Clicker Questions 07/08/13 1. Insulin is a protein: a. Does not utilize a second messenger b. Utilizes a second messenger c.

None of these responses i. Activates a receptor Tyrosine kinase ii. Receptor phosphorylates a tyrosine on a protein that is the 2nd messenger for insulin 2. *Which of the following hormones does not require a/an G-Protein activated cAMP mechanism? a. Epinephrine b. Glucagon c. ACTH d. Insulin e. All of these responses require cAMP i. All are PPP 3. TRH plays a role in metabolic homeostasis of the body. It is a ligand. What class of compounds is it: a. Protein b. Peptide i. ****LOOK UP OTHER PEPTIDE HORMONES (made by hypothalamus) c. Polar d. Lipid 4. TSH plays a role in metabolic homeostasis of the body. It is a ligand. What class of compounds is it: a. Protein i. Glycoprotein ii. TSH, LH, & FSH b. Peptide c. Polar d. Lipid 5. *Thyroxin, T4, plays a role in metabolic homeostasis of the body. It is a ligand. What class of compounds is it: a. Protein b. Peptide c. Polar d. Lipid 6. Which of the following functions would be most closely associated with the SER: a. Metabolic b. Anabolic c. Catabolic

7. Which of the following functions would be most closely associated with the nucleus: a. Metabolic b. Anabolic c. Catabolic 8. Which of the following functions would be most closely associated with the lysosome: a. Metabolic b. Anabolic c. Catabolic 9. Which of the following functions would be most closely associated with the mitochondria: a. Metabolic b. Anabolic c. Catabolic

06/09/13 Same as last time Golgi = anabolic Mitochondria (2) Ligands that are PPP require signal transduction, they will require: G protein intermediary They will require the regulatory binding of: GDP GTP 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. One of the best-known mediators of inflammationhistamine 1st response = IgM 2nd response = IgG Can cross membranes, 2nd = IgG Cannot cross membranes, but can induce complement fixation, 1st response = IgM

1. Interstitial hydrostatic pressure increased after a sauna visit 2. Extracellular water in a 70 kg person approximates a. 14 b. 3 = blood (intravascular) c. 11 = lymph (interstitial) d. 28 = intracellular e. 42 = total

3. Which would not cause a flux of water into the interstitium a. B. Increase capillary osmotic pressure b. C. Increase interstitial hydrostatic pressure 4. Which would cause a flux of water into the interstitium a. A. Increase capillary hydrostatic pressure b. D. Increase interstitial osmotic pressure 5. Liver failure causes a flux of water into a. *** 6. Cushings disease causes: a. Increase capillary hydrostatic pressure i. Increase blood volume Increase blood pressure Increase capillary hydrostatic pressure ii. *BEST ANSWER b. Increase interstitial osmotic pressure i. Increase in blood pressure decrease in interstitial fluid c. Increase capillary osmotic pressure i. Correct, not the best answer though ii. Liver stimulated to make more proteins iii. Normally liver makes albumin, fibrinogen, and complement iv. Cortisol stimulates gluconeogenesis, which needs new enzymes v. Therefore translation is stimulated by cortisol vi. Protein in blood goes up, so protein holds on to more water, so blood pressure goes up even more vii. When blood pressure is increased, proteins in capillaries are also pushed out, and water follows (pushing all blood proteins out & into the interstitum) d. Increase interstitial hydrostatic pressure 7. Cushings disease, where cortisol is elevated, yet we do not see the manifestation of a secondary increase in aldosterone, would cause a flux of water into the capillary because of an: A. Increase Capillary Hydrostatic ___ (missing in question) a. B only (Increase interstitial osmotic pressure 8. Sitting and resting at the base camp, 16,000 feet for an assault on Mount Everest, you would be: a. More prone to edema 9. Scuba diving at 100 feet would make you: a. Less prone to edema

