntary profanity. Onset is <18 y/o.
1855
Tourette's syndrome
1856
1857
haloperidol
1858
Q0930:This psychiatric disorder of childhood is characterized by fear of loss of attachment figure leading to factitious physical complaints to avoid going to school. The common onset is age 7-8.
1859
1860
Q0931:This eating disorder is commonly seen in adolescent girls and coexists with depression. It is characterized by excessive dieting; body image distortion; and increased exercise. Pts often experience severe weight loss; amenorrhea; anemia and eventually electrolyte disturbance.
1861
Anerexia nervosa
1862
Q0932:This eating disorder is characterized by binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting or use of laxitives. Body weight is typically normal. Parotitis; enamel erosion; electrolyte disturbances; alkalosis; and dorsal hand calluses are common physical exam/lab findings.
1863
Bulimia nervosa
1864
1865
Hallucinations
1866
1867
illusions
1868
Q0935:Hallucinations v. Illusion v. Delusions;______ are false beliefs not shared with other members of culture/subculture that are firmly maintained in spite of obvious proof to the contrary
1869
Delusions
1870
Q0936:Delusions v. Loose associations;a _____ is a disorder in the CONTENT of the thought (the actual idea)
1871
delusion
1872
Q0937:Delusions v. Loose associations;a _____ is a disorder in the FORM of the thought (the way the ideas are tied together)
1873
loose association
1874
1875
1876
1877
olfactory
1878
1879
gustatory
1880
Q0941:hallucination types;_____ hallucinations are common in DTs. Also seen in cocaine abusers ("cocaine bugs")
1881
tactile hallucination
1882
Q0942:formication
1883
1884
1885
1886
1887
1888
Q0945:In this disorder a person stops brathing for at least 10 seconds repeatedly during sleep;It is associated with obesit; loud snoring; systemic/pulmonary hypertension; arrhythmias; and possibly sudden death;The individual may become chronically tired.
1889
sleep apnea
1890
1891
1892
Q0947:In this subcagegory of sleep apnea; the pt shows respiratory effort against airway obstruction
1893
1894
Q0948:This diagnosis is categorizecd by disordered sleepwake cycles. It may include hypnagogic (just before sleep) or hypnopompic (just before waking) hallucinations. The person's sleep episodes start off with REM sleep.
1895
narcolepsy
1896
Q0949:This form of narcolepsy involves a loss of all muscle tone follwing a strong emotional stimulus.
1897
cataplexy
1898
1899
ampetamines
1900
Q0951:This psychiatric illness is characterized by periods of psychosis and disturbed behavior with adecline in functioning lasting >6months.
1901
schizophrenia
1902
1903
2 or more of the following symptoms (1-4 are positive symptoms);1)Delusions;2)Hallucinations ;3)Disorganized thought;4) Disorganized or catatonic behavior;5. "negative symptoms"-flat affect; social withdrawal; lack of motivation; lack of speech or thought.
1904
1905
auditory
1906
1907
loose associations
1908
Q0955:in the etiology of schizophrenia; what is more important; genetic or enviornmental factors
1909
genetic
1910
1911
schizophreniform disorder
1912
1913
1914
1915
1.50%
1916
1917
males
1918
1919
schizoaffective disorder
1920
1921
1922
Q0962:This is an enduring pattern of perceiving; relating to; and thinking about the enviornment and oneself that is exhibited in a wide reange of important social and personal contexts.
1923
personality trait
1924
Q0963:This results when personality patterns become inflexible and maladaptive; causing impairment in social or occupational functioning or subjective disress. The person is usually not aware of the problem. These disordered patterns are stable only by early adulthood and not usually diagnosed in children.
1925
personality disorders
1926
Q0964:This cluster of personality disorders usually present as "odd" or "eccentric. They cannot develop meaningful social relationships. Give cluster and types.
1927
1928
Q0965:This cluster of personality disorders shows no psychosis but there is a genetic association with schizophrenia.
1929
1930
1931
1932
1933
projection
1934
Q0968:personality disorder characterized by voluntary social withdrawal and limited emotional expression
1935
schizoid
1936
Q0969:personality disorder characterized by interpersonal awkwardness; odd beliefs or magical thinking. Often eccentric in appearance.
1937
Schizotypal
1938
Q0970:This cluster of personality disorders is dramatic; emotiona; and eratic;Give the cluster and the subtypes
1939
1940
Q0971:This cluster of personality disorders has a genetic associateion with mood disorders and subsance abuse.
1941
1942
Q0972:personality disorder characterized by disregard and violation of the rights of others; usually manifesting itself in criminality. It affects males > females. Before 18 y/o it is called conduct disorder
1943
1944
Q0973:personality disorder characterized by unstable mood and interpersonal relationships; impulsiveness; sense of emptiness. Effects females more than males
1945
Borderline
1946
1947
histrionic
1948
Q0975:personality disorder characterized by grandiosity & sense of entitlement. May react to criticism with rage.
1949
Narcissistic
1950
Q0976:This cluster of personality disorders is charicterized by anxiety and fear. Give the cluster and the types.
1951
Cluster C: "Worried";1)avoidant;2)obsessivecompulsive;3)dependant
1952
Q0977:This cluster of personality disorders has a genetic association with anxiety diosrders.
1953
Cluster C: "Worried";1)avoidant;2)obsessivecompulsive;3)dependant
1954
Q0978:personality disorder characterized by sensitivity to rejection; socially inhibited; timid; feelings of inadequacy
1955
avoidant
1956
1957
obsessive-compulsive
1958
Q0980:personality disorder characterized by submissive and clinging behavior. They have an excessive need to be taken care of and low self confidence.
1959
dependant
1960
1961
parkinsonism
1962
Q0982:The treatments for parkinson's dz can be summarized by the mneumonic BALSA. What does this stand for
1963
1964
Q0983:This drug is an erogot alkaloid an a partial dopamine agonist. The strategy behind this drug is to antagonize dopamine receptors.
