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1. Substantive assessment methods are used to reduce the applicant pool to candidates. FALSE
2. Personality tests and ability tests are examples of substantive assessment methods. TRUE
3. Discretionary assessment methods are used to reduce the candidate pool to finalists for a job. FALSE
4. Contingent assessment methods are used to make sure that tentative job offer recipients meet certain qualifications for the job. TRUE
5. Currently, personality tests are viewed as having no validity whatsoever as selection methods. FALSE
6. The Big Five personality test is used to describe emotional and cognitive traits that capture 20% of an individual's personality. FALSE
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7. The traits measured by Big Five personality tests are measures of factors brought about entirely by life environments, and not by genetics. FALSE
9. Conscientiousness is a trait that is associated with better job performance, higher job satisfaction, better leadership performance, and higher retention. TRUE
10. Extraversion is associated with higher levels of creativity and adaptability. FALSE
11. Individuals who have higher levels of agreeableness tend to have lower levels of career success and are less able to cope with conflicts. TRUE
12. There is little controversy over the use of personality measures in personnel selection. FALSE
13. Evidence suggests that faking or enhancement almost never occurs on personality tests. FALSE
14. Socially desirable responding, or presenting oneself in a favorable light, doesn't end once someone takes a job. TRUE
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15. Evidence suggests that most applicants have relatively positive reactions towards personality testing. FALSE
16. The two major types of ability tests are aptitude and achievement. TRUE
17. 80% of organizations use some sort of ability test in selection decisions. FALSE
18. Measures of specific cognitive abilities do not reflect general intelligence. FALSE
19. The Wonderlic Personnel test is prohibitively expensive for most organizations, because it requires long face-to-face sessions with a trained psychologist. FALSE
20. Validities for cognitive ability tests appear to be culturally specific, with far lower validities in the European Union relative to the United States. FALSE
21. Cognitive ability tests are excellent predictors for executive and professional jobs, but they are of no value for entry level, clerical, or blue collar jobs. FALSE
22. The true validity of measures of general cognitive ability is roughly .50. TRUE
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23. The biggest reason cognitive tests are not widely used in selection is the difficulty associated with their administration. FALSE
24. A concern regarding the use of cognitive ability tests is adverse impact against African Americans. TRUE
25. Most experts agree that cognitive ability cannot be measured accurately by standardized tests. FALSE
26. Physical ability tests are becoming increasingly common to screen out individuals susceptible to repetitive stress injuries, such as carpal tunnel syndrome. TRUE
27. Sensory/perceptual abilities tests assess the ability to detect and recognize environmental stimuli. TRUE
28. Research suggests that job knowledge tests have relatively poor validity in predicting job performance. FALSE
29. Individuals who have high emotional intelligence are self-aware (good at recognizing their own emotions), other aware (good at recognizing others' emotions), and good at making use of or managing this awareness. TRUE
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30. Some critics argue that because emotional intelligence (EI) is so closely related to intelligence and personality, once you control these factors, EI has nothing unique to offer. TRUE
31. Measures of emotional intelligence are a valuable supplement to personality tests in a selection context, because they have little similarity to personality. FALSE
32. Performance tests and work samples assess applicants' underlying capacities and dispositions. FALSE
33. A low-fidelity test uses realistic equipment and scenarios to simulate the actual tasks of the job. FALSE
34. Performance tests and work samples are readily accepted by applicants as job relevant. TRUE
35. Performance tests are a useful indicator of some job skills, but they need to be supplemented with other predictors because they do not have high content validity. FALSE
36. The major distinction between job knowledge and situational judgment tests is that the former deals with future hypothetical job situations, and the latter explicitly taps the content of the job. FALSE
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37. Integrity tests are paper-and-pencil or computerized tests that attempt to assess an applicant's honesty and moral character. TRUE
38. Interviewer evaluations of applicant integrity are usually very good, and experts like judges and psychologists can detect lying most of the time. FALSE
40. Although applicants probably do sometimes fake their answers on integrity tests, the evidence suggests that such faking does not completely eliminate the validity of these tests in predicting job performance and deviant workplace behavior. TRUE
41. The Meyers-Briggs Type Inventory (MBTI) is an example of an interest inventory. TRUE
42. Interest inventories play a key role in organizational selection decisions. FALSE
43. Interest inventories tend to be more tied to the occupation, rather than the organization or the job. TRUE
44. A typical unstructured interview often contains highly speculative questions. TRUE
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45. Applicant appearance may be a source of error or bias in an unstructured interview. TRUE
46. The starting point for the structured interview is the job rewards matrix. FALSE
47. Situational interviews assess an applicant's ability to project what his/her behavior would be in the future. TRUE
48. Research has found that structured interviews do not add validity in predicting job performance beyond cognitive ability tests. FALSE
49. The interview is the central means through which an applicant can learn about the job and organization. TRUE
51. When developing structured interviews, one or more questions must be constructed for each KSAO targeted for assessment by the structured interview. TRUE
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52. ________ assessment methods are used to reduce the candidate pool to finalists for a job. A. Initial B. Substantive C. Discretionary D. Contingent
53. Which of the following is not one of the five-factor model personality traits? A. Conscientiousness B. Extroversion C. General mental ability D. Neuroticism
54. Which of the following is true regarding the Big Five personality factors? A. They are reasonably valid in predicting job performance. B. They represent emotional traits. C. They represent cognitive abilities. D. None of the above.