1. *The pressure system that the heart works under causes hypertrophy of the respective chamber, and it is represented by: a. PV = NRT b. F = MA c. C = 2 pi R d. W = FD a.k.a. FS 2. A capillary has/is made up of: a. Simple squamous epithelium, an endothelium 3. Starlings law of the heart was written in 1914 to describe the: a. Fluid driven stretch and proportional output i. *The more you stretch the heart, the more it pumps out ii. Skeletal = 100% optimal stretch iii. Heart = 60% optimal stretch iv. Stroke Volume = Cardiac Output * Heart Rate 4. *Starlings law of the heart describes physiologic conditions that explain the: a. Heart Rate b. Mechanical aspects of the heart i. AFFECTS CARDIAC OUTPUT!!! c. Ion flux in the conduction system of the heart d. Automaticity of the heart e. None of the responses 5. Starlings law of the heart is based on its prediction of cardiac output using the: a. Length and tension, preload and EDV parameters of the heart i. End Diastolic Volume ii. Used to describe stretch, a mechanical force 6. Both Lymphatic vessels and veins have: a. Skeletal muscles as the primary pump that returns fluid to the heart 7. Both Lymphatic vessels and veins have: a. Valves b. The characteristics related to high resistance vessels c. Both the characteristics related to high resistance vessels and valves

07/16/13 1. T wave indicates repolarization of the: a. Ventricle 2. *End Systolic volume of the left ventricle is: a. 50 mL b. Residual Volume (~50 mL, but changes based on stroke volume) i. Decreases during exercise c. Stroke Volume d. About 150 mL 3. Semilunar valves open following isovolumic: a. Relaxation of the ventricles b. Contraction of the ventricles 4. *Semilunar valves close just prior to the isovolumic: a. Relaxation of the ventricles 5. *AV valves open following isovolumic: a. Relaxation of the ventricles b. Relaxation of the atria c. Contraction of the ventricles d. Contraction of the atria i. Just before relaxation, Semilunar valves close and AV valves open ii. When atria contracts, it pushes 5-10 mL of blood into ventricle, slightly increasing heart rate (during rest) iii. With high BP (~180 bpm), Atria is responsible for all movement of blood into ventricle (so contractions responsible for opening and closing of AV valves) iv. At rest, entropic pressure difference drives passive movement of blood into the ventricles/aorta/atria v. Capillary hydrostatic pressure = 35 vi. Capillary osmotic pressure = 25 vii. Net push of water out of capillaries = 10 mmHg viii. After blood has gone out, pressure in capillaries has gone down below 25 mmHg, which allows the fluid to come back into the capillary, then valve opens and new blood comes into the capillary bed (at that point, blood pressure in capillary ~20-25 mmHg). Blood comes back into venules Veins ix. BP in vena cava = 8-10 1. When you contract veins to push blood back to heart, pressure increases minimally 2. Skeletal muscle pumping it back to heart increases blood pressure more 6. AV valves close prior to isovolumic a. Contraction of the ventricles 7. T wave indicates repolarization of the: a. Ventricle (repolarization) 8. The P wave indicates electrical activity over the

a. Atria 9. The QRS wave indicates electrical activity over the a. Ventricle (repolarization) 10. The pericardial sac is located in the a. Mediastinum 11. The heart develops from reciprocal induction: a. Endoderm-Mesoderm 12. Going from left to right of the aortic arch the first branch is a. Left subclavian 13. Which of the following is not involved in the initial ECM a. Integrins b. Laminins c. Collagen VI d. Collagen XVII e. Collagen ___ 14. Cardiac precursors arise from a. Ingestion of endoderm-mesoderm cells? 15. Which of the following is not involved in chamber formation: a. P cadherin b. N cadherin c. TBX d. NKX2 e. Gata 16. Partial pressure of O2 in inspired air, alveolar air, expired air 17. Partial pressure of CO2 in expired air

18. Which of the following diseases is directly linked to immotile cilia in the respiratory tract a. Kartigens? 19. Which of the following diseases is directly linked to a defect on chromosome 7 a. Cystic Fibrosis 20. Which of the following is the most compliant, remember delta V over delta P V/P a. Alveoli 21. The dead space involves a. Oral Pharynx b. Larynx c. Trachea d. All of these responses 22. *Why does air go into the lungs?

Both COP & OP Oncotic Pressure, OP Colloid Osmotic Pressure, COP Atmospheric Pressure i. Greater than the pressure in the lungs e. Hydrostatic Pressure i. Oncotic Pressure = Interstitial pressure due to water motion (H2O flux due to amount of Na+) ii. COP = in capillaries iii. Everything but AP relates to water!!! iv. Anaphylaxis, Asthmatic induced Lung Constriction, COPD, & CF v. Kidneys secrete EPO (Erythropoietin) to increase circulating O2 at higher elevations due to pressure decrease 1. Hypobaric chamber (good for sleep apnea) 23. Why does water go into the lungs in patients with high blood pressure? a. Hydrostatic Pressure 24.

a. b. c. d.

