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8) Alkaline Phosphatase is in every cell and removes phosphate groups from proteins. If
tissue is incubated in Gomori stain, cells with active phophatase will give a dark
precipitate. This is an example of:
a) En vivo stain
b) In vivo stain
c) Enzyme histochemistry
d) X-Gal reaction
e) Motion paralax
9) Which of the following is NOT matched correctly?
a) Golgi stain; developed in 1970
b) DeOlmos stain; for viewing degenerating cells
c) Golgi stain; stains one cell at a time
d) DeOlmos stain; shows PCP damage to neurons
e) Golgi stain; for visualizing neuron structure
10) Which of the following is NOT true when comparing polyclonal to monoclonal
antibodies?
a) Polyclonal antibodies are made in animals
b) Monoclonal antibodies are made in a single animal
c) Monoclonal antibodies have less cross reactivity than polyclonal
d) The direct labeling method puts a visual label on the antibody
e) The indirect labeling method puts a label on a secondary antibody to save cost
11) Which of the following best describes in situ hybridization?
a) Double helix DNA used
b) Double helix RNA used
c) Matching DNA strand used
d) Matching RNA strand used
e) Complementary DNA strand used
12) Autoradiography requires injecting an animal or cells with a radioactive ____, such
as H3 (3H-thymidine).
a) DNA strand
b) RNA strand
c) Coat
d) Probe
e) Emulsion
13) When viewing an electronic microscopy slide treated with Lead and Uranium, you
see the outline of the cell membrane. What are you actually seeing?
a) Membrane proteins
b) Membrane lipids
c) Heavy metals
d) Membrane phosophlipids
e) Membrane sugars
c) Mitochondrial proteins
d) Peroxisomal proteins
e) Soluble cytoplasmic proteins
4) Which of the following molecules is NOT synthesized on or in the RER?
a) Phospholipids
b) Steroids
c) Golgi p-roteins
d) Lysosomal proteins
e) Membrand and secreted proteins
5) The pathway for a secretory protein leaving the cell would be:
a) RER (stop sequence) to SER to Golgi trans face to Golgi cis fast to secretion
b) RER (stop sequence) to SER to Golgi cis face to Golgi trans face to secretion
c) Free floating ribosomes (stop sequence) to RER to Golgi trans face to Golgi cis
fast to secretion
d) Free floating ribosomes (stop sequence) to RER to Golgi cis face to Golgi trans
face to secretion
e) SER (stop sequence) to Golgi trans face to Golgi cis face to secretion
6) The attachment of Ubiquitin to a protein leads to:
a) Protein secretion
b) Protein synthesis
c) Lysosomal degradation
d) Peroxisomal degradation
e) Proteosomal degradation
7) On an electron micrograph you see large, round, fatty deposits in the cell. After more
investigation, you determine the patient has I-Cell (inclusion-cell) Disease as the cell is
accumulating unneeded inclusions. What causes this disorder?
a) Failure to label proteins for peroxisomes
b) Failure to label proteins for secretion
c) Failure to label proteins for lysosomes
d) Failure to label proteins for synthesis
e) Failure to label proteins for conversion
Histology #5 – Epithelium I
1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epithelial cells?
a) Cohesive
b) Avascular
c) Organized
d) Contents are the same from apical to basal
e) Contain cytokeratins
2) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the basal lamina?
a) It lies between epithelial cells and connective tissue
b) It is made of reticular lamina
c) It contains the lamina densa
d) It contains the lamina lucida
e) Main components include type IV collagen and laminin
3) Which of the following is NOT a function of epithelial cells?
a) Impulse conduction
b) Sensation (neuroepithelium)
c) Transport
d) Absorption
e) Protection
4) Which of the following prevents the movement of materials between adjacent cells?
a) Microvillus
b) Zonula adherens
c) Zonula occludens
d) Desmosome
e) Gap junctions
5) The ____ function to adhere neighboring cells and the ____ function to adhere cells to
the basement membrane.
a) Hemidesmosomes, Desmosomes
b) Cadherins; Desmosomes
c) Hemidesmosomes; Integrines
d) Integrins; Cadherins
e) Desmosomes, Hemidesmosomes
6) Which of the following is involved in cell-to-cell communication?
