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Chapter 1

Microbiology—The Science

Terms Introduced in This Chapter


After reading Chapter 1, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 1 and in the Glossary.

Abiogenesis
Antibiotic
Bacteriologist
Bacteriology
Biogenesis
Biology
Bioremediation
Biotechnology
Decomposers
Etiologic agent
Etiology
Fastidious microorganisms
Genetic engineering
In vitro
In vivo
Indigenous microflora
Infectious diseases
Koch's Postulates
Microbial ecology
Microbial intoxications
Microbiologist
Microbiology
Microorganisms
Microscope
Mycologist
Mycology
Nonpathogens
Obligate intracellular pathogens
Opportunistic pathogens
Paleomicrobiology
Parasites
Parasitologist
Parasitology
Pasteurization
Pathogens
Petri dish
Phycologist
Phycology
Phytoplankton
Plankton
Protozoologist
Protozoology
Pure culture
Saprophyte
Toxin
Ubiquitous
Virologist
Virology
Zoonoses (sing., zoonosis)
Zooplankton

Insight

Additional Careers in Microbiology

Agricultural Microbiology

Agricultural microbiology is an excellent career field for individuals with interests in agriculture and microbiology.

Included in the field of agricultural microbiology are studies of the beneficial and harmful roles of microbes in soil

formation and fertility; in carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, and sulfur cycles; in diseases of plants; in the digestive

processes of cows and other ruminants; and in the production of crops and foods. Many different viruses, bacteria,

and fungi cause plant diseases. A food microbiologist is concerned with the production, processing, storage,

cooking, and serving of food, as well as the prevention of food spoilage, food poisoning, and food toxicity. A dairy

microbiologist oversees the grading, pasteurization, and processing of milk and cheeses to prevent contamination,

spoilage, and transmission of diseases from environmental, animal, and human sources. Certain aspects of

agricultural microbiology are discussed in Chapter 10.

Biotechnology (Industrial Microbiology)


Biotechnology (Industrial Microbiology)—the use of microorganisms in industry—is an excellent career field for

individuals with interests in industry and microbiology. Many businesses and industries depend on the proper

growth and maintenance of certain microbes to produce beer, wine, alcohol, and organic materials such as enzymes,

vitamins, and antibiotics. Industrial microbiologists monitor and maintain the microorganisms that are essential for

these commercial enterprises. Applied microbiologists conduct research aimed at producing new products and more

effective antibiotics. Biotechnology is discussed more fully in Chapter 10.

Environmental Microbiology and Bioremediation

The field of environmental microbiology, or microbial ecology, has become increasingly important in recent years

because of heightened awareness and concern about dangers to the environment. Environmental microbiologists are

concerned about water and sewage treatment. The purification of waste water is partially accomplished by bacteria

in the holding tanks of sewage disposal plants, in which feces, garbage, and other organic materials are collected and

reduced to harmless waste (discussed in Chapter 11). Some microorganisms, such as the iron- and sulfur-utilizing

bacteria even break down metals and minerals. Bioremediation involves the use of microorganisms to clean up after

ourselves—that is, to clean up landfills and industrial and toxic wastes. The beneficial activities of microbes affect

every part of our environment, including soil, water, and air. Environmental microbiology and bioremediation are

excellent career fields for individuals with interests in ecology and microbiology.

Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering

Microbial genetics involves the study of microbial DNA, chromosomes, plasmids, and genes. (Plasmids are small,

circular molecules of extrachromosomal DNA; they are discussed in Chapter 3.) Genetic engineering involves the

insertion of foreign genes into microorganisms (usually into bacteria or yeasts). These foreign genes may come from

any other organism (e.g., another microorganism, an animal, or even a plant). The primary purpose of inserting a

foreign gene into a microorganism is to create a microbe that is capable of either producing a product of importance

to us or accomplishing some task of importance to us. Genetic engineering has applications in agricultural,

environmental, industrial, and medical microbiology. The intestinal bacterium, Escherichia coli, has been used
extensively in microbial genetics, genetic engineering, and microbial physiology. Microbial genetics and genetic

engineering are excellent career fields for individuals with interests in genetics and microbiology. Microbial

physiology and genetics are discussed in Chapter 7.

Microbial Physiology

Research in microbial physiology has contributed immensely to our understanding of the structure and functions of

microbial cells. What microbiologists learn about microbial cells quite often applies to cells, in general. Microbial

physiology is an excellent career field for individuals with interests in biochemistry and microbiology.

Paleomicrobiology

The field of paleomicrobiology involves the study of ancient microbes. Although life is thought to have originated

between 3.7 and 4 billion years ago, there are no cellular fossils available from that time period. But there are

molecular fossils—molecules (usually lipids) known to be made only by organisms or, in some cases, only by

particular organisms. Finding such molecular fossils in ancient rocks serves as evidence that life existed at that time.

The earliest molecular fossils date back to between 3.7 and 4 billion years ago. Some paleomicrobiologists examine

and study skeletons and mummified human remains to determine the infectious diseases that occurred in ancient

civilizations. Such studies often involve the recovery of microbial DNA from bone and mummified tissue samples.

For example, finding Mycobacterium tuberculosis DNA in Egyptian mummies has revealed that tuberculosis existed

as far back as 3000 BC. Paleomicrobiology is an excellent career field for individuals with interests in anthropology,

archaeology, and microbiology.

Parasitology

Technically, any organism that lives on or in another living organism is called a parasite. It would seem, then, that

the term parasite would apply to all of the microorganisms of our indigenous microflora—the viruses and bacteria

that live on or in the human body. However, the field of parasitology involves only the following three categories of

parasites: parasitic protozoa, helminths (parasitic worms), and arthropods (specifically, certain insects and
arachnids). A parasitologist studies these organisms and their life cycles in an attempt to discover the best ways to

control and treat the diseases that they cause. Chapter 18 contains a wealth of information about medical

parasitology.

Sanitary Microbiology

The field of sanitary microbiology includes the processing and disposal of garbage and sewage wastes, as well as the

purification and processing of water supplies to ensure that no pathogens are carried to the consumer by drinking

water. These topics are discussed in Chapter 11. Sanitary microbiologists also inspect food processing installations

and eating establishments to ensure that proper food handling procedures are being enforced.

Veterinary Microbiology

A wide variety of microbes—including viruses, bacteria, fungi, and protozoa—cause infectious diseases in animals.

Control of such diseases is the concern of veterinary microbiologists. The production of food from livestock, the

raising of other agriculturally important animals, the care of pets, and the transmission of diseases from animals to

humans are areas of major importance in this field. Infectious diseases of humans that are acquired from animal

sources are called zoonoses or zoonotic diseases. Zoonoses are discussed in Chapter 11. Veterinary microbiology is

an excellent career field for a person who is fond of animals and microbiology.

Increase Your Knowledge


1. For additional information about careers in microbiology, visit the American Society for
Microbiology (ASM) web site (www.asm.org), and read the book, Many Faces, Many
Microbes: Personal Reflections in Microbiology, edited by Ronald M. Atlas (ASM Press,
Washington, D.C., 2000). The ASM web site also contains information about colleges
and universities offering undergraduate and graduate degrees in microbiology.

2. Students wishing to learn more about the history of microbiology should read any of the
following books: Microbe Hunters, by Paul de Kruif (Harcourt, Brace, 1926), Milestones
in Microbiology, edited by Thomas Brock (ASM Press, Washington, D.C., 1961),
Microbe Hunters Then and Now, edited by Hilary Koprowski and Michael B.A. Oldstone
(Medi-Ed Press, Bloomington, IL, 1996), and A Chronology of Microbiology in
Historical Context, by Raymond W. Beck (ASM Press, Washington, D.C., 2000).

3. For in-depth information about Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch, you might want to read
the following books (information about these books can be found at
http://estore.asm.org):

Pasteur and Modern Science, by Rene Dubos and Thomas D. Brock. ASM Press,
Washington, D.C., 1998.

Robert Koch: A Life in Medicine and Bacteriology, by Thomas D. Brock. ASM Press,
Washington, D.C., 1998.

Microbiology—Hollywood Style
Students wishing to gain a better understanding of Louis Pasteur and the 19th-century
problems he faced should rent the thoroughly enjoyable video entitled The Story of Louis
Pasteur. This 1936 black-and-white movie starred Paul Muni, who won an Academy
Award for his portrayal of Louis Pasteur.

Critical Thinking
1. Microorganisms are said to be ubiquitous. Can you think of any locations that would be
devoid of microorganisms?

2. Of all the various areas of microbiology mentioned in this chapter, which appeal to you
the most as a possible career field? Why?

3. Assume that you are entering a health-related profession. Of what value will knowledge
of microbiology be to you?

4. Many people consider Louis Pasteur’s contributions to be the foundation of the science of
microbiology and a cornerstone of modern medicine. What contributions did he make
that would cause people to believe that?

5. You have isolated a bacterium from the blood of a patient with a newly described disease.
What steps would you take to prove that the organism that you’ve isolated is the cause of
the patient’s disease? (Hint: Remember Koch’s Postulates.)
Answers to the Chapter 1 Self-Assessment Exercises in
the Text
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. B
9. B
10. B

Additional Chapter 1 Self-Assessment Exercises


(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)

Matching Questions

A. Anton van Leeuwenhoek _____ 1. Developed vaccines for anthrax


B. Robert Koch and rabies.
C. Louis Pasteur
D. Rudolf Virchow _____ 2. Proposed the theory of biogenesis.
E. Alexandre Emil Jean Yersin
_____ 3. Discovered the causative agent of
plague.

_____ 4. The first person to observe live bacteria


and protozoa.

_____ 5. Developed an experimental procedure


that could be used to prove that a
specific microorganism is the cause of a
specific infectious disease.

A. pathogens
B. nonpathogens
C. opportunistic pathogens
D. indigenous microflora
E. saprophytes
_____ 6. Organisms
that live on dead or
decaying organic
matter.

_____ 7. Microorganisms that


do not cause disease.

_____ 8. Microorganisms that


usually do not cause
disease, but can cause
disease under certain
circumstances.

_____ 9. The microorganisms


that live on us and in
us.

_____ 10. The most common


causes of infectious
diseases or microbial
intoxications.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. All infectious diseases are caused by pathogens.

_____ 2. Pathogens greatly outnumber nonpathogens.

_____ 3. Using microorganisms to clean up the environment is known as bioremediation.

_____ 4. Microorganisms are essential in the field of genetic engineering.

_____ 5. Microorganisms probably appeared on earth about 3.5 million years ago.

_____ 6. Anton van Leeuwenhoek’s experiments helped to prove that microorganisms


cause disease.

_____ 7. Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch made significant contributions to the “Germ
Theory of Disease.”

_____ 8. Pasteurization is a process that kills all microorganisms present in the liquid being
pasteurized.

_____ 9. Microorganisms contribute more oxygen to our atmosphere than plants do.

_____ 10. Infectious diseases that are transmitted from animals to humans are known as
zoonoses.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 1 Self-Assessment


Exercises

Matching Questions

1. C
2. D
3. E
4. A
5. B
6. E
7. B
8. C
9. D
10. A

True/False Questions

1. True
2. False (the reverse is true)
3. True
4. True
5. False (3.5 billion years ago)
6. False (Leeuwenhoek did not make the link between diseases and the microorganisms he
observed; scientists like Pasteur and Koch made such connections)
7. True
8. False (pasteurization is a process designed to kill pathogens; it does not kill all of the
microorganisms that might be present in the liquid being pasteurized)
9. True
10. True
Chapter 2
Microscopy

Terms Introduced in This Chapter


After reading Chapter 2, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 2 and in the Glossary.

Bacillus (pl., bacilli)


Brightfield microscope
Centimeter
Coccus (pl., cocci)
Compound light microscope
Darkfield microscope
Decimeter
Electron micrograph
Electron microscope
Empty magnification
Fluorescence microscope
Micrometer
Microscopic
Millimeter
Nanometer
Phase-contrast microscope
Photomicrograph
Resolving power (resolution)
Scanning electron micrograph
Scanning electron microscope
Simple microscope
Transmission electron micrograph
Transmission electron microscope

Critical Thinking

You are planning to create a better compound light microscope—one that will enable you
to see objects smaller in diameter than 0.2 µm. You gather together the best lens grinders
in the world and put them to work in a lens-grinding laboratory having unlimited
resources. You instruct them to grind marvelous magnifying lenses and add them to an
existing compound light microscope. What’s wrong with this plan?
Answers to the Chapter 2 Self-Assessment Exercises in
the Text
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. D
6. B
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. B

Additional Chapter 2 Self-Assessment Exercises


(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)

Matching Questions

A. 10 _____ 1. The number of nanometers in a


B. 100 micrometer.
C. 1,000
D. 1,000,000 _____ 2. The resolving power of the compound
E. 1,000,000,000 light microscope is __________ times
better than the resolving power of the
unaided eye.

_____ 3. The number of micrometers in a


millimeter.

_____ 4. The resolving power of the transmission


electron microscope is __________
times better than the resolving power of
the scanning electron microscope.

_____ 5. The resolving power of the transmission


electron microscope is __________
times better than the resolving power of
the unaided eye.
A. 0.2 nm _____ 6. The width of a typical coccus.
B. 20 nm
C. 0.2 µm _____ 7. The resolving power of the unaided eye.
D. 1 µm
E. 0.2 mm _____ 8. The resolving power of the scanning
electron microscope.

_____ 9. The resolving power of the transmission


electron microscope.

_____ 10. The resolving power of the compound


light microscope.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. Anton van Leeuwenhoek is given credit for developing the first compound light
microscope.

_____ 2. The wavelength of visible light limits the size of objects that can be seen with the
compound light microscope.

_____ 3. The resolving power of compound light microscopes can be improved by adding
additional magnifying lenses.

_____ 4. A brightfield microscope can be converted to a darkfield microscope by replacing


the condenser on a brightfield microscope with a darkfield condenser.

_____ 5. Transmission electron microscopes are used to study surface features.

_____ 6. Primary syphilis is usually diagnosed in the clinical microbiology laboratory by


the use of a scanning electron microscope.

_____ 7. A magnifying glass could be considered a simple microscope.

_____ 8. The total magnification achieved when the oil immersion lens is used is ×1,000.

_____ 9. Fluorescence microscopy is often used in immunology laboratories.

_____ 10. The resolving power of electron microscopes is much better than that of
compound light microscopes because the wavelength of electrons is much longer
than that of visible light.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 2 Self-Assessment


Exercises
Matching Questions

1. C
2. C
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. D
7. E
8. B
9. A
10. C

True/False Questions

1. False (Leeuwenhoek made simple microscopes, not compound microscopes)


2. True
3. False (adding additional magnifying lenses to existing compound light microscopes
would not improve resolving power; it is referred to as “empty magnification”)
4. True
5. False (transmission electron microscopes are used to observe internal structures; scanning
electron microscopes are used to study surface features)
6. False (primary syphilis is usually diagnosed using darkfield microscopy)
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. False (it is because the wavelength of electrons is much shorter than that of visible light)
Chapter 3
Cell Structure and Taxonomy

Terms Introduced in This Chapter


After reading Chapter 3, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 3 and in the Glossary.

Amphitrichous bacterium
Archaea
Archaeans
Asexual reproduction
Autolysis
Axial filaments
Bacteria
Bacteria
Binary fission
Capsule
Cell
Cell membrane
Cell theory
Cell wall
Cellulose
Chitin
Chloroplast
Chromosomes
Cilium (pl., cilia)
Conjugation
Cytokinesis
Cytology
Cytoplasm
Cytoskeleton
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
Diploid cells
Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
Endospore
Eucarya
Eucaryotic cells
Fimbriae (sing., fimbria)
Flagella (sing., flagellum)
Flagellin
Gene
Gene product
Generation time
Genotype (Genome)
Genus (pl., genera)
Glycocalyx
Golgi complex
Haploid cells
Life cycle
Lophotrichous bacterium
Lysosome
Meiosis
Metabolism
Microtubules
Mitochondria (sing., mitochondrion)
Mitosis
Monotrichous bacterium
Negative stain
Nuclear membrane
Nucleolus
Nucleoplasm
Nucleus (pl., nuclei)
Organelles
Peptidoglycan
Peritrichous bacterium
Peroxisome
Phagocyte
Phagocytosis
Photosynthesis
Pili (sing., pilus)
Plasmid
Plastid
Polyribosomes
Procaryotic cells
Protists
Protoplasm
Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
Ribosomes
Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)
Selective permeability
Sex pilus
Sexual reproduction
Slime layer
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)
Species (pl., species)
Specific epithet
Spirochetes
Sporulation
Taxa (sing., taxon)
Taxonomy
Tyndallization

Insight

Asexual Versus Sexual Reproduction


In asexual reproduction, a single organism is the sole parent. It passes copies of all of its genes
(i.e., its entire genome) to its offspring. Some single-celled eucaryotic organisms can reproduce
asexually by mitotic cell division (mitosis; described later), a process by which their
chromosomes are copied and allocated equally to two daughter cells. The genomes of the
offspring are identical to the parent’s genome. Procaryotic organisms reproduce asexually by a
process known as binary fission (described later).
In sexual reproduction, two parents give rise to offspring that have unique combinations of
genes inherited from both parents. The alternation of meiosis (described later) and fertilization is
common to all organisms that reproduce sexually. In sexual reproduction, a zygote (fertilized
egg) is formed by the fusion of gametes.
Most protists can reproduce asexually. Some protists are exclusively asexual, whereas others
can also reproduce sexually (involving meiosis and the fusion of gametes). Fungi (other than
yeasts) reproduce by releasing spores, which are produced either sexually or asexually. Most
yeasts reproduce asexually, either by simple cell division or by the process of budding. Budding,
a type of mitosis, involves the formation of a small cell (called a bud), which then pinches off the
parent cell. Some yeasts reproduce sexually.