07/18/13 1. Which of the following diseases is directly linked to immotile cilia in the mucociliaryescalator: a. Kartagners 2. Which of the following diseases is directly linked to a defect on chromosome 7: a. Cystic Fibrosis 3. Which of the following mechanisms is directly linked to the sodium imbalance found in FC: a. Export of Na+ and Cl- are linked b. positive ions must be followed by anions c. all 4. Which of the following would be least likely to cause cor pulmonal: a. COPD b. Emphysema c. Kartagners d. Cystic Fibrosis e. Pulmonary Semilunar S f. This is the answer because all of the responses could cause cor pulmonal i. All lung diseases make lung more fibrotic, or less flexible, making the heart have to do more work ii. Cor pulmonal = right side heart failure iii. All of these cause it, but left heart failure is the #1 cause 5. Chloride shift exists in RBCs where the concentration of HCO3 (in the RBC) is lowered by exchanging them for Cl in the plasma whole blood. Which of the following statements about the exchange is the most correct? a. Maintain the electrical balance of the RBCs

b. Maintains H+ ions, which bind to heme and facilitate the release of O2 into tissue c. Results in the 6. Which is not part of the medullary center: a. Pontine respiratory group 7. 8. 9. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease which involves the destruction of connective tissue? a. Graves Disease i. Hyperthyroid b. Myasthenia Gravis i. Muscle c. Cystic Fibrosis i. Cl transport d. Goodpasteurs i. Glomerulus of Nephron ii. Type 4 Collagen iii. Alveoli of lungs iv. Destruction of connective tissue e. Lupus i. Destroys DNA in cell 10. Excess formation of connective tissue in respirator tract a. Cystic Fibrosis i. Scarring, cysts 11. Most likely cause of High Altitude Pulmonary Edema a. Decreased capillary osmotic pressure 12. Most likely

07/22/13 1. Digestion requires a. Enzymes 2. *When you increase the time of mastication you allow ___ enzyme/s to digest the food and promote duodenal uptake of _____. a. Lipase/acetyl CoA i. Breaks it down into fatty acids!!! NOT Acetyl-CoA b. Protease/amino acids c. Trypsin/amino acids i. Intestine (from Pancreas) d. Kinase/amino acids e. None of these responses 3. **Cephalic phase a. Four of them are correct (H+ ions, Pepsin, Gastrin, ____...) 4. When you increase the time of mastication and decrease gastric emptying you allow the ___ enzymes to digest the food and promote duodenal uptake of ___. a. Protease/amino acids 5. When gastric pH drops below 2, a. Prevents secretion of H+ ions (gastric juices) b. Only one option correct

07/23/13 1. Digestion occurs in an aqueous environment a. True 2. When you increase the time of mastication you allow the ___ enzyme a. None of these responses 3. When you increase the time of Cephalic phase stimulation, parasympathetic nerve endings in the stomace increase the release of ___. i. H+ ions * ii. Pepsin * iii. Lipase * iv. Gastrin * v. Trypsin vi. Kinase vii. Chymotrypsin b. Four of the above 4. When you increase the time of mastication and decrease gastric emptying you allow the ___ enzymes to digest the food and promote duodenal uptake of ___. a. Protease/amino acids i. Serine protease = Protease that cleaves proteins into peptides with serine in the active site 1. 10-peptide residues? ii. Carboxypeptidase = peptidase or protease that cleaves at the carboxyl end 5. When gastric pH decreases below 2 and you increase Gastric phase distension, the nerve endings in the stomach prevent the release of substances. The activating of a negative feedback stimulation for the reduction of ___. a. H+ ions

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07/24/13 1. The stimulation of the intestine by fatty acids results in the release of: Gastrin Secretin CCK GIP GTP i. CCK = Cholecystokinin (S cells in duodenum) ii. GIP = Gastric Inhibitory Peptide (K cells in duodenum) iii. Gastrin b. One response c. Two response d. Three responses e. Four responses f. None of these responses 2. The stimulation of cranial nerve ___ can function in the Intestinal phase of digestion XII XI X IX VIII a. One answer i. XII = Hypoglossal (motor) ii. XI = Spinal Accessory (motor) iii. X = Vagus (Both, Intestinal) iv. IX = Glossopharyngeal (Both) v. VIII = Vestibulocochlear (Sensory, cephalic) 3. The stimulation of cranial nerve ___ can function in the gastric phase of digestion XII XI X IX VII a. One answer i. X = Vagus 4. Hepatocyte a. A lipophobic and lipohylic compound 5. Mucus cells a. None 6. Chief cells a. None 7. Lipases, proteases, and amylases are: a. Hydrolases 8. Which enzymes are required to allow this food Saturated fat to enter metabolism? a. Hydrolase (B-oxidation)