1965
bromocriptine
1966
1967
Amantadine
1968
1969
L-dopa/carbidopa
1970
Q0986:This drug is a selective MAO type B ihibitor. The strategy of this Parkensons drug is that it prevents dopamine breakdown.
1971
Selegiline
1972
Q0987:This drug is a COMT ihibitor. The strategy of these Parkensons drugs is that it prevents dopamine breakdown.
1973
1974
Q0988:This drug is an antimuscarinic and thus curbs excess cholinergic activity seen in parkinsons. It improves tremor and rigitity but has little effect on bradykinesia
1975
Benzotropine
1976
Q0989:The MOA of this parkinson's drug is that it increased levels of dopamine in the brain. Unlike dopamine; this drug can cross the blood-brain barrier and is converted by dopa decarboxylase in the CNS to dopamine
1977
L-dopa (levvodopa)/carbidopa
1978
1979
1980
1981
carbidopa is a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor. It is given with L-dopa inorder to limit the peripheral side effects.
1982
Q0992:Long term use of ______ can lead to the of dyskinesia follwing administraiton; and akinesia between doses.
1983
L-dopa
1984
Q0993:This parkinsons drug acts by selectively inhibiting MAO-B; therby increased the availabilty of dopamine.
1985
Selegine
1986
Q0994:This drug is a 5-HT (1D) agonist. It causes vasoconstriction and is used for acute migrane or cluster headache attacks.
1987
Sumatriptan
1988
Q0995:This drug for acute migrane & cluster headache attacks has toxicities that include coronary vasosasm; thereore it is contraindicated in pts with CAD or Prinzmetal's angina
1989
Sumatriptan
1990
Q0996:This drug is 1st line for tonic clonic siezures and status epilepticus prophylaxis. It acts by increased Na+ channel inactivation
1991
phenytoin
1992
Q0997:This drug is first line for tonic clonic siexures and trigeminal neuralgia. It acts by increased Na+ channel inactivation.
1993
Carbazepine
1994
Q0998:This siezure medication blocks voltage gaited Na+ channels; but has no effect on GABA release
1995
Lamotrigine
1996
Q0999:This epilepsy medication acts to increased GABA release. It is also used for peripheral neuropathy
1997
Gabapentin
1998
Q1000:This epilepsy medication acts to block Na+ channels and increased GABA release.
1999
topiramate
2000
Q1001:This epilepsy medication acts to increased GABA action. It is 1st line in pregnant women & children
2001
phenobarbital
2002
Q1002:This epilepsy medication acts to increased Na+ channel inactivation & increased GABA concentration. It is 1st line for tonic-clonic/ myoclonic seizures and can be used for absence seizures.
2003
valproic acid
2004
Q1003:This epilepsy medication is 1st line for absence seizures. It acts by blocking the thalamic T-type Ca++ channesls.
2005
ethsuximide
2006
Q1004:This epilepsyy drug acts by increased GABA action. It is first line for acute status epilepticus. It is also usd for seizures of eclampsia (however NOT 1st line--which is MgSO4)
2007
Benzodiazepines;(diazepam or lorazepam)
2008
Q1005:Give the epilepsy drug associated with the following toxicities;sedation; tolerance; dependence
2009
benzodiazepines
2010
Q1006:Give the epilepsy drug associated with the following toxicities;Diplopia; ataxia; blood dyscrasias (agranulocytosis; aplastic anemia); liver toicity; teratogenesis; induction of cytochrome P-450.
2011
Carbamazepine
2012
Q1007:Give the epilepsy drug associated with the following toxicities;GI distress; lethargy; headache; uticaria; StevensJohnson syndrome
2013
Ethosuximide
2014
Q1008:Give the epilepsy drug associated with the following toxicities;Sedation; tolerance; dependance; induction of cytocrome P-450.
2015
Phenobarbital
2016
Q1009:Give the epilepsy drug associated with the following toxicities;Nystagmus; diplopia; ataxia; sedaton; gingival hyperplasia; hirsuitism; megaloblastic anemia; teratogenesis; SLE-like syndrome; induction of cytocrome P-450.
2017
Phenytoin
2018
Q1010:Give the epilepsy drug associated with the following toxicities;GI distress; rare but fatal hypatotoxicity (measure LFTs); neural tube defects in fetus (spinal bifida); tremor; weight gain.
2019
Valproic acid
2020
Q1011:Give the epilepsy drug associated with the following toxicities;Stevens-Johnson syndrome
2021
Lamotrigine
2022
Q1012:Give the epilepsy drug associated with the following toxicities;Sedation; ataxia
2023
Gabapentin
2024
Q1013:Give the epilepsy drug associated with the following toxicities;Sedation; mental dulling; kidney stones; weight loss
2025
Topiramate
2026
Q1014:The mechanism of this drug is blockade of Na+ channels; inhibition of glutamate release from exitatory presynaptic neurons
2027
phenytoin
2028
Q1015:This drug is 1st line for tonic clonic siezures and for prophylaxis of status epilepticus. It is also a class IB antiarrhythmic.
2029
phenytoin
2030
Q1016:The toxicities of this drug include: nystagmus; ataxia; diplopia; sedation; SLE-like syndrome; induciton of cytocrome P-450. Chronic use produces gingival hyperplasia in children; peripheral neuropathy; hirsutism; megaloblastic anemia (decreased B12); and malignant hyperthermia (rare). It is also teratogenic.