55. This personality trait is associated with better performance, higher job satisfaction, and lower adaptability on the job. A. Neuroticism B. Extraversion C. Agreeableness D. Conscientiousness E. Openness to experience
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56. This personality trait is associated with more helping behaviors, teamwork, and difficulty in coping with conflicts. A. Neuroticism B. Extraversion C. Agreeableness D. Conscientiousness E. Openness to experience
57. This personality trait is associated with more creativity, effective leadership, and a lower commitment to one's employer. A. Neuroticism B. Extraversion C. Agreeableness D. Conscientiousness E. Openness to experience
58. What are the most useful personality traits, in order, for selection contexts? A. Concientiousness, emotional stability, extraversion B. Emotional stability, conscientiousness, openness to experience C. Agreeableness, openness to experience, extraversion D. Extraversion, conscientiousness, emotional stability
59. Which of the following is true regarding the use of personality tests in the selection process? A. Emotional stability is a much more valid predictor of job performance when it is measured narrowly. B. The aspect of emotional stability that is more relevant to job performance is stress proneness. C. The Core Self-Evaluations Scale has not been shown to have much validity in predicting job performance. D. None of the above.
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60. Which of the following is true regarding research on the validity of personality tests? A. Conscientiousness predicts performance across occupational groups. B. Openness to experience does not predict training performance. C. Extraversion predicts job performance for most jobs. D. All of the above are true.
61. Which of the following statements is false? A. There is little evidence that people fake their scores on personality tests in the hiring contexts B. When individuals believe their scores are being used for selection, their observed scores tend to increase C. Faking has a negative impact on the validity of personality tests D. None of the above statements is false
62. Measures which assess an individual's capacity to function in a certain way are called ______. A. interest inventories B. ability tests C. personality tests D. knowledge tests
63. Which of the following cognitive abilities appear to reflect general intelligence? A. verbal abilities B. quantitative abilities C. reasoning abilities D. All of the above are correct
64. The most widely used test of general mental ability for selection decisions is the _____. A. MMPI B. Myers-Briggs C. Wonderlic Personnel Test D. Job Characteristics Inventory
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65. Which of the following is true regarding cognitive ability tests? A. Cognitive ability tests are among the least valid methods of selection. B. Cognitive ability tests do not generalize to a wide range of organizations and jobs. C. There is reason to believe cognitive ability tests will be associated with positive financial returns. D. All of the above are true.
66. Research has shown that most of the effect of cognitive ability on performance is due to the fact that intelligent employees have greater _____. A. job knowledge B. presentation skills C. social networking capacity D. diligence
67. The biggest reason why cognitive ability tests are not more widely used is _____________. A. they are too expensive B. they are too time-consuming C. they are difficult to administer D. they have an adverse impact on minorities
68. The difference between black and white test takers on cognitive ability tests has been _____. A. demonstrated to be an artifact of question wording B. decreasing over time C. lower when tests are given in an open-ended format D. both b and c
69. Research studies have found ___________ support for the validity of job knowledge tests. A. relatively strong B. no support C. very weak D. some
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70. The process of administering tests that place applicants in hypothetical, job-related situations and asking them to choose a course of action among several alternatives is called _____________. A. situational judgment tests B. behavioral implementation tests C. work sample tests D. Job simulation tests
71. The assessment method which involves the use of very realistic equipment and scenarios to simulate actual tasks of a job is called a(n) ________ test. A. job knowledge B. psychomotor C. high fidelity D. low fidelity
72. Work samples and performance tests are useful for a broad range of jobs, although they are difficult to use in __________ jobs. A. customer service B. assembly C. bank teller D. none of the above
73. Situational judgment tests ______. A. have very high adverse impact B. involve applicants' descriptions of how they would behave in work scenarios C. are based on applicants' evaluations of photographs D. have very low validity
74. Which of the following is true regarding integrity tests? A. Their use has declined in the past decade. B. They are used to reduce employee accidents. C. They are usually paper-and-pencil or computerized measures. D. The construct of integrity is well understood.
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75. Interest inventories are designed to improve person job match by assessing applicant preferences for different types of work. Research suggests that these inventories ____. A. are about as predictive of job performance as ability tests B. are more predictive of job performance than ability tests C. are not strongly predictive of job performance D. are prohibited by law
76. Which of the following is a characteristic of a typical unstructured interview? A. It is usually carefully planned. B. The interviewer makes a quick and final evaluation of the candidate. C. It consists of formal, objective questioning. D. The interviewer is highly prepared.
