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a) $45
b) $55
c) $65
d) $75
e) $100
7) Which of the following best describes the seventh principle of Osteopathic Medicine?
a) Movement of lymph only is essential to health maintenance.
b) Movement of blood only is essential to health maintenance.
c) Movement of body fluids is never necessary for health maintenance.
d) Body fluid movement within the cranium leads to the maintenance of health.
e) Movements of body fluids is essential to the maintenance of health.
8) Which of the following best describes the eighth principle of Osteopathic Medicine?
a) The nerves play no role in controlling the fluids of the body.
b) The nerves play no role in controlling the muscles of the body.
c) The nerves play a crucial part in controlling the fluids of the body.
d) The nerves play a crucial part in controlling the muscles of the body.
e) Nerves can be “soldered” together like electrical wires.
9) Which of the following best describes the ninth principle of Osteopathic Medicine?
a) All somatic components of a disease contribute to that disease.
b) There are somatic components to disease that are not only manifestations of
disease but also are factors that contribute to maintenance of the diseased state.
c) The somatic components to disease allow for the disease state or cycle to be
easily broken with proper manipulative technique.
d) Somatic disease can be described by holding two of your friend’s hands.
e) There are somatic components to disease that are manifestations of disease and
contribute to reversal of the diseased state.
10) Which of the following is the definition of Somatic Dysfunction?
a) Impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system:
skeletal, muscular and fascial structures, and their related vascular, lymphatic, and
spinal elements
b) Impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system:
skeletal, neural and myofascial structures, and their related vascular, lymphatic,
and arthrodial elements
c) Impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system:
skeletal, arthrodial and myofascial structures, and their related vascular,
lymphatic, and neural elements
d) Impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system:
lymphatic, arthrodial and myofascial structures, and their related vascular,
skeletal, and neural elements
e) Impaired or altered function of related components of the somatic system:
skeletal, arthrodial and vascular structures, and their related myofascial,
lymphatic, and neural elements
a) T2-8 N SL RL
b) T2-8 N SR RR
c) T2-8 E SL RR
d) T2-8 F SR RL
e) T2-8 N SL RR
3) Which of the following spinal segments is the exception for Fryette’s First Principle?
a) Cervical
b) Thoracic
c) Lumbar
4) Which of the following describes Fryette’s Second Principle?
a) T4 N SL RL
b) T4 N SR RL
c) T4 E SL RL
d) T4 F SR RL
e) T4 E SL RR
5) Which of Fryette’s Principles is most commonly associated with sudden or traumatic
events as well as in general with the cervical column?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
6) Which of Fryette’s Principles is described as motion in one plane affects motion in
another plane?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
7) Which of the following does NOT describe a Type I somatic dysfunction?
a) Group spinal motion
b) Neutral spine
c) Maximum rotation occurs at the apex
d) Side-bending and rotation occur on the same side
e) Rotation occurs toward the convexity
8) Which of the following does NOT describe a Type II somatic dysfunction?
a) Side-bending and rotation occur on the same side
b) Group spinal motion
c) Involves flexion
d) Involves extension
e) Rotation and side-bending occur toward the concavity
2) All of the following statements relating to Somatic Dysfunction are true EXCEPT:
a) Improves with osteopathic manipulative therapy
b) Is a disturbance of the normal function of somatic structures.
c) Possesses characteristics unidentifiable by palpation
d) The basis of the phenomenon appears to be neurophysiologic.
e) Has deleterious effects on health when present.
3) What does the “R” mean in the acronym T.A.R.T.?
a) Response to tenderness
b) Restriction of motion
c) Relative asymmetry
d) Ropiness
e) Red reflex
4) Which of the following describes the Barrier Concept starting from no movement
through the full range of movement?
a) Neutral, Somatic Dysfunction Region, Physiological Barrier, Anatomic Barrier
b) Neutral, Physiological Barrier, Somatic Dysfunction Region, Anatomic Barrier
c) Physiological Barrier, Somatic Dysfunction Region, Anatomic Barrier, Neutral
d) Somatic Dysfunction Region, Physiological Barrier, Anatomic Barrier, Neutral
e) Somatic Dysfunction Region, Neutral, Physiological Barrier, Anatomic Barrier
5) Which of the following would NOT likely be a pathologic barrier to spinal rotation?
a) Spondylitis
b) Osteophytes
c) Inflammation
d) CSF
e) Joint effusion
6) Which of the following is NOT likely a sign seen in chronic viscerosomatic
dysfunction?
a) Tissue texture is firm
b) When correct, the dysfunction will return within 24 hours
c) Tissues display a firm, dry sponginess
d) Skin tends to be more atrophic over the involved area
e) Tissues display a distinct bogginess
7) You diagnose a Type I somatic dysfunction from T4-T8 in a patient who has
restriction of side-bending movement to the left. After you finish the last part of your test
to ensure no extension or flexion, how would you name this dysfunction?