2031
phenytoin
2032
Q1017:This drug acts by facilitating GABA action by increased duration of Cl- channel opening; thus decreased neuron firing
2033
2034
Q1018:This group of drugs is used as a sedative for anxiety; siezures; insomnia; induction of anesthesia
2035
2036
Q1019:Toxicities of this drug include dependence; additivee CNS depression effects with etoh; respiratory of CV depession (can lead to death. There are also many drug interactions owing to induction of liver microsomal enzymes (cytocrome P-450)
2037
2038
2039
2040
2041
2042
Q1022:The mechanism of this drug is to facilitate GABA action by increased frequency of Cl- channel opening
2043
Benzodiazepines (Diazepam; lorazepam; triazolam; temazepam; oxazepam; midazolam; chlordiazepoxide; alprazolam);mneu: FREnzodiazepenes (increased FREquency)
2044
Q1023:Most benzodiazepines have long half-lives and active metabolites. The short acting ones are what? (3)
2045
2046
Q1024:These drugs are used to treat anxiety; spasticity; status epilepticus; detoxification (esp etoh w/drawl[DTs]); night terrors; & sleep walking.
2047
2048
Q1025:Toxicity of this drug includes dependence; additive CNS depression effects with alcohol. Less risk of respiratory depressiona nd coma than with barbituates.
2049
2050
2051
2052
Q1027:These drugs are used to treat anxiety; spasticity; status epilepticus; detoxification (esp etoh w/drawl[DTs]); night terrors; & sleep walking.
2053
2054
2055
barbituates
2056
Q1029:diazepam; lorazepam; triazolam; temazepam; oxazepam; midazolam; chlordiazepoxide; alprazolam are _______ (drug category)
2057
Benzodiazepines
2058
2059
Antipsychotics (neuroleptics)
2060
2061
antipsychotics (neuroleptics
2062
Q1032:This drug category is used to treat psychosis; acute mania; and tourettes syndrome
2063
antipsychotics
2064
Q1033:Toxicies of this group of drugs include extrapyramidal system (EPS side effects)
2065
antipsychotics
2066
Q1034:Toxicies of this group of drugs include endocrine side effects (e.g; dopamine receptor antagonism hyperprolactinemiagynomastia)
2067
antipsychotics
2068
Q1035:Toxicies of this group of drugs include side effects arising from muscarinic block (dry mouth &constipation); alpha receptors (hypotension) and histamine receptors (sedation)
2069
antipsychotics
2070
Q1036:This toxicity of antipsychotic involves symptoms that include rigidity; myoglobinuria; autonomic instability; hyperpyrexia.
2071
2072
2073
2074
Q1038:This antipsychotic toxicity includes stereotypic oralfacal movements; probably due to dopamine receptor sensitization; which results from long term antipsychotic use.
2075
Tarditive dyskinesia
2076
2077
2078
2079
2080
2081
Atypical Antipsychotics
2082
Q1042:These drugs are used in treatment of schizophrenia; they are useful for positive and negative symptoms and they have fewer extrapyramidal and anticholinergic side effects than other antipsychotics.
2083
Atypical antipsychotics
2084
Q1043:This atypical antipsychotic is also used for OCD; anxiety disorder; depression; mania; and tourettes syndrome
2085
Olanzapine
2086
Q1044:This atypical antipsychotic may cause agranulocytosis and requires weekly WBC monitoring
2087
Clozapine
2088
Q1045:The mechanism of this drug is not established. It is possibly related to an inhibition of the phosphoinositol cascade.
2089
Lithium
2090
Q1046:This drug is used as a mood stabilizer for bipolar affective disorder. It blocks relapse and acute manic events.
2091
Lithium
2092
Q1047:Toxicity of this drug includes tremor; hypothyroidism; polyuria (ADH antagonist causing nephrogenic diabetes insipidus); teratogenesis;This drug also has a narrow therapeutic window requiring close monitoring of serum levels.
2093
2094
Q1048:ANTIDEPRESSANTS [image]p.371
2095
--
2096
Q1049:The drugs Fluoxetine; sertraline ; paroxetine; and citalopram belong to this category of drugs
2097
2098
Q1050:This drug is indicated for endogenous depression; and obsessive compulsive disorder
2099
SSRIs
2100
Q1051:This drug boast fewer toxicities than TCAs but has been associated with GI distress; sexual dysfuncion (anorgasmia).
2101
SSRIs
2102
Q1052:When used with MAO inhibitors; SSRIs can cause "serotonin syndrome." What three things does this involve.
2103
2104
Q1053:The drugs Imipramine; amitriptyline; desipramine; nortriptyline; clomipramine; and doxepin are of this medication category
2105
Tricyclic antidepressants
2106
2107
tricyclic antidepressants
2108
Q1055:These drugs are indicated for major depression that does not respond to SSRIs
2109
tricyclic antidepressants
2110
2111
imipramine
2112
2113
clomipramine
2114
Q1058:The side effects of these drugs include sedation; alpha blocking effects (hypotension); atropine like (anticholinergic) side effects (tachycardia; urinary retention)
2115
tricyclic antidepressants
2116
Q1059:Secondary TCAs like ______ have less anticholinergic side effects than do tertiary TCAs like amitriptyline
2117
nortriptyline
2118
2119
desipramine
2120
Q1061:The side effects of these drugs include sedation; alpha blocking effects (hypotension); atropine like (anticholinergic) side effects (tachycardia; urinary retention)
2121
tricyclic antidepressants
2122
2123
Convulsions; Coma; Cadiotoxicity (arrhythmias);also can have respiratory depression & hyperpyrexia?
2124
Q1063:Your elderly pt on TCAs develops confusion and hallucinations. What could this be due to and what is an alternative TCA that could be given?
2125
This could be due to the anticholinergic side effects of TCAs. Use nortriptyline.
2126
2127
heterocyclic antidepressents;mneu: You need BUtane in your VEiNs to MURder for a MAP of AlcaTRAZ
2128
Q1065:These are 2nd and 3rd generation antidepressante with varied and mixed mechanisms of action. They are used to treat major depession.