Life Cycles
A life cycle can be defined as the generation-to-generation sequence of stages that occur in the
reproductive history of an organism. The human life cycle (which is also the life cycle of most
animals and some protists) involves production of haploid gametes by meiosis, fusion of gametes
to produce a diploid zygote, and mitotic division of the zygote to produce a multicellular
organism, composed of diploid cells. (Haploid cells contain only one set of chromosomes,
whereas diploid cells contain two sets of chromosomes.)
Another type of life cycle that occurs in most fungi and some protists, including some algae,
involves fusion of haploid gametes to form a diploid zygote, meiosis to produce haploid cells,
and then division of the haploid cells by mitosis to give rise to a multicellular adult organism that
is composed of haploid cells. Gametes are then produced from the haploid organism by mitosis
(rather than by meiosis). Thus, the only diploid stage is the zygote.
A third type of life cycle that occurs in plants and some species of algae is called alternation
of generations. In this type of life cycle, there are both diploid and haploid multicellular stages.
The multicellular diploid stage is called the sporophyte. Meiosis in the sporophyte produces
haploid cells called spores. Unlike a gamete, a spore gives rise to a multicellular organism
without fusing with another cell. A spore divides mitotically to generate a multicellular haploid
stage called the gametophyte. The gametophyte makes gametes by mitosis. Fertilization results
in a diploid zygote, which develops into the next sporophyte generation. Thus, the sporophyte
and gametophyte generations take turns reproducing each other.
Eucaryotic Cell Reproduction
Eucaryotic cells may reproduce either by mitosis or meiosis. Mitosis results in two cells (called
daughter cells), which are identical to the original cell (the parent cell). Meiosis results in four
cells, each of which contains half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

Mitosis
The word mitosis comes from the Greek word mito, meaning “thread.” When cells are observed
microscopically, threadlike structures can be seen during mitosis. Technically speaking, mitosis
refers to nuclear division—the equal division of one nucleus into two genetically identical nuclei.
Mitosis is preceded by replication of chromosomes, which occurs during a part of the cell life
cycle known as interphase. During mitosis, the nuclear material of the parent cell shifts,
reorganizes, and moves around, leading some people to refer to mitosis as “the dance of the
chromosomes.” After mitosis occurs, the cytoplasm divides (a process known as cytokinesis),
resulting in two daughter cells. Either haploid or diploid cells can divide by mitosis.

Meiosis
Only diploid cells can undergo meiosis. As with mitosis, meiosis is preceded by replication of chromosomes. In
meiosis, diploid cells are changed into haploid cells. Human diploid cells, for example, contain
46 chromosomes, whereas human haploid cells (sperm cells and ova) contain 23. Meiosis is the
process by which gametes are produced. Many steps are involved in meiosis—too many to
discuss in detail here. Suffice it to say that meiosis involves two divisions (called meiosis I and
meiosis II). The end result is four daughter cells, each of which contains only half as many
chromosomes as the parent cell. Recall that mitosis produces two daughter cells that are
genetically identical to the parent cell.

The Origin of Mitochondria and Chloroplasts


Symbiosis is the living together or close association of two dissimilar organisms, usually two
different species. In such a relationship, each party is referred to as a symbiont. Endosymbionts
are organisms that live inside of other organisms, the latter of which are referred to as hosts.
Many scientists believe that the mitochondria and chloroplasts of eucaryotic cells were
originally derived from bacterial endosymbionts—bacteria that once led a free-living,
independent existence. The theory known as the serial endosymbiosis hypothesis proposes that,
at some point in time—perhaps 1.5 billion years ago—certain bacteria were engulfed
(phagocytized) by other procaryotic cells. At first, the engulfed bacteria continued to live an
independent existence within the host cells. But, in time, an interdependence developed between
the two organisms, and the endosymbionts developed into the organelles known as mitochondria
and chloroplasts.
Most of the evidence for the serial endosymbiosis theory is based on similarities between
these organelles and bacteria. Mitochondria possess a circular chromosome, a specific type of
RNA, and ribosomes (which are very much like those of bacteria), and similar to bacteria,
mitochondria arise only from preexisting mitochondria. Chloroplasts are very much like
photosynthetic bacteria. They contain DNA and ribosomes quite similar to those found in
bacteria, and they too arise independently of other organelles. This theory becomes even more
plausible when one considers that many simple marine animals and protists existing today
contain photosynthetic endosymbionts. Based on 16S rRNA sequence data, the most likely
candidates to have evolved into mitochondria and chloroplasts are alpha purple bacteria and
cyanobacteria, respectively. (See text for information on 16S sequences.)
Not all scientists agree with the serial endosymbiosis theory, however. Another theory—
the autogenous hypothesis—states that mitochondria and chloroplasts, as well as other
membranous structures found within eucaryotic cells, were derived from the cytoplasmic
membrane. Undoubtedly, additional research will determine which of these hypotheses is correct.

Increase Your Knowledge


Technical information about the bacterial genomes that have been sequenced to date can
be found at the web site of The Institute for Genomic Research—www.tigr.org. TIGR
published the first complete microbial genomic sequence—that of Haemophilus
influenzae—in 1995.

Critical Thinking
1. Draw a picture of a eucaryotic cell from memory, labeling as many structures as possible.
Use the outline below to represent the cell membrane. When you are finished, compare
your drawing to Figure 3-2 in the book.

2. Draw a picture of a procaryotic cell from memory, labeling as many structures as


possible. Use the outline below to represent the cell membrane. When you are finished,
compare your drawing to Figure 3-6 in the book.
Answers to the Chapter 3 Self-Assessment Exercises in
the Text
1. C
2. C
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. C

Additional Chapter 3 Self-Assessment Exercises


(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)

Matching Questions

A. plastids D. endoplasmic reticulum


B. mitochondria E. Golgi complex
C. ribosomes
_____ 1. Membrane-bound organelles
where photosynthesis occurs.

_____ 2. The sites of protein synthesis in


procaryotic cells.

_____ 3. Considered a “packaging plant,” where


proteins are packaged into membrane-
bound vesicles.

_____ 4. Membrane-bound organelles where


energy is produced by the Krebs cycle
and electron transport chain.

_____ 5. Found in procaryotic cells as well as


eucaryotic cells.
_____ 6. Short, hairlike projections used
A. pili as organelles of locomotion by some
B. cilia eucaryotic cells.
C. eucaryotic flagella
D. capsules _____ 7. Found on some bacteria; they serve an
E. procaryotic flagella antiphagocytic function.

_____ 8. Found on some bacteria; they enable the


bacteria to adhere to surfaces.

_____ 9. Composed of a protein called flagellin.

_____ 10. Long, whiplike structures having an


internal organization that is described as
a “9+2” arrangement of microtubules.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. The internal structure of procaryotic flagella is the same as the internal structure
of eucaryotic flagella.

_____ 2. The internal structure of eucaryotic cilia is the same as the internal structure of
eucaryotic flagella.

_____ 3. The production of endospores by bacteria is a reproductive mechanism.

_____ 4. Bacteria never have cilia and eucaryotic cells never have pili.

_____ 5. The 3-Domain System of classification is based on differences in the structure of


transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules.

_____ 6. One way that archaeans differ from bacteria is that archaeans possess more
peptidoglycan in their cell walls.

_____ 7. Chitin is found in the cell walls of algae, but is not found in the cell walls of any
other types of microorganisms.

_____ 8. Tyndallization is a process that kills spores as well as vegetative cells.

_____ 9. Procaryotic cells do not contain endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies,


mitochondria, plastids, or membrane-bound vesicles.

_____ 10. In eucaryotic cells, ribosomal RNA (rRNA) molecules are manufactured in the
nucleolus.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 3 Self-Assessment


Exercises
Matching Questions

1. A
2. C
3. E
4. B
5. C
6. B
7. D
8. A
9. E
10. C

True/False Questions

1. False (eucaryotic flagella contain microtubules, whereas procaryotic flagella do not)


2. True
3. False (production of endospores is a survival mechanism)
4. True
5. False (the 3-Domain System is based on differences in the structure of ribosomal RNA
[rRNA])
6. False (archaean cell walls do not contain peptidoglycan)
7. False (chitin is found in the cell walls of fungi)
8. True
9. True
10. True
Chapter 4
Diversity of Microorganisms
Part 1: Acellular and Procaryotic Microbes

Terms Introduced in This Chapter


After reading Chapter 4, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 4 and in the Glossary.

Acid-fast stain
Aerotolerant anaerobe
Anaerobe
Anoxygenic photosynthesis
Bacteriophage
Capnophile
Capsid
Capsomeres
Coccobacillus
Differential staining procedures
Diplobacilli
Diplococci
Facultative anaerobe
Gram stain
Inclusion bodies
L-forms
Lytic cycle
Microaerophiles
Nanobacteria
Nitrogen fixation
Obligate aerobe
Obligate anaerobe
Octad
Oncogenic viruses
Oxygenic photosynthesis
Pleomorphism
Prions
Simple stain
Staphylococci
Streptobacilli
Streptococci
Structural staining procedures
Temperate bacteriophage
Tetrad
Vectors
Virions
Viroid
Virulent bacteriophage

Insight

Microbes in the News—“Mad Cow Disease”


The disease known to most people as “mad cow disease” has received a great deal of publicity
during recent years and has led to the slaughter of millions of cows, primarily in the United
Kingdom. The scientific name for what the press calls “mad cow disease” is bovine spongiform
encephalopathy (BSE). It is a progressive neurologic disorder of cattle that results from infection
by an unconventional transmissible agent. The most accepted theory is that the agent is a
modified form of an abnormal cell surface component known as a prion protein. As of
November, 2005, only two BSE cases in cows have been diagnosed in the United States.
There is strong epidemiologic and laboratory evidence for a causal association between
BSE and variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD) of humans. In contrast to the classic form of
CJD, the new variant form in the United Kingdom predominantly affects younger persons. It has
atypical clinical features, with prominent psychiatric or sensory symptoms at the time of clinical
presentation and delayed onset of neurologic abnormalities. These include ataxia (an inability to
coordinate the muscles in the execution of voluntary movement) within weeks or months,
dementia and myoclonus (clonic spasm or twitching of a muscle or group of muscles) late in the
illness, a duration of illness of at least 6 months, and a diffusely abnormal nondiagnostic
electroencephalogram. The characteristic neuropathologic profile of vCJD includes, in both the
cerebellum and cerebrum, numerous kuru-type amyloid plaques surrounded by vacuoles and
prion protein accumulation at high concentration indicated by immunohistochemical analysis.
(Kuru is described in Chapter 4 in the text.)
Variant CJD was first reported in 1996, in the United Kingdom. As of November 2005, a
total of 185 cases of vCJD have been reported. The majority of the cases (85%) were reported
from the United Kingdom. Although 2 cases have been reported from the United States, the CDC
suspects that both patients were exposed to the BSE agent while they resided in the United
Kingdom.

Life in the Absence of Oxygen


Someday, you may overhear someone erroneously state that “Life is impossible there (perhaps
referring to one of the planets) because there isn’t any oxygen.” But, you’ll know differently!
You’ll be able to point out that life is indeed possible in the absence of oxygen. Furthermore,
you’ll be able to explain that organisms capable of life in the absence of oxygen are called
anaerobes.
But, who discovered anaerobes? The credit for discovering anaerobes can be given to
three scientists: a 17th-century scientist, an 18th-century scientist, and a 19th-century scientist.
Each of them made scientific observations that contributed to our present knowledge and
understanding of anaerobes.
In 1680, Anton van Leeuwenhoek performed an experiment using pepper and sealed
glass tubes. In a letter to the Royal Society of London, he wrote that “animalcules developed
although the contained air must have been in minimal quantity.” [Leeuwenhoek used the term
“animalcules” to refer to the tiny organisms that he observed, using the simple, single lens
microscopes, which he made.]
Lazzaro Spallanzani, an Italian scientist, performed similar experiments in the latter half
of the 18th century. He drew the air from microbe-containing glass tubes, fully expecting the
microbes to die—but some did not. He wrote in a letter to a friend, “The nature of some of these
animalcules is astonishing! They are able to exercise in a vacuum the functions they use in free
air.…How wonderful this is! For we have always believed there is no living being that can live
without the advantages air offers it.”
It was Louis Pasteur who actually introduced the terms “aerobe” and “anaerobe.” In an
1861 paper, he wrote “these infusorial animals are able to live and multiply indefinitely in the
complete absence of air or free oxygen.…These infusoria can not only live in the absence of air,
but air actually kills them.…I believe this is…the first example of an animal living in the
absence of free oxygen.” [The term “infusoria” was used by early microbiologists to refer to
microorganisms. Infusoria was later used to specifically refer to ciliated protozoa, but the term is
now obsolete.]
We know now that anaerobes are quite common and that they live in specific ecologic
niches. They can be found in soil, in freshwater and saltwater sediments (mud), and in the bodies
of animals and humans. The indigenous microflora of humans contains many species of
anaerobes, some of which are opportunistic pathogens. Anaerobes cause a wide variety of human
diseases, including botulism, tetanus, gas gangrene, pulmonary infections, brain abscesses, and
oral diseases. It was Louis Pasteur who, in 1877, discovered the first pathogenic anaerobe—the
bacterium that today is known as Clostridium septicum.

The Oxygen Holocaust


In the beginning, all the world was anaerobic—there was no oxygen. Scientists tell us that the
first organisms were anaerobic microorganisms that evolved some 3 to 4 billion years ago. Life
on earth then remained anaerobic for hundreds of millions of years.
Then, about 2 billion years ago, the first worldwide pollution crisis occurred. “The
oxygen holocaust” (as described by Margulis and Sagan) came about as the result of the
evolution of the purple and green photosynthetic microbes. These organisms were able to make
use of the hydrogen in water, by photosynthesis, leaving a waste product called oxygen. Yes, the
oxygen that we humans consider so precious was originally a gaseous poison dumped into the
atmosphere.
As oxygen gains electrons (becomes reduced), highly reactive, short-lived chemicals
(called free radicals) are produced. These free radicals wreak havoc with the organic compounds
that are the very basis of life. They destroy membranes and enzymes and are lethal to cells.
As stated by Lovelock, “the first appearance of oxygen in the air heralded an almost fatal
catastrophe for early life.” Many anaerobic microbes were immediately destroyed. The microbes
able to survive were those that responded to the crisis by developing ways to detoxify and
eventually exploit the dangerous pollutant. These were the organisms that developed the ability
to produce enzymes—like catalase, peroxidase, and superoxide dismutase—that break down and
neutralize the various toxic reduction products of oxygen.
Those organisms lacking such enzymes either died or were forced to retreat to ecologic
niches devoid of oxygen, such as soil and mud and deep within the bodies of animals. Those
anaerobes that constitute part of our own indigenous microflora, for example, lead a rather
pampered existence. We provide them with warmth and nutrients and a safe haven from their
worst enemy—oxygen.
(To learn more about this subject, refer to Microcosmos: Four Billion Years of Microbial
Evolution, by Lynn Margulis and Dorion Sagan [Summit Books, 1986] and Gaia: a New Look at
Life on Earth, by J.E. Lovelock [Oxford University Press, 1979]).