a) T4-8 E SL RR
b) T4-8 F SR RL
c) T4-8 E SL RL
d) T4-8 N SR RL
e) T4-8 N SL RR
8) Which of the following is NOT a transitional area?
a) Cranial-occipital
b) Occipital-atlantal
c) C7-T1
d) T12-L1
e) L5-S1
9) Where are the sympathetic chains of the sympathetic nervous system located?
a) T1 to T12 bilaterally
b) T1 to T5 bilaterally
c) T1 to L2-3 bilaterally
d) T4 to T12 bilaterally
e) T1 to T4 bilaterally
10) If you removed all other tissue in the body except for ____, you will still have the
complete outline of a person.
a) Bone
b) Muscle
c) Organs
d) Fascia
e) Vessels
11) Which of the following vertebral segments has its tip of the spinous process in the
same plane as the transverse process of the segment below?
a) T2
b) T4
c) T8
d) T10
e) T12
12) Which of the following anatomical points is NOT matched with the correct
corresponding level?
a) Xiphisternal Angle; T9
b) Spine of scapula; T3
c) Sternal angle; T4
d) Sternal notch; T2
e) Inferior angle of the scapula; T8
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d) 150
e) 180
3) What does the Yergason Test check for?
a) Stability of the brachioradialis
b) Flexion of the wrist
c) Extension of the wrist
d) Stability of the biceps tendon
e) Stability of the long head of the triceps
4) What does the Drop Arm Test check for?
a) Rotator cuff tear
b) AC joint tear
c) CC joint tear
d) Biceps tear
e) Triceps tear
5) What does the Apprehension Test check for?
a) Chronic Tennis Elbow
b) Chronic shoulder dislocation
c) Chronic Golfer Elbow
d) Chronic Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
e) Chronic back pain
6) What (denervated) muscle is being checked in the Scapular Protraction Test?
a) Infraspinatus
b) Superspinatus
c) Deltoid
d) Serratus Anterior
e) Pectoralis Major
7) Lateral epicondylitis and medial epicondylitis are also known as:
a) Tennis Elbow and Golfer Elbow
b) Tennis Elbow and Nursemaid Elbow
c) Nursemaids Elbow and Tennis Elbow
d) Nursemaids Elbow and Golfer’s Elbow
e) Golfer’s Elbow and Tennis Elbow
8) What does Allen Test check for?
a) Compression of the medial nerve
b) Compression of the ulnar nerve
c) Radial/Ulnar artery competency
d) Radial nerve compression and radial artery competency
e) Ulnar nerve compression and ulnar artery competency
9) A patient with DeQuervein Sign (Finkelstein Test) would have pain in the ____.
a) Ulnar groove
b) Guyon tunnel
c) Carpal tunnel
d) Lateral epicondyle
e) Anatomical snuffbox
10) During a soft tissue procedure, the physician should:
a) Press tissue into bone
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d) 4
e) 5
6) The Patrick Test (FABER test) tests for lower back pain due to the ____.
a) Sacroiliac joint
b) Sacrospinous joint
c) Sacrotubular joint
d) Iliolumbar joint
e) Lumbrosacral joint
7) The Thomas Test is used for what muscle?
a) Tensor fascia lata
b) Piriformis
c) Adductor magnus
d) Iliopsoas
e) Pectineus
8) The Ober Test is used for it iliotibial band of the ____?
a) Tensor fascia latae
b) Piriformis
c) Adductor magnus
d) Iliopsoas
e) Pectineus
9) The Trendelenburg Test is used for what muscle?
a) Gluteus minimus
b) Gluteus medius
c) Gluteus maximus
d) Sartorius
e) Gracilis
10) The stages of the Spencer Technique for the hip start with ____ and end with ____.
a) Internal/External rotation; Flexion
b) Abduction/Adduction; Extension
c) Circumduction; Circumduction
d) Flexion; Internal/External rotation
e) Flexion; Abduction/Adduction
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e) 10^11
11) Which of the following best describes Wolff Law?
a) Mechanical stress results in bone remodeling
b) Electrical stress results in bone remodeling
c) Muscle stress results in electrical potentials
d) Mechanical stress results in fascia remodeling
e) Electrical stress results in fascia remodeling
12) What is “an architectural system in which structures stabilize themselves by
balancing counteracting forces of compression and tension”?
a) Elasticity
b) Compresegrity
c) Tensegrity
d) Blastity
e) Clastity
13) What is “stress applied to stretch or compress a body is proportional to the strain
(change in length thus produced), so long as the limit of elasticity of the body is not
exceeded”?
a) Charles Law
b) Young Law
c) Boyle Law
d) Ohm Law
e) Hooke Law
14) What is the reactive component of fascia, which handles mechanical and internal
stress?