2129
heterocyclic antidepressants
2130
Q1066:This heterocyclic antidepressant is also used for smoking cessation. Its mechanism s not well known. Toxicity includes stimulant effects (tachycardia; insomnia); headache; and siezure in bulimic pts. It does NOT cause sexual side effects.
2131
Buproprion
2132
Q1067:This heterocyclic antidepressant is also used in generalized anxiety disorder. It inhibits serotonin; NE; & dopamine reuptake. Toxicity includes stimulant effects; sedation; nausea; constipation and increased BP.
2133
Venlafaxine
2134
Q1068:This heterocyclic antidepressant is an alpha2 antagonist (increased release of NE and serotonin) and a potent 5-HT(2) & 5-HT(3) receptor antagonist. Toxicity includes sedation increased appetite; weight gain; and dry mouth.
2135
Mirtazapine
2136
Q1069:This heterocyclic antidepressant blocks NE reuptake. Toxicity includes sedation and orthostatic hypotension.
2137
Maprotiline
2138
Q1070:This heterocyclic antidepressant acts primarily to inhibit seratonin reuptake. Toxicity includes sedation; nausea; priaprism; and postural hypotension
2139
Trazodone
2140
2141
2142
Q1072:This drug acts by non-selectively inhibiting Monoamine oxidase (MAO)increased levels of amine neurotransmitters
2143
2144
Q1073:These drugs are used for atypical depression (i.e; with psychotic or phobic features; anxiety; and hypochondriasis.
2145
2146
Q1074:These drugs can cause a hypertensive crisis with tyramine ingestion (wine & cheese) and merperidine. They also can cause CNS stimulation.
2147
2148
Q1075:These drugs are contraindicated with SSRIs or Beta agonists (to prevent seratonin syndrome)
2149
2150
Q1076:CNS anesthetics must be ______ soluable in order to cross teh blood-brain barrier
2151
lipid
2152
Q1077:anesthetics with decreased solubility in blood have ____ induction and recovery times
2153
rapid
2154
2155
increased
2156
2157
2158
2159
2160
Q1081:Fill in the blanks regarding general principles of anesthesia;increased solubility in ______ = ;increased Potency =1/MAC
2161
lipids
2162
Q1082:N2O has low blood and lipid solubility. What is the rate of induction and what is the potency?
2163
fast;low
2164
Q1083:Halothane has increased lipid and blood solubility; and thus ____ potency and ____ induction
2165
high;slow
2166
Q1084:anesthetics with decreased solubility in blood have ____ induction and recovery times
2167
rapid
2168
2169
increased
2170
Q1086:halothane; enflurane; isoflurane; sevoflurane; methoxyflurane; and nitrous oxide are all this type of anesthetic
2171
inhaled anesthetics
2172
Q1087:These drugs result in myocardial & respiratory depression; nausea/emesis; and increased cerebral blood and decreased cerebral metabolic demand.
2173
inhaled anesthetics
2174
2175
halothane
2176
2177
methoxyflurane
2178
2179
enflurane
2180
2181
malignant hyperthermia
2182
Q1092:This is a barbituate intravenous anesthetic. It is high potency (high lipid solubility). It is used for induction of anesthesia and short surgical procedures. It decreases cerebral blood flow.
2183
Thiopental
2184
Q1093:This benzodiazepine given IV is the most common anesthetic used for endoscopy. It may cause severe postoperative respiratory depression; decreased BP; and amnesia.
2185
Midazolam
2186
Q1094:You give your pt Midazolam for his endoscopy. Postoperatively he developse hypotension. What drug do you give him?
2187
flumazenil
2188
Q1095:Thses PCP analogs given IV act as dissociative anesthetics. They are cardiovascular stimulants. They cause hallucinations and bad dreams. They increase cerebral blood flow.
2189
Arylcyclohexamines (Ketamine)
2190
Q1096:These opiates are given IV with other CNS depressants during general anesthesia
2191
morphine; fentanyl
2192
Q1097:This IV anesthetic is used for rapid anesthesia induction and short procedures. It has less postoperative nausea than thiopental.
2193
Propofol
2194
2195
2196
Q1099:This drug is used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia and neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
2197
dantrolene
2198
Q1100:This condition can be caused by the concomitant use of inhalation anesthetics (except N2O) and succinylcholine.
2199
Malignant hyperthermiia
2200
Q1101:The drugs procaine; cocaine; tetracaine; lidocaine; mepivacaine; pubivacaine are in this category
2201
local anestetics
2202
2203
esters
2204
2205
2206
Q1104:This group of drugs acts by blocking Na+ channels in nerves by binding to secific receptors on the inner portion of the channel
2207
local anesthetics
2208
Q1105:Your pt has infected tissue that needs to be anesthetized. Do you need more or less local anesthetic?
2209
More-infected tissue is acidic and therefore charged. The charged anesthetics will have trouble penetrating the membrane effectively.
2210
Q1106:Give the order of anesthetic nn block regarding diameter of nn and myelination;small melinated autonomic fibers;large myelinated autonomic fibers;small unmyelinated pain fibers
2211
small diameter> large diameter;Myelinated>unmyelinated;Overall size factor predominates over myelination factor;small unmyelinated pain fibers> small melinated autonomic fibers>large myelinated autonomic fibers
2212
Q1107:What is the order of loss in sensation upon administration of a local anesthetic;touch;pain;pressure; temp
2213
pain>temp>touch>pressure
2214
Q1108:Local anesthetics are usually given with this to enhance local action--decreased bleeding; increased anesthesia by decreased systemic concentration.
2215
2216
Q1109:These drugs are used for minor surgical procedures and as spinal anesthesia.
2217
local anesthetics
2218
Q1110:You want to give you're pt a local anesthetic but she is allergic to esters. Name an amide you can give her.