Increase Your Knowledge


Information about Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology and the Bergey’s Manual
Trust (the organization responsible for publishing the manual) can be found at
www.cme.msu.edu/bergeys

Microbiology—Hollywood Style
The German chemist, Paul Ehrlich (1854–1915), made significant contributions to
microbiology. In 1882, he developed a method of staining the causative agent of
tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis). His method was subsequently modified, and
is today referred to as the acid-fast staining procedure. Ehrlich was also the first person to
use chemicals to treat infectious diseases (discussed in Chapter 9). Students wishing to
gain a better understanding of Paul Ehrlich and his contributions to microbiology should
rent the thoroughly enjoyable video entitled Dr. Ehrlich’s Magic Bullet. This 1940 black-
and-white movie starred Edward G. Robinson as Dr. Ehrlich.

Critical Thinking
1. Be prepared to discuss key differences between viruses and bacteria.

2. Be prepared to explain why rickettsias, chlamydias, and mycoplasmas are described as


unique bacteria.

3. Be prepared to discuss key differences between bacteria and archaeans.

Answers to the Chapter 4 Self-Assessment Exercises in


the Text
1. D
2. A
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. D
10. A

Additional Chapter 4 Self-Assessment Exercises


(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)

Matching Questions

A. diplococci _____ 1. Spherical bacteria arranged in


B. diplobacilli pairs are called _______________.
C. staphylococci
D. streptobacilli _____ 2. Rod-shaped bacteria arranged in chains
E. streptococci are called _______________.

_____ 3. Spherical bacteria arranged in clusters


are called _______________.

_____ 4. Rod-shaped bacteria arranged in pairs


are called _______________.

_____ 5. Spherical bacteria arranged in chains are


called _______________.

A. chlamydias _____ 6. The bacteria that cause syphilis


B. cyanobacteria and Lyme disease are
C. mycoplasmas _______________.
D. rickettsias
E. spirochetes _____ 7. _______________ are obligate
intracellular pathogens that cause
diseases such as trachoma, inclusion
conjunctivitis, and urethritis.

_____ 8. _______________ are photosynthetic.


_____ 9. _______________
have no cell walls.

_____ 10. _______________ are


obligate intracellular
pathogens that cause
diseases such as
typhus and Rocky
Mountain spotted
fever.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. All diseases caused by Rickettsia spp. are arthropodborne.

_____ 2. Viruses contain both DNA and RNA.

_____ 3. The cell walls of archaeans contain a thicker layer of peptidoglycan than bacterial
cell walls.

_____ 4. On entering a bacterial cell, all bacteriophages immediately initiate the lytic cycle.

_____ 5. Mycoplasmas cannot grow on artificial media.

_____ 6. Viruses are the smallest infectious agents.

_____ 7. Rickettsia spp. and Chlamydia spp. cannot be grown on artificial media.

_____ 8. Prions are infectious RNA molecules.

_____ 9. HIV is an enveloped, double-stranded RNA virus.

_____ 10. Organisms in the genus Vibrio are curved bacilli.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 4 Self-Assessment


Exercises
Matching Questions

1. A
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. E
6. E
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. D

True/False Questions
1. True
2. False (they contain either DNA or RNA)
3. False (archaean cell walls do not contain peptidoglycan)
4. False (temperate bacteriophages cause lysogeny)
5. False (yes they can)
6. False (viroids and prions are infectious agents that are smaller than viruses)
7. True
8. False (prions are infectious proteins; viroids are infectious RNA molecules)
9. True
10. True
Chapter 5
Diversity of Microorganisms
Part 2: Eucaryotic Microbes

Terms Introduced in This Chapter

After reading Chapter 5, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 5 and in the Glossary.

Aerial hyphae
Algae (sing., alga)
Ameba (pl., amebae)
Aseptate hyphae
Ciliates (sing., ciliate)
Ciliophora
Conidium (pl., conidia)
Contractile vacuole
Cyst
Cytostome
Dimorphism
Flagellates (sing., flagellate)
Hyphae (sing., hypha)
Lichen
Mastigophora
Mycelium (pl., mycelia)
Mycosis (pl., mycoses)
Mycotoxicosis (pl., mycotoxicoses)
Mycotoxins
Pellicle
Phycotoxicosis (pl., phycotoxicoses)
Phycotoxins
Pinocytosis
Protozoa (sing., protozoan)
Pseudohypha (pl., pseudohyphae)
Pseudopodium (pl., pseudopodia)
Sarcodina
Sarcomastigophora
Septate hyphae
Slime mold
Sporozoea
Stigma (eyespot)
Trophozoite
Vegetative hyphae
Insight

Microbes in the News—“Sick Building Syndrome” (Black Mold in Buildings)


During the past few years, there has been quite a bit of publicity about black molds and the so-
called sick building syndrome. The following information on these subjects is from the Centers
for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC):

“Stachybotrys chartarum (also known as S. atra) is a greenish-black mold. It can grow on


material with a high cellulose and low nitrogen content, such as fiberboard, gypsum board,
paper, dust, and lint. Growth occurs when there is moisture from water damage, excessive
humidity, water leaks, condensation, water infiltration, or flooding. Constant moisture is required
for its growth.” S. chartarum is one of a series of fungi that produces trichothecenes mycotoxins.
Although S. chartarum is less common in buildings and homes than Cladosporium, Penicillium,
Aspergillus, and Alternaria, it is not rare. “It is not necessary to determine what type of mold you
may have [in your home or office]. All molds should be treated the same with respect to potential
health risks and removal.”

Health Risks. “The hazards presented by molds that may contain mycotoxins should be
considered the same as other common molds which can grow in your house…There are very few
case reports that toxic molds (those producing certain mycotoxins) inside homes can cause
unique or rare health conditions such as pulmonary hemorrhage [see below] or memory loss.
These case reports are rare, and a causal link between the presence of the toxic mold and these
conditions has not been proven. A common-sense approach should be used for any mold
contamination existing inside buildings and homes. The common health concerns from molds
include hay-fever like allergic symptoms. Certain individuals with chronic respiratory disease
(e.g., chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder, asthma) may experience difficulty breathing.
Individuals with immune suppression may be at increased risk for infection from molds…For the
most part, one should take routine measures to prevent mold growth in the home.”
Although there has been some speculation about a possible link between Stachybotrys
and acute idiopathic pulmonary hemorrhage (pulmonary hemosiderosis) in infants, the CDC is
currently stating that such an association has not been proven. Pulmonary hemosiderosis is
bleeding in the lungs. Severe bleeding can cause the coughing up of blood or nose bleeds.
Chronic, low-grade bleeding can cause chronic cough and congestion with anemia.

Mold Prevention. “(1) Keep humidity level in the house below 50%. (2) Use an air
conditioner or a dehumidifier during humid months. (3) Be sure the home has adequate
ventilation, including exhaust fans in kitchens and bathrooms. (4) Use mold inhibitors, which can
be added to paint. (5) Clean bathrooms with mold killing products. (6) Do not carpet bathrooms.
(7) Remove and replace flooded carpets.”

Mold Removal. “Mold growing in homes and buildings, whether it is S. chartarum or


other molds, indicates that there is a problem with water or moisture. This is the first problem to
be addressed. Mold can be cleaned off surfaces with a weak bleach solution. Mold under carpets
typically requires that the carpets be removed. Once mold starts to grow in insulation or
wallboard, the only way to deal with the problem is by removal and replacement. [The CDC
does] not believe that one needs to take any different precautions with S. chartarum than with
other molds. In areas where flooding has occurred, prompt cleaning of walls and other flood-
damaged items with water mixed with chlorine bleach, diluted 10 parts water to 1 part bleach, is
necessary to remove mold growth. Never mix bleach with ammonia. Moldy items should be
discarded.”

Increase Your Knowledge


1. To learn more about medical, veterinary, and agricultural aspects of fungi, visit the web
site, www.doctorfungus.org.

2. To learn more about parasitic protozoa, visit the parasitology web site that is operated by
the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention: www.dpd.cdc.gov/dpdx

Critical Thinking
1. In the 5-Kingdom System of classification, algae and protozoa are combined in the
Kingdom Protista. However, many taxonomists argue that algae and protozoa are so
different from each other that they should not be classified together in the same kingdom.
Pick one side of this argument and be prepared to defend your position.

2. Certain microscopic pond water organisms (e.g., Euglena and Volvox) are considered by
some taxonomists to be algae and by others to be protozoa. Take a position and be
prepared to defend it.

3. Be prepared to explain the differences between algal and fungal cells.

Answers to the Chapter 5 Self-Assessment Exercises in


the Text
1. D
2. D
3. B
4. C
5. D
6. C
7. D
8. A
9. D
10. D

Additional Chapter 5 Self-Assessment Exercises


(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)

Matching Questions

A. algae _____ 1. Yeasts and molds are examples


B. fungi of _______________.
C. lichens
D. protozoa _____ 2. All _______________ are
E. slime molds photosynthetic.

_____ 3. _______________ are classified by their


means of locomotion.

_____ 4. The cell walls of _______________


contain chitin.

_____ 5. The cell walls of _______________


contain cellulose.

_____ 6. _______________ rarely cause


infectious diseases, but cause a variety
of microbial intoxications.

_____ 7. _______________ are examples of a


symbiotic relationship known as
mutualism.

_____ 8. _______________ cause diseases such


as African sleeping sickness, babesiosis,
cryptosporidiosis, malaria, and
toxoplasmosis.

_____ 9. Diseases caused by _______________


are called mycoses.

_____ 10. Toxins produced by _______________


are called phycotoxins.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. Slime molds possess characteristics of both fungi and protozoa.

_____ 2. Protozoa in the category known as Mastigophora move by means of cilia.

_____ 3. A dimorphic fungus would exist as a mold inside the human body.

_____ 4. The organism that causes a “red tide” is an alga.

_____ 5. Volvox is a multicellular alga.

_____ 6. A stigma is an organelle that pumps water out of the cell.

_____ 7. Sexual spores are also known as conidia.

_____ 8. Classification of fungi is based on the type of conidia that they produce.

_____ 9. Protozoa that move by means of pseudopodia are in a category known as


Sarcodina.

_____ 10. Fungi can cause both infectious diseases and microbial intoxications.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 5 Self-Assessment


Exercises
Matching Questions

1. B
2. A (C is also an acceptable answer, because lichens contain algae)
3. D
4. B
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. A

True/False Questions
1. True
2. False (they move by means of flagella)
3. False (a dimorphic fungus would exist as a yeast inside the human body)
4. True
5. True
6. False (a stigma or “eyespot” is a photosensing organelle)
7. False (asexual spores are also known as conidia)
8. False (classification of fungi is based on the type of sexual spores that they produce)
9. True
10. True
Chapter 6
Biochemistry: The Chemistry of Life

Terms Introduced in This Chapter


After reading Chapter 6, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 6 and in the Glossary.

Amino acids
Anticodon
Apoenzyme
Biochemistry
Biologic catalysts
Carbohydrates
Catalyst
Catalyze
Central Dogma
Codon
Coenzyme
Cofactor
Constitutive genes
Covalent bond
Dehydration synthesis reaction
Dipeptide
Disaccharide
DNA nucleotides
DNA polymerase
DNA replication
Double bond
Enzyme
Essential amino acids
Essential fatty acids
Fatty acid
Genetic code
Glucose
Glycosidic bond
Glycogen
Heptose
Hexose
Holoenzyme
Hydrocarbon
Hydrolysis reaction
Inducible genes
Inorganic chemistry
Lipids
Messenger RNA (mRNA)
Monosaccharides
Monounsaturated fatty acid
Nucleic acids
Nucleotides
Organic chemistry
Organic compounds
Pentose
Peptide bond
Phospholipid
Polymer
Polypeptide
Polysaccharide
Polyunsaturated fatty acid
Proteins
Purine
Pyrimidine
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
RNA nucleotides
RNA polymerase
Saturated fatty acid
Single bond
Starch
Substrate
Tetrose
Transcription
Transfer RNA (tRNA)
Translation
Triglyceride
Triose
Tripeptide
Triple bond
Waxes

Increase Your Knowledge


Students interested in learning more about the discovery of the structure of DNA should
read The Double Helix, by James D. Watson (Mentor, Penguin Books USA, New York,
1969).

Microbiology—Hollywood Style
Although difficult to find, the 1987 made-for-TV movie, The Race for the Double Helix,
details the events leading up to the discovery of the structure of DNA by James Watson
and Francis Crick. Also portrayed in the film are Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin.
The role of James Watson was played by Jeff Goldblum.

Critical Thinking
Assume that you are taking an organic chemistry class. Your teacher has given you four
organic compounds to analyze. She tells you that one is a carbohydrate, one is a
hydrocarbon, one is a nucleic acid, and one is a protein.

a. Compound A contains only carbon and hydrogen. Of the four types of compounds
which were given to you to analyze, which one best describes Compound A?
Compound A is a _______________

b. You discover that Compound B contains only carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. Of
the four types of compounds which were given to you to analyze, which one best
describes Compound B?

Compound B is a _______________

c. You discover that Compound C contains only carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and
nitrogen. Of the four types of compounds which were given to you to analyze,
which one best describes Compound C?

Compound C is a _______________

d. You discover that Compound D contains only carbon, hydrogen, oxygen,


nitrogen, and phosphorous. Of the four types of compounds which were given to
you to analyze, which one best describes Compound D?

Compound D is a _______________

Answers to the Chapter 6 Self-Assessment Exercises in


the Text
1. A
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. A
6. D
7. D
8. D
9. D
10. C

Answers to the Critical Thinking Questions


A. Hydrocarbon
B. Carbohydrate
C. Protein
D. Nucleic acid

Additional Chapter 6 Self-Assessment Exercises


(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)

Matching Questions

A. amino acids _____ 1. _______________ are the


B. disaccharides building blocks of proteins.
C. fatty acids
D. monosaccharides _____ 2. _______________ consist of a
E. nucleotides nitrogenous base, a pentose, and a
phosphate group.

_____ 3. _______________ are the building


blocks of polysaccharides.

_____ 4. Sucrose, lactose, and maltose are


examples of _______________.

_____ 5. Fructose, galactose, and glucose are


examples of _______________.
A. a dehydration synthesis _____ 6. The end product of
reaction _______________ is a messenger RNA
B. DNA replication molecule.
C. a hydrolysis reaction
D. transcription _____ 7. Combining two monosaccharides to
E. translation form a disaccharide is an example of
_______________.

_____ 8. James Watson and Francis Crick were


the first to publish an article describing
_______________.

_____ 9. The end product of _______________ is


a protein.

_____ 10. Breaking the bond in a disaccharide to


produce two monosaccharides is an
example of _______________.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. The covalent bonds that hold monosaccharides together in a polysaccharide are
called glycosidic bonds.

_____ 2. A DNA nucleotide consists of the following three parts: a nitrogenous base,
ribose, and a phosphate group.

_____ 3. The waxes in the cell walls of Mycobacterium tuberculosis cause this organism to
be acid-fast.

_____ 4. The basic structure of a cell membrane is a lipid bilayer.

_____ 5. DNA polymerase is the only enzyme required for DNA replication.

_____ 6. Genes that are expressed only when needed are called constitutive genes.

_____ 7. Polysaccharides, polypeptides, and nucleic acids are all examples of polymers.

_____ 8. During translation, amino acids are “activated” by attaching to an appropriate


rRNA molecule.

_____ 9. The peptide bonds that hold amino acids together in protein molecules are
examples of covalent bonds.

_____10. In double-stranded DNA molecules, the two strands are held together by hydrogen
bonds.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 6 Self-Assessment


Exercises
Matching Questions

1. A
2. E
3. D
4. B
5. D
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. E
10. C
True/False Questions

1. True
2. False (a DNA nucleotide consists of a nitrogenous base, deoxyribose, and a phosphate
group)
3. True
4. True
5. False (DNA polymerase is the most important enzyme involved in DNA replication, but
other enzymes are also involved)
6. False (genes that are expressed only when needed are called inducible genes; genes that
are expressed all of the time are called constitutive genes)
7. True
8. False (amino acids are “activated” by attaching to an appropriate tRNA molecule)
9. True
10. True
Chapter 7
Microbial Physiology and Genetics

Terms Introduced in This Chapter


After reading Chapter 7, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 7 and in the Glossary.

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)


Ames test
Anabolic reactions
Anabolism
Autotroph
Beneficial mutation
Catabolic reactions
Catabolism
Chemoautotroph
Chemoheterotroph
Chemolithotroph
Chemoorganotroph
Chemosynthesis
Chemotroph
Competence
Competent bacteria
Dehydrogenation reactions
Ecology
Ecosystem
Electron transport chain
Endoenzyme
Episome
Essential nutrients
Exoenzyme
Fermentation
Gene therapy
Genetics
Glycolysis
Harmful mutation
Heterotroph
Krebs cycle
Lethal mutation
Lysogenic bacterium
Lysogenic conversion
Lysogeny
Metabolic reactions
Metabolite
Microbial physiology
Mutagen
Mutant
Mutation
Oxidation
Oxidation–reduction reactions
Phenotype
Photoautotroph
Photoheterotroph
Phototroph
Prophage
R-factor
Reduction
Silent mutation
Transduction
Transformation

Insight
Why Anaerobes Die in the Presence of Oxygen
When molecular oxygen (O2) is reduced (i.e., when O2 gains electrons; as in certain oxidation–
reduction reactions), extremely reactive substances are produced (as shown in the following
equations).