a) Actin
b) Myosin
c) Collagen
d) Elastin
e) Adipose
15) Plasticity refers to the ability of connective tissue/fascia to be ____.
a) Mechanically stressed
b) Electrically stressed
c) Recovered after stretching
d) Molded
e) Deformed under load and yielding to stress
16) Which of the following elements is NOT part of the definition of somatic
dysfunction?
a) Myofascial
b) Cardiac
c) Vascular
d) Lymphatic
e) Neural
17) Which of the following is NOT an indication for fascial OMT techniques?
a) No contraindications
b) Acute painful condition
c) Chronic pain
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d) Rheumatoid arthritis
e) Visceral disorders
18) Which of the following is NOT a myofascial release technique?
a) Direct action
b) Indirect action
c) Percussion
d) Recoil
e) Unwinding
19) The recoil technique is similar to what other technique in the direction that force is
applied?
a) Unwinding
b) Percussing
c) Direct action
d) Indirect action
e) HVLA
20) With myofascial release, force is always applied ____.
a) Directly
b) Indirectly
c) Gently
d) Quickly
e) Strongly
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a) Coronal; 7-11
b) Saggital; 7-11
c) Transverse; 7-11
d) Coronal; 5-10
e) Saggital; 5-10
6) All of the following are locations for pulses in the lower limb EXCEPT:
a) Femoral
b) Popliteal
c) Anterior genicular
d) Dorsalis pedis
e) Medial malleolar
7) Normal range of motion (no ligamentous laxity) for the knee joint is ____ degrees
flexion and up to ____ extension.
a) 170; 5
b) 110; 30
c) 90; 15
d) 100; 20
e) 130; 10
8) The knee is only capable of mild internal and external rotation throughout its entire
range of motion.
a) True
b) False
9) The McMurray test is a circumduction test to evaluate for ____ of the ____ joint.
a) Lateral meniscus tears; knee
b) Medial meniscus tears; knee
c) Tears; Tibiofibular joint
d) Tears; Anterior talofibular joint
e) Tears; Posterior talofibular joint
10) The positive Anterior Drawer test would indicate a torn:
a) LCL
b) MCL
c) Medial meniscus
d) PCL
e) ACL
11) A positive patellar apprehension test would indicate the patient has a history of ____
dislocation of the patella.
a) Inferior
b) Superior
c) Lateral
d) Medial
e) Rotational
12) Weight on the feet is transmitted to the ____, ____ ray, and ____ ray, creating a
tripod effect.
a) Navicular; 2nd; 5th
b) Navicular; 1st; 5th
c) Navicular; 1st; 4th
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d) Tibiofibular
e) Deltoid
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c) Metabolism
d) Environment of the individual
e) Calories in food consumed
4) It is important to be critical and open-minded about nutritional claims and advice.
a) True
b) False
5) The American diet is low in all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Fiber
b) Calcium
c) Simple sugars
d) Potassium
e) Vitamins
6) Which of the following is considered a significant carcinogenesis risk factor, aside
form tobacco?
a) Diet
b) Occupation
c) Alcohol use
d) Cell phone use
e) Pollution
7) Currently (2007), more than ____% of the United States population over the age of 20
is considered overweight.
a) 20
b) 40
c) 60
d) 80
e) 100
8) Risk factors for anorexia include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Chronic disease
b) Multiple medications
c) Poverty
d) Prader-Willi syndrome
e) Inadequate nutritional knowledge
9) 19-26 is the normal weight scale for ____ and 90-109 is the normal weight scale for
____.
a) Ideal body weight; Body mass index
b) Body mass index; Ideal body weight
c) Weight/Nutrition scale; Ideal body weight
d) Body mass index; Weight/Nutrition scale
e) Weight/Nutrition scale; Body mass index
10) Ideal body weight is calculated starting at a height of ____ and is 106lbs + 6lbs per
inch for men and 100lbs + 5lbs per inch for women (+/- 10% in each case for frame size).
a) 4’ 10”
b) 5’ 0”
c) 5’ 2”
d) 5’ 4”
e) 5’ 6”
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a) Ribs 2-3
b) Ribs 4-5
c) Ribs 6-7
d) Ribs 8-9
e) Ribs 10-11
9) Which ribs are associated with caliper (or pincer) motion?
a) Ribs 2-3
b) Ribs 4-5
c) Ribs 6-7
d) Ribs 9-10
e) Ribs 11-12
10) Which of the following is NOT found at the area of the thoracic inlet?
a) Stellate ganglion
b) Attachments for serratus anterior muscle
c) Brachial plexus
d) Thoracic duct
e) Subclavian vein and artery
11) A patient is complaining of tingling in their right hand and fingers with difficulty
doing certain hand movements. The clinician believes there is a problem with the brachial
plexus. Which of the following anatomical areas could be causing this problem?
