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d) 20%
e) 25%
8) The average 75-year-old has at least how many chronic conditions?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5
9) Which of the following is true of the elderly?
a) Make up 13% of the population
b) Make up 36% of hospital stays
c) Make up 49% of all days of hospital care
d) Make up 50% of all physician hours
e) All of the above
10) What percentage of all hospital admissions are caused by inappropriate drug
prescribing?
a) 3%
b) 7%
c) 13%
d) 17%
e) 23%
11) Which of the following would be paid by Part B of Medicare?
a) Hospitals
b) Nursing homes
c) Ambulances
d) Home-care agencies
e) Hospice programs
12) Which of the following is currently the most common scenario for patients 65 or
older who are eligible for Part B?
a) If entitled to Part A (e.g. paid taxes for 10 years), Part B is free
b) Part B has a monthly cost and is usually paid by personal check
c) Part B has a monthly cost and is usually paid by credit card
d) Part B has a monthly cost and is usually deducted from a monthly pay check
e) Part B has a monthly cost and is usually deducted from a social security check
13) An 86-year-old white female presents to the ER with chief complaint of shortness of
breath. The patient is admitted to the hospital medical floor for bilateral pneumonia.
During the stay, it was noted that the patient has been falling at home. The patient
received IV antibiotics for 48-hours and was switched to PO antibiotics on the third day
of admission. The patient was seen by her primary care physician during her stay. The
primary care physician consulted a geriatric service for rehabilitation evaluation and was
recommended to start in-patient physical therapy. It was also recommended that the
patient be transferred to a Transitional Care Unit (Short-Term Skilled Nursing Facility)
for 7-10 days of rehabilitation for ambulatory dysfunction and strengthening. The patient
has Medicare Part A and Part B with Highmark Blue Cross insurance for secondary. Who
pays for the acute hospital stay?
a) Medicare Part A
b) Medicare Part B
c) Highmark Blue Cross
d) Medicare Part B and Highmark Blue Cross
e) Patient (out of pocket)
14) In the above 86-year-old patient, who pays for the majority of the physician’s fees?
a) Medicare Part A
b) Medicare Part B
c) Highmark Blue Cross
d) Medicare Part B and Highmark Blue Cross
e) Patient (out of pocket)
15) In the above 86-year-old patient, who pays for in-patient physical therapy?
a) Medicare Part A
b) Medicare Part B
c) Highmark Blue Cross
d) Medicare Part B and Highmark Blue Cross
e) Patient (out of pocket)
16) In the above 86-year-old patient, who pays for the short-term rehabilitation stay?
a) Medicare Part A
b) Medicare Part B
c) Highmark Blue Cross
d) Medicare Part B and Highmark Blue Cross
e) Patient (out of pocket)
17) What chronic condition has the highest prevalence among persons aged 65 and over?
a) Arthritic symptoms
b) Heart disease
c) Hypertension
d) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
e) Cancer
18) Who has the lowest life expectance to age 65 in the United states?
a) White males
b) White females
c) Black males
d) Black females
19) What is the most common cause of death in patients aged 65 or older?
a) Diseases of the heart
b) Malignant neoplasms
c) Cerebrovascular disease
d) Chronic lower respiratory disease
e) Influenza and pneumonia
20) Which of the following insurance plans covers all traditional Medicare benefits plus
additional services but restricts the patient to a single network?
a) Fee-For-Service Medicare
b) Medicaid
c) Medigap insurance
d) Medicare Advantage plan
a) TTAGGG
b) AATCCC
c) GGGATT
d) CCCTAA
9) What is the hallmark of cell necrosis?
a) Cell DNA fragmentation
b) Cell atrophy
c) Decreased cell replication
d) Storage of lipids
e) Loss of ion gradients
10) What is the hallmark of cell apoptosis, such as in Alzheimer disease?
a) Cell DNA fragmentation
b) Cell atrophy
c) Decreased cell replication
d) Storage of lipids
e) Loss of ion gradients
5) Which of the following free radicals is converted to water and oxygen via glutathione
peroxidase?
a) Superoxide ion
b) Hydrogen radial
c) Singlet oxygen
d) Hydrogen peroxide
e) Hypochlorous acid
6) Which of the following has NOT been shown to prevent the harmful effects of
oxidation?