O2 + e–  –O2 (superoxide anion)

O2 + 2e–  H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide)

O2 + 3e–  H2O + OH– (hydroxyl radical)

These reduction products (superoxide anion, hydrogen peroxide, and hydroxyl radicals)
are capable of causing severe damage to enzymes and cell membranes; they are potentially lethal
to cells. To survive in the presence of oxygen, organisms must possess enzymes (e.g., superoxide
dismutase and catalase) that can neutralize these toxic substances. Obligate anaerobes are killed
in the presence of oxygen because they lack one or more of these enzymes. Aerotolerant
anaerobes produce these enzymes, but not in high enough concentrations to enable the organisms
to survive in high concentrations of oxygen.

Genetically Engineered Bacteria and Yeasts


The term genetic engineering refers to the manufacture and manipulation of genetic material in
vitro (in the laboratory). Genetic engineering has been possible only since the late 1960s, when a
scientist named Paul Berg demonstrated that fragments of human or animal DNA can be attached
to bacterial DNA. Such a hybrid DNA molecule is referred to as recombinant DNA. When a
molecule of recombinant DNA is inserted into a bacterial cell, the bacterium is able to produce
the gene product, usually a protein. Thus, microorganisms (primarily bacteria) can be genetically
engineered to produce substances (gene products) that they would not normally manufacture.
Paul Berg won a Nobel Prize in 1980 for his pioneering genetic engineering experiments.
Molecules of self-replicating, extrachromosomal DNA, called plasmids, are frequently
used in genetic engineering and are referred to as vectors. A particular gene of interest is first
inserted into the vector DNA, forming a molecule of recombinant DNA. The recombinant DNA
is then inserted into or taken up by a bacterial cell. The cell is next allowed to multiply, creating
many genetically identical bacteria (clones), each of which is capable of producing the gene
product. From the clone culture, a genetic engineer may then remove (“harvest”) the gene
product.
The Gram-negative bacillus, Escherichia coli, has often been used because it can be
easily grown in the laboratory, has a relatively short generation time (about 20 minutes under
ideal conditions), and its genetics are well understood by researchers. A Gram-positive bacterium
(Bacillus subtilis), a yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae), and cultured plant and mammalian cells
have also been used by genetic engineers to produce desired gene products.
An example of a product produced by genetic engineering is insulin, a hormone
produced in E. coli cells and used to treat diabetic patients. Human growth hormone
(somatotropin), bovine growth hormone (BGH), porcine growth hormone (PGH), somatostatin (a
hormone used to limit growth), tissue growth factors, clotting factors, and interferon are also
produced by genetically engineered E. coli. Genetically engineered bacteria are being used to
produce industrial enzymes, citric acid, and ethanol, and to degrade pollutants and toxic wastes.
The hepatitis B vaccine that is administered to healthcare workers is produced by a genetically
engineered yeast, called Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
New uses for recombinant DNA and genetic engineering are being discovered every day,
causing profound changes in medicine, agriculture, and other areas of science.

Increase Your Knowledge


1. A Closer Look at Transduction. There are actually two types of transduction:
specialized and generalized. The explanation in Chapter 7 describes specialized
transduction, in which the infecting phage integrates into the bacterial chromosome or a
plasmid. As the virus genome breaks away to replicate and produce more viruses, it
carries one or more bacterial genes with it to the newly infected cell. In this way, genetic
capabilities involving the fermentation of certain sugars, antibiotic resistance, and other
phenotypic characteristics can be transduced to other bacteria. This process has been
shown in the laboratory (in vitro) to occur in species of Bacillus, Pseudomonas,
Haemophilus, Salmonella, and Escherichia, and it is assumed to occur in nature. In
generalized transduction, the bacteriophage is a virulent lytic phage that does not
incorporate into the bacterial genome or plasmid. Rather, it picks up fragments of
bacterial DNA during the assembly of new virus particles and carries these bacterial
genes to other cells that the new viruses infect. Generalized transduction has been
observed in species of Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, and Salmonella, and in Vibrio
cholerae.

2. A Closer Look at Fertility Factors. Bacteria possessing F+ or Hfr+ genes have the ability
to produce sex pili and become donor cells. If the fertility factor is on a plasmid, it is
called an F+ gene, whereas if it is incorporated into the chromosome, it is referred to as an
HFr+ gene. A complete copy of the F plasmid (the plasmid containing the F+ gene)
usually moves to the recipient (F-) cell; therefore, the recipient cell usually becomes F+
(i.e., the recipient cell becomes capable of producing a sex pilus and becoming a donor
cell). On the other hand, the recipient cell usually receives only a portion of the
chromosome from an HFr+ cell, and that portion does not include the HFr+ gene;
therefore, in this case, the recipient cell remains Hfr–, does not produce a sex pilus, and
cannot become a donor cell.

Critical Thinking
1. What are some possible reasons why an obligate anaerobe is unable to live in the
presence of oxygen?

2. Assume that you are a microbiologist who has been doing research on a penicillin-
sensitive strain of Staphylococcus aureus for many months. One day you discover that
the organism is now resistant to penicillin. You know that it has not come in contact with
any other species of bacteria, nor has it come in contact with the DNA from any other
species of bacteria. What are two possible explanations for its sudden change from
penicillin susceptibility to penicillin resistance?

3. Several products were mentioned in this chapter that are being produced by genetically
engineered bacteria and yeasts. Using the Internet, can you find others?

Answers to the Chapter 7 Self-Assessment Exercises in


the Text
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. C
6. D
7. D
8. B
9. C
10. A
Additional Chapter 7 Self-Assessment Exercises
(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)

Matching Questions

A. autotrophs _____ 1. _______________ are


B. heterotrophs chemotrophs that use inorganic
C. lithotrophs chemicals as their energy source.
D. organotrophs
E. phototrophs _____ 2. Organisms that use organic compounds
as their source of carbon are called
_______________.

_____ 3. Organisms that use organic compounds


as their energy source are called
_______________.

_____ 4. Organisms that use carbon dioxide as


their source of carbon are called
_______________.

_____ 5. Organisms that use light as their energy


source are called _______________.

A. conjugation _____ 6. In _______________, bacteria


B. lysogenic conversion acquire new genetic information in the
C. mutation form of viral genes.
D. transduction
E. transformation _____ 7. Oswald Avery and his colleagues
discovered that DNA is the hereditary
molecule while performing
_______________ experiments with
Streptococcus pneumoniae.

_____ 8. In _______________, bacteria acquire


new genetic information as a result of
absorbing pieces of naked DNA from
their environment.

_____ 9. In _______________, genetic


information is passed from one bacterial
cell to another via a hollow sex pilus.
_____ 10. In _______________,
bacteria acquire new
genetic information
when bacteriophages
inject bacterial genes.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. Dehydration synthesis reactions always involve the removal of a molecule of


water.

_____ 2. The biosynthesis of polysaccharides, polypeptides, and nucleic acids are examples
of catabolic reactions.

_____ 3. Oxidation–reduction reactions are paired reactions that involve the transfer of
electrons.

_____ 4. Breaking a disaccharide down into its two monosaccharide components is an


example of a hydrolysis reaction.

_____ 5. Anabolic reactions are a cell’s major source of energy.

_____ 6. The majority of energy produced in aerobic respiration is produced by the Krebs
cycle.

_____ 7. In glycolysis, a 6-carbon glucose molecule is broken down into two 3-carbon
molecules of pyruvic acid.

_____ 8. Aerobic respiration is a more efficient method of breaking down glucose than is
fermentation.

_____ 9. Virulent bacteriophages are responsible for lysogenic conversion.

_____ 10. Mutations are always harmful.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 7 Self-Assessment


Exercises
Matching Questions

1. C
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. E
6. B
7. E
8. E
9. A
10. D

True/False Questions

1. True
2. False (these are examples of anabolic reactions)
3. True
4. True
5. False (catabolic reactions are a cell’s major source of energy)
6. False (the majority of the energy is produced by the electron transport chain)
7. True
8. True
9. False (temperate bacteriophages are responsible for lysogenic conversion)
10. False (mutations may be harmful, beneficial, or “silent”)
Chapter 8
Controlling Microbial Growth In Vitro

Terms Introduced in This Chapter


After reading Chapter 8, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 8 and in the Glossary.

Acidophile
Algicidal agent
Alkaliphile
Antisepsis
Antiseptic
Antiseptic technique
Artificial media
Asepsis
Autoclave
Bactericidal agent
Bacteriostatic agent
Barophile
Biocidal agent
Chemically defined media
Complex media
Contamination
Crenated
Crenation
Death phase
Desiccation
Differential media
Disinfectant
Disinfection
Enriched media
Fungicidal agent
Germicidal agent
Haloduric organisms
Halophiles
Hemolysis
Hypertonic solution
Hypotonic solution
Incubation
Incubator
Inoculation
Isotonic solution
Lag phase
Logarithmic growth phase
Lyophilization
Mesophile
Microbicidal agent
Microbistatic agent
Osmosis
Osmotic pressure
Plasmolysis
Plasmoptysis
Population growth curve
Pseudomonicidal
Psychroduric organisms
Psychrophile
Psychrotroph
Sanitization
Selective medium
Sepsis
Sporicidal agent
Stationary phase
Sterile techniques
Sterilization
Thermal death point (TDP)
Thermal death time (TDT)
Thermophile
Tuberculocidal agent
Viable plate count
Viricidal agent

Insight
Microbes in Our Food
Are there bacteria in the milk you drink? Pasteurization is designed to kill pathogens. The
process does not kill all bacteria. According to accepted standards, raw milk may not have more
than 75,000 bacteria per milliliter before pasteurization and must have less than 15,000 per
milliliter after pasteurization. Let's say that the milk you are drinking contains 10,000 bacteria
per milliliter. One fluid ounce equals approximately 29.6 mL. Therefore, an 8-ounce glass of that
milk contains 2,368,000 bacteria. You will be chug-a-lugging over two million bacteria, assumed
to be nonpathogens.

Are there bacteria in the food you eat? Bacteria and fungi occur in most foods, but vary in
quantity from one type of food to another. Assuming the food has been stored correctly
(refrigeration, for example), there are usually fewer than 100,000 per gram or milliliter,
depending on the type of food. The number may be much higher if the food has not been stored
properly. Also, the way the food is prepared will influence the number of live organisms that are
present. For example, a thoroughly cooked (well done) hamburger may not contain any live
bacteria. A rare or medium-rare hamburger, on the other hand, will contain many live bacteria. If
some of those bacteria are pathogens (such as E. coli 0157:H7), you could develop severe
gastrointestinal disease.

Are there bacteria in your drinking water? There are many types of bacteria in the water you
drink, but hopefully not too many pathogens. Ideally, drinking water should not contain any
coliforms (Gram-negative bacilli, like E. coli, that live in the gastrointestinal tract and are present
in feces). The presence of coliforms in drinking water represents contamination of the water with
human or animal feces. The extent of fecal contamination of water can be determined by
performing a coliform count. A “satisfactory” coliform count is one colony (a colony is derived
from one organism) or less per 100 mL of water. If the coliform count is satisfactory, the water is
considered potable (drinkable). It usually takes many coliforms per milliliter to cause disease in
humans.

Increase Your Knowledge


1. A Closer Look at Hydrothermal Vents. Organisms that prefer to live at high
temperatures are called thermophiles, and those that prefer extremely high temperatures
are called hyperthermophiles (or extreme thermophiles). The hottest places on earth
where living organisms have been found are the hydrothermal vents at the bottom of the
ocean.

Hydrothermal vents are plumes of hot water that spew from cracks along the ocean floor,
thousands of feet below the ocean surface. As the hot, mineral-rich water comes into
contact with the cold ocean bottom water, the minerals precipitate, forming deposits on
the surrounding rocks. Some of these deposits form tall (up to 18 stories tall) chimney-
shaped structures, from which rise dark streams of hot black particles. The streams of
particles are referred to as “smoke,” and the chimney-shaped structures are referred to as
“black smokers.”

Black smokers emit particles that are rich in sulfides, lead, cobalt, zinc, copper, and
silver. There are also “white smokers,” which emit streams of gypsum and zinc, rather
than sulfides, and they emit smaller amounts of iron and copper.

Living in and around the black smokers are chemoautotrophic archaeans, which obtain
their energy from inorganic chemicals, and then use that energy to synthesize the organic
compounds that they require for growth and reproduction. They use carbon dioxide as
their source of carbon. Some of the chemoautotrophic bacteria (called sulfur-oxidizing
bacteria) are able to oxidize (remove electrons from) sulfur-containing compounds, such
as hydrogen sulfide. Eucaryotic organisms living around the black smokers make use of
the organic compounds produced by the bacteria, and often live in a symbiotic
relationship with the bacteria (i.e., the bacteria actually live within the eucaryotic
organisms, producing organic compounds that the eucaryotes utilize).
(Students having an interest in science fiction might enjoy reading Gravity, by Tess
Gerritsen [Pocket Books, Simon & Schuster, Inc., New York, 1999]. When deep-sea
archaeans are brought aboard an international space station, things go horribly wrong.)

2. A Closer Look at Barometric Pressure. The barometric pressure at sea level is equal to
one atmosphere (approximately 14.7 psi). Barometric pressure decreases with increases
in altitude (e.g., the barometric pressure at the top of a mountain is less than one
atmosphere). In the ocean, pressure (referred to as water pressure) increases with depth,
as a result of the increasing mass of the overlying water. Pressure in the ocean increases
one atmosphere for each additional 10 m (approximately 32.8 feet) of water depth. In the
deepest parts of the ocean (approximately 11,000 m or 36,000 feet), the pressure is 1,100
atmospheres (more than 8 tons psi). A hyperbaric chamber contains a pressure that is
greater than one atmosphere. Hyperbaric chambers are used to treat decompression
sickness in divers and to provide hyperbaric oxygenation for patients with gas gangrene.

3. A Closer Look at Contact Time. It would seem that some people think that disinfectants
are magic. Squirt it on, wipe it off, and poof, the microbes are dead! But, it doesn’t work
that way. It takes time for disinfectants to kill organisms (i.e., a disinfectant must remain
in contact with the microbes long enough to kill them). This is true for all types of
disinfectants, including those used in hospitals, antibacterial kitchen sprays, and
antibacterial soaps. The amount of contact time necessary varies from one type of
disinfectant to another. Read the instructions on the label. For example, the label on Lysol
Antibacterial Kitchen Spray states that the spray must remain in contact with surfaces for
10 minutes before it is wiped off. Likewise, to be effective as a disinfectant, after
lathering, antibacterial soaps must remain in contact with skin for at least 15 seconds
before rinsing them off.

4. For recommendations regarding the selection of hygienic procedures for use in the home,
visit the web site of the International Scientific Forum on Home Hygiene (www.ifh-
homehygiene.org).

Critical Thinking
1. Assume that you must culture a particular bacterium in the laboratory for research
purposes. To get the organism to grow in the laboratory, what are some of the factors you
must take into consideration?

2. Draw a population growth curve, label the four phases, and be prepared to explain what is
happening to the bacteria in each phase.

3. You obtained 300 colonies after plating 0.1 mL of a 1:10,000 dilution of a bacterial cell
suspension. What was the bacterial concentration in the original, undiluted suspension?
The answer is 30 million bacteria/mL (or 3 × 107 bacteria/mL), but how did you obtain
that answer?

Answers to the Chapter 8 Self-Assessment Exercises in


the Text
1. B
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. C
6. C
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. A

Additional Chapter 8 Self-Assessment Exercises


(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)

Matching Questions

A. capnophiles _____ 1. Organisms that prefer salty


B. fastidious organisms environments are called
C. halophiles _______________.
D. microaerophiles
E. psychrotrophs _____ 2. Organisms that have especially
demanding nutritional requirements are
called _______________.

_____ 3. Organisms that prefer environments


having decreased concentrations of
oxygen are called _______________.

_____ 4. Organisms that prefer refrigerator


temperature are called
_______________.

_____ 5. Organisms that grow best in


environments containing increased
concentrations of carbon dioxide are
called _______________.
A. Blood agar _____ 6. Although Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Chocolate agar and Haemophilus influenzae will not
C. MacConkey agar grow on blood agar, they will grow on
D. Phenylethyl alcohol agar _______________.
E. Thayer-Martin agar
_____ 7. _______________ is a highly enriched
and highly selective medium, used to
isolate Neisseria gonorrhoeae from
clinical specimens.