a) Gap junctions
b) Desmosomes
c) Demilunes
d) Hemidesmosomes
e) Basal lamina
Histology #6 – Epithelium II
1) Which of the following is NOT matched correctly?
a) Simple squamous; flattened nucleus
b) Simple cuboidal; rounded nucleus
c) Simple columnar; circular nucleus
d) Simple squamous; lining of blood vessels
e) Simple cuboidal; tubules of kidney
2) Which of the following contribute to the brush border?
a) Actin and microvilli
b) Microvilli and glycocalyx
c) Glycocalyx and actin
d) Actin and myosin
e) Protein and sugar
c) Alveolar
d) Tubular
e) Acinar
11) Neuroendocrine cells (e.g. DNES) are considered ____ cells because they produce
chemical signals that diffuse into the surrounding extracellular fluid to regulate the
function of neighboring cells, without passing through the vascular system.
a) Autocrine
b) Exocrine
c) Holocrine
d) Paracrine
e) Merocrine
12) Steroid-secreting cells stain pink due to large amounts of eosinophilic ____.
a) RER
b) SER
c) Cytoplasm
d) Nuclear membranes
e) Peroxisomes
13) Which of the following best describes goblet cell cancer?
a) Lymphoma
b) Carcinoma
c) Adenocarcinoma
d) Sarcoma
e) Adenosarcoma
Histology #7 – Muscle I
1) Which of the following best describes the contraction of cardiac muscle?
a) Strong, quick, discontinuous, voluntary
b) Strong, quick, continuous, voluntary
c) Strong, quick, continuous, involuntary
d) Strong, quick, discontinuous, involuntary
e) Weak, slow, involuntary
2) Mature muscle cells develop from ____ and initially from ____.
a) Myoglobin; Myotubes
b) Myotubes; Myoblasts
c) Myoblasts; Myoglobin
d) Myoblasts; Mytotubes
e) Myotubes; Myoglobin
3) What is the function of endomysium?
a) Separates muscle fibers
b) Contraction
c) Cell boundary
d) Contains bundles of muscle fibers
e) Covers the muscle
4) TnT associates with ____.
a) ATP
b) ADP
c) Actin
d) Tropomyosin
e) Ca2+
5) TnC interacts with ____, which is required to move muscle.
a) ATP
b) ADP
c) Actin
d) Tropomyosin
e) Ca2+
6) TnI inhibits the ____ interaction.
a) Ca2+/TnC
b) Cross-bridge
c) Actin/Myosin
d) TnC/TnT
e) TnC/ADP
7) Which of the following is associated with the M-line?
a) Alpha actinin
b) Creatine Kinase
c) Myosin
d) Tropomyosin
e) ATPase
8) Which of the following is associated with the Z-disc?
a) Alpha actinin
b) Creatine Kinase
c) Myosin
d) Tropomyosin
e) ATPase
9) Which of the following is associated with the H-zone/band?
a) Alpha actinin
b) Creatine Kinase
c) Myosin
d) Tropomyosin
e) ATPase
10) (A-band) – (Zone of Overlap) =
a) Z-disc
b) M-line
c) H-zone
d) I-band
e) (A-band) / 2
11) Which of the following is associated with the I-band?
a) Alpha actinin
b) Creatine Kinase
c) Myosin
d) Tropomyosin
e) Actin
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Histology #8 – Muscle II
1) What structure invaginates into the middle of the muscle cell to transport Ca2+ into the
middle of the cell when it is released into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, to help depolarize
the membrane?
a) Basal lamina
b) Myofibrils
c) T-tubules
d) Reticular fibers
e) Sarcolemma
2) What structures form what is known as the triad?
a) 3 T-tubules
b) 2 T-tubules, 1 Sarcoplasmic reticulum
c) 1.5 T-tubules, 1.5 Sarcoplasmic reticulums
d) 1 T-tubule, 2 Sarcoplasmic reticulums
e) 3 Sarcoplasmic reticulums
3) Which of the following is true for White skeletal muscle fibers?
a) Lots of ATP
b) Large glycogen store
c) For prolonged contractions
d) Found in erector spinae
e) Fast-twitch
4) A patient arrives at the Emergency Room complaining of difficulty breathing,
vomiting, and diarrhea. The patient, a farmer, was exposed to an organophosphate
fertilizer (similar to nerve gas). These chemicals bind to acetylcholinesterase and, in vivo,
are abundant in comparison to acetylcholine. What would be the likely result of this
interaction on skeletal muscle and what action would you look for in a drug to help fix
this clinical problem?