a) Selenium
b) Beta carotene
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
e) Vitamin E
7) Advanced glycation end (AGE) products are engulfed by macrophages, enter the blood
stream, and are eventually filtered out by what organ?
a) Spleen
b) Liver
c) Kidney
d) Biliary tract
e) They are not filtered
8) Which of the following symptoms of progeroid (e.g. Hutchinson-Gilford Syndrome
mutation of Lamin A gene) is NOT similar to normal changes observed in the elderly?
a) Decreased gonadal activity
b) Dry, wrinkled skin
c) Osteoporosis
d) Baldness
9) What gene is affected in autosomal recessive Werner syndrome?
a) Lamin A
b) DNA helicase
c) Topoisomerase
d) Dystrophin
e) Fibrillin
10) Which of the following is also known as neonatal progeroid syndrome?
a) Hutchinson-Gilford syndrome
b) Werner syndrome
c) Wiedemann-Rautenstrauch syndrome
d) Down syndrome
11) Which of the following shares pathology with Alzheimer patients and could have
CNS that stains apple-green with Congo red stain?
a) Hutchinson-Gilford syndrome
b) Werner syndrome
c) Wiedemann-Rautenstrauch syndrome
d) Down syndrome
12) Which of the following are most affected by thymic involution due to aging?
a) T-cells
b) B-cells
c) NK cells
d) RBCs
e) Platelets
13) Which of the following is true in the elderly when comparing the ratio of naïve T-
cells to memory T-cells?
a) The ratio is high
b) The ratio is about 1
c) The ratio is low
14) Which of the following is true of CD markers on aged T-cells?
a) CD28 and CD69 markers are high
b) CD28 marker is high and CD69 marker is low
c) CD28 marker is low and CD69 marker is high
d) CD28 and CD69 markers are low
15) A decrease in which of the following in T-cells with age effectively halts signal
transduction by failing to stimulate enzymes (e.g. protein kinase C) and can also impair
production of cytokines?
a) Sodium
b) Potassium
c) Glucose
d) Zinc
e) Calcium
16) What immunoglobulin is the first class of antibodies to respond to infection and
decreases in production with aging?
a) IgA
b) IgD
c) IgE
d) IgG
e) IgM
17) Long-term deficiency of which of the following in the elderly causes a decrease in
cytokine production and impaired regulation of helper T-cell activity?
a) Sodium
b) Potassium
c) Glucose
d) Zinc
e) Calcium
18) What vitamin has been implicated as a possible treatment for Alzheimer disease?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B9
c) Vitamin B12
d) Vitamin D
e) Vitamin E
b) Hypermetropia
c) Astigmatism
d) Keratoconus
e) Glaucoma
4) Hearing impairment with the older adult has an insidious onset and become clinically
evident in the 5th and 6th decades of life. Auditory nerve deterioration leads to
presbycusis. Why type of hearing impairment is most common?
a) Asymmetric (unilateral) high frequency loss
b) Asymmetric (unilateral) low frequency loss
c) Symmetric (bilateral) high frequency loss
d) Symmetric (bilateral) low frequency loss
5) Which of the following is true?
a) Infection is an uncommon sequela of xerodermia
b) Lac-Hydrin cream is an option for xerodermia
c) Fever is more common in infection of the elderly
d) Peak fever temperature is higher in the elderly
e) Thirst drive is increased in the elderly
6) What is the formula for pO2 changes with advancing age?
a) 100 – (age/2)
b) 100 + (age/2)
c) 100 – (age/3)
d) 100 + (age/3)
7) What percentage of elderly patients have olfactory impairment, according to a 2002
JAMA study?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
e) 25%
8) Over 60% of people over 80 surveyed had olfactory impairment. Which of the
following is NOT a risk factor?
a) Age
b) Smoking
c) Stroke
d) Female gender
e) Medications
9) Which of the following is a more ominous finding suggestive of Alzheimer dementia
instead of delirium?
a) Misplacing one’s car keys
b) Forgetting names of casual acquaintances
c) Forgetting one’s address
d) Forgetting items at the grocery store
e) Forgetting appointments
10) As a member in good standing of the American Geriatrics Society, you are asked to
help design the normal ranges table that is attached to the end of the test booklet for the
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American Osteopathic Boards of Internal Medicine. Which of the following tests would
show changes in the geriatric population?
