1.Which of the following is a chemical property of a slice of chocolate cake? A. dietary calories* B. color C. volume D. temperature 2.

Which of the following is an extensive property of a bubble of air? A. percent oxygen B. radius* C. density D. temperature 3. Which of the following is an intensive property? A. density* B. mass C. number of atoms D. weight 4. Which of the following is a physical property? A. temperature* B. flammability C. corrosiveness D. explosiveness 5. The specific volume of a substance is the volume per gram of substance. Specific volume is an example of A. a physical, extensive property B. a chemical, intensive property C. a chemical, extensive property D. a physical, intensive property* 6. How many million tons of hydrogen are converted into helium every second at the sun? A. 500 million tons B. 400 million tons C. 600 million tons D. 700 million tons* 7. What is the expression of the magnitude and direction of the lattice distortion associated with dislocation? A. Vector graph B. Line vector C. Vector Diagram D. Burgers Vector* 8. What theorem relates the line integral of a vector field around a simple closed curve C is in IR3 to an integral over surface S for w/c C is the boundary? A. Stokes Theorem* B. Gradient Theorem C. Vector Theorem D. Eulers Theorem 9. A tornado warning siren on top of a tall pole radiates sound waves uniformly in all directions. At a distance of 15.0 m the intensity of the sound is 0.250 W/m 2. At what distance from the siren is the intensity 0.010 W/m2? A. 74.0 m B. 75.0 m* C. 76.0 m D. 77.0 m 10. What is the speed of longitudinal waves in a lead rod? A. 1.1 x 103 m/s B. 1.2 x 103 m/s*

C. 1.3 x 103 m/s D. 1.4 x 103 m/s 11. Consider an idealized model with a bird (treated as a point source) emitting constant sound power, with intensity inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the bird. By how many decibels does the sound intensity level drop when you move twice as far away from the bird? A. 4.0 dB B. -4.0 dB C. 6.0 dB D. -6.0 dB* 12. A stopped organ pipe is sounded near a guitar, causing one of the strings to vibrate with large amplitude. We vary the tension of the string until we find the maximum amplitude. The string is 80% as long as the stopped pipe. If both the pipe and the string vibrate at their fundamental frequency, calculate the ratio of the wave speed on the string to the speed of sound in air. A. 0.38 B. 0.39 C. 0.40* D. 0.41 13. The Concorde is flying at March 1.75 at an altitude of 8000m, where the speed of sound is 320 m/s. How long after the plane passes directly overhead will you hear the sonic boom? A. 19.5 s B. 20.5 s* C. 21.5 s D. 22.5 s 14. A glass flask with volume 200 cm3 is filled to the brim with mercury at 20C. How much mercury overflows when the temperature of the system is raised to 100C? The coefficient of linear expansion of the glass is 0.40 x 10-5 K-1. A. 2.4 cm3 B. 2.5 cm3 C. 2.6 cm3 D. 2.7 cm3* 15. An aluminium cylinder 10 cm long, with a cross-sectional area of 20 cm2, is to be used as a spacer between two steel walls. At 17.2C it just slips in between the walls. When it warms to 22.3C, calculate the stress in the cylinder and the total force it exerts on each wall, assuming that the walls are perfectly rigid and a constant distance apart. A. +8.6 x 106 Pa, +1.7 x 104 N B. -8.6 x 106 Pa, +1.7 x 104 N C. +8.6 x 106 Pa, -1.7 x 104 N D. -8.6 x 106 Pa, -1.7 x 104 N* 16. You are designing an electronic circuit element made of 23 mg of silicon. The electric current through it adds energy at the rate of 7.4 mW = 7.4 x 10-3 J/s. If your design doesnt allow any heat transfer out of the element, at what rate does its temperature increase? The specific heat of silicon is 705 J/kgK. A. 0.44 K/s B. 0.45 K/s C. 0.46 K/s* D. 0.47 K/s 17. A geologist working in the field drinks her morning coffee out of an aluminium cup. The cup has a mass of 0.120 kg and is initially at 20.0 C when she pours in 3.00 kg of coffee initially at 70.0 C. What is the final temperature after the coffee and the cup attain thermal equilibrium? (Assume that coffee has the same specific heat as water and that there is no heat exchange with the surroundings.)