a) No muscle stimulation; Increase acetylcholine production
b) No muscle stimulation; Increase acetylcholinesterase production
c) Muscle over-stimulation; Increase acetylcholine production
d) Muscle over-stimulation; Increase acetylcholinesterase production
e) Muscle over-stimulation; Cleave current bond to acetylcholinesterase
5) What is the function of epimysium?
a) Separates muscle fibers
b) Covers the muscle with dense connective tissue
c) Cell boundary
d) Contains bundles of muscle fibers
e) Contraction
6) In a fully contracted muscle, which of the following disappears?
a) H-zone
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b) M-line
c) Z-disc
d) I-band
e) A-band
7) What enters the voltage gated channels and causes the synaptic vesicles to release
acetylcholine?
a) ACh
b) AChE
c) Ca2+
d) Actin
e) Myosin
8) You are looking at a stained slide that was treated with pararosaniline-toluidine blue
(PT stain). You notice dark-staining transverse lines that cross the chains of cells at
irregular intervals. These are unique to what type of muscle?
a) Non-striated
b) Cardiac
c) Skeletal
d) Smooth
e) Endodermic
9) In a small muscle such as the interossei of the fingers, one can expect to see ____ cells
innervated by a single axon.
a) No
b) Very few
c) Average; this number does not change between muscles in the body
d) Many
e) More than most other muscles in the body
10) Cardiac muscle characteristically has ____ T-tubule(s) and ____ sarcoplasmic
reticulum(s).
a) 2; 1
b) 1; 2
c) 2; 2
d) 1; 1
e) 3; 3
11) Which of the following is not a junctional specialization within cardiac muscle
intercalated discs?
a) Zona adherens
b) Fascia adherens
c) Desmosomes
d) Gap junction
12) What type of muscle can be found in the walls hollow organs and sphincters?
a) Skeletal
b) Cardiac
c) Smooth
13) What binds to Ca2+ and allows smooth muscle to contract?
a) Desmin
b) Vimentin
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c) Actin
d) Myosin
e) Calmogulin
14) Which of the following is associated with dense bodies in smooth muscle?
a) Alpha actinin
b) Creatine Kinase
c) Myosin
d) Tropomyosin
e) ATPase
15) What type of muscle cannot regenerate?
a) Skeletal
b) Cardiac
c) Smooth
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e) Loose
6) Which of the following is characteristic of dense irregular connective tissue and NOT
of dense regular connective tissue.
a) Few fibroblasts
b) Little ground substance
c) Fibers arranged in a parallel array
d) Found in hollow organ submucosa
e) Large amounts of collagen fibers
7) Which of the following is found in both the ground substance and extracellular matrix?
a) Proteoglycans
b) Glycoproteins
c) Glycosaminoglycans
d) Dermatan sulfate
e) Keratane sulfate
8) Which of the following is NOT true regarding collagen?
a) High tensile strength
b) Form covalent bonds between adjacent molecules
c) Stain with hemotoxylin
d) Molecules are composed of three glycoprotein alpha-chains
e) Combination of 27 different alpha-chains can make 19 collagen types
9) Reticular fibers are composed of Type ____ collagen fibrils.
a) II
b) III
c) IV
d) I
e) VI
10) A lesion of the ____ gene results in Marfan’s sydrome.
a) Elastin
b) Tubuline
c) Reticulin
d) Collagenin
e) Fibrillin
11) The special stains orcein (brown) and resorcin-fuchsin (bluish-gray) are used for what
type of connective tissue?
a) Collagen fibers
b) Reticular fibers
c) Elastin fibers
d) Fibroblasts
e) Histiocytes
12) Resident cell populations (relatively stable component) include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a) Macrophages
b) Adipose cells
c) Mast cells
d) Basophils
e) Mesenchymal cells
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13) Transient cell populations (migrate from other tissues to specific stimuli) include all
of the following EXCEPT:
a) Fibroblasts
b) Lymphocyetes
c) Plasma cells
d) Neutrophils
e) Eosinophils
14) While looking at a section of skin (dermis, connective tissue) stained with H&E, you
see several elongated cells. What are these?