2219
2220
2221
bupivacaine
2222
2223
cocaine
2224
2225
2226
Q1114:These drugs are used for muscle paralysis in surgery or mechanical ventilation. They are selective for the motor (v. autonomic) nicotinic receptor
2227
2228
2229
succinylcholine
2230
Q1116:The drugs tubocurarine; atracurium; mivacurium; pancuronium; vecuronium; rapacuronium are of this category of neuromuscular blocking drugs
2231
nondepolarizing
2232
2233
ACh
2234
Q1118:In order to reverse the blockade of nondepolarizing blocking agents you can use __________
2235
2236
Q1119:With depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs phase I is known as the ___________ phase
2237
2238
Q1120:With depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs phase I -prolonged depolarization - is potentiated by what?
2239
cholinesterase inhibitors
2240
Q1121:With depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs phase II is known as the ___________ phase
2241
2242
Q1122:after initiating paralysis with a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs; is it possible to reverse the effects.
2243
During phase II (repolarized but blocked phase) only-- the antidote consists of cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g; neostigmine)
2244
2245
2246
Q1124:name two diseases that affect BASAL GANGLIA & BRAIN STEM:
2247
2248
Q1125:in the spinal cord;name 3 degenerative MOTOR NEURON diseases;Name 3 degenerative SPINOCEREBELLAR diseases
2249
1)ALS = amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 2)Werdnig-Hoffmann disease 3) Polio;1) Olivo-ponto-cerebellar atrophy 2) Friedreich's ataxia 3) subacute combined degeneration [B12 deficiency]
2250
2251
Alzheimer's
2252
2253
1) senile plaques = intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies 2) neurofibrillary tangles (abnormally phosphorylated tau protein)
2254
2255
2256
2257
2258
Q1130:The familial form of Alzheimer's is associated with what chromosomes and (name the allele's name in 2 of the 4)
2259
2260
2261
2262
2263
Frontal and temporal lobes (remember; sharp; atrophic appearance of gross specimen)
2264
2265
Auto Dominant
2266
2267
1) chorea 2) dementia
2268
2269
2270
2271
2272
2273
2274
Q1138:rare cases of Parkinson's have been linked to what contaminant of certain illicit drugs?
2275
2276
2277
2278
Q1140:ALS = Lou Gehrig's disease (the Iron Horse of the Yankees; hero of Joe DiMaggio) = what signs is ALS associated with?
2279
2280
2281
1) floppy baby syndrome 2) note tongue fasciculations as well (also seen in ALS)
2282
2283
2284
Q1143:name 4 types of cranial related hemorrhages (think of layers that could possibly be involved)
2285
2286
2287
1) rupture of MMA: middle meningeal artery; often 2ndary to fracture of temporal bone
2288
2289
2290
2291
lucid interval
2292
2293
2294
Q1148:subdural hematoma is venous bleeding so how would this influence symptomatic findings?
2295
2296
2297
2298
2299
2300
2301
2302
2303
2304
2305
2306
2307
2308
2309
2310
2311
2312
2313
2314
Q1158:Prevalence of MS
2315
2316
2317
periventricular plaques; preservation of axons; loss of oligodentrocytes; reactive astrocystic gliosis; increased protein in csf(IgG) in CSF; relapsing course; optic neuritis; MLF syndrome; hemiparesis; bladder/bowel incontinence)
2318
2319
2320
2321
Inflammation and demyelination of peripheral nerves and motor fibers of the ventral roots (sensory effec less severe than motor)
2322
2323
symmetrical ascending muscle weakness beginning in the distal lower extremities. Autonomic fxn may be severely affected (eg. Cardiac irregularities; HTN; or hypoTN) Findings: inc. csf protein w/ normal cell count ("albuminocytologic dissociation") elevated protein may lead to papilledema
2324
2325
herpesvirus or camplobacter jejuni infection; inoculations; and stress but no definitive link to a pathogen
2326
2327
poliovirus; transmitted via fecal oral route and enters blood stream then into CNS where it causes destruction of the anterior horn of S.C. leading in turn to LMN destruction
2328
Q1165:s/s of polio
2329
malaise; HA; fever; nausea; abd. Pain; sore throats; signs of LMN signs
2330
2331
csf w/ lymphocytic pleocytosis w/ slight elevation of protein; virus recovered from stool or throat
2332
2333
2334
2335
Fluent aphasia w/ impaired concentration Wernick's ="What?" W area located in superior temperal gyrus
2336
2337
1.simple partial (awareness is intact)--motor; sensory; autonomic; psychic 2.Complex partial (impaired awareness)
2338
2339
1.absence- blank stare (petit mal) 2.myoclonic- quick repetitive jerks 3.tonic-clonic- alternating stiffening and mvmt (grand mal) 4. Tonic- stiffening 5.atonic-"drop" seizures
2340
2341
2342
2343
2344
2345
2346
2347
sympathectomy of face (lesion above T1) 1.Ptosis 2.anhidrosis and flushing of affected side 3.miosis [PAM is horny]
2348
2349
pancoast tumor
2350
Q1176:what is syringomyelia?
2351
enlargement of the central canal of the S.C. Crossing fibers of spinothalamic tract are damaged.
2352
2353
b/l loss of pain and temp sensation in the upper extremities w/ the touch sensation. Most common at C8-T1
2354
2355
2356
2357
teriary syphilis
2358
2359
2360
2361
charcot's joint; shooting (lightning) pain; Argyll Robertson pupils; and absence of DTRs
2362
Q1182:Where are skeletal motor neurons and preganglionic autonomic neurons derived?
2363
Neural Tube
2364
2365
2366
2367
2368
Q1185:Neural crest cells which migrate to the Adrenal Medulla to form postganglionic sympathetic neurons?
2369
Chromaffin cells
2370
2371
2372
Q1187:Aside from the epidermis; hair and nails; what else does the Surface Ectoderm make?;(5)*
2373
2374
Q1188:Germ layer that forms the retina; CNS and pineal gland?