a) Ejection fraction on echocardiogram
b) Hemoglobin level
c) Thyroid stimulating hormone
d) Prostate-specific antigen
11) What stage of sleep is increased in the elderly?
a) Stage 1
b) Stage 2
c) Stage 3
d) Stage 4
e) Early-onset REM
12) Which of the following changes seen in the elderly is important as it increases the
risk of falling?
a) Two-point discrimination
b) Proprioception
c) Stereognosis
d) Vibratory sense
e) Graphesthesia
13) An elderly patient with diabetes presents with increased somnolence. Blood glucose
is 300mg/dL. No fever or suprapubic pain is present. Patient denies urinary frequency.
Urine analysis reveals cloudy, foul-smelling urine. Urine dipstick shows nitrates,
leukocyte esterase, and multiple white blood cells. Skin is cool to the touch with mild
tending. Which of the following is most likely?
a) Septicemia
b) Pyelonephritis
c) Urosepsis
Geriatrics #6 – Frailty
1) Which of the following is NOT associated with the definition of frailty (e.g.
homeostenosis)?
a) Co-morbid disease
b) Dependency
c) Disability
d) Age < 80
2) Which of the following, along with the sympathetic nervous system (e.g.
norepinephrine), increases with age?
a) Growth hormone & IGF-1
b) DHEA-S
c) Cortisol
d) Estrogen
e) Testosterone
3) Elevated levels of C-reactive protein and IL-6 in the elderly may have which of the
following effects?
a) Decreased iron metabolism
b) Loss of muscle mass
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b) Humerus
c) Cranium
d) Wrist
e) Ankle
7) A fracture obtained from a fall from the standing position is diagnostic for
osteoporosis, even without lab testing.
a) True
b) False
8) An elderly patient presents with anticholinergic symptoms and extrapyramidal signs.
The patient also complains of oscillopsia (sensation of environment moving while
walking or turning head). It is determined that the cause is one of their medications.
Which of the following is most likely the cause?
a) Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam)
b) Zolpidem (Ambien)
c) Neuroleptic (e.g. haloperidol)
d) Digoxin (Lanoxin)
e) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
9) An elderly patient presents with complains of feeling like they are going to faint
(presyncope). The patient states the feeling almost always occurs when they are trying to
reach for items on a high shelf in the kitchen. Physical exam reveals no nystagmus with
head thrust, no symptoms with head turning, but asymmetric blood pressure in the arms.
Which of the following is most likely?
a) Orthostatic hypotension
b) Postprandial hypotension
c) Carotid sinus syndrome
d) Subclavian steal syndrome
e) Congenital coarctation of the aorta
10) Which of the following is most associated with a positive sternal nudge test and a
positive glabella tap test?
a) Huntington disease
b) Alzheimer disease
c) Parkinson disease
d) Sydenham chorea
e) Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome
11) What is a normal timed Get Up and Go test?
a) Less than 5 seconds
b) Less than 10 seconds
c) Less than 15 seconds
d) Less than 20 seconds
e) Less than 30 seconds
12) Which of the following has been shown to increase falls risk?
a) 25-OH-Vitamin D levels < 32ng/mL
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Cervical spinal stenosis
d) Proprioception loss
e) All of the above
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c) Ibuprofen
d) Ketorlac
e) Naproxen
8) Which of the following anti-emetics is the LEAST effective in the elderly?
a) Ondansetron
b) Diphenhydramine
c) Midazolam
d) Trimethobenzamide
e) Granisetron
9) Which of the following tricyclic antidepressants is highly sedative and anticholinergic
in the elderly and therefore is not recommended as a first line agent?
a) Iprindole
b) Opipramol
c) Amoxapine
d) Trimipramine
e) Amitriptyline
10) Which of the following is associated with confusion and prolonged sedation in the
elderly due to its central antihistamine action?
a) Ondansetron
b) Diphenhydramine
c) Midazolam
d) Trimethobenzamide
e) Granisetron
11) Methyldopa combination and cause which of the following effects?