a) Mast cells
b) Fibroblasts
c) Elastin fibers
d) Reticular fibers
e) Histiocytes (Macrophages)
15) Similar in behavior to smooth muscle, these cells are seen in wound contraction and
closure.
a) Collagen fibers
b) Fibroblasts
c) Elastin fibers
d) Reticular fibers
e) Myofibroblasts
16) While looking at a section of lymph node at high magnification, you see some cells
that have kidney shaped nuclei, large golgi complexes, and lots of RER. What are these
structures?
a) Mast cells
b) Fibroblasts
c) Mesenchymal cells
d) Histiocytes
e) Reticular fibers
17) While looking at a respiratory tract section stained with tuloidin blue, you see
metachromatically stained granules. You notice large, ovoid cell with spherical nuclei.
You recall these cells are involved in anaphylactic reactions. What are they?
a) Mast cells
b) Fibroblasts
c) Mesenchymal cells
d) Histiocytes
e) Reticular fibers
18) These connective tissue cells are defensive, have Barr body nuclei in females, and are
capable of migrating.
a) Fibroblasts
b) Neutrophils
c) Basophils
d) Eosinophils
e) Mast cells
19) What type of lymphocyte differentiates in the thymus and is the most common?
a) B
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b) Plasma
c) T
d) NK (natural killer)
e) Basophil
20) What type of adipose cells is characteristics for newborns, has numerous
mitochondria, and several fat droplets in the cytoplasm?
a) White
b) Yellow
c) Gray
d) Brown
e) Black
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c) Basophilic; Dark
d) Basophilic; Light
7) You are looking at a slide of chondrocytes and do not see any isogenous groups
(clusters). What would this indicate?
a) Damaged cartilage
b) Eosinophilic cytoplasm
c) Old, non-dividing cartilage
d) Young, growing cartilage
e) Nothing can be discerned from this information
8) All of the following would stain lightly EXCEPT:
a) Golgi
b) Lipids
c) Chondroblast
d) Glycogen storage
9) Which of the following is NOT true regarding perichondrium?
a) Carries vessels and nerves to the avascular cartilage
b) Outer layer is rich in collagen fibers
c) Inner layer is source of new cartilage cells
d) It is always present at articular surfaces
e) A hemotoma pushing on the perichondrium would lead to cartilage death
10) What type of cartilage does not calcify with aging and stains with resourcin-fuchsin
or orcein?
a) Hyalin cartilage
b) Elastic cartilage
c) Fibrous cartilage
11) Which of the following is NOT true regarding fibrocartilage?
a) There is little collagen between isogenous groups
b) Chondrocytes sit in rows (isogenous groups)
c) There is no perichondrium
d) Stains with trichrome
12) You are looking at a slide of damaged cartilage and see a large eosinic area where
cartilage should be. What do you suspect is replacing the cartilage in this area?
a) Bone
b) Nerve tissue
c) Blood
d) Lymph
e) Muscle
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2) You are looking at a cross sectional slide of bone stained. You see several concentric
eosinophilic circles around a non-stained circle. What normally sits in the non-stained
area?
a) Nerve
b) Artery
c) Vein
d) Lamella
e) Lipids
3) The interstitial lamina is between the osteon space and is filled with ____ Haversian
systems. The outer circumferential lamella is under the ____ and the inner
circumferential lamella is under the ____.
a) Old; Haversian system; Lacunar space
b) New; Endosteum; Periosteum
c) Old; Endosteum; Periosteum
d) New; Periosteum; Endosteum
e) Old; Periosteum; Endosteum
4) Immature bone would have ____ lamella and would stain _____ basophilic.
a) More; More
b) Less; Less
c) More; Less
d) Less; More
5) Which of the following is a secretory cell (collagen secreting) capable of division?
a) Osteocytes
b) Osteoblasts
c) Osteoclasts
d) Osteoprogenitor cells
6) Which of the following are large multinucleated acidophilic cells that originate from
monocytes?
a) Osteocytes
b) Osteoblasts
c) Osteoclasts
d) Osteoprogenitor cells
7) What type of ossification occurs in the flat bones of the embryo skull and involves
mesenchymal cells turning into osteoblasts?
a) Endochondral
b) Heterotopic
c) Intramembranous
d) Epiphyseal
e) Metaphysis
8) What type of ossification uses hyaline cartilage and involves interstitial and
appositional growth (diameter increased via periosteum)?