_____ 8. _______________ is an example of a


medium that is both enriched and
differential.

_____ 9. _______________ is selective for Gram-


positive bacteria.

_____ 10. _______________ is an example of a


medium that is selective and differential.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. A bacterial cell would swell and burst if placed in an extremely hypertonic
solution.

_____ 2. Pasteurization is a method of sterilizing liquids.

_____ 3. Archaeans that live in or near hydrothermal vents at the bottom of the ocean are
halophilic, barophilic, and thermophilic.

_____ 4. Lyophilization is an excellent method of killing microorganisms.

_____ 5. Antiseptic technique is a type of aseptic technique.

_____ 6. In an autoclave, microorganisms are killed by ethylene oxide.

_____ 7. The goal of disinfection is to kill all microorganisms.

_____ 8. It is not possible to culture protozoa in the laboratory.

_____ 9. Rapid freezing, using liquid nitrogen, is an excellent method of killing


microorganisms.

_____ 10. Microorganisms can be killed by direct exposure to ultraviolet light.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 8 Self-Assessment


Exercises
Matching Questions

1. C
2. B
3. D
4. E
5. A
6. B
7. E
8. A
9. D
10. C

True/False Questions
1. False (a bacterial cell would shrink if placed in an extremely hypertonic solution)
2. False (pasteurization is a disinfection technique; a technique designed to kill pathogens)
3. True
4. False (lyophilization is one of the major ways of preserving microorganisms)
5. True
6. False (in an autoclave, microorganisms are killed by steam under pressure)
7. False (the goal of disinfection is to kill pathogens)
8. False (it is possible to culture protozoa in the laboratory)
9. False (rapid freezing is one of the major ways of preserving microorganisms)
10. True
Chapter 9
Using Antimicrobial Agents to Control Microbial
Growth In Vivo

Terms Introduced in This Chapter


After reading Chapter 9, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 9 and in the Glossary.

Acquired resistance
Antagonism
Antibacterial agents
Antifungal agents
Antimicrobial agents
Antiprotozoal agents
Antiviral agents
β-Lactam ring
β-Lactamases
Broad-spectrum antibiotics
Cephalosporinase
Chemotherapeutic agent
Chemotherapy
Drug binding site
Empiric therapy
Intrinsic resistance
Narrow-spectrum antibiotics
Penicillinase
Semisynthetic antibiotics
Superinfection
Synergism

Critical Thinking
1. Louis Pasteur once stated that “chance favors the prepared mind.” What did he mean by
that? What discovery, mentioned in this chapter, clearly illustrates Pasteur’s statement?

2. It has been stated that “when science builds a better mousetrap, nature builds a better
mouse.” How does that statement relate to drug-resistant bacteria?

3. A friend of yours is planning a trip to a country where diarrhea is commonly experienced


by visitors to that country. She asked her physician to prescribe an antibiotic to prevent
traveler’s diarrhea, and the physician complied. She has already started taking the drug,
and plans to take it throughout her trip. How would you explain to your friend that taking
the drug in this manner (i.e., prophylactically) is not a good idea?

4. A good friend of yours is a dairy farmer. He routinely uses antibiotic-containing cattle


feed to keep his cows from getting sick. How would you tactfully explain to him how this
practice is contributing to the problem of multidrug-resistant bacteria?

Answers to the Chapter 9 Self-Assessment Exercises in


the Text
1. C
2. D
3. B
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. B
9. B
10. C

Additional Chapter 9 Self-Assessment Exercises


(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)

Matching Questions

A. Bactrim and Septra _____ 1. _______________ are examples


B. chloramphenicol, of antibiotics that are produced by fungi.
erythromycin, and
tetracycline _____ 2. _______________ are in a class of drugs
C. isoniazid, rifampin, known as penicillinase-resistant
pyrazinamide, ethambutol, penicillins.
and streptomycin
D. methicillin, nafcillin, _____ 3. _______________ are examples of
oxacillin, and cloxacillin drugs that are used to treat tuberculosis.
E. penicillin and cephalosporin
_____ 4. _______________ are examples of
drugs that inhibit protein synthesis.

_____ 5. _______________ are examples of


drugs that could be destroyed by β-lactamases.

A. a chemotherapeutic agent _____ 6. Acyclovir is specifically used as


B. an antibiotic _______________.
C. an antifungal agent
D. an antiviral agent _____ 7. _______________ is any chemical or
E. an antimicrobial agent drug that is used to treat any disease or
medical condition.

_____ 8. _______________ is a substance


produced by a microorganism that is
effective in killing or inhibiting the
growth of another species of
microorganism.

_____ 9. Any drug used to treat an infectious


disease is called _______________.

_____ 10. Amphotericin B is specifically used as


_______________.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. Strains of Staphylococcus aureus known as MRSA are resistant to methicillin but
are susceptible to most other antibacterial agents.

_____ 2. Bacteria can develop resistance to a particular antimicrobial agent as a result of a


chromosomal mutation or the acquisition of a new gene.

_____ 3. A bacterial cell that receives an R-factor becomes multidrug resistant.

_____ 4. A “superinfection” is an infection that cannot be cured.

_____ 5. Using two different antimicrobial agents to treat a patient’s infection is referred to
as antagonism if the result that is achieved is much better than that which could
have been achieved using only one of the drugs.

_____ 6. Because he discovered penicillin, Alexander Fleming is often referred to as the


“Father of Chemotherapy.”

_____ 7. Bacteria can become drug resistant as a result of transduction, transformation, or


conjugation.

_____ 8. All antimicrobial agents are antibiotics.

_____ 9. Administering an antibiotic to a patient to treat one type of infectious disease


could actually cause other types of infectious diseases in that patient.

_____ 10. Bacteria that acquire the genes that code for an MDR pump become multidrug
resistant.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 9 Self-Assessment


Exercises
Matching Questions

1. E
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. E
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. E
10. C

True/False Questions

1. False (MRSA strains are resistant to most antimicrobial agents)


2. True
3. True
4. False (a superinfection is not a disease; it is an overgrowth of organisms that are usually
present only in small numbers)
5. False (this is known as synergism, not antagonism)
6. False (Paul Ehrlich is often referred to as the “Father of Chemotherapy”)
7. True
8. False (some antimicrobial agents are antibiotics, but not all of them)
9. True
10. True
Chapter 10
Microbial Ecology

Terms Introduced in This Chapter


After reading Chapter 10, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 10 and in the Glossary.

Ammonification
Bacteriocins
Biofilms
Biotherapeutic agents
Candidiasis
Carrier
Colicin
Commensalism
Denitrifying bacteria
Endosymbiont
Enteric bacilli
Host
Microbial antagonism
Microcolonies
Mutualism
Neutralism
Nitrifying bacteria
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
Parasitism
Symbionts
Symbiosis
Synergistic infection
Synergistic relationship
Vaginitis
Vaginosis

Critical Thinking
1. A friend of yours has been taking an antibacterial agent to cure an ear infection.
Suddenly, she develops yeast vaginitis. Explain to her why this has occurred. Use the
library or Internet to research additional factors that can alter vaginal pH or the microbial
composition of vaginal flora, leading to conditions such as bacterial vaginosis (BV) and
yeast vaginitis. Be prepared to discuss your findings.
2. You’ve probably heard that farmers “rotate their crops.” One year they will plant a “cash
crop” (e.g., corn), and the next year they will plant alfalfa or clover in that field. Why do
they do that? Include the role of microorganisms in your answer.

Answers to the Chapter 10 Self-Assessment Exercises


in the Text
1. D
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. D
10. C

Additional Chapter 10 Self-Assessment Exercises

(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)

Matching Questions

A. commensalism _____ 1. When two microorganisms


B. mutualism occupying the same environmental
C. neutralism niche have absolutely no effect on
D. parasitism each other, it is known as
E. synergism _______________.

_____ 2. Bacterial vaginosis is an example of


_______________.

_____ 3. _______________ is a symbiotic


relationship of benefit to one of the
symbionts, but neither beneficial nor
harmful to the other.

_____ 4. _______________ is a symbiotic


relationship of benefit to one of the
symbionts, and detrimental to the
other. ____ 5. A lichen is a classic example of
_______________.

A. cyanobacteria _____ 6. In the nitrogen cycle, bacteria


B. denitrifying bacteria called _______________ convert
C. nitrifying bacteria atmospheric nitrogen gas into ammonia
D. nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the soil.
E. saprophytes
_____ 7. _______________ live in the root
nodules of legumes such as alfalfa and
clover.

_____ 8. _______________ are capable of


converting the nitrogen within a dead
plant or animal into ammonia in the soil.

_____ 9. In the nitrogen cycle, soil organisms


called _______________ convert
ammonia into nitrites, and nitrites into
nitrates.

_____ 10. In the nitrogen cycle, soil organisms


called _______________ convert the
nitrogen in nitrates to nitrogen gas in the
atmosphere.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. No microorganisms are able to live in the stomach, owing to the extremely low
pH of the stomach contents.

_____ 2. Microbial communities known as biofilms are interesting, but they have no
medical significance.

_____ 3. Microorganisms are unable to live in the colon because of the lack of oxygen
there.

_____ 4. Some of the bacteria used in bioremediation are naturally occurring, but others
have been genetically engineered.

_____ 5. Many of the members of our indigenous microflora have the potential to cause
disease.

_____ 6. There could be as many as 100 trillion microorganisms that live on us and in us.

_____ 7. The most common organisms in the indigenous microflora of the mouth are
various species of β-hemolytic streptococci.

_____ 8. Microbes cause thousands of different types of plant diseases.

_____ 9. Most relationships between humans and microbes are beneficial rather than
harmful.

_____ 10. Beneficial microorganisms far outnumber harmful ones.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 10 Self-Assessment


Exercises
Matching Questions

1. C
2. E
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. D
7. D
8. E
9. C
10. B

True/False Questions

1. False (the bacterium, Helicobacter pylori, is able to live in the stomach)


2. False (certain types of biofilms do have medical significance)
3. False (many different types of microorganisms live in the colon)
4. True
5. True
6. True
7. False (α-hemolytic streptococci, not β-hemolytic streptococci)
8. True
9. True
10. True
Chapter 11
Epidemiology and Public Health

Terms Introduced in This Chapter


After reading Chapter 11, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 11 and in the Glossary.

Active carrier
Biologic warfare (bw) agents
Bioterrorist agents
Coliforms
Communicable disease
Contagious disease
Convalescent carrier
Endemic disease
Epidemic disease
Epidemiology
Fomites
Incidence
Incubatory carrier
Morbidity rate
Mortality rate
Pandemic disease
Parenteral injection
Passive carrier
Prevalence
Reservoirs of infection (reservoirs)
Sporadic disease

Insight

Epidemiologists
Epidemiologists are scientists who specialize in the study of disease and injury patterns
(incidence and distribution patterns) in populations, and ways to prevent or control diseases and
injuries. Epidemiologists study virtually all types of diseases, including heart, hereditary,
communicable, and zoonotic diseases and cancer. In some ways, epidemiologists are like disease
detectives, gathering and piecing together clues to determine what causes a particular disease,
why it occurs only at certain times, and why certain people in a population get the disease while
others do not. Quite often, epidemiologists are called on to track down the cause of epidemics,
and figure out how to stop them. Data collection and statistical analysis of data are among the
many duties of epidemiologists.
Epidemiologists have a variety of educational backgrounds. Some are physicians, with
specialization in epidemiology or public health. Others have a doctoral degree (PhD or DrPH), a
master’s degree (MS or MPH), or a bachelor’s degree (e.g., an RN degree) plus specialized
training in epidemiology. Many epidemiologists are employed at public health agencies and
healthcare institutions. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) employs many
epidemiologists, and offers a 2-year, postgraduate course to train health professionals as
Epidemic Intelligence Service (EIS) Officers. EIS Officers, many of whom are employed at state
health departments, conduct epidemiologic investigations, research, and public health
surveillance. To learn more about the EIS, visit this CDC web site: www.cdc.gov/eis.

Preparing for a Bioterorrist Attack


Perhaps you’ve wondered what you can do as an individual to prepare yourself and your family
for a bioterrorist attack. The best thing you can do is to be aware of what’s going on around you
and throughout the nation. Remain vigilant and cautious, but not scared. Stay healthy by eating
well and by boosting your immune system. A fully competent immune system is your best
defense against pathogens of all types.
Authorities (such as the CDC) advise against purchasing gas masks and taking or
stockpiling antibiotics. Prepare your home and family as you would for any natural disaster (e.g.,
a hurricane or tornado), by ensuring that you have emergency supplies on hand, such as a
flashlight, radio, extra batteries, and plenty of food and water. Should a bioterrorist attack occur,
state and federal public health authorities will advise you of what actions to take. Be sure to
comply with their recommendations regarding vaccination, including the anthrax and smallpox
vaccines.
With respect to the mail, be on the lookout for suspicious packages and envelopes. Check
the CDC web site (www.cdc.gov) for the characteristics of suspicious pieces of mail. Be sure to
follow the United States Postal Service and CDC recommendations regarding actions to take
should you receive any suspicious pieces of mail.

Increase Your Knowledge


1. Students interested in learning more about the World Health Organization (WHO),
including updated information on epidemics, should visit their web site
(www.who.int/en). If you click on “Health Topics,” you can find information about many
different diseases (such as AIDS, anthrax, Ebola hemorrhagic fever, malaria,
tuberculosis).

2. For additional information about the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC),
including information about various infectious diseases, visit their web site
(www.cdc.gov). If you click on “A–Z Index,” you can find information about many
different diseases. The National Center for Infectious Diseases (NCID) web site is
www.cdc.gov/ncidod/ncid.htm.

3. In the winter of 1989, an Ebola virus epidemic occurred among monkeys at an Army
research facility in Reston, VA, near Washington, D.C. A SWAT team of soldiers and
scientists worked feverishly for 18 days to end the outbreak, not knowing at the time
whether the virus could infect humans. To learn more about this exciting epidemic, read
The Hot Zone, by Richard Preston (Random House, New York, 1994).

4. To learn more about a variety of exotic and emerging pathogens that have the potential to
cause widespread epidemics, read The Coming Plague, by Laurie Garrett (Penguin
Books, New York, 1994).

5. To learn more about biologic weapons, biowarfare, and bioterrorism, read Germs:
Biological Weapons and America’s Secret War, by Judith Miller, Stephen Engelberg, and
William Broad (Simon & Schuster, New York, 2001).

Microbiology—Hollywood Style

• Epidemics are very serious, and should never be taken lightly. Nonetheless, Hollywood
has produced several excellent movies about them. In the 1971 movie, The Andromeda
Strain, a team of scientists attempts to isolate a deadly strain of virus from outer space.
The 1993 movie, And the Band Played On, tells the powerful and moving story of the
initial years of the AIDS epidemic in the United States. In the 1995 movie, Outbreak,
U.S. Army and CDC epidemiologists attempt to contain an epidemic in California,
caused by a deadly virus (similar to Ebola virus) that was transported from the jungles of
Zaire, Africa, to the United States by a monkey.

• Likewise, bioterrorist attacks are very serious, and should never be taken lightly.
However, if you’d like to watch a movie about bioterrorism in the United States, you
might want to rent the 1998 movie, The Patriot, starring Steven Seagal. A violent
extremist group unleashes a rapidly spreading lethal biologic agent in a small community
and then takes over the town.

Critical Thinking
1. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is an agency of the Federal
Government of the United States, and yet CDC epidemiologists travel to foreign
countries to investigate epidemics. A friend of yours thinks that this is a waste of
taxpayers’ dollars. Explain to her why it isn’t.

2. Visit the CDC web site to learn what actions have been or are being taken to protect the
public from bioterrorism. Can you think of any additional actions that could be taken?
3. The cryptosporidiosis epidemic in Milwaukee, WI, in the spring of 1993 was the largest
waterborne epidemic that has ever occurred in the United States. Search the Internet to
learn more details about this epidemic.

Answers to the Chapter 11 Self-Assessment Exercises


in the Text
1. B
2. D
3. A
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. A
8. C
9. C
10. D

Additional Chapter 11 Self-Assessment Exercises


(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)
Matching Questions

A. communicable diseases _____ 1. Diseases that are always present


B. endemic diseases in a population are known as
C. epidemic diseases _______________.
D. pandemic diseases
E. sporadic diseases _____ 2. Diseases that are transmissible from
person to person are known as
_______________.

_____ 3. Diseases that occur only occasionally in


a particular population are known as
_______________.