a) Sphincter of Oddi
b) Anterior-Posterior ribcage diameter
c) Transverse ribcage diameter
d) Rib 1
e) Angle of Louis
12) Which of the following muscles is NOT used during rib elevation (inspiration)?
a) External intercostals
b) Interchondral internal intercostals
c) Trapezius
d) Sternocleidomastoid
e) Serratus posterior superior
13) What muscle is used as an accessory during forced inspiration?
a) Pectoralis major
b) Pectoralis minor
c) Teres major
d) Teres minor
e) Serratus anterior
14) Which of the following muscles is NOT used during rib depression (exhalation)?
a) Abdominal muscles
b) Internal innermost intercostals
c) Serratus posterior inferior
d) Posterior scalene
e) Transversus thoracis
15) A patient presents with right-sided inhalation somatic dysfunction from ribs 2-5.
Which rib is the key rib for treatment?
a) Right rib 1
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b) Left rib 2
c) Right rib 2
d) Left rib 5
e) Right rib 5
16) A patient presents with left-sided exhalation somatic dysfunction from ribs 2-5.
Which rib is the key rib for treatment?
a) Right rib 1
b) Left rib 2
c) Right rib 2
d) Left rib 5
e) Right rib 5
17) Pre-ganglionic sympathetics in the intermediolateral cell column (IML) arise from
what cord levels?
a) All levels
b) C1-T2
c) T1-L2
d) L1-S2
e) Cranial & Sacral
18) Pre-ganglionic parasympathetics come from all of the following EXCEPT:
a) IML
b) S2-S4
c) CN III
d) CN VII
e) CN IX
19) Which of the following is a reflex in which disruption, irritation, or disease of an
internal organ results in reflex dysfunction of a segmentally related musculoskeletal
region?
a) Segmentalsomatic reflex
b) Somatovisceral reflex
c) Internalsomatic reflex
d) Viscerosomatic reflex
e) Somatic reflex
20) Which of the following describes a viscerosomatic reflex pathway?
a) Skeletal muscle to dorsal root to synapse to ventral root to skeletal muscle
b) Sympathetic chain to gray rami to ventral root to synapse to dorsal root to
skeletal muscle
c) Sympathetic chain to white rami to dorsal root to synapse to ventral root to
skeletal muscle
d) Organ wall to celiac ganglia to gray rami to ventral root to synapse to dorsal
root to skeletal muscle
e) Organ wall to celiac ganglia to white rami to dorsal root to synapse to ventral
root to skeletal muscle
21) Which of the following would NOT be a clue that a viscerosomatic reflex is taking
place?
a) Skeletal muscle spasm/contraction
b) Organ pain at location of problem
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a) Tibial fracture
b) Fibular fracture
c) Torn ACL
d) Distal femur fracture
e) Hip fracture
16) Which of the following tests is used to check for contracture of the iliotibial band
(tensor fascia lata)?
a) Patrick (Fabere) Test
b) Ober Test
c) Trendelenberg Test
d) Thomas Test
e) Erichsen Test
17) Which of the following tests is used to check for gluteus medius weakness on the
weight-bearing side?
a) Patrick (Fabere) Test
b) Ober Test
c) Trendelenberg Test
d) Thomas Test
e) Erichsen Test
18) Which of the following tests for gross motion of the hip joint?
a) Patrick (Fabere) Test
b) Ober Test
c) Trendelenberg Test
d) Thomas Test
e) Erichsen Test
19) The Squatting Test involves having the patient squat and rise back up to standing
position, using two distinct sets of muscles. The Tinel Test involves using a reflex
hammer approximately two-thirds of the way from the ASIS to the greater trochanter.
These tests can be used to:
a) Test the veins of the leg
b) Test the arteries of the leg
c) Test the nerves of the leg
d) Test the muscles tightness of the leg
e) Test the muscle looseness of the leg
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b) Oriental medicine
c) Osteopathic medicine
d) Naturopathic medicine
e) Homeopathic medicine
3) What is the most common intake method for essential oils?
a) Injection
b) Ingestion
c) Absorption
d) Inhalation
4) Which of the following is NOT a form of energy medicine?
a) OMT
b) Meridian regulation
c) Qi Gong
d) Reiki
e) Homeopathy
5) Which of the following is NOT a form of energy medicine?
a) Jin Shin
b) Judo
c) Chakra
d) TENSCAM
e) Polar therapy and zero balancing
6) Which of the following therapies uses an electromagnetic field to interact with the
body’s fascia?
a) Jin Shin
b) Chakra
c) Reiki
d) Polar therapy
e) TENSCAM
7) Which part of the brain is stimulated by acoustic (sound) therapies?