a) Endochondral
b) Heterotopic
c) Intramembranous
d) Epiphyseal
e) Metaphysis
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9) During endochondral ossification, which zone has cartilage cells arranged in rows?
a) Zone of resorption
b) Zone of calcified cartilage
c) Zone of hypertrophy
d) Zone of proliferation
e) Zone of reserve cartilage
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8) Olfactory sensory cells are ____ and retinal sensory cells are ____.
a) Bipolar; Bipolar
b) Unipolar; Unipolar
c) Bipolar; Unipolar
d) Unipolar; Bipolar
e) Multipolar; Multipolar
9) Satellite cells are unique to the:
a) IML
b) Ventral horn
c) Dorsal root ganglion
d) Superior cervical ganglion
e) Cardiac plexus
10) Motor neurons (multipolar) in the spinal cord have cell bodies in the:
a) IML
b) Ventral horn
c) Dorsal root ganglion
d) Superior cervical ganglion
e) Cardiac plexus
11) The Giemsa Stain (a Nissl stain) could show some of the ____ cortical layers.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6
12) What type of cell is NOT formed from mesoderm?
a) Skeletal muscle
b) Tubule of the kidney
c) Microglia
d) Red blood cells
e) Cardiac muscle
13) Which of the following cells is NOT found in the CNS?
a) Oligodendroglia
b) Astrocytes
c) Microglia
d) Schwann cells
e) Ependymal
14) Which of the following contains GFAP, an easily stained protein?
a) Oligodendroglia
b) Astrocytes
c) Microglia
d) Schwann cells
e) Ependymal
15) Which of the following is a phagocytic cell derived from bone marrow?
a) Oligodendroglia
b) Astrocytes
c) Microglia
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d) Satellite cells
e) Ependyma
16) Which of the following CNS cells has a similar function to the Schwann cell
(producing mylin sheath)?
a) Oligodendrocytes
b) Astrocytes
c) Microglia
d) Satellite cells
e) Ependymal
17) Unmyelenated axons would be found in the ____ embedded into ____ cell cytoplasm.
a) CNS; Oligodendrocyte
b) CNS; Astrocyte
c) PNS; Satellite
d) PNS; Schwann
18) Which of the following envelopes covers a bundle of nerve fibers?
a) Endoneurium
b) Perineurium
c) Epineurium
19) Which of the following envelopes contains blood vessels?
a) Endoneurium
b) Perineurium
c) Epineurium
20) Protoplasmic astrocytes (vs. fibrous astrocytes) are mainly in the ____ matter and
have ____ branching processes.
a) Gray; Short
b) Gray; Long
c) White; Short
d) White; Long
21) Which of the following is the largest neuroglial cells in the CNS?
a) Oligodendrocytes
b) Astrocytes
c) Microglia
d) Satellite cells
e) Ependymal
22) Which of the following cells functions in debris removal (activated at injury sites)?
a) Oligodendrocytes
b) Astrocytes
c) Microglia
d) Satellite cells
e) Ependymal
23) Which of the following cells in involved in formation of CSF and lines CSF-filled
cavities of the CNS?
a) Oligodendrocytes
b) Astrocytes
c) Microglia
d) Satellite cells
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e) Ependymal
24) As a cell becomes more polarized (negative charge inside), Na+ moves ____ and K+
moves ____.
a) Out; Out
b) In; In;
c) Out; In
d) In; Out
25) A patient presents after eating at an exotic asian restaurant. They ordered pufferfish
after signing a waiver. A mistake by the chef in preparing the pufferfish could lead to
tentrodotoxin in the served dish. What would be the most likely result for the patient if
they ingested the toxin?
a) Cells rapidly polarize
b) Cells cannot polarize
c) Cells rapidly depolarize
d) Cells cannot depolarize
26) A patient presents after visiting a clinic to get BOTOX (Botulinum toxin) injected
into their lips. However, it appears the dosage given was too strong. What would be the
most likely clinical presentation seen?
a) Cells rapidly depolarize
b) Cells cannot depolarize
c) Excess neurotransmitter is released
d) Neurotransmitter release is blocked
27) Inhibitory neurotransmitters will ____ channels, while excitatory neurotransmitters
have the same action on the other ion.