2375
Neuroectoderm;(Neural tube)
2376
Q1189:What (3) systems are formed by the Mesoderm?;What organs from other systems?;(3)
2377
Musculoskeletal ;(all bone and muscle);Cardiovascular;(heart; blood; lymph; vessels);Reproductive organs;Organs;Spleen;Adrenal cortex;Kidney and ureter
2378
2379
2380
Q1191:What germ layer forms every organ aside from the neurological; integumentary; musculoskeletal; reproductive and CV systems (and the spleen; adrenal and kidney)?
2381
2382
2383
2384
2385
2386
2387
Hypothalamic fibers
2388
2389
2390
2391
2392
Q1197:What ganglion supplies CN-3 to the ciliary muscle and the pupillary sphinctor?
2393
Ciliary ganglion
2394
2395
CN-3;CN-7;CN-9;CN-10;S-2;S-3;S-4
2396
Q1199:What are the (5)* secondary vesicles and their adult derivatives from top to bottom?
2397
Todd Detests STYs;Telencephalon = Cerebral Hemispheres;;Diencephalon = Thalamus;;meSencephalon = Midbrain;meTencephalon = Pons / Cerebellum*;;mYelencephalon = Medulla
2398
Q1200:The (4) parts of the Ventricles are derived from which vesicles?
2399
2400
2401
2402
2403
2404
2405
2406
2407
Spina bifida w/ Myeloschisis;(neural tube is open on the back--not covered w/ skin);also called Rahischosis
2408
Q1205:Muscular demyelinating dz that affects only the Optic nerve in the CNS?
2409
Multiple Sclerosis
2410
2411
CN-4;Trochlear nerve
2412
Q1207:CNS cell;physical support and repair; maintains BBB;what is the cellular marker?
2413
Astrocyte;;marker;GFAP
2414
2415
Ependymal cells
2416
Q1209:CNS cell;only supportive CNS cell from the Mesoderm;what is its action?
2417
Microglia;(phagocytosis)
2418
2419
Oligodendroglia
2420
2421
Schwann cell
2422
2423
Meissner's corpuscles
2424
Q1213:Sensory cell;deep cell involved in pressure; coarse touch; vibration and tension
2425
Pacinian corpuscle
2426
Q1214:Sensory cell;in dermis of fingertips; hair follicles and hard palate for light; crude touch
2427
Merkel's corpuscles
2428
Q1215:which peripheral nerve layer is the permeability barrier and must be rejoined in microsurgery for limb attachment?
2429
Perineurium
2430
2431
Choroid plexus
2432
2433
LM3 S4 LMS;Lateral ventricle ->;Monroe (foramen) -> Third ventricle ->;Sylvius Aqueduct -> Fourth Ventricle ->;Luschka and Magendie foramen ->;Subarachnoid space
2434
2435
PMNs;(bacterial meningitis)
2436
2437
Hydrocephalus
2438
Q1220:At what level does the spinal cord end?;Subarachnoid space?;Where is lumbar puncture performed?
2439
2440
2441
2442
Q1222:in the spinal cord; where are the ascending and descending tracts versus the cell bodies?
2443
2444
2445
Dorsal horn
2446
2447
Dorsal columns
2448
2449
2450
2451
2452
2453
2454
2455
Corpus Callosum
2456
Q1229:Where is it in cortex?;Vision
2457
Occipital lobe
2458
Q1230:Where is it in cortex?;Hearing
2459
Temporal lobe
2460
Q1231:Where is it in cortex?;Taste
2461
2462
2463
Angular gyrus
2464
2465
Precentral gyrus
2466
2467
Postcentral gyrus
2468
2469
2470
2471
2472
2473
Skin -> Ligaments -> Epidural space -> Dura mater -> Subdural space -> Arachnoid -> Subarachnoid space (for CSF)
2474
Q1238:What is different if a lesion on the corticospinal tract occurs above versus below the pyramidal decussation (medulla)?
2475
2476
Q1239:If you ask a patient to place their feet together and close their eyes; and the patient sways (positive Romberg sign); where is the lesion?
2477
2478
2479
2480
Q1241:Which of the major tracts crosses at the level of the entering first neuron?
2481
Spinothalamic tract
2482
Q1242:where is the lesion anywhere along the spinothalamic tract in the cord or brainstem?
2483
Contralateral to signs
2484
Q1243:where is the first synapse in the spinothalamic tract?;where does the second neuron cross?
2485
Ipsilateral Dorsal gray matter at the entry level of the neuron;Second neuron crosses on the same level in the white commissure and ascend laterally
2486
2487
2488
2489
Ischial spine
2490
2491
Iliac crest
2492
2493
CN-7;Facial
2494
2495
CN-5;Trigeminal
2496
2497
CN-7;Facial
2498
2499
CN-9;Glossopharyngeal
2500
2501
CN-12;Hypoglossal
2502
2503
CN-5;Trigeminal
2504
2505
CN-7;Facial
2506
2507
Standing Room Only;V-1: Superior Orbital Fissure;V-2: Rotundum (foramen);V-3: Ovale (foramen)
2508
Q1255:Which cross-section of the spinal cord has;1. greatest amount of Gray matter;2. Lateral horns
2509
1. Lumbar;;2. Thoracic
2510
2511
Polio
2512
Q1257:Dx;lesion in white matter of cervical spine due to demyelination; scanning speech; intention tremor; Nystagmus
2513
2514
Q1258:Dx;Bilateral dorsal column signs below lesion; positive Romberg; locomotive ataxia; reactive to accomodation but not light; shooting pain
2515
2516
2517
2518
Q1260:Dx;Bilateral loss of pain and temp in upper extremities but still has touch
2519
2520
Q1261:Dx;Combined upper and lower motor neuron deficits w/o any sensory deficit
2521
2522
Q1262:Dx;demyelination of dorsal columns; lateral corticospinal tract; ataxic gait; hyperreflexia; impaired position and vibration
2523
2524
2525
2526
2527
2528
2529
2530
2531
Athetosis;lesion;Basal Ganglia
2532
2533
Chorea;lesion;Basal Ganglia
2534
2535
TAN HATS;Thirst and water balance;Adenohypophysis;Neurohypophysis;Hunger;Autono mic regulation / Circadian rhythm;Temperature;Sexual urges and emotions
2536
2537
2538
2539
2540
2541
2542
2543
Anterior;also: Cooling when hot;[Wear a CAP when you are hot];(Cooling - Anterior - Parasymp)
2544
2545
2546
2547
2548
2549
2550
Q1276:Portion of Thalamus;Visual
2551
2552
Q1277:Portion of Thalamus;Auditory
2553
2554
2555
2556
2557
2558
Q1280:Portion of Thalamus;Motor
2559
2560
Q1281:Major relay for ascending sensory info that ultimately reaches the cortex
2561
Thalamus
2562
Q1282:Portion of the brain responsible for Feeding; Fighting; Feeling; Flight and F-cking
2563
2564
Q1283:Portion of the brain tha is important for voluntary movements and making postural adjustments
2565
Basal Ganglia
2566
Q1284:Where does the Direct and Indirect pathway of DA from Substantia Nigra go to first?;Second?;Third?