a) Temporal
b) Parietal
c) Occipital
d) Frontal
e) Cerebellum
8) Which part of the brain is stimulated by color therapies?
a) Temporal
b) Parietal
c) Occipital
d) Frontal
e) Cerebellum
9) Which of the following is a deep myofascial therapy where fascial layers are
separated?
a) Craniosacral therapy
b) Chiropractic manipulation
c) Therapeutic massage
d) Rolfing or structural integration
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2) Which of the following, meaning the way of the compassionate spirit, combines
elements from other therapies such as Japanese acupressure, Chinese acupuncture, and
Taoist philosophy?
a) Chakra
b) Qi Gong
c) Reiki
d) Wu Wei
e) Jin Shin Do
3) What symbol is commonly mistaken for the traditional medical symbol (Rod of
Asclepius)?
a) Star of Life
b) Rx symbol
c) Caduceus
d) Heart shape
e) Hermes wing
4) What does a SQUID magnetometer measure?
a) Magnetic field variance
b) Electrical flux
c) Magnetic field strength
d) Electrical current
e) Electrical voltage
5) According to Sisken & Walker (1995), what healing effect would be seen at 7 Hz?
a) Nerve regeneration
b) Bone growth
c) Ligament healing
d) Decreased skin necrosis
e) Synergistic effects with nerve growth factor
6) Schumann Resonance (SR) is a set of spectrum peaks in the extremely low frequency
(ELF) portion of the Earth's electromagnetic field spectrum. The fundamental mode of
the Schumann resonance is a standing wave in the Earth-ionosphere cavity with a
wavelength equal to the circumference of the Earth. This lowest-frequency (and highest-
intensity) mode of the Schumann resonance occurs at a frequency of approximately:
a) 2 Hz
b) 8 Hz
c) 40 Hz
d) 60 Hz
e) 80 Hz
7) Although there is no known physical interpretation, what change has been seen in a
Raman Spectrum graph of tap water in-situ after Qi treatment?
a) Increased intensity
b) Increased shift
c) Decreased intensity
d) Decreased shift
e) No change (negative result)
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c) S3 segment
d) S4 segment
e) S5 segment
9) Which of the following pubic motions would increase the pubic angle the most?
a) Caliper
b) Torsional
c) Superior translatory
d) Inferior translatory
10) The standing flexion test primarily evaluates ____ dysfunction where motion
restriction is present if the posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS) moves ____.
a) Sacroiliac; Caudad
b) Sacroiliac; Cephalad
c) Iliosacral; Caudad
d) Iliosacral; Cephalad
11) Which of the following factors could confound (flaw) the seated flexion test?
a) Shoe size
b) Anatomical short leg
c) Patient bends too far forward
d) Patient bends too far backwards
e) Knee injury
12) If a standing flexion test were positive on the right side, and a seated flexion test were
positive on the right side, which of the following can be said?
a) Right sacroiliac dysfunction
b) Left sacroiliac dysfunction
c) Right iliosacral dysfunction
d) Left iliosacral dysfunction
e) Right iliosacral or sacroiliac dysfunction
13) The spring test checks for forward torsion. A good spring test is a ____ test and a
poor spring test, or board-like resistance, is a ____ test.
a) Positive; Negative
b) Negative; Positive
c) Positive; Positive
d) Negative; Negative
14) Sacral torsions are described relative to what vertebrae?
a) L4
b) L5
c) S1
d) S2
e) S5
15) What is the dysfunction if a deep sacral sulcus is found on the right, the ILA is
posterior on the left, the seated flexion test is positive on the right, and the spring test is
negative?
a) Left on Left
b) Right on Right
c) Left on Right
d) Right on Left
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e) Unilateral
16) What is the dysfunction if a deep sacral sulcus is found on the left, the ILA is
posterior on the right, the seated flexion test is positive on the right, and the spring test is
positive?
a) Left on Left
b) Right on Right
c) Left on Right
d) Right on Left
e) Unilateral
17) What is the dysfunction if a deep sacral sulcus is found on the left, the ILA is
posterior on the left, the seated flexion test is positive on the left, and the spring test is
negative?
a) Left on Left
b) Right on Right
c) Left on Right
d) Right on Left
e) Unilateral
18) A bilateral sacral flexion dysfunction would have a ____ spring test and a bilateral
sacral extension dysfunction would have a ____ spring test.
a) Positive; Positive
b) Positive; Negative (Equivocal)
c) Negative (Equivocal); Positive
d) Negative (Equivocal); Negative (Equivocal)
19) What is the dysfunction if the ASIS is more superior on the left, the PSIS is more
inferior on the left?
a) Left posterior innominate
b) Left anterior innominate
c) Right posterior innominate
d) Right anterior innominate
e) Left superior sheer
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b) Squamous
c) Harmonic
d) Squamoserrate
4) What type of suture is seen at the border between the temporal and parietal bones?