a) Bradycardia
b) Tachycardia
c) Hypotension
d) Hypertension
e) Improved mood
12) Why should barbiturates (except phenobarbital) be avoided in the elderly?
a) Increase fall risk
b) Highly addictive
c) Cause confusion
d) Cause sedation
e) Aspiration risk
13) Long acting NSAIDs (e.g. naproxen, piroxicam) can have all of the following affects
on the elderly EXCEPT:
a) Renal failure
b) GI bleeding
c) Heart failure
d) Hypotension
14) What common SSRI antidepressant should be avoided in the elderly due to CNS
stimulation, sleep disturbances, and increased agitation?
a) Sertraline
b) Paroxetine
c) Fluoxetine
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d) Citalopram
e) Escitalopram
15) Nitrofurantoin, a drug used commonly for urinary tract infections, should be avoided
in the elderly due to an increase risk of damage to which of the following?
a) Brain
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Kidney
e) GI tract
16) Mineral oil should be avoided in the elderly for what reason?
a) Increase fall risk
b) Highly addictive
c) Cause confusion
d) Cause sedation
e) Aspiration risk
Geriatrics #9 – Polypharmacy
1) Which of the following is true for the elderly population?
a) Have an increase in total body water
b) Have a decrease in body fat
c) Have a reduction in loading dose for water soluble drugs
d) Have a decreased duration of effect for fat soluble drugs
e) Have an increase in lean body mass
2) An elderly woman undergoes a bronchoscopy requiring 50mcg of fentanyl. Six months
later, the same drug dose causes apnea. What is the most likely cause?
a) Altered concentrations of proteins
b) Altered body fat
c) Altered lean body mass
d) Altered glomerular filtration rate
e) Altered liver function
3) An elderly man has recurrent episodes of ventricular fibrillation and is started in IV
lidocaine. Twelve hours later, the man suffers a heart attack and becomes slightly
hypotensive. Over the next 24-hours, the man becomes increasingly confused. What is
the most likely cause?
a) Altered concentrations of proteins
b) Altered body fat
c) Altered lean body mass
d) Altered glomerular filtration rate
e) Altered liver function
4) An elderly patient with coronary artery disease (CAD) and diabetes mellitus (DM) has
been taking insulin, atenolol, aspirin, and simvastatin for over 10-years. Recently, her
resting pulse has dropped from 64 to 48. What is the most likely cause?
a) Altered concentrations of proteins
b) Altered body fat
c) Altered lean body mass
d) Altered glomerular filtration rate
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11) Amphotericin precipitates in which of the following solutions, and can erode the
bladder wall if used for bladder washes?
a) Normal saline
b) D5W dextrose
c) Lactated Ringer
12) Which of the following drugs used to treat a UTI has drug-drug interations via P450
mechanism (2C9) with warfarin?
a) Nitrofurantoin
b) TMP-SMX
c) Ciprofloxacin
d) Amoxicillin
e) Erythromycin
13) Which of the following drugs is a prodrug that requires P450 2D6, which can be
inhibited by the use of fluoxetine?
a) Acetaminophen
b) Morphine
c) Naproxen
d) Fentanyl
e) Codeine
14) What side-effect is seen in the elderly who take tricyclics, alpha-agonists, or
anticholinergic medications?
a) Delirium
b) Postural hypotension
c) Diarrhea
d) Urinary retention
e) Tachycardia
15) Which of the following drugs can exacerbate congestive heart failure (CHF)
symptoms in the elderly?
a) Diuretics
b) Anticholinergics
c) Antihistamines
d) Antibiotics
e) NSAIDs
16) Which of the following drugs is considered completely safe for the elderly?
a) Long acting benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam (Valium))
b) Propoxyphene (Darvon)
c) Merperidine (Demerol)
d) Anticholinergics (e.g. Benadryl, Levsin)
e) Amitryptyline (Elavil)
f) Indomethacin (Indocin)
g) Muscle relaxants (e.g. Soma, Flexeril)
h) None of the above
17) Which of the following improves drug adherence in the elderly?
a) Belief that the drug will work
b) Increased number of drugs
c) Long duration of therapy
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b) Percocet
c) Diazepam
d) Propoxyphene
e) Amitryptyline
8) To prevent dehydration in an elderly patient, what should their BUN:Creatinine ratio
be maintained at?