_____ 4. Because large numbers of cases of


AIDS, malaria, and tuberculosis are
presently occurring in many different
countries, they are known as
_______________.

_____ 5. Diseases with unusually high numbers of


cases that often occur in one particular
geographic location are known as _______________.

A. biting flies _____ 6. The causative agents of dengue


B. bugs fever, filariasis, malaria, West Nile
C. lice encephalitis, and yellow fever are all
D. mosquitos transmitted by _______________.
E. ticks
_____ 7. _______________ transmit the causative
agents of babesiosis, ehrlichiosis, Lyme
disease, relapsing fever, and Rocky
Mountain spotted fever.

_____ 8. The causative agent of American


trypanosomiasis (Chagas’ disease) is
transmitted by arthropods in a class of
insects known as _______________.

_____ 9. _______________ transmit the causative


agents of epidemic typhus and trench
fever.

_____ 10. African sleeping sickness, leishmaniasis,


and onchocerciasis are transmitted by
various types of _______________.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. Influenza is an example of a contagious disease.

_____ 2. Zoonotic diseases are diseases that humans acquire from zoo animals.

_____ 3. The largest waterborne outbreak ever to occur in the United States was caused by
Giardia lamblia.

_____ 4. Water containing 1 coliform per 100 mL would be considered potable.

_____ 5. The most common zoonotic infection in the United States is Rocky Mountain
spotted fever.

_____ 6. Soil can contain the spores that cause botulism, gas gangrene, and tetanus.

_____ 7. Chlamydial genital infections and gonorrhea are the two most common nationally
notifiable infectious diseases in the United States.

_____ 8. The levels of chlorine routinely used for water treatment are sufficient to kill
Giardia cysts and Cryptosporidium oocysts.

_____ 9. Yersinia pestis, the bacterium that causes plague, is one of the pathogens most
often discussed as a potential biologic weapon.

_____ 10. Gonorrhea is considered to be a communicable disease, but not a contagious


disease.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 11 Self-Assessment


Exercises
Matching Questions

1. B
2. A
3. E
4. D
5. C
6. D
7. E
8. B
9. C
10. A

True/False Questions

1. True
2. False (zoonotic diseases can be acquired from many types of animals, not just zoo
animals)
3. False (it was caused by Cryptosporidium parvum)
4. True
5. False (Lyme disease is the most common zoonotic disease in the United States)
6. True
7. True
8. False (the levels of chlorine routinely used for water treatment will not kill Giardia cysts
or Cryptosporidium oocysts)
9. True
10. True
Chapter 12
Healthcare Epidemiology:
Nosocomial infections and Infection Control

Terms Introduced in This Chapter


After reading Chapter 12, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 12 and in the Glossary.

Airborne precautions
Antibiogram
Biotype
Community-acquired infection
Contact precautions
Droplet precautions
Hospital-acquired infection
Iatrogenic infection
Medical asepsis
Medical aseptic techniques
Molecular epidemiology
Nosocomial infection
Protective isolation
Source isolation
Standard precautions
Surgical asepsis
Surgical aseptic techniques
Transmission-based precautions

Insight

Nosocomial Zoonoses
Literally hundreds of diseases are transmissible from animals to humans; these are collectively
known as zoonoses or zoonotic diseases (see Table 11-2 in Chapter 11 in the text). Transmission
from animals to humans occurs by many routes, including direct contact, scratch, bite, inhalation,
contact with urine or feces, and ingestion. Fortunately, most zoonoses have no association with
hospitals or hospitalized patients. There have been some reports, however, of nosocomial
zoonoses—nosocomial infections transmitted directly or indirectly from live animals. How does
this happen?
Wild rodents such as rats and mice might enter hospitals where they can transmit diseases
such as leptospirosis, rat-bite fever, and rickettsial pox. Droppings from wild birds can enter air
vents and air-conditioning systems, causing diseases such as histoplasmosis and cryptococcosis.
Pathogens from laboratory animals could enter air ventilation systems and be conveyed to patient
care facilities. Pet therapy is becoming increasingly popular in nursing homes, where pets
provide companionship for the residents. Such pets can be the source of pathogens. If animal
tissues and organs are used for transplantation, there is always the danger of undetected
microorganisms and other infectious agents (e.g., viruses and prions) being present in the
transplanted material.
Healthcare professionals can also be the source of zoonotic pathogens, especially those
who have domestic pets or farm animals where they live. Should these workers wear their
uniforms while playing with or caring for their animals, the uniforms could be contaminated with
zoonotic pathogens. Or, if they should fail to wash their hands after touching their animals,
pathogens could be carried from home to hospital on their hands.
Pathogens that could potentially cause nosocomial zoonoses include cutaneous fungi
(such as Microsporum canis and others that cause ringworm infections); bacteria such as
staphylococci, streptococci, Pseudomonas, Salmonella, and Campylobacter; yeasts; and parasites
such as Cryptosporidium. Several outbreaks in intensive care nurseries have resulted from
Malassezia furfur and Malassezia pachydermatis, fungi that were transmitted from pets to low-
birth-weight neonates via the hands and clothing of healthcare professionals.
Prevention of nosocomial zoonoses involves keeping medical facilities free of rodents,
preventing birds from nesting near air-conditioners and air vents, and ensuring that laboratory
animal ventilation systems are not linked to ventilation systems in patient care areas. In addition,
laboratory coats worn in animal facilities should never be worn in patient care areas, and hospital
uniforms should not be worn to and from work. Animals used in pet therapy should be
vaccinated and in good health. And the most important way to prevent nosocomial infections of
any kind is frequent and proper handwashing. Healthcare professionals must always wash their
hands after handling animals and before providing patient care.

Infection Control Professionals


Individuals wishing to combine their interest in detective work with a career in medicine might
consider a career as an infection control professional (ICP). ICPs include physicians (infectious
disease specialists or epidemiologists), nurses, clinical laboratory scientists (medical
technologists), and microbiologists. Most ICPs are nurses, many having baccalaureate degrees
and some with master’s degrees. In addition to having strong clinical skills, ICPs require
knowledge and expertise in such areas as epidemiology, microbiology, infectious disease
processes, statistics, and computers. To be effective, they must be part detective, part diplomat,
part administrator, and part educator. In addition, ICPs function as role models, patient
advocates, and consultants.
Within the hospital, ICPs provide valuable services that minimize the risks of infection
and spread of disease, thereby aiding patients, healthcare professionals, and visitors. The ICP is
the key person in implementing and facilitating the institution’s infection control program. The
ICP is often the head of the hospital’s Infection Control Committee (ICC) and, as such, is
responsible for scheduling, organizing, and conducting ICC meetings. At these meetings, medical
records are reviewed of all patients suspected of having incurred a nosocomial infection since the
previous meeting. The committee discusses possible or known causes of such infections and
ways to prevent them from occurring in the future. The ICP receives timely information from the
clinical microbiology laboratory concerning possible outbreaks of infection within the hospital,
and is responsible for rapidly organizing a team to investigate these outbreaks. ICPs are also
responsible for educating healthcare personnel about infection risk, prevention, and control.

Increase Your Knowledge


1. Information about the Society for Healthcare Epidemiology of American (SHEA) can be
found at their web site: www.shea-online.org

2. Information about Infection Control Professionals/Practitioners can be found at


www.apic.org, the web site for the Association for Professionals in Infection Control and
Epidemiology.

3. Additional information about handwashing (or the lack thereof) can be found at
www.washup.org

Critical Thinking
1. As a clinical laboratory scientist, you have been processing environmental specimens that
were collected as part of an investigation into a Pseudomonas aeruginosa outbreak that is
occurring on the pediatric ward. You’ve isolated P. aeruginosa from a sample of water
from a mop bucket on the pediatric ward. How would you go about proving that the P.
aeruginosa from the mop bucket is the same strain of P. aeruginosa that caused the
outbreak, and, therefore, that the contaminated mop bucket water is the probable source
of the epidemic?

2. A patient who has been hospitalized for several weeks as a result of pneumonia has just
developed pseudomembranous colitis (PMC). What do you think caused this condition?
Do you think that her PMC should be considered a nosocomial infection? Do you think
that her PMC should be considered an iatrogenic infection?

Answers to the Chapter 12 Self-Assessment Exercises


in the Text
1. A
2. D
3. B
4. B
5. B
6. B
7. A
8. D
9. A
10. D

Additional Chapter 12 Self-Assessment Exercises


(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)

Matching Questions

A. arthropodborne infections _____ 1. Infections that patients develop


B. community-acquired while hospitalized or within 14 days of
infections hospital discharge are considered to be
C. iatrogenic infections _______________.
D. nosocomial infections
E. nosocomial zoonoses _____ 2. Infections that patients have on hospital
admission are considered to be
_______________.

_____ 3. _______________ may result if


healthcare workers fail to wash their
hands after handling laboratory animals
or pets being used for pet therapy.

_____ 4. Infections that are actually caused by


healthcare workers are specifically
known as _______________.

_____ 5. Each year, in the United States,


approximately 2 million hospitalized
patients develop _______________.
A. Airborne precautions _____ 6. In addition to Standard
B. Contact precautions precautions, _______________ must be
C. Droplet precautions used when managing a patient with
D. Medical aseptic technique streptococcal pneumonia.
E. Surgical aseptic technique
_____ 7. The goal of _______________ is to
render and keep objects and areas sterile.

_____ 8. In addition to Standard precautions,


_______________ must be used when
managing a tuberculosis patient.

_____ 9. The goal of _______________ is to


reduce the number and transmission of
pathogens.

_____ 10. In addition to Standard precautions,


_______________ must be used when
managing a patient with a Clostridium
difficile–associated disease.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. Most of the pathogens involved in nosocomial infections come from the patients
themselves.

_____ 2. An infection that results from urinary catheterization would be considered an


iatrogenic infection.

_____ 3. Bacteria are the only pathogens that have become drug resistant.

_____ 4. A patient with tuberculosis should be placed in protective isolation.

_____ 5. A superinfection with Clostridium difficile could lead to diseases such as


antibiotic-associated diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis.

_____ 6. One of the major factors contributing to nosocomial infections is the failure of
healthcare personnel to follow infection control guidelines.

_____ 7. Joseph Lister is considered the “Father of Handwashing.”

_____ 8. A leukopenic patient should be placed in a patient room having positive air
pressure.

_____ 9. Members of a hospital’s Infection Control Committee would investigate outbreaks


and epidemics that occur within that hospital.

_____ 10. By practicing Standard precautions, healthcare workers will be protected from
becoming infected, regardless of the type of infectious disease that the patient has.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 12 Self-Assessment


Exercises
Matching Questions

1. D
2. B
3. E
4. C
5. D
6. C
7. E
8. A
9. D
10. B

True/False Questions

1. True
2. True
3. False (certain viruses, fungi, and parasitic protozoa have also become drug resistant)
4. False (a patient with tuberculosis should be placed in source isolation)
5. True
6. True
7. False (Ignaz Semmelweis is considered the “Father of Handwashing”)
8. True
9. True
10. False (for certain types of diseases, transmission-based precautions must also be
practiced)
Chapter 13
Diagnosing Infectious Diseases

Terms Introduced in This Chapter


After reading Chapter 13, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 13 and in the Glossary.

Bacteremia
Bacteriuria
Calibrated loop
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
Clean-catch, midstream urine (CCMS urine)
Clinical laboratory scientists
Clinical laboratory technicians
Clinical specimens
Clinically relevant laboratory results
Encephalitis
Fungemia
Gonococcus (pl., gonococci)
Immunohematology
Laboratory
Leukemia
Leukocytes
Meningitis
Meningococcemia
Meningococcus (pl., meningococci)
Meningoencephalitis
Parasitemia
Pathologist
Pathology
Preliminary report
Septicemia
Sputum
Toxemia
Viremia

Insight

Specimen Quality and Clinical Relevance


Microbiology laboratory results are clinically relevant if they reveal information about the
patient’s infectious disease and provide the physician with useful information that can be used to
diagnose infectious diseases, monitor their progress, and guide therapy. To provide clinically
relevant information, the microbiology laboratory must receive high-quality clinical specimens.
The quality of the results can be no better than the quality of the specimen. If a poor-quality
specimen is submitted to the laboratory, in all likelihood, the results obtained using that specimen
will not be clinically relevant. In fact, results obtained from poor-quality specimens might very
well be harmful to the patient.
What constitutes a high-quality clinical specimen? The best quality specimen is one that
has been selected, collected, and transported properly. First, it must be an appropriate specimen
—the correct type of specimen required to diagnose the suspected disease. Next, the specimen
must be collected in a manner that will minimize its contamination with indigenous microflora.
And finally, it must be transported to the laboratory in the proper manner—rapidly, if necessary;
on ice, if necessary; anaerobically, if necessary; with the proper preservative, if necessary; and so
forth. A specimen labeled “sputum,” for example, must contain sputum—not merely saliva. A
urine specimen submitted for culture must be a clean-catch, midstream specimen. Adequate care
must be taken to adequately disinfect the phlebotomy site when blood is drawn for culture to
minimize the chance of contamination of the specimen with indigenous skin flora.
Those people who are responsible for submitting specimens to the laboratory are
responsible for the quality of the specimens they submit. But, how do these people know which
specimen to submit, or how to collect it, or the proper way to transport it to the laboratory? If
they have not been taught such procedures in their course of study, they should consult the “floor
manual,” which contains such information. A copy of the floor manual, which may be called the
laboratory procedures manual or some other name, should be present on each ward or clinic and
readily available for reference.
It is the laboratory's responsibility to publish and distribute such a manual. If the
laboratory demands high-quality specimens, as it should, then it must take the time to educate
healthcare professionals as to what constitutes an appropriate specimen for the diagnosis of each
infectious disease. Only in this way will the highest quality of service be assured, and only then
will the microbiology laboratory’s results be clinically relevant.

The Medical Laboratory Professions


Have you ever wondered what happens to your blood sample or throat swab after it leaves the
doctor’s office? Or, have you ever wondered how doctors diagnose diseases? Medical laboratory
professionals are an important part of the answer to these questions. They are members of the
highly skilled medical team who work together to collect clinical data and diagnose disease.
Medical laboratory professionals include pathologists, clinical laboratory scientists (CLSs; also
known as medical technologists, MTs), clinical laboratory technicians (CLTs; also known as
medical laboratory technicians, MLTs), histologic technicians, cytotechnologists, blood bank
technologists, phlebotomy technicians, pathologist assistants, and cytogeneticists. More than a
quarter of a million people work in the medical laboratory professions. Practice settings for these
professionals include hospital laboratories; clinics; nursing homes; city, state, and federal public
health facilities (e.g, the CDC); molecular diagnostic and biotechnology laboratories; research
laboratories; educational institutions; and commercial companies (e.g., pharmaceutical
companies and food service industries).
Clinical laboratory scientists (CLSs or MTs) and clinical laboratory technicians (CLTs or
MLTs) constitute the majority of medical laboratory professionals. In conjunction with
pathologists and physicians, these skilled professionals work in all areas of the clinical
laboratory, including blood bank, chemistry, hematology, immunology, urinalysis, and
microbiology. They perform a wide variety of laboratory tests used in the detection, diagnosis,
and treatment of many diseases. CLSs have many responsibilities and are held accountable for
accurate and reliable test results. They may hold a patient’s life in their hands!
Education and training in Clinical Laboratory Science not only prepares the individual for
a rewarding career in the profession, but also serves as a foundation for jobs in other fields (e.g.,
medicine, research, forensics). Individuals interested in pursuing a career in Clinical Laboratory
Science should have a strong background in the high school and college sciences (i.e., biology
and chemistry), as well as math and computer science.
There are two levels of Clinical Laboratory Science training available. The minimum
formal education requirements for a CLT are a 2-year associate degree in completion of an
accredited CLT program. CLTs perform routine tests in all areas of the laboratory under the
supervision of a CLS.
The CLS requires formal education, which includes a baccalaureate degree and clinical
experience in an accredited Clinical Laboratory Science program. CLSs are able to correlate
results with disease states, establish and monitor quality control, and operate complex electronic
equipment and computers. CLSs must be able to work in stressful situations and they must be
reliable, self-sufficient, precise, and thorough. Clinical education programs for CLSs may be
located in hospitals or university settings and include instruction in microbiology, chemistry,
hematology, immunology, blood banking, virology, phlebotomy, urinalysis, management, and
education. To ensure competency, graduates of both CLS and CLT clinical education programs
must be certified by one or both of the two national credentialing agencies: the American Society
for Clinical Pathology (ASCP), or the National Credentialing Agency (NCA).
Careers in the medical laboratory professions, particularly as a CLS or CLT, offer a great
opportunity for students interested in microbiology! Jobs are plentiful across the nation and offer
competitive salaries. The Bureau of Labor Statistics of the U.S. Department of Labor projects
that the employment of CLTs and CLSs will increase by 10 to 20% through the year 2008.
According to Jobs Rated Almanac: The Best and Worst Jobs, by Les Krantz (2002), clinical
laboratory science had 25% job growth and good job security. Among health-related professions,
it ranked number 3. In 2004, the average starting salary for CLTs was about $26,000 to $30,000,
and $38,000 to $43,000 annually for CLSs, based on geographic location. Currently, there is a
shortage of laboratory scientists in many parts of the country, guaranteeing employment and
higher salaries for graduates. For more information regarding the medical laboratory professions,
see the “Increase Your Knowledge” section that follows.