a) Serrate
b) Squamous
c) Harmonic
d) Squamoserrate
5) What type of suture is the intermaxillary suture?
a) Serrate
b) Squamous
c) Harmonic
d) Squamoserrate
6) How far laterally is the pivot point along the coronal suture from the vertex/saggital
suture?
a) 3/4 of the suture
b) 1/2 of the suture
c) 2/3 of the suture
d) 1/3 of the suture
e) At the apex
7) Which of the following is NOT a component of the reciprocal tension membrane?
a) Falx cerebri
b) Falx cerebelli
c) Tentorium cerebelli
d) Spinal dura
e) Foramen magnum
8) How much cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced daily?
a) 1/2 cup
b) 1/2 quart
c) 1/2 liter
d) 1 liter
e) 1 gallon
9) Which of the following is NOT involved in the sinus drainage technique?
a) Frontal sinuses
b) Supraorbital notches
c) Sphenoid sinuses
d) Infraorbital notches
e) Lateral nasal bones
10) Which of the following muscles is most likely associated with myofascial
dysfunction causing lower tooth pain?
a) Masseter
b) Sternocleidomastoid
c) Medial pterygoid
d) Lateral pterygoid
e) Temporalis
11) What muscle is considered the “disc” of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?
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a) Masseter
b) Sternocleidomastoid
c) Medial pterygoid
d) Lateral pterygoid
e) Temporalis
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d) Flexion; Extension
6) Which of the following is NOT true regarding kypholordosis?
a) The pelvis tends to rotate anteriorly
b) The lumbar musculature (erector spinae) will be tight
c) Psoas tension will be increased
d) The quadriceps will be tight
e) The hamstrings will be tight
7) The military posture would show a pelvis rotated ____ and a ____ Thomas Test.
a) Posterior; Positive
b) Posterior; Negative
c) Anterior; Positive
d) Anterior; Negative
8) Which of the following muscle groups would be the most tight in a swayback posture?
a) Psoas
b) Ilacus
c) Erector spinae
d) Hamstrings
e) Quadriceps
9) Which of the following is the most common form of scoliosis?
a) Occipitoatlantal
b) Cervicalthoracic
c) Thoracolumbar
d) Lumbosacral
e) Sacroiliac
10) What is considered moderate scoliosis (Cobb angle)?
a) 0 – 5 degrees
b) 5 – 15 degrees
c) 20 – 45 degrees
d) 35 – 55 degrees
e) Greater than 50 degrees
11) At what degree of scoliosis (Cobb angle) is cardiovascular function compromised?
a) 45 degrees
b) 50 degrees
c) 60 degrees
d) 70 degrees
e) 80 degrees
12) At what degree of scoliosis (Cobb angle) is respiratory function compromised?
a) 45 degrees
b) 50 degrees
c) 60 degrees
d) 70 degrees
e) 80 degrees
13) Functional scoliosis caused by an anatomical short leg would have an anterior
innominate rotation on the ____ side (to the short leg) and an internally rotated leg on the
____ side.
a) Ipsilateral; Ipsilateral
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b) Ipsilateral; Contralateral
c) Contralateral; Contralateral
d) Contralateral; Ipsilateral
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c) Tension
d) Location
e) Length
8) What information is sent to the nervous system from the Golgi tendon reflex?
a) Speed
b) Amplitude
c) Tension
d) Location
e) Length
9) What does the gamma motor neuron control?
a) Golgi tendon specificity
b) Golgi tendon sensitivity
c) Muscle spindle specificity
d) Muscle spindle sensitivity
10) Afferent action potentials activate the interneurons, which inhibit the alpha motor
neurons back to the skeletal muscle.
a) True
b) False
11) In the myofascial technique, if the extrafusal muscle fibers contract ____ than the
intrafusal fibers, the muscle spindle will maintain a stretch reflex, further ____ the
extrafusal fibers.
a) More; Exciting
b) Less; Exciting
c) More; Inhibiting
d) Less; Inhibiting
12) During myofascial techniques, muscle should always be pushed into bone for support
instead of toward or away from the bone.
a) True
b) False
13) Using moist heat prior to a myofascial technique would ____ the elastic response and
____ circulation to the treated area.
a) Increase; Decrease
b) Decrease; Increase
c) Increase; Increase
d) Decrease; Decrease
14) In the Golgi tendon organ reflex, extreme tension on the tendon causes a(n) ____
effect that causes a sudden ____ of the entire muscle.
a) Inhibitory; Tension
b) Excitatory; Tension
c) Inhibitory; Relaxation
d) Excitatory; Relaxation
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b) Tendon pain
c) Ligament pain
d) Repetitive strain injury
e) Radiculopathy
2) Which of the following best describes a typical cervical radiograph after a whiplash
injury?