a) Open cation (Na)
b) Close cation (Na)
c) Open anion (Cl)
d) Close anion (Cl)
28) Slow antegrade axonal transport carries:
a) Structural proteins
b) Mitochondria
c) RER
d) SER
e) Lysosomes
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d) 50-60%; 45-55%
e) 60-70%; 55-65%
3) Neutrophils account for what percentage of granulocytes (WBCs)?
a) 10-30%
b) 20-40%
c) 30-50%
d) 40-60%
e) 50-70%
4) Lymphocytes account for what percentage of agranulocytes?
a) 15-20%
b) 25-30%
c) 35-40%
d) 45-50%
e) 55-60%
5) Monocytes account for what percentage of agranulocytes?
a) 2%
b) 4%
c) 6%
d) 8%
e) 10%
6) Which of the following is involved in managing osmotic pressure?
a) Albumin
b) ! globulins (immunoglobulins)
c) " & # globulins (nonimmunoglobulins)
d) Fibrinogen
e) Bilirubin
7) Which of the following is the largest plasma protein secreted by the liver and is
involved in clot formation?
a) Albumin
b) ! globulins (immunoglobulins)
c) " & # globulins (nonimmunoglobulins)
d) Fibrinogen
e) Bilirubin
8) Erythrocytes are anucleate, deformable, eosinophilic cells devoid of typical organelles.
They are broken down in the spleen, bone marrow, and liver; lasting approximately:
a) 5 days
b) 60 days
c) 120 days
d) 240 days
e) 1 year
9) When viewing a scanning electron micrograph of erythrocytes from a blood tube, what
appearance would be expected?
a) Rings of donuts
b) Random assortment
c) Stacks of coins
d) “X” formations
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e) “H” formations
10) What is the role of erythrocyte integral membrane proteins in the lipid bilayer?
a) Bind protein 4.1, 4.2, and 4.9
b) Activate actin and tryptomyosin
c) Create hexagonal lattice network
d) Create cytoskeletal framework
e) Anchor cytoskeletal proteins
11) How many polypeptide subunits are contained within a hemoglobin molecule?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
e) None
12) Which of the following single point-mutation (gene) defects involves erythrocytes
making them more rigid and increasing the risk of stroke?
a) Cystic fibrosis
b) Sickle-cell anemia
c) Fragile-X syndrome
d) Huntington’s disease
e) Muscular dystrophy
13) Basophils account for what percentage of agranulocytes?
a) 0.6%
b) 0.3%
c) 6%
d) 3%
e) 30%
14) Eosinophils account for what percentage of granulocytes?
a) 50-70%
b) 2-5%
c) 0.3%
d) 25-30%
e) 8%
15) What type of cell has a tri-lobed nuclealis and is capable of migration to an injury
site?
a) Basophil
b) Neutrophil
c) Eosinophil
d) Lymphocyte
e) Monocyte
16) What type of cell has azurophylic granules and phagocytose antigens (Fc receptors)?
a) Monocyte
b) Lymphocyte
c) Eosinophil
d) Neutrophil
e) Basophil
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17) What type of cell has azurophilic granules, crystalloid body granules, granular
matrix, and a bilobed nucleus?
a) Eosinophil
b) Lymphocyte
c) Monocyte
d) Neutrophil
e) Basophil
18) What type of cells are intensely staining, look like poppy seeds, are activated by
natural killer cells?
a) Eosinophil
b) Monocyte
c) Lymphocyte
d) Neutrophil
e) Basophil
19) What type of cell has azurophilic granules, a bilobed nucleus, and is closely related to
mastocytes of the connective tissue?
a) Eosinophil
b) Lymphocyte
c) Monocyte
d) Neutrophil
e) Basophil
20) T-lymphocytes account for what percentage of all lymphocytes in the body?
a) 60-80%
b) 20-30%
c) 5-10%
21) What type of lymphocyte does not express antibodies on the cell surface?
a) T
b) B
c) NK
22) What T-lymphocyte subtype secretes lymphokines and recognizes antigen-bound
MHC I molecules on virus-infection and neoplastic cells?
a) Cytotoxic (CD8+)
b) Helpter (CD4+)
c) Supressor CD8+
d) CD45RA+
23) What type of cells are capable of migration, phagocytose antigens, and remain in the
blood for only three days?