Increase Your Knowledge


1. For more detailed information about specimen collection, refer to A Guide to Specimen
Management in Clinical Microbiology, 2nd ed., published by ASM Press, Washington,
D.C., 1999.
2. For more information regarding the medical laboratory professions, visit the following
web sites:
National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences (www.naacls.org)
National Credentialing Agency (www.nca-info.org)
American Society for Clinical Laboratory Science (www.ascls.org)
American Society for Clinical Pathology (www.ascp.org)

3. A Closer Look at the Polymerase Chain Reaction. The polymerase chain reaction
(PCR) is used to make a huge number of copies of a particular gene of interest in just a
few hours; it is referred to as an amplification procedure. There are three steps in a PCR,
which are repeated over and over for 30 to 40 cycles. The three steps are: (1)
denaturation, (2) annealing, and (3) extension. During a PCR, there is an exponential
increase in the number of copies of the gene. If there was only one copy of the desired
gene to begin with, there will be two copies after one cycle, four copies after two cycles,
eight copies after three cycles, and so on. There would be over 1 billion copies after 30
cycles and over 1 trillion copies after 40 cycles. The PCR was originally described by
Kary B. Mullis in 1990. The patent rights to the PCR were reportedly sold for $300
million in 1992. For their contributions to the development of DNA-based chemistry
methods, Mullis and Michael Smith were awarded the 1993 Nobel Prize in Chemistry.
After only a little more than a decade of use, the PCR has revolutionized the Clinical
Microbiology Laboratory. At some time in the near future, traditional microbiologic
procedures, such as culturing and biochemical testing of isolates, might be completely
replaced by PCR technology. As Mark Terry (ADVANCE for Medical Laboratory
Professionals 14: 8, 2002) has stated, “It wouldn’t seem farfetched at all to imagine
sputum, blood, or urine being placed in a test tube that contained a DNA chip or real-time
PCR machine capable of analyzing—in a very short period of time—for every known
bacterium and virus.”

4. The Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI; formerly the National Committee
for Clinical Laboratory Standards [NCCLS]) is a global, interdisciplinary, nonprofit
organization that enhances the value of medical testing and healthcare services by
developing and disseminating consensus standards. These standards, in the form of
published documents, contain step-by-step instructions for how to perform laboratory
tests. Laboratories are expected to purchase these documents and perform laboratory
testing in the exact manner described in the documents. Students interested in learning
more about the CLSI should visit their web site (www.clsi.org).

5. For a more in-depth discussion of laboratory safety, consult Essential Procedures for
Clinical Microbiology (1998, with subsequent updates) and the 7th edition of the Manual
of Clinical Microbiology (1999), both published by ASM Press, Washington, D.C.

6. To learn more about the U.S. Army Medical Research Institute of Infectious Diseases
(USAMRIID) at Fort Detrick, MD, visit their web site: www.usamriid.army.mil.
Critical Thinking
1. If you were a clinical laboratory scientist (medical technologist) working in a CML, what
are some of the actions you would take to protect yourself from becoming infected?

2. You are a nurse and are accompanying a physician who is conducting ward rounds. After
examining a patient, the physician turns to you and says, “I think this patient has Lyme
disease. Get a specimen down to the lab, right away.” The physician then leaves the
room. Assuming that you don’t recall what the appropriate specimen is to diagnose Lyme
disease, where would you turn for assistance?

3. The organism most commonly isolated from positive blood cultures is Staphylococcus
epidermidis, and yet S. epidermidis is not the most common cause of either bacteremia or
septicemia. Can you explain this apparent contradiction?

4. A female patient has submitted a urine specimen as part of her prenatal screening
appointment. Her urine culture yielded greater than 100,000 CFU/mL of mixed bacterial
species, even though she does not have a urinary tract infection. Can you offer a possible
explanation for her urine culture results?

Answers to the Chapter 13 Self-Assessment Exercises


in the Text
1. D
2. C
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. D
9. D
10. D

Additional Chapter 13 Self-Assessment Exercises


(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)
Matching Questions
(Read CD-ROM Appendix 4 before attempting to answer these questions.)

A. agar dilution method _____ 1. Because the _______________


B. disk diffusion method of antimicrobial susceptibility testing
C. macro broth dilution method uses large numbers of test tubes, this
D. micro broth dilution method method is impractical for use in the
Clinical Microbiology Laboratory.

_____ 2. The _______________ of antimicrobial


susceptibility testing is also known as
the “Kirby Bauer method.”

_____ 3. The _______________ of antimicrobial


susceptibility testing is considered to be
the “gold standard.”

_____ 4. In the United States, the


_______________ is currently the most
popular method for performing
antimicrobial susceptibility testing.

_____ 5. Agar plates are used in both the agar


dilution method and the
_______________ of antimicrobial
susceptibility testing.
A. Bacteriology Section _____ 6. Mycoses are diagnosed in the
B. Mycology Section _______________ of the Clinical
C. Mycobacteriology Section Microbiology Laboratory.
D. Parasitology Section
E. Virology Section _____ 7. Tuberculosis is diagnosed in the
_______________ of the Clinical
Microbiology Laboratory.

_____ 8. Hair clippings, nail clippings, and skin


scrapings are most often processed in the
_______________ of the Clinical
Microbiology Laboratory.

_____ 9. Susceptibility testing is routinely


performed only in the Bacteriology
Section and the _______________ of the
Clinical Microbiology Laboratory.

_____ 10. Miniaturized biochemical test systems—


known as minisystems—are most often
used in the _______________ of the
Clinical Microbiology Laboratory.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. Poor-quality clinical specimens are unlikely to produce clinically relevant results.

_____ 2. The director of the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory (CML) is ultimately


responsible for the quality of clinical specimens submitted to the CML.

_____ 3. Special disinfection procedures are required to prevent indigenous microflora of


the skin from contaminating blood cultures.

_____ 4. Bacteriuria is a sure sign of urinary tract infection.

_____ 5. CSF specimens are treated as “stat” specimens in the Clinical Microbiology
Laboratory.

_____ 6. CSF specimens should be refrigerated en route to the Clinical Microbiology


Laboratory.

_____ 7. There is no need to refrigerate urine specimens for culture if they are clean-catch
midstream specimens.

_____ 8. Many clinical specimens labeled “sputum” are actually saliva specimens.

_____ 9. The Clinical Microbiology Laboratory is part of the Clinical Pathology Division
of the Pathology Department.

_____ 10. β-Lactamase testing is always performed on isolates of Neisseria gonorrhoeae


and Haemophilus influenzae.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 13 Self-Assessment


Exercises
Matching Questions

1. C
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. C
10. A

True/False Questions

1. True
2. False (the people who collect clinical specimens are responsible for the quality of those
specimens)
3. True
4. False (very often, the bacteria causing bacteriuria are contaminants; thus, bacteriuria does
not necessarily mean that the patient has a urinary tract infection)
5. True
6. False (CSF specimens should not be refrigerated; refrigeration might kill pathogens that
are present in the specimens)
7. False (even clean-catch, midstream urine specimens will contain contaminants, so they
must be refrigerated if there will be a delay between collection and processing)
8. True
9. True
10. True
Chapter 14
Pathogenesis of Infectious Diseases

Terms Introduced in This Chapter


After reading Chapter 14, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 14 and in the Glossary.

Acute disease
Adhesin
Asymptomatic disease
Asymptomatic infection
Avirulent strains
Botulinal toxin
Chronic disease
Coagulase
Collagenase
Endotoxin
Enterotoxin
Erythrogenic toxin
Exfoliative toxin
Exotoxin
Facultative intracellular pathogen
Hemolysin
Hyaluronic acid
Hyaluronidase
Intraerythrocytic pathogen
Intraleukocytic pathogen
Kinase
Latent infection
Lecithin
Lecithinase
Leukocidin
Localized infection
Neurotoxin
Pathogenesis
Pathogenicity
Primary disease
Pyrogen
Receptor
Secondary disease
Septic shock
Shock
Signs of a disease
Staphylokinase
Streptokinase
Symptomatic disease
Symptoms of a disease
Systemic infection
Tetanospasmin
Virulence
Virulence factors
Virulent strains

Increase Your Knowledge


A Closer Look at Botulinal Toxin. The neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum
has various names, including botulin, botulinal toxin, botulinus toxin, botulinum toxin,
botulism toxin, and botulismotoxin. The clinical effects of this potent neurotoxin—the
disease botulism and its characteristic flaccid paralysis—have been known since 1897.
Botulinal toxin acts presynaptically at nerve terminals to prevent the release of
acetylcholine, which causes a chemical denervation. There are seven known,
serologically distinct types of botulinal toxin, designated type A through type G.
Although botulinal toxin is one of the most potent and dangerous toxins known to
science, a purified form of type A, called Botox (Allergan, Inc.), has been used
successfully to reduce muscle hyperactivity and spasm, and the pain associated with such
conditions. Among its many applications, Botox has been used in the treatment of facial,
vocal cord, and neck spasms; lazy eye; muscle spasticity caused by cerebral palsy, stroke,
and multiple sclerosis; migraine headaches; excessive sweating; low back pain; and
cosmetic problems such as crow’s feet, frown lines, and brow lines. The effects of Botox
injections to correct cosmetic problems last from 3 to 6 months.

Critical Thinking
1. You are with some friends in a crowded movie theater during the middle of the flu
season. Some of the people seated around you are coughing and sneezing. Some of your
friends develop influenza as a result of their movie-going experience. But, you don’t!
Cite some reasons why you were one of the fortunate moviegoers.

2. In this chapter, you learned that some pathogens must attach to host cells to cause
disease. To accomplish this, molecules on their surface (adhesins or ligands) recognize
and attach to molecules (receptors or integrins) on the surface on certain host cells. Can
you think of a way that the host could prevent such attachment?
Answers to the Chapter 14 Self-Assessment Exercises
in the Text
1. D
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. C
6. B
7. C (Mycoplasmas do not have cell walls and, thus do not have endotoxin.)
8. B
9. A
10. D

Additional Chapter 14 Self-Assessment Exercises


(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)

Matching Questions

A. coagulases _____ 1. The _______________ produced


B. enterotoxins by Clostridium botulinum and
C. kinases Clostridium tetani are examples of
D. necrotizing enzymes virulence factors.
E. neurotoxins
_____ 2. The _______________ produced by
Clostridium perfringens and
Streptococcus pyogenes are examples of
virulence factors.

_____ 3. _______________ are exoenzymes that


cause clot formation.

_____ 4. _______________ are exoenzymes that


dissolve clots.

_____ 5. _______________ are produced by


Clostridium difficile, Salmonella spp.,
Shigella spp., Vibrio cholerae, and
certain serotypes of E. coli.
A. adhesins _____ 6. _______________ is a virulence
B. endotoxin factor that is found in (and released
C. hyaluronidase from) the cell walls of Gram-negative
D. integrins bacteria.
E. leukocidins
_____ 7. The molecules on the surfaces of host
cells that pathogens are able to recognize
and attach to are known as receptors or
_______________.

_____ 8. Molecules on the surfaces of pathogens


that are able to recognize and bind to
molecules on the surfaces of host cells
are known as ligands or
_______________.

_____ 9. _______________ is also known as


“spreading factor.”

_____ 10. _______________ are toxins that


destroy white blood cells.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. Bacterial capsules protect bacteria from being phagocytized by leukocytes.

_____ 2. A headache is a classic example of a sign of a disease.

_____ 3. To cause disease, all bacterial pathogens must first attach to some tissue in the
body.

_____ 4. Rickettsias and chlamydias are examples of obligate intracellular pathogens.

_____ 5. Babesia spp., Ehrlichia spp., and Plasmodium spp. are examples of
intraerythrocytic pathogens.

_____ 6. The exoenzyme that causes toxic shock syndrome is called erythrogenic toxin.

_____ 7. The neurotoxins produced by Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani cause
a spastic, rigid type of paralysis.

_____ 8. Although most people use the terms “infection” and “infectious disease”
synonymously, microbiologists define infection as colonization by a pathogen.

_____ 9. Avirulent strains do not cause disease.

_____ 10. It is thought that the waxes in the cell walls of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
protect this pathogen from digestion within phagocytes.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 14 Self-Assessment


Exercises
Matching Questions

1. E
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. B
6. B
7. A
8. D
9. C
10. E

True/False Questions

1. True
2. False (a headache is a symptom, not a sign)
3. False (some pathogens can cause disease without attaching to tissue)
4. True
5. False (Babesia and Plasmodium spp. are intraerythrocytic pathogens, but Ehrlichia spp.
are intraleukocytic pathogens)
6. False (erythrogenic toxin causes scarlet fever)
7. False (the neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum causes a flaccid type of
paralysis, whereas the neurotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani causes a spastic, rigid
type of paralysis)
8. True
9. True
10. True
Chapter 15
Nonspecific Host Defense Mechanisms

Terms Introduced in This Chapter


After reading Chapter 15, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 15 and in the Glossary.

Antibody
Antigen
Basophil
Chemokines
Chemotactic agents
Chemotaxis
Complement
Complement cascade
Edema
Eosinophil
Eosinophilia
Fixed macrophages
Granulocytes
Host defense mechanisms
Inflammation
Inflammatory exudate
Interferons
Leukocytosis
Leukopenia
Macrophage
Monocyte
Neutrophil
Nonspecific host defense mechanisms
Opsonins
Opsonization
Phagolysosome
Phagosome
Purulent exudate
Pyogenic
Pyogenic microorganisms
Reticuloendothelial system (RES)
Specific host defense mechanisms
Transferrin
Vasodilation
Wandering macrophages
Increase Your Knowledge
A Closer Look at the Complement System. Activation of the complement system can
occur by any of three pathways. (1) Activation by antigen–antibody complexes (immune
complexes) is known as the classic pathway of activation. This pathway involves all nine
of the complement proteins designated C1 through C9. (2) Certain microbial surface
molecules, microbial secretions (e.g., endotoxin and proteases), and aggregated
immunoglobulins can also activate the complement system; this is known as the
alternative pathway of activation. Complement proteins C1, C2, and C4 do not
participate in the alternative pathway. Instead, plasma protein factors (including
properdin factors B and D) work in tandem with complement proteins C3 and C5 through
C9 to attract phagocytes and enhance phagocytosis, inflammation, and the destruction of
bacteria and certain viruses. (3) A third manner in which the complement system can be
activated, called the lectin pathway of activation, is triggered by certain microbial
products.

Microbiology—Hollywood Style
Hollywood’s attempts to portray host defense mechanisms have included Fantastic
Voyage, and Osmosis Jones. In the 1966 sci-fi movie, Fantastic Voyage, an elite team of
scientists and medical specialists and their submarine-like vessel are reduced to
microscopic size. They are then injected into the bloodstream of a top government
scientist to locate and destroy a potentially fatal blood clot in his brain. The team
encounters many obstacles within the scientist’s body, including white blood cells and
antibodies. In the 2001 comedy, Osmosis Jones, the title character is an animated white
blood cell living within a live-action character (“Frank”), played by comedian Bill
Murray. When Frank’s body is invaded by a particularly nasty virus, the animated
characters (cells that are part of Frank’s host defense mechanisms) work together to
defeat the evil virus. (Caution! Some viewers might consider portions of Osmosis Jones
to be offensive.)

Critical Thinking
1. Ouch! A splinter has just jammed into your finger. List the sequence of events that will
ultimately lead to the four cardinal signs and symptoms of inflammation.

2. Interferons have been used to treat certain types of human cancers. Which types of
cancers would you expect to be treatable with interferons?

Answers to the Chapter 15 Self-Assessment Exercises


in the Text
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. D
6. A
7. D
8. D
9. A
10. C

Additional Chapter 15 Self-Assessment Exercises


(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)

Matching Questions

A. bacteriocins _____ 1. _______________ are chemical


B. chemotactic agents mediators that enable cells to
C. complement fragments communicate with each other.
D. cytokines
E. interferons _____ 2. When attached to the surface of particles
or cells, _______________ can facilitate
phagocytosis.