A. 63.0 C B. 64.0 C C. 65.0 C D. 66.0 C* 18. In the Iron-Iron carbide diagram, the alloys containing solid phase with more that 2% carbon are known as ______ A. steel B. Cast iron* C. alpha-ferrite D. graphite 19. ______ is use to nullify the effect harmful effect of sulphur in steel and is added during deoxidation A. Magnesium B. Sodium C. Manganese* D. Phosphorus 20. The intermetallic compound iron carbide is called ________ A. Austenite B. Cementite* C. ferrite D. Pearlite 21. ____ raises the elastic limit and ultimate strength of the steel without reducing the ductility A. Phosphorus B. Manganese C. Sulfur D. Silicon* 22. _____ the combination of operation involving the heating of metal/alloy in solid state and cooling it to obtain the desired properties A. Heat treatment* B. Annealing C. Normalising D. Hardening 23. The transformation product of austenite at low temperature is known as _______ A. Pearlite B. Martensite* C. Bainite D. Cementite 24. Any steel heated to a particular temperature above the critical temperature results in the formation of ______ A. Cementite B. Martensite C. Austenite* D. Bainite 25. The principal source of information in the actual process of autenite under non-equilibrium condition as a ______ A. TTT Diagram* B. TTL Diagram C. TTC Diagram D. CCT Diagram 26. ______ involves heating to a predetermined temperature, holding at that temperature and then cooling at a very slow rate A. Heat treatment B. Annealing*

C. Normalising D. Hardening 27. The total electrical resistivity of a metal is equal to the sum of temperature-, impurity-, and cold work-dependent contributions. A. Ficks Law B.Matthiessens rule* C.Braggs law D.Burgers Rule 28.A single quantum of vibrational or elastic energy. A. phonon* B. Photon C. quarks D. leptons 29. The time-dependent permanent deformation that occurs under stress; for most materials it is important only at elevated temperatures. A. Creep* B. Frenkel defect C. Plastic deformation D. Point defect 30. In Engineering Economy, what do you call the method of repaying a debt, the principal and interest included, usually by a series of equal payments at periodic intervals of time. A. Amortization B. Depreciation* C. Annuity D. Deflation 31. A type of bond where in the security is in sums form of recognized commercial papers of a well established subsidiary. A. callable bond B. coupon bond C. collateral bond* D. subsidiary bond 32. The ratio of quick assets to current liabilities is known as the A. debt B. acid-test ratio* C. profit margin D. net margin 33. In handling unsolicited or unwanted commercial and promotional advertisement and surveys, complainants who are not satisfied with the action of the Public Telecom Entities or Content Providers may bring the matter to the NTC in writing within _____ from receipt of the alleged text spam. A. 1 month B. 3 months* C. 5 months D. 7 months 34. In accordance with the International Telecommunications Union, the Philippines as well as Japan, belong to what region as far as frequency allocation and wage is concerned. A. Region 1 B. Region 2 C. Region 3* D. Region 4 35. What is the minimum fine for persons who violate a provision of R.A. 9292? A. P 50,000