77. Which of the following is a source of error or bias in unstructured interviews? A. Low reliability between interviewers. B. Nonverbal cues from interviewees influence interview ratings. C. Primacy effects. D. All of the above are true.
78. The first step of the structured interview process is __________. A. selecting and training interviewers B. developing the selection plan C. consulting the job requirements matrix D. developing selection goals
79. The type of structured interview that assesses an applicant's ability to project what his/her behavior would be in the future is the ____________ interview. A. situational B. experience-based C. projective D. KSAO-based
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80. Which of the following is(are) true based on research regarding interviews? A. The validity of structured interviews is low. B. Situational interviews are less valid than job-related interviews. C. Panel interviews were less valid than individual interviews. D. All of the above are true.
81. The correlation between structured interviews and cognitive ability tests is ____________. A. positive B. zero C. moderately negative D. very negative
82. Applicants' reactions to interviews tend to be _________. A. very favorable B. somewhat favorable C. neutral D. somewhat unfavorable
83. Selection for team contexts ____. A. is not much different than for selection in general B. should emphasize both interpersonal and self-management KSAOs C. should not involve members of the team, because that only leads to resentment D. all of the above
84. Discretionary assessment methods are typically highly subjective and rely heavily on the intuition of the decision maker. TRUE
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85. Contingent assessment methods are always used in the selection process. FALSE
86. Studies suggest that drug users are no more likely to be involved in accidents or to be injured at work. FALSE
87. Individuals who use drugs have been shown to have higher levels of absenteeism and counterproductive work behaviors. TRUE
88. Federal law prohibits drug testing for a majority of jobs. FALSE
89. Drug test results can be very accurate with low error rates, if the proper procedures are followed. TRUE
90. Some organizations have begun to screen out those who smoke tobacco. TRUE
91. Drug testing methods have become so accurate that it is no longer considered necessary to use retesting to validate samples from an initial screening test. FALSE
92. Organizations may make medical inquiries or require medical exams prior to making a job offer. FALSE
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93. A medical examination for employees is defined the same way as for job applicants. TRUE
94. Which of the following is true regarding drug testing? A. Applicants were twice as likely to be tested for alcohol use as drug use. B. The rate of drug testing has declined slightly in recent years. C. Upper-level employees are more likely to be tested than lower-level employees. D. All of the above are true.
95. Which of the following is a recommendation for the use of drug testing programs? A. Drug testing should be done with all jobs. B. Do not inform applicants of the test results. C. Provide rejected applicants with an opportunity to appeal. D. All of the above
96. Drug tests are not common for many jobs because _____. A. drug tests do not "catch" many people B. the law essentially bans drug tests for all jobs not involving operating a vehicle C. drug tests are extremely expensive D. the tests produce a massive number of false positive results
97. Organizations may not ______ prior to making a job offer. A. make medical inquiries B. conduct background checks C. discuss job responsibilities D. none of the above
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Legal Issues
True / False Questions
98. The UGESP addresses the need to determine if a selection procedure is causing adverse impact, and if so, the validation requirements for the procedure. TRUE
99. Any selection procedure that has an adverse impact is deemed discriminatory by the UGESP unless it has been shown to be valid. TRUE
100. The three types of validity studies considered acceptable by the UGESP include face validity, construct validity, and administrative validity. FALSE
101. It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities, unless the selection procedure is job-related and consistent with business necessity. TRUE
102. An organization may not require medical exams of an applicant, nor make a job offer conditional, pending the results of a medical exam. FALSE
103. There are some jobs for which drug and alcohol testing is mandated by law. TRUE
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104. Records for medical exams of established employees must be kept in relative confidence, although most jurisdictions allow for this information to be shared with supervisors and members of the work group if the employer deems it wise. FALSE
105. The best description of UGESP is that they are _____. A. regulations for drug testing in the workplace B. a set of federal regulations related to selection systems as covered by the Civil Rights Act C. a set of regulations relating only to disabled individuals D. regulations that deal only with gender equity and job selection
106. The UGESP requires employers to ____. A. keep records based on religion and marital status for all employees B. perform a local validation study for every subgroup of employees C. consider suitable alternative selection procedures if one of the selection techniques has adverse impact D. assess employee history of drug abuse
107. Which of the following items is a major principle pertaining to selection under the Americans with Disabilities Act? A. It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities unless the procedure is consistent with a business necessity B. It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities for any reason C. It is unlawful for employers to require employees to physical agility tests in a selection context D. The employer can retain the right to refuse to hire individuals with disabilities if customers have a strong preference for not encountering disabled staff
108. Which of the following inquiries can be made prior to giving a job offer? A. Questions about history of illegal drug use B. Psychological exams designed to detect mental illness C. Oral or written questions about the existence of a disability D. None of the above
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