2567
First;both to Putamen;Second;Direct (+) = Globus Pallidus Internal (GPi);Indirect (-) = GPe;Third;GPi -> Thalamus or Pedunculopontine nucleus in spine;GPe -> GPi or Subthalamic Nucleus (to GPi)
2568
2569
2570
2571
1. Principal Visual cortex (occipital);2. Assoc Auditory (Wernicke);3. Primary Auditory;4. Motor Speech (Broca)
2572
2573
Frontal lobe
2574
Q1288:Brain Vessel;Leg and foot area of the motor and sensory cortices; medial surface of the brain
2575
2576
Q1289:Brain Vessel;supplies the trunk; arm and face of the motor and sensory cortices; Wernicke and Broca's areas; Lateral aspect of the brain
2577
2578
Q1290:Brain Vessel;may cause visual field defects; most common Circle of Willis aneurysm
2579
2580
2581
2582
Q1292:Brain Vessel;division of middle cerebral artery; "arteries of stroke"; supply internal capsule; caudate; putamen; globus pallidus
2583
Lateral Striate
2584
Q1293:what would a stroke in the anterior part of the circle of willis give?
2585
2586
Q1294:How would a stroke in the posterior part of the circle of willis present?;(3)
2587
2588
2589
2590
2591
Subclavius muscle
2592
2593
2594
2595
Phrenic nerve
2596
2597
L1 = IL
2598
2599
2600
2601
2602
2603
2604
Q1303:(3) Vagal Nuclei and their function (and any assoc CN)
2605
nucleus Solitarius = Sensory of viscera (incl taste);CN-7; 9; 10;nucleus aMbiguus = Motor of pharynx and esophagus;CN-9; 10; 11;Dorsal Motor = Parasymp to heart; lungs and UGI
2606
2607
CN-2 to CN-6
2608
2609
2610
Q1306:What vessel passes through the cavernous sinus?;Which is the only "free floating" cranial nerve in the cavernous sinus?
2611
Internal carotid;;CN-6
2612
Q1307:Definition;takes venous blood from the eyes and superficial cortex to the internal jugular; also houses the pituitary
2613
Cavernous sinus
2614
2615
M = Munch;Masseter;;teMoralis;;Medial pterygoid
2616
Q1309:muscle that lowers the jaw;what are all muscles of mastication innervated by?
2617
2618
2619
all except PALATOglossus are innervated by the hypoGLOSSal nerve (Palat = vagus);Palat = vagus;-glossus = hypoglossal
2620
2621
all except Tensor veli Palatini are innervated by the Vagus (Tensor = V-3);Palat = Vagus;TENSor was too TENSE and is V-3
2622
2623
2624
Q1313:Movement of following eye muscles;1. Superior Oblique;2. Superior Rectus;3. Inferior Oblique;4. Inferior Rectus
2625
1. DOWN nasal;2. up lateral;3. UP nasal;4. down lateral;Rectus = Lateral (like LR);Oblique = Opposite direction
2626
2627
2628
2629
2630
Q1316:Extraocular eye movements during REM is due to what area of the brain?
2631
2632
2633
2634
2635
2636
2637
2638
2639
Basal Ganglia
2640
2641
2642
Q1322:Where is lesion?;Coma
2643
2644
2645
2646
2647
2648
2649
2650
2651
Huntington's Dz;CAG repeats on chrom 4 =;Caudate (C) loses ACh (A) and GABA (G)
2652
2653
2654
2655
2656
Q1329:Dx;CSF has lymphocytic pleocytosis w/ slight protein elevation. Virus is recovered from stool or throat
2657
Poliovirus
2658
2659
2660
Q1331:Tx for MS
2661
Beta-interferon
2662
2663
2664
Q1333:Dx;symmetric ascending muscle weakness due to demyelination of PNS; diplegia; CV irregularities; papilledema;Causes (2)
2665
2666
2667
2668
2669
Simple Partial
2670
2671
2672
2673
Myoclonic
2674
2675
2676
Q1339:Seizure type;Stiffening
2677
Tonic
2678
2679
Atonic
2680
2681
2682
2683
2684
2685
2686
2687
APKD;;Ehlers-Danlos;;Marfan's
2688
2689
2690
2691
Glioblastoma multiforme
2692
2693
Glioblastoma Multiforme
2694
2695
Glioblastoma Multiforme
2696
Q1349:Dx;spindle cells concentrically arranged in whorled pattern of this brain tumor; psammoma bodies; arises from arachnoid cells; on surface
2697
Meningioma
2698
2699
Oligodendroglioma
2700
Q1351:Dx;childhood brain tumor; diffusely infiltrating; posterior fossa; Rosenthal fibers - eosinophilic corkscrew appearance
2701
Pilocytic Astrocytoma
2702
2703
Medulloblastoma
2704
2705
Ependymoma
2706
Q1354:Dx;childhood brain tumor w/ foamy cells and high vascularity;what is it assoc with?;what is the ectopic production?