B. P 100,000* C. P 250,000 D. P 300,000 36. The electronic designer will furnish how many sets of drawings, classifications and other contract documents? A. 2 B. 4 C. 3 D. 5* 37. In accordance with the Philippine Electronic Code the maximum accumulated permissible dose (MPD) of radiation associated with a radio transmitter for human being who is 54 years old is _________ rems A. 150 B. 160 C. 170 D. 180* 38. It refers to the process of producing, forming or fabricating electronic equipment and/or related components, parts, devices and accessories? A. quality control B. manufacturing* C. development D. system design 39. What law regulates the operation of CATV systems in the country? A. E.O. 436 B. E.O. 205* C. E.O. 567 D. E.O. 143 40. Find the amount at the end of two years and seven months if P1000 is invested at 8% compounded quarterly using simple interest for anytime less than a year interest period. A. P 1171.66 B. P 1226.34* C. P 1237.12 D. P 1189.78 41. The most active non-metallic element is A. Chlorine B. Fluorine* C. Oxygen D. Sulphur 42. When chlorine water and carbon tetrachloride are mixed with an unknown, a violet layer is produced. The unknown is a(n) A. Fluoride B. Chloride C. Bromide D. Iodide* 43. Name the element of the first 20 whose atom gives up an electron the most readily A. Li B. F C. Cl D. K* 44. When a gas is collected over water, the pressure is corrected by A. Adding the vapor pressure of water B. Multiplying by the vapour pressure of water C. Subtracting the vapour pressure of water at that temperature*

D. Subtracting the temperature of the water from the vapor pressure 45. At 5 atm pressure and 70OC, how many moles are present in 1.5L of O2 gas? A. 0.036 B. 0.267* C. 0.536 D. 1.60 46. Grahams Law refers to A. Boiling points of gases B. Gaseous diffusion* C. Gas compression problems D. Volume changes of gases when the temperature changes 47. Enthalpy is an expression for the A. Heat content* B. Energy state C. Reaction rate D. Activation energy 48. A process where heat is released to the surroundings. A. Endothermic process B. Exothermic process* C. Internal energy D. State function 49. In a closed system at constant volume and temperature its energy decreases during a spontaneous process. A. Carnots energy

B. Helmholtz Energy* C. Gibbs Energy D. Maximum Energy 50. In a closed system at constant pressure and temperature its energy decreases during a spontaneous process A. Carnots energy B. Helmholtz Energy C. Gibbs Energy* D. Maximum Energy 51. It states that the vapour pressure in a solution is the sum of the vapour pressure of the pure component multiplied by the mole fraction of that component. A. Raoults law* B. Henrys law C. Hess law D. Zeroth law of thermodynamics 52. The principle that the amount of gas dissolved under equilibrium in a volume of liquid is in direct proportion to the pressure of the gas that contact the liquid surface. A. Raoults law B. Henrys law* C. Hess law D. Zeroth law of thermodynamics 53. Sum of all powers appearing in the empirical law. A. Reaction order* B. Rate order C. Concentration order D. Empirical order 54. A reaction step that represents the reaction at the molecular level. A. Intermediate step B. Elementary step* C. Primary step D. Ultimate step 55. Assumes that the concentration of a reaction intermediates is constant during the main part of the reaction. A. Multiple-state approximation B. Bistable approximation C. Monostable approximation D. Steady-state approximation* 56. A reaction in which the number of chain carriers decreases. A. Propagation step B. Branching step C. Retardation step D. Termination step* 57. Mr. Mangalindan would like to earn 7% of his income after payment of his taxes due. If the income of his investment will be taxed 42%, what is the minimum rate of return, before payment, must his investment has to attain his goal? A. 17% B. 16% C. 12%* D. 10% 58. How much heat must be supplied to a pan of 500 g to increase the temperature from 20C to 100C if the pan is made up of aluminum? Specific heat capacity of aluminum is 0.22 cal/g-C. A. 7800 cal B. 8800 cal*