a) <5
b) <7
c) 10
d) >13
e) >17
9) An elderly hospitalized patient has “dangerous” agitation. They are unwilling to take
oral medication. Which of the following is a safe medication to help reduce their
agitation?
a) Risperidone
b) Phenytoin
c) Diazepam
d) Haldol
e) Trazodone
10) In the six-item screener, three items are used as recall (e.g. apple, penny, table) and
three items are for temporal orientation (e.g day of week, month, year). An abnormal test
occurs if how many are missed?
a) 1 or more
b) 2 or more
c) 3 or more
d) 4 or more
e) 5 or more
11) Which of the following patients would NOT have dementia per the MINI-COG test,
which has been shown to outperform the mini mental status examination (MMSE)?
a) A score of 0 on 3-item recall with normal clock-draw test (CDT)
b) A score of 1 on 3-item recall with abnormal clock-draw test (CDT)
c) A score of 1 on 3-item recall with normal clock-draw test (CDT)
d) A score of 2 on 3-item recall with abnormal clock-draw test (CDT)
e) A score of 0 on 3-item recall with abnormal clock-draw test (CDT)
12) CLOX, an executive drawing task, involves having a patient draw a clock with 1:45
on the face and then copying a clock drawn by the evaluator. This test is used to
discriminate cerebral vasculopathy (CVD) from which of the following?
a) Huntington disease
b) Alzheimer disease
c) Parkinson disease
d) Sydenham chorea
e) Neurosyphilis
13) Which of the following pharmacologic agents used to reduce cognitive deterioration
is an NMDA-receptor antagonist (not a cholinesterase inhibitor)?
a) Memantine
b) Galantamine
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c) Rivastigmine
d) Donepezil
14) Which of the following has the highest rate of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea?
a) Memantine
b) Galantamine
c) Rivastigmine
d) Donepezil
15) During the attention and calculation portion of the mini mental status exam (MMSE),
the patient is asked to count backwards from 100, subtracting what number each time?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 5
d) 7
e) 9
16) Asking a patient during the MMSE to “take a paper in your right hand, fold it in half,
and put it on the floor” is addressing what component?
a) Orientation
b) Registration
c) Recall
d) Language
e) Construction
17) Asking a patient during the MMSE to copy a design of a complex polygon (two
overlapping pentagons) is addressing what component?
a) Orientation
b) Registration
c) Recall
d) Language
e) Construction
18) The Memory Impairment Screen (MIS) involves 4 items in a delayed and cued free
recall test over 3-minutes, with a total of 8 points. What is the cutoff score for this exam?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
19) Which of the following mental status examinations involves having the patient name
as many animals as they can in a minute, repeat a series of numbers backwards,
identifying a geometric shape, and answering questions about a short story?
a) Mini Mental Status Exam (MMSE)
b) Memory Impairment Screen (MIS)
c) Functional Activities Questionnaire (FAQ)
d) St. Louis University Mental Status Exam (SLUMS)
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b) One week
c) Two weeks
d) One month
e) Two months
2) Which of the following older adult populations has the highest incidence of
depression?
a) Medical outpatients
b) Female medical inpatients
c) Male medical inpatients
d) Female long-term care facility patients
e) Male long-term care facility patients
3) Which of the following is NOT true?
a) Women are more likely to complete suicide than men
b) Guns is a suicide mechanism used mostly by men
c) Laceration is a suicide mechanism used mostly by women
d) Hanging is a suicide mechanism used mostly by men
e) Overdose is a suicide mechanism used mostly by women
4) Approximately what percent of patients who attempt suicide have seen a primary care
physician in the past 30 days?
a) 5%
b) 14%
c) 35%
d) 50%
e) 75%
5) Which of the following is true according to the 1999 JAMA article regarding
psychothereapy and medication for treating depression?
a) Placebo was the most effective
b) Therapy alone was the most effective
c) Nortrip alone was the most effective
d) Therapy and nortrip in combination was the most effective
e) Adding nortrip to ongoing therapy had no significant affect
6) A patient is being treated for depression and presents with complaints of nausea,
diarrhea, anorexia, and fatigue. Testing shows hyponatremia. Which of the following is
most likely being taken by the patient?
a) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
b) Fluoxetine (Prozac)
c) Mirtazepine (Remeron)
d) Venlafaxine (Effexor)
e) Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
7) Which of the following anti-depressants is associated with sedation and possible
weight gain?
a) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
b) Fluoxetine (Prozac)
c) Mirtazepine (Remeron)
d) Venlafaxine (Effexor)
e) Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
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f) Phenelzine (Nardil)
8) What is the minimal treatment time for anti-depressants such as nortriptyline
(tricyclic), as relapse risk with early discontinuation is up to 70%?
a) 2 weeks
b) 4 weeks
c) 8-12 weeks
d) 9-12 months
e) 2-3 years
9) Which of the following is a fundamental aspect of Alzheimer disease and is associated
with low metabolic rate?
a) Apathy
b) Dysphoria
c) Forgetfulness
d) Poor executive skills
e) Poor concentration
10) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a safe and effective treatment for older persons
with depression and psychotic features.
a) True
b) False
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a) Urge incontinence
b) Stress incontinence
c) Overflow incontinence
d) Atonic bladder
e) Functional incontinence
5) A 69-year-old female presents to the primary care clinical for a follow-up. The patient
is taking Motrin in the morning and evenings, aspirin, Diovan, and Lipitor. History
reveals she drinks 2 glasses of wine with dinner most nights. Patient reports she has to go
to the bathroom “all the time.” The frequency occurs throughout the day, includes three
episodes of nocturia over the past 3 months, and has incontinence at minimum of 2 times
per day in small amounts. Which of the following is most likely?
a) Urge incontinence
b) Stress incontinence
c) Overflow incontinence
d) Atonic bladder
e) Functional incontinence
6) Which of the following is the first-line therapy for a patient with urge incontinence?
a) Detrol LA
b) Enablex
c) Oxybutin
d) Bladder training
e) Pelvic floor exercises
7) Which of the following is usually due to pelvic floor muscle dysfunction and involves
a loss of small amounts of urine with coughing, laughing, or sneezing?
a) Urge incontinence
b) Stress incontinence
c) Overflow incontinence
d) Atonic bladder
e) Functional incontinence
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3) The Harris-Benedict equation for estimation of basal body expenditure, for males, is
66 + (13.6 * kg weight) + (5 * cm height) – (6.8 * age). What should this be multiplied
by in stressed individuals to determine basal body expenditure?
a) 0.95
b) 1.5
c) 1.95
d) 2.5
e) 2.95
4) A 59-year-old male is admitted for acute respiratory failure, COPD exacerbation, and
bilateral pneumonia. History includes type-II diabetes, COPD, obesity, and hypertension.
The patient is intubated and placed in the ICU. At ICU day #2, the patient is started on a
Glucerna tube that feeds at 80cc/hr (1920kcal/day). The patient weights 100kg, is 168cm
tall, and has a BMI of 35. How many calories does this patient actually need?
a) 1800
b) 2000
c) 2300
d) 2700
5) Which of the following hospital diets is low sodium and low cholesterol?
a) Regular
b) ADA
c) Regular with NCS
d) Cardiac
e) Mechanical soft
6) Which of the following supplements is given to improve wound healing?
a) Ensure
b) Two Cal HN
c) Arginaid
d) Pulmocare
e) Glucerna
7) Which of the following supplements is given to decrease CO2 production?
a) Ensure
b) Two Cal HN
c) Arginaid
d) Pulmocare
e) Glucerna
8) Which of the following is true of tube feeds in patients with dementia?
a) Reduce aspiration
b) Reduce pressure ulcers
c) Improve mortality
d) Improve quality of life
e) None of the above
9) Which of the following appetite stimulants can cause somnolence and dysphoria?
a) Megestrol (Megace)
b) Mirtazapine (Remeron)
c) Dronabinol (Marinol)
d) Cyproheptadine (Periactin)
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10) Which of the following appetite stimulants is a serotonin and histamine antagonist
and can increase confusion?
a) Megestrol (Megace)
b) Mirtazapine (Remeron)
c) Dronabinol (Marinol)
d) Cyproheptadine (Periactin)
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