a) Hyper-flexion seen throughout the cervical region
b) Hyper-extension seen throughout the cervical region
c) Cervical curve is absent; cervical spine appears straight
d) A single vertebra is hyper-flexed
e) A single vertebra is hyper-extended
3) Which of the following OMT treatment methods is NOT likely a good choice for
treating an acute whiplash injury?
a) Myofascial release (MFR)
b) Soft tissue (ST) techniques
c) Counterstrain (CS)
d) HVLA
e) Still technique
4) A 25-year-old patient experiences neck pain, deep pain near the left shoulder blade and
left upper extremity to the thumb. During physical examination it is noted that the pain
worsens when the patient coughs, strains, or laughs. The physician notes that the pain
increases when the neck is flexed or the head is turned to the side. Which of the following
is the most likely?
a) Whiplash injury
b) Herniated disk
c) Cervical spondylolisthesis
d) Chronic degenerative disk
e) Torticollis (wry-neck)
5) A 3-year-old patient is seen by his primary care physician. History reveals that the
child has neck pain accompanied with a stiff neck. During the physical exam the
physician notes a limited range of motion for the neck and an elevated right shoulder.
Palpation of the patient’s cervical region reveals an asymmetry of the child’s neck
muscles with an enlarged muscle mass on the right side. Which of the following is the
most likely?
a) Whiplash injury
b) Herniated disk
c) Cervical spondylolisthesis
d) Chronic degenerative disk
e) Torticollis (wry-neck)
6) A 79-year-old patient is experiencing stiffness in his neck that progressively has gotten
worse. The stiffness in his neck is accompanied by a neck pain that radiates down his
shoulder and arm. A detailed history reveals that he has also been experiencing
headaches in the back of his head and gets “zingers” when he reaches for things above his
head. Neurological examination reveals that the patient has a loss of sensation over her
shoulders. Range of motion testing shows that he has limited passive and active ability to
laterally flex (side bend) and rotate his head. Which of the following is the most likely?
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a) Whiplash injury
b) Herniated disk
c) Cervical spondylolisthesis
d) Chronic degenerative disk
e) Torticollis (wry-neck)
7) Which of the following can lead to forehead pain as a myofascial trigger point, which
is usually precipitated by a sudden stretch?
a) Clavicular head of SCM
b) Sternal head of SCM
c) Anterior scalene
d) Middle scalene
e) Posterior scalene
8) Which of the following does NOT traverse the jugular foramen?
a) Transverse sinus (IJV)
b) CN XI
c) CN X
d) CN XI
e) CN XII
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b) Sternocleidomastoid muscle
c) Clavicle
d) Trapezius muscle
e) Middle scalene muscle
3) The major motion of the atlas is:
a) Rotation on the occiput
b) Rotation on the axis
c) Flexion/extension on the occiput
d) Flexion/extension on the axis
e) Side bending on the axis
4) In a lateral translation test of the atlas, the occiput is posterior on the right. Which of
the following statements is NOT true?
a) Translation is freer to the right
b) The occiput is side-bent left
c) The occiput is rotated left on the atlas
d) The right OA joint will not move anterior in extension
e) The right OA has palpable tissue texture changes
5) When testing atlas motion on the axis, how should the patient be positioned?
a) In the position of comfort
b) Prone, cervical spine flexed
c) Prone, cervical spine extended
d) Supine, cervical spine flexed
e) Supine, cervical spine extended
6) If C3 is flexed, side-bent and rotated left, which of the following is NOT true?
a) Translation is freer to the right
b) Rotation is freer to the left
c) The transverse process is prominent on the left
d) Flexion will be freer than extension
e) Rotation and side-bending are freer to the right
7) Due to the dural connection, chronic somatic dysfunction in the cervical area is often
associated with chronic dysfunction in which of the following locations?
a) Thoracic
b) Ribs
c) Lumbar
d) Sacral
e) Lower limbs
8) What clinical problem does vestibular asymmetry lead to?
a) Cervical spasm
b) Vertigo
c) Temporal bone pain
d) Torticollis
e) OA dysfunction
9) Which of the following is the correct sequence for treating whiplash injury?
a) Thoracics, suboccipital, neck
b) Neck, thoracics, suboccipital
c) Suboccipital, neck, thoracics
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d) Lysosomes
e) SER and RER
Match the definition of whiplash with the author:
a) Wright b) McHenry c) McKeever
6) With sudden impact from the rear, the body in the area of the cervico-dorsal junction is
thrown forward, the head moves relatively backward in a straight line, forcefully
shortening the cervical spine by about one inch.
7) Sudden hyper-flexion of the cervical spine, followed by spontaneous extension recoil
of the posterior articular ligament and ligamentum flavum.