C. 9800 cal D. 10800 cal 59. A heat engine operates with a supplied heat of 65 kcal and exhausts 40 kcal. How much work is done by the engine? A. 104600 J* B. 146000 J C. 106400 J D. 164000 J 60. A charge A of +250 statcoulomb is placed in between 2 charges B of +50 statcoulomb and C of -300 statcoulomb. A is 5 cm from B and 10 cm from C. What is the force on A? A. 1000 N B. 1500 N C. 1850 N D. 1250 N* 61. A steel tape 100m long is 2mm too short. The effective dimension of the steel tape is 40mm, 20mm thickness, and 20mm width. How much tensile pull should be applied at the edge of the steel tape to have 100m distance? The modulus of elasticity for steel is 200000MPa. A. 6400 N B. 6600 N C. 3200 N* D. 3400 N 62. What is the most common defects in crystals? A. Vacancy B. Line Defect* C. Frenkel Defect D. Ion Vacancies 63. Oldest engineering material known for its good malleability property? A. lead B. iron C. copper* D. none of these 64. A kind of solid which is characterized as consisting of ordered three dimensional arrays of structure motif, is classified as ____________ solids. A. amorphous B. crystalline* C. beta D. alpha 65. What crystalline structure has a packing factor of 0.52? A. body centered cubic* B. diamond cubic C. face-centered cubic D. simple cubic 66. What gives the average ratio of stress to strain of the material operating in the non-linear region of the stress-strain diagram? A. specific modulus B. Youngs modulus C. secant modulus* D. modulus of resilience 67. A tank 8 m in diameter, 12 m high is completely filled with water. Determine the minimum thickness of the tank plating if the stress is limited to 40 MPa. A. 5.88 mm B. 11.72 mm* C. 15.65 mm

D. 23.54 mm 68. Aluminum is how many % by weight of the earths crust. A. 3.0 B. 3.5 C. 5.0 D. 8.0* 69. What do you call a form of stress assisted corrosion, wherein vapor bubbles form and then burst on a surface causing damage to the underlying material. A. Cavitation* B. corrosion C. compression D. explosion 70. What are stresses induced in vessels containing pressurized materials? A. structural stresses B. pressure stresses* C. residual stresses D. thermal stresses 71. The amount of force required to cause a unit deformation (displacement) often called the spring constant is the A. modulus of elasticity B. normal stress C. shear stress D. stiffness* 72. What is the material stress for brittle materials, in thecalculation of allowable stress from the formula? A. yield strength B. ultimate strength* C. endurance strength D. mean stress 73. Determine the maximum torque that can be applied to a hollow circular steel shaft of 100-mm outside diameter and 70-mm inside diameter without exceeding a shearing stress of 60 MPa or a twist of 0.5 deg/m. Use G=83 GPa. A. 4,648 N-m B. 3,742 N-m C. 5,403 N-m* D. 6,263 N-m 74. A simple beam having a span of 6 m has a weight of 20kN/m. It carries a concentrated load of 20kN at the left end and 40 kN at 2m from the right end of the beam. If it is supported at 2m from the left end and at the right end, compute the reaction at the right end of the beam. A. 20 kN B. 30 kN C. 40 kN* D. 50 kN 75. A type of line defect consist of an extra row or plane of atoms in the crystal structure. A. edge dislocations* B. mixed dislocations C. screw dislocations D. interstitialcy 76. Nuclear physicists commonly use particle accelerators to A. weigh heavy objects such as boulders B. determine the masses of distant stars and galaxies C. fabricate elements that dont occur naturally * D. generate powerful beams of light

77. High levels of UV radiation, either short term or long term, are known or believed to cause all the following except A. long-term suppression of the immune system in human B. fluorescence of certain materials C. skin cancer D. ozone depletion * 78. A diverging lens A. can collimate converging rays of light * B. can focus the Suns rays to a brilliant point C. is also known as a convex lens D. is ideal for use as the objective in a refracting telescope. 79. If a spaceship is slowing down, that is, losing speed in the forward direction, the perceived force inside the ship is directed A. toward the rear B. toward the front * C. toward the side D. nowhere; there is no acceleration force 80. defined as 1/ candle per square centimetre A. candela B. lux C. lumen D. lambert * 81. Who developed a wave equation, the solution of which described the wave amplitude of the matter waves as well as the allowed energy values the particle can have. A. Louis de Broglie B. Werner Heisenberg C. Erwin Schrodinger * D. James Maxwell 82. These are highly penetrating electromagnetic radiation, not deflected by magnetic or electric fields, and produce little ionization A. alpha particles B. beta particles C. gamma particles D. delta particles 83. How many molecules are present in 2.5 liters of gas at STP? A. 5.6 x 10^24 molecules B. 1.5 x 10^24 molecules C. 6.0 x 10^23 molecules D. 6.7 x 1022 molecules * 84. Under which of the following conditions does the behavior of a real gas resemble that of an ideal gas? A. under all conditions of temperature and pressure B. only at very high pressure C. only when the gas is near condensation D. only at low densities when the molecules are relatively far apart * 85. Consider two water drops at a temperature T. These drops are not allowed to exchange energy with their environment. These two drops collide and combine. How does the temperature of these drops change when they combine? A. decrease B. remain the same C. increase * D. cannot be determined