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07/25/13 1. The enzymes needed to prepare foods for oxidative metabolism are located in the: a. Cytosol b. Mitochondrial matrix c. Mitochondrial cristae 2. Which enzymes are required to allow this food Saturated Fat to enter metabolism? a. Hydrolase in the cytoplasm 3. *Which enzymes are required to allow this food Trans Fat to enter metabolism? a. Hydrolase in the cytoplasm i. Need Isomerase for cis form 4. Which enzymes are required to allow this food cholesterol to enter metabolism? a. None of these answers i. *Hydrolase in SER, not cytosol

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07/29/13 1. Did you read the kidney chapter? a. Yes b. No c. Some 2. The kidney is an: a. Both Endocrine and Exocrine 3. The Kidney produces one of the major culprits of high blood pressure: a. Renin b. Angiotensinogen c. Angiotensin 1 d. Angiotensin 2 e. Aldosterone i. Liver makes angiotensinogen, along with fibrinogen, albumin, & complement 4. Which of the following is not secreted in the proximal tubule: a. PABA i. Para amino butaric acid b. PAH i. Para Amino Hypertubular acid ii. Tests Proximal tubule function (where you save acids) 5. The reabsorption of HCO3- is directly proportional to a. H+ 6. Which of the following does not have an effect on DCT: a. Aldosterone b. ANP c. ADH d. Vasopressin e. Renin 7. Decreased blood oxygen results in the release of: a. Erythropoietin 8. Decreased blood pressure results in the release of: a. Renin 9. Emphysema causes: a. Erythropoietin 10. Place these in the correct order: i. Renal artery ii. Segmental artery iii. Interlobar artery iv. Arcuate artery v. Interlobular artery b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 11. Which of the following stimulates the release of a steroid from the Zona Glomerulosa: a. A2

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12. Which activates a nuclear receptor: a. Cortisol b. Aldosterone c. Androgens d. Estrogen e. All of these responses 13. Which activates a G protein: a. Cortisol b. Aldosterone c. Androgens d. Estrogen e. None of these responses 14. Which of these diuretics may cause alkalosis? a. Sodium ion reabsorption inhibitors i. Others = acidosis 1. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors 2. Alcohol 3. Potassium-sparing osmotic Xanthines 15. Which of these steroid induced mechanisms is a potassium-sparing diuretic going to suppress: a. Aldosterone 16. Which of these steroid induced mechanisms is a potassium-sparing diuretic going to suppress: a. Aldosterone

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07/31/13 1. The classic contraceptive pill utilizes a compound that is: a. Water soluble b. Lipid soluble c. A hormone d. Travels in the blood e. All of these responses 2. Steroidogenic tissue includes all of the following except: a. Gonad b. Ovary c. Testis d. Liver i. Administer progesterone to prevent further contraction and halt birth (positive feedback) until babys bp is 200 bpm e. Placenta 3. As a result of the chemical properties of steroids: a. Receptors are in the cytoplasm b. Receptors are in the mitochondria c. Receptors are in the nucleus d. Receptors are attached to the cell membrane e. Receptors activate second messengers f. Both cell membrane receptors and activation of second messengers 4. Which of the following does not describe cholesterol? a. Transported to steroidogenic tissue by LDL & HDLs b. A lipid c. A steroid d. Predominately a hydrophobic compound e. A sterol 5. Which of these has an 18 hydroxylase in its synthesis pathway: a. Aldosterone i. Zona Fasciculata = 17 OH ase ii. Zona Glomerulosa = 18 OH ase 6. Which of these has an 17 hydroxylase in its synthesis pathway: a. Cortisol i. *Zona Glomerulosa 7. Which of the following tissues is least likely to be responsible of the formation of, release of estrogen? a. Adrenal i. NOT: 1. Testis 2. Ovary 3. Gonad 4. Placenta 5. Adipose tissue

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8. Which of the following tissues is most likely to be responsible of the formation of, release of estriol? a. Placenta 9. In a man (XY), which of the following tissues is most likely to be responsible for a significant level of estrogen? a. Adipose tissue 10. Estriol is a. C 18 11. Estrogen is a. C 18 12. Testosterone is a. C 19 13. Andostenedione is (same as testosterone) a. C 19 14. Cortisol is a. C 21 15. Hydroxycortisone is a. C 21

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