a) Eosinophil
b) Lymphocyte
c) Neutrophil
d) Monocyte
e) Basophil
24) What zone of the platelet structure contains microtubles and actin filaments?
a) Peripheral
b) Structural
c) Organelle
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d) Membrane
25) What type of platelet granules contains hydrolytic enzymes (lysosomes)?
a) " (alpha)
b) $ (delta)
c) ! (gamma)
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d) Type IV
e) Type VI
7) What type of cortical epithelioreticular cells do not express MHC I and II molecules?
a) Type I
b) Type II & V
c) Type III
d) Type IV
e) Type VI
8) What type of cortical epithelioreticular cells arrange concentrically (like a sectioned
onion) and produce thymosin/thymopoietin hormones?
a) Type I
b) Type II & V
c) Type III
d) Type IV
e) Type VI
9) What is the function of the blood-thymus barrier?
a) To prevent thymus vascularization
b) To allow lymphocytes to be exposed to antigens
c) To prevent lymphocytes from being exposed to antigens
d) To allow the thymus cells to be replaced by adipose
e) To prevent the thymus cells from being replaced by adipose
10) T-cell education involves ____ lymphoid cells and is characterized by expression and
deletion of ____ antigens.
a) Monopotential; Integral
b) Monopotential; Surface
c) Multipotential; Integral
d) Multipotential; Surface
11) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the spleen?
a) The red pulp is involved in cellular filtration of blood
b) The white pulp is involved in immunological monitoring
c) Capsule trabeculae divide the spleen into lobes
d) The surface tissue capsule contains myofibroblasts
e) The spleen is the smallest lymph organ
12) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the spleen?
a) The splenic artery divides into trabecular arteries
b) Central arteries branch from the trabecular into the white pulp
c) After leaving the red pulp the central arteries divide into the white pulp
d) Central arteries are sheathed with periarterial lymphatic (PALS)
e) Malpighian corpusles contain B cells
13) ____ circulation is when penicillar arterioles enter into the ____ pulp cords and then
filter into the sinusoids.
a) Open; Red
b) Open; White
c) Closed; Red James Lamberg
d) Closed; White
DO NOT DISTRIBUTE - 27 -
Histology 14Mar2009
AnswerKey 7) C 6) A 4) B
Histo #1 8) A 7) C Histo #11 5) D
1) C 8) B 1) A 6) A
2) B Histo #5 9) B 2) B 7) D
3) E 1) D 10) D 3) E 8) C
4) A 2) B 11) A 4) D 9) C
5) E 3) A 12) C 5) B 10) E
6) D 4) C 13) E 6) C 11) A
7) B 5) E 14) A 7) C 12) B
8) C 6) A 15) B 8) A 13) B
9) A 9) D 14) B
10) B Histo #6 Histo #9 15) B
11) E 1) C 1) D Histo #12 16) D
12) D 2) B 2) C 1) C 17) A
13) C 3) D 3) A 2) E 18) C
4) E 4) B 3) B 19) E
Histo #2 5) A 5) E 4) D 20) A
1) C 6) D 6) D 5) B 21) A
2) E 7) C 7) A 6) D 22) A
3) A 8) B 8) C 7) C 23) D
4) B 9) E 9) B 8) A 24) B
5) D 10) A 10) E 9) C 25) C
6) E 11) D 11) C 10) B
7) E 12) B 12) D 11) E Histo #14
8) A 13) C 13) A 12) C 1) B
9) C 14) B 13) D 2) D
10) B Histo #7 15) E 14) A 3) B
11) D 1) C 16) D 15) C 4) E
12) B 2) B 17) A 16) A 5) C
3) A 18) B 17) D 6) B
Histo #3 4) D 19) C 18) B 7) A
1) C 5) E 20) D 19) C 8) E
2) C 6) C 20) A 9) C
3) A 7) B Histo #10 21) B 10) D
4) B 8) A 1) B 22) C 11) E
5) D 9) C 2) C 23) E 12) C
6) E 10) C 3) A 24) C 13) A
7) C 11) E 4) A 25) D
12) C 5) E 26) D
Histo #4 6) C 27) C
1) C Histo #8 7) D 28) A
2) E 1) C 8) C
3) A 2) D 9) D Histo #13
4) B 3) E 10) B 1) B
5) D 4) E 11) A 2) C
6) B 5) B 12) A 3) E
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