85. Which of the following quantities has the greatest Influence on the overall efficiency of a conventional (Rankine cycle) electric generating station burning fossil fuels? A. steam temperature at the steam turbine inlet * B. net heating value of the fuel C. steam pressure at the steam turbine inlet D. pounds of ash and sulfur per pound of fuel 86. The modulus of elasticity for a material refers to: A. the ability of a material to resist corrosion B. the ratio of stress over strain * C. the maximum load over the cross sectional area D. none of the above 87. What property of a metal describes the onset of plastic deformation in a tensile test? A. tensile strength B. elongation C. yield strength * D. reduction in area 88. Which of the following is not a stage in color changing process in alchemy? A. Melanosis B. Kuntosis * C. Leukosis D. Xanthosis 89. Which of the following is the common name for battery acid A. Sulfuric acid * B. Formic acid C. Hydrochloric acid D. Nitric acid 90. The element that was discovered between calcium and titanium A. Silicon B. Scandium * C. Molybdenum D. Potassium 91. The shorthand name for molybdenum is A. Mo* B. Mb C.Md D. Mn 92. 500 years ago, Rajah Salayog deposited P0.01 with an interest rate of 5% per annum. Now the bank discovered that you are the only left in the clan and entitled to receive the money. How much is it? A. P339,223,618.3 B. P393,232,618.3 C. P393,618,232.3 * D. P339,618,223.3 93. It is a financial summary showing the relationship among assets, liabilities, and ownership in the corporation on a specific date A. balance sheet * B. income tax return C. accounting cost records D. bookkeeping 94. The promulgation of the syllabi/table of specification for the subjects in the board licensure examination for electronics technician (ECT) was done in the city of Manila on _______ A. March 15, 2011 B. February 9, 2011*

C. January 16, 2011 D. June 19, 2010 95. The promulgation of the syllabi/table of specification for the subjects in the board licensure examination for electronics technician (ECT) is also known as the Board of Electronics Engineering _________. A. Board Resolution No. 2 Series of 2004 B. Board Resolution No. 2 Series of 2011 C. Board Resolution No. 1 Series of 2004 D. Board Resolution No. 1 Series of 2011* 96. To qualify for the Electronics Technician examination, he/she must be a graduate of an Associate, Technician, Trade or Vocational course in electronics or, subject to the evaluation of the Board, such equivalent and/or related formal or non-formal course or program from any school, college. university or training institution recognized by the government or the State where it is established after completing a resident course or program of not less than __________ A. 2 years* B. 3 years C. 5 years D. 7 years 97. According to the syllabi for the Electronics Technician licensure examination, which of the following is not classified under technical subjects? A. Philippine Electrical Code* B. Maintenance and Repair C. Ohms law D. Basic Mathematics 98. In Continuing Profession Education, how many additional points will be given upon completing a Masters degree? A. 10 CU B. 15 CU C. 30 CU* D. 45 CU 99. In Continuing Profession Education, how many points will be given to the resource speaker of a recognized seminar/convention? A. 5 CU per hour* B. 3 CU per hour C. 2 CU per hour D. 1 CU per hour 100. In Continuing Profession Education, sole authorship of book monograph with more than 100 page will merit the author A. 10 CU B. 20 CU C. 30 CU D. 40 CU*