8) The impact is an indirect one, transmitted throughout the parts of the car to the
automobile seat, which transmits the inertia to the body of the victim
9) Which of the following is NOT a late sequelae of traumatic cervical injury?
a) Adhesion of nerves
b) Scar formation
c) Disk degeneration
d) Traumatic arthritis
e) Stiffness and edema
10) Which of the following is the most likely misdiagnosis for benign cervical vertigo?
a) Torticollis
b) Psychological disorder
c) Inner ear infection
d) Gastroenteritis
e) Migraine headache
11) Which of the following would NOT contribute to a muscle tension headache?
a) Postural imbalance
b) Upper thoracic dysfunction
c) Decreased sympathetic tone
d) Stress and anxiety
e) Depression
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d) F. L. Mitchell, Jr.
e) F. L. Mitchell, Sr.
4) T.J. Ruddy used a muscle-energy-like technique involving rapid rhythmic resistive
duction, where the patient moved how many excursions per minute?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 60
e) 120
5) What is the ultimate goal of muscle energy?
a) Myotactic reflex
b) Isometric contraction
c) Isometric relaxation
d) Proprioceptive innervation
e) Golgion tendon innervation
Match the force with the muscle energy technique:
6) 30-50 pounds a) Respiratory assistance
7) 10-20 pounds b) Joint mobilization
8) Exaggerated movement c) Post isometric relaxation
9) Exceptionally gentle d) Reciprocal inhibition and crossed extensor reflex
10) Very gentle (ounces) e) Oculocephalogyric reflex
11) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for muscle energy techniques?
a) Acute whiplash injury
b) Post-surgical patient
c) ICU patient post AMI
d) Bone fracture at site of treatment
e) Trauma at site of treatment
12) What is meant by “feather edge” in muscle energy techniques?
a) Engaging the barrier fully
b) Engaging the barrier minimally
c) Not engaging the barrier
d) Moving away from the barrier fully
e) Moving away from the barrier minimally
Match the following definitions with the type of exercise:
a) Isometric b) Isokinetic c) Isotonic
13) Dynamic exercise with a constant load. The resistance is not constant.
14) Dynamic exercise in which the speed of motion is controlled by varying the
resistance.
15) Static exercise in which the muscle contracts with little or no shortening (static
contraction).
16) Chapman points are seen as small, smooth, firm nodules where pain is pinpoint, non-
radiating, sharp, and exquisitely distressing. Where would the Chapman point be found
for a stomach acid visceral sympathetic reflex loop?
a) Sternum
b) Right 5th costochontral space
c) Right 6th costochontral space
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AnswerKey 10) B 9) B 2) C
OPP #1 OPP #5 11) D 10) E 3) A
1) B 1) E 11) C 4) D
2) C 2) C OPP #10 12) E 5) E
3) E 3) B 1) C 13) A 6) C
4) D 4) A 2) B 14) B 7) D
5) E 5) D 3) E 15) D 8) A
6) A 6) E 4) C 16) C 9) E
7) C 7) D 5) C 17) A 10) B
8) D 8) A 6) A 18) D 11) D
9) B 9) C 7) D 19) B 12) C
10) A 10) D 8) A 13) B
11) C 11) C 9) B OPP #13 14) D
12) C 12) E 10) E 1) B 15) E
13) E 2) A 16) B
14) C OPP #6 OPP #11 3) C 17) C
1) E 1) C 4) D 18) A
OPP #2 2) B 2) B 5) E 19) D
1) E 3) C 3) D 6) E 20) E
2) B 4) A 4) A 7) D 21) B
3) A 5) E 5) E 8) B 22) B
4) D 6) C 9) C 23) C
5) C OPP #7 7) E 10) A 24) D
6) A 1) E 8) B 11) A 25) B
7) E 2) D 9) D 12) E 26) A
8) C 3) A 10) B 13) B 27) C
9) B 4) B 11) A 14) D 28) E
10) C 5) D 12) C 15) C
6) C 13) E 16) C OPP #16
OPP #3 7) B 14) C 17) B 1) D
1) C 15) D 18) C 2) B
2) B OPP #8 16) B 3) C
3) E 1) E 17) A OPP #14 4) E
4) E 2) A 18) C 1) B 5) C
5) A 3) D 19) D 2) D 6) A
6) D 20) C 3) E 7) E
OPP #9 4) A 8) B
OPP #4 1) E OPP #12 5) C 9) D
1) E 2) C 1) B 6) A 10) A
2) E 3) D 2) B 7) C 11) B
3) A 4) A 3) E 8) D 12) E
4) C 5) B 4) D 9) B 13) A
5) B 6) D 5) A 10) B 14) B
6) C 7) A 6) C 15) E
7) D 8) C 7) E OPP #15 16) B
8) B 9) E 8) A 1) B 17) C
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