2707
2708
Q1355:Dx;benign childhood tumor from Rathke's pouch and can cause bitemporal hemianopsia
2709
Craniopharyngioma
2710
2711
Brown-Sequard syndrome
2712
Q1357:Dx;Ptosis; anhidrosis; miosis of face;Can be associated w/ spinal cord lesion above what level?
2713
2714
2715
Radial
2716
2717
Median
2718
2719
Ulnar
2720
2721
Axillary
2722
2723
2724
Q1363:Dx;no loss of power in any arm muscles; loss of forearm pronation; wrist flexion; finger flexion; several thumb movements; thenar atrophy
2725
2726
Q1364:Dx;impaired wrist flexion and adduction; and impaired adduction of the thumb and last two fingers
2727
2728
2729
2730
Q1366:Dx;difficulty flexing elbow; loss of function of coracobrachialis; biceps; and brachialis muscles (and biceps reflex)
2731
2732
2733
2734
Q1368:what is the order of the (5)* main nerves as they come off the brachial plexus (top to bottom)?
2735
CAMel RUn;musculoCutaneous;Axillary;Median;Radial;Ulna
2736
Q1369:Dx;limb hangs at side; medially rotated and forearm is pronated;where is problem?;what is common cause?
2737
2738
2739
2740
2741
2742
2743
Femoral
2744
Q1373:Dx;delivery causes atrophy of thenar; hypothenar and interosseous muscles; sensory deficit on medial forearm; dissapearance of radial pulse w/ movement of head to opposite side;what is compressed?;(2)
2745
Thoracic Outlet Syndrome;(Subclavian artery and inferior Trunk (C8; T1) of brachial plexus)
2746
2747
Sweat gland
2748
2749
1. have person stick tongue out to determine if flaccid or spastic paralysis;2. look to which side it deviates;3. LMN (flaccid) deviates toward side of lesion; UMN (spastic) deviates away from side of lesion;(Lmn = Lick your wound (same side))
2750
2751
2752
2753
2754
Q1378:Deviation of CN-10?
2755
2756
Q1379:Deviation of CN-11?;(2)
2757
2758
2759
CN-7;CN-12
2760
2761
CN-10
2762
2763
2764
Q1383:A tumor of the internal jugular at the petrosus temporal bone would have an effect on what CN?
2765
CN-9; 10; 11
2766
2767
2768
2769
Meduloblastoma
2770
Q1386:in a Webber hearing test; how do you tell what type of problem it is if the sound localizes to one side?
2771
2772
2773
2774
2775
UMN - contralateral LOWER face only;LMN - Ipsilateral UPPER and LOWER face;(Bells Palsy)
2776
2777
2778
2779
2780
2781
2782
2783
Uncal
2784
2785
Cerebellar tonsillar
2786
Q1394:Dx;contrlateral hemiparesis; ipsilateral dilated pupil; ipsilateral gaze preference; caudal displacement of brainstem (Duret hemorrhages)
2787
Uncal herniation
2788
2789
2790
2791
Midbrain
2792
Q1397:how can you tell if CN-4 lesion is on the nerve or the nucleus?
2793
2794
Q1398:Dx;small irregular pupil that does not react to light but does to accomodation;what to Dx is it seen in?
2795
Argyll-Robertson the diabetic hooker w/ syphillis;"Accomodates but does not react";seen in;Diabetes;Syphillis
2796
2797
2798
2799
2800
2801
2802
Q1402:Dx;person cannot move right eye to left lateral but can converge both eyes to center;what muscle and CN involved?;what Dx is it commonly seen in?
2803
lesion of Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus (MLF);(medial rectus palsy; normal w/ convergence; CN-3; CN-4);MLF w/ MS
2804
Q1403:NT changes;Anxiety;(3)
2805
2806
Q1404:NT changes;Depression;(2)
2807
2808
Q1405:NT changes;Alzheimer's
2809
Dec ACh
2810
2811
2812
Q1407:If you shine a light in patient's right eye and both pupils constrict; then shine it in left eye and they both dilate; where is the lesion?
2813
2814
2815
2816
2817
2818
2819
2820
2821
Cingulate
2822
2823
Hippocampus
2824
2825
Nucleus Accumbens
2826
2827
Temporal lobe
2828
Q1415:What is the electrolyte flow for depolarization of hair cells in the cochlea?
2829
2830
2831
Ruffini endings
2832
2833
Pacinian corpuscle
2834
Q1418:what tracts are in the Inferior (3); Middle (1) and Superior (2) cerebellar peduncles?*
2835
DIBs On TVS in the PM;Inferior - Dorsal (cord); vestiBulocerebellar; Olive;Superior - Tectocerebellar; Ventral;Middle - Pontocerebellar
2836
Q1419:when a person moves his head to the right; what happens in the semicircular canal?;(2)
2837
both (R and L) bend away from the Kinocilium;;Cupula moves to opposite side
2838
2839
Light -> CIS changes to TRANS ->;Inc Rhodopsin -> Inc Transducin ->;Dec cGMP -> Dec Na+ -> Hyperpolarization
2840
2841
Flocculonodular lobe
2842
2843
2844
Q1423:what are two places in the ear that hear high-frequency sounds?;example of a low-frequency place?
2845
2846
Q1424:what occurs with the biceps and triceps regarding Ia and Ib fibers when flexing the biceps?
2847
Flex biceps;Bicep - ;Ia Dec firing (compressed);Ib Inc firing (tension/contract);;Triceps - ;Ia Inc firing (stretched);Ib has no change
2848