_____ 3. Proteins produced by one bacterial


species that kill other bacterial species
are known as _______________.

_____ 4. _______________ are small, antiviral


proteins that are produced by virus-
infected cells.

_____ 5. _______________ attract leukocytes to


sites where they are needed.
A. chemotaxis _____ 6. A _______________ is a
B. opsonization membrane-bound vesicle containing
C. phagolysosome only an ingested object.
D. phagosome
E. vasodilation _____ 7. The directed migration of leukocytes is
known as _______________.

_____ 8. A _______________ is a membrane-


bound vesicle containing an ingested
object and digestive enzymes.

_____ 9. _______________ is an increase in the


diameter of blood vessels.

_____ 10. _______________ is a process by which


phagocytosis is facilitated by the
deposition of antibodies or complement
fragments onto the surface of particles or
cells.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. Lactoferrin and transferrin are proteins that bind iron, and therefore deprive
pathogens of this essential nutrient.

_____ 2. Pyrogenic substances cause the production of pus.

_____ 3. Interferons are virus-specific, but are not species-specific.

_____ 4. Complement is the name of a single plasma protein that “complements” the
actions of the immune system.

_____ 5. Eosinophils are much better phagocytes than neutrophils.

_____ 6. Phagocytes can only ingest objects that they are able to attach to.

_____ 7. The terms “leukemia” and “leukopenia” both refer to an abnormally low number
of circulating leukocytes.

_____ 8. Ehrlichia spp. are intraleukocytic pathogens.

_____ 9. Chemokines are chemotactic agents that are produced by various cells of the
human body.

_____ 10. Perspiring, swallowing, and urinating are all considered to be part of the first line
of defense.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 15 Self-Assessment


Exercises
Matching Questions

1. D
2. C
3. A
4. E
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. C
9. E
10. B

True/False Questions

1. True
2. False (pyrogenic substances cause the production of fever; pyogenic substances cause the
production of pus)
3. False (the reverse is true)
4. False (complement is not a single plasma protein; the term refers to a group of
approximately 30 different proteins found in the blood)
5. False (the reverse is true)
6. True
7. False (leukemia is a type of cancer, in which there is a high number of abnormal
leukocytes in the blood; the term leukopenia refers to an abnormally low number of
circulating leukocytes)
8. True
9. True
10. True
Chapter 16
Specific Host Defense Mechanisms:
An Introduction to Immunology

Terms Introduced in This Chapter


After reading Chapter 16, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 16 and in the Glossary.

Acquired immunity
Active acquired immunity
Agammaglobulinemia
Allergen
Anaphylactic reactions
Anaphylactic shock
Anaphylaxis
Antigen–antibody complex
Antigen-presenting cell (APC)
Antigenic
Antigenic determinant
Antigenic variation
Antiserum
Antitoxins
Artificial active acquired immunity
Artificial passive acquire immunity
Atopic person
Attenuated
Attenuated vaccine
Attenuation
Autogenous vaccine
Autoimmune disease
B cells (B lymphocytes)
Blocking antibodies
Cell-mediated immunity
Conjugate vaccine
Cutaneous anaphylaxis
Delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions
DNA vaccine
Erythema
Hapten
Humoral immunity
Hybridoma
Hypersensitivity reactions
Hypogammaglobulinemia
Immediate-type hypersensitivity reactions
Immune
Immunity
Immunocompetent person
Immunodiagnostic procedures
Immunoglobulins
Immunosuppressed person
Immunology
Inactivated vaccine
Lymphokines
Monoclonal antibodies
Natural active acquired immunity
Natural passive acquired immunity
Passive acquired immunity
Plasma cell
Primary response
Protective antibodies
Regulatory T cells
Secondary response
Serologic procedures
Subunit vaccine
T cells (T lymphocytes)
T-dependent antigens
T-independent antigens
Toxoid
Toxoid vaccine
Vaccine

Increase Your Knowledge


It has been stated that “boosting your immune system is the single most important thing
you can do for your health.” Students interested in learning how to improve their immune
system should read The Immune Advantage: The Powerful, Natural Immune-Boosting
Program to Help You Prevent Disease, Enhance Vitality, Live a Longer, Healthier Life, by
Ellen Mazo, et al. (Rodale Inc., 2002).

Microbiology—Hollywood Style
Severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) is sometimes called “the boy-in-the-bubble”
disease, referring to a case involving a boy named David Vetter. David survived with
SCID until age 12 by living within a sterile plastic chamber. He died in 1984, as a result
of complications of an experimental bone marrow transplant. A 1976 Hollywood movie,
entitled The Boy in the Plastic Bubble, is loosely based on the case. John Travolta plays
the boy with SCID.

Critical Thinking
1. In Chapter 14, you learned that some bacteria possess polysaccharide capsules, which
prevent phagocytes from ingesting these bacteria. Using information in Chapters 14, 15,
and 16, explain why phagocytes are unable to attach to the encapsulated bacteria, and
then describe two ways in which the host’s defense mechanisms can overcome this
problem.

2. Reread the information in Chapter 14 about adhesins. Then answer the following
question. How might a vaccine containing Streptococcus pyogenes adhesins protect
someone from getting strep throat?

3. The blood of a newborn infant contains IgM antibodies against a particular pathogen
(we’ll call it pathogen X). What conclusion can be drawn?

4. A friend of yours has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Use an Internet search engine
(e.g., Google) to find out more about her disease. Be prepared to discuss your findings in
class.

Answers to the Chapter 16 Self-Assessment Exercises


in the Text
1. A
2. C
3. C
4. C
5. C
6. D
7. B
8. D
9. D
10. C

Additional Chapter 16 Self-Assessment Exercises


(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)

Matching Questions

A. artificial active acquired _____ 1. The immunity that a fetus


immunity acquires in utero, as a result of receiving
B. artificial passive acquired protective antibodies from Mom’s blood
immunity is called _______________.
C. natural active acquired
immunity _____ 2. The immunity that someone acquires as
D. natural passive acquired a result of an infection is called
immunity _______________.

_____ 3. The immunity that someone acquires


after receiving a shot of gamma globulin
is called _______________.

_____ 4. The immunity that someone acquires as


a result of receiving a vaccine is called
_______________.

_____ 5. The immunity that an infant acquires as


a result of breast-feeding is called
_______________.

A. antibodies _____ 6. _______________ are also


B. antigens known as immunogens.
C. epitopes
D. haptens _____ 7. Molecules referred to as antigenic
E. immune complexes determinants are also known as
_______________.

_____ 8. _______________ are in a class of


proteins called immunoglobulins.

_____ 9. Small molecules called


_______________ are antigenic only
when they are coupled with large carrier
molecules such as proteins.

_____ 10. _______________ initiate type III


hypersensitivity reactions.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. Technically speaking, all antibodies are immunoglobulins, but not all
immunoglobulins are antibodies.

_____ 2. IgG is the largest of the five classes of immunoglobulins.

_____ 3. The primary function of NK and K cells is to kill foreign cells, virus-infected
cells, and tumor cells.

_____ 4. Common allergic reactions, such as those experienced in hayfever, are also known
as anaphylactic reactions.

_____ 5. IgM antibodies and basophils play major roles in anaphylactic reactions.

_____ 6. The penicillin molecule is an example of a hapten.

_____ 7. Autoimmune diseases are always the result of type II hypersensitivity reactions.

_____ 8. With respect to a particular pathogen, detection of antibodies in a patient’s blood


provides better proof of current infection than does detection of antigens.

_____ 9. If a person’s immune system is not functioning properly, that person is said to be
immunocompetent.

_____ 10. An IgM molecule can bind to ten antigenic determinants, but they would all have
to be the antigenic determinant that stimulated the production of that IgM
molecule.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 16 Self-Assessment


Exercises
Matching Questions

1. D
2. C
3. B
4. A
5. D
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. D
10. E

True/False Questions

1. True
2. False (IgM is the largest of the five classes of immunoglobulins)
3. True
4. True
5. False (IgE antibodies and basophils play major roles in anaphylactic reactions)
6. True
7. False (autoimmune diseases may be the result of type II, type III, or type IV
hypersensitivity reactions)
8. False (the reverse is true)
9. False (if a person’s immune system is not functioning properly, that person is said to be
immunosuppressed, immunodepressed, or immunocompromised)
10. True
Chapter 17
Major Viral, Bacterial, and Fungal Diseases of
Humans

Terms Introduced in This Chapter


After reading Chapter 17, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 17 and in the Glossary.

Arbovirus
Bacterial vaginosis (BV)
Bartholinitis
Bronchitis
Bronchopneumonia
Carbuncle
Cervicitis
Choleragen
Colitis
Conjunctiva
Conjunctivitis
Cystitis
Dental caries
Dermatitis
Dermatophytes
Dermis
Diarrhea
Dysentery
Encephalitis
Encephalomyelitis
Endocarditis
Endometritis
Enteritis
Epidermis
Epididymitis
Epiglottitis
Exudate
Fascia
Fasciitis
Folliculitis
Furuncle
Gangrene
Gas gangrene
Gastritis
Gastroenteritis
Gingivitis
Hepatitis
Ischemia
Keratitis
Keratoconjunctivitis
Laryngitis
Lymphadenitis
Lymphadenopathy
Lymphangitis
Malaise
Meninges (sing. meninx)
Mucormycosis (zygomycosis)
Myelitis
Myocarditis
Necrosis
Nephritis
Oncogenic
Oophoritis
Orchitis
Otitis externa
Otitis media
Parotitis
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
Pericarditis
Periodontal disease
Periodontitis
Pharyngitis
Pneumonia
Prostatitis
Pustule
Pyelonephritis
Sebaceous gland
Sebum
Sinusitis
Splenomegaly
Sty (stye)
Tinea infections
Transient bacteremia
Ureteritis
Urethritis
Vaginitis
Vulvovaginitis

Increase Your Knowledge


Students seeking additional information about the major viral, bacterial, and fungal
infections of humans should consult one of the following books or visit one of the
following web sites:

Control of Communicable Diseases Manual, 18th ed., by D.L. Heymann. Washington,


D.C., American Public Health Association, 2004.

The Merck Manual of Medical Information, by R. Berkow. Whitehouse Station, Merck &
Company, 1997.

The World Health Organization (WHO), www.who.int/en/. If you click on “Health


Topics,” you can find information about many different infectious diseases.

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), www.cdc.gov. If you click on
“A–Z Index,” you can find information about many different infectious diseases.

Critical Thinking
1. A group of your friends is discussing some recent meat recalls that involved Escherichia
coli O157:H7. They say that, in the future, they are going to avoid hamburgers in fast-
food establishments and eat salads only. Explain to them why this will not necessarily
protect them from E. coli O157:H7 food poisoning.

2. You’ve just finished hiking with a friend. You suggest that you check each other for ticks.
Your friend thinks that your suggestion is silly. Explain to your friend why it is definitely
not silly, and name as many tickborne infections as you can. (Refer back to Chapter 11 if
necessary.)

3. One of your friends is complaining about her sore throat. You suggest that she get
checked for strep throat. She is reluctant. Step up your advice by listing as many
complications of streptococcal infections as possible.

4. A friend of yours has read that there is a connection between HIV infection and
immunosuppression. However, she doesn’t have a clue as to how the two events are
connected. Explain to her the mechanism by which HIV-infected individuals become
immunosuppressed, and why AIDS patients die of overwhelming infections caused by a
variety of different types of pathogens.

Case Studies

1. A 19-year-old woman visits the clinic complaining of a frequent, urgent desire to urinate,
a burning sensation during urination, and pain above her pubic bone. The physician
suspects cystitis and arranges for the patient to collect a clean-catch, midstream urine
specimen. The urine is cloudy and tinged with blood. In the laboratory, a colony count
confirms that the patient does have a urinary tract infection. The pathogen causing the
infection is producing pink colonies on MacConkey agar. Which one of the following
pathogens do you suspect is causing this patient’s cystitis?

a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Escherichia coli
c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
d. Proteus mirabilis
e. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

2. A 2-year-old girl is admitted to the hospital with massive tissue destruction along her
right arm. The skin is a violet color, and large fluid-filled blisters are present. The patient
has a fever, a rapid heart rate, and low blood pressure, and seems confused. Her mother
informs the physician that the child had been recovering from chickenpox, and, for the
past 2 days, had frequently been scratching at chickenpox lesions on that area of her arm.
Once the area appeared to have become infected, the infection spread very rapidly. A
Gram-stain of exudate from the infected tissue reveals Gram-positive cocci in chains. The
physician suspects that her infection is being caused by _______________.

a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
e. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A strep)

3. A 16-year-old girl is admitted to the hospital with severe abdominal cramps and bloody
diarrhea. She has a fever of 102°F. She has been experiencing her symptoms for the past
3 days, since several hours after eating at a fast-food restaurant with a group of her
friends. She recalls that the hamburger she ate was not very well cooked. (It is later
learned that the meat being used in that restaurant to prepare hamburgers has been
recalled because of bacterial contamination.) All of the following organisms can cause
diarrhea, but which is the most likely cause of her illness?

a. A species of Salmonella
b. A species of Shigella
c. Escherichia coli O157:H7
d. Staphylococcus aureus
e. Vibrio cholerae

4. A 20-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with fever, headache, stiff neck, sore throat,
and vomiting. The attending physician suspects that the patient has meningitis and
immediately performs a lumbar puncture. A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimen is rushed
to the laboratory, where it is processed immediately. After centrifuging an aliquot of the
specimen, the sediment is spread onto a microscope slide, fixed, and Gram-stained.
Microscopic examination of the Gram-stained specimen reveals numerous white blood
cells and numerous Gram-negative diplococci. This information is telephoned to the
attending physician, who will now treat the patient for a meningitis caused by
_______________.

a. Haemophilus influenzae
b. Neisseria meningitidis
c. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B strep)
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
e. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A strep)

5. An 80-year-old woman is transferred from a nursing home to the hospital because she is
suspected of having pneumonia. She is experiencing chest pain, chills, fever, and
shortness of breath. She has a productive cough (meaning that she is coughing up
sputum). A Gram-stain of the sputum reveals numerous white blood cells and numerous
Gram-positive diplococci. On receipt of the Gram-stain report, the physician treats the
patient for a pneumonia caused by _______________.

a. Haemophilus influenzae
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B strep)
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
e. Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A strep)

Answers to the Chapter 17 Self-Assessment Exercises


in the Text
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. D
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. B
10. A

Answers to the Chapter 17 Case Studies


1. B
2. E
3. C
4. B
5. D

Additional Chapter 17 Self-Assessment Exercises


(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)

Matching Questions

A. Staphylococcus aureus _____ 1. _______________ is a common


B. Staphylococcus epidermidis cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis
C. Streptococcus agalactiae (SBE), and a less common cause of
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae cystitis.
E. Streptococcus pyogenes
_____ 2. Certain strains of _______________ are
the so-called flesh-eating bacteria.

_____ 3. _______________ is a common cause of


bacterial pneumonia, meningitis, and
otitis media.

_____ 4. _______________ is the most common


cause of toxic shock syndrome.

_____ 5. _______________ is one of the most


common causes of neonatal meningitis.
A. Chlamydia species _____ 6. A tinea infection is caused by a
B. mold _______________.
C Rickettsia species
D. virus _____ 7. Trachoma is caused by a
E. yeast _______________.

_____ 8. Cryptococcosis is caused by a


_______________.

_____ 9. Any type of wart is caused by a


_______________.

_____ 10. The most common cause of


nongonococcal urethritis is a
_______________.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. Tuberculosis and Hansen’s disease (leprosy) are caused by Mycoplasma species.

_____ 2. It is possible for scarlet fever and toxic shock syndrome to be caused by the same
pathogen.

_____ 3. The most common cause of gas gangrene also causes a type of food poisoning.

_____ 4. The diseases caused by Mycobacterium species are referred to as mycoses.

_____ 5. Botulism, gas gangrene, and tetanus are all caused by Clostridium species.

_____ 6. The causative agent of infectious mononucleosis also causes or is associated with
various types of human cancers.

_____ 7. Measles, German measles, mumps, and whooping cough are all caused by
viruses.

_____ 8. α-Hemolytic streptococci of oral origin and Staphylococcus epidermidis are


common causes of subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE).

_____ 9. Haemophilus influenzae is the most common cause of influenza (“flu”).

_____ 10. Meningitis could be caused by a virus, a bacterium, a fungus, or a protozoan.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 17 Self-Assessment


Exercises
Matching Questions

1. B
2. E
3. D
4. A
5. C
6. B
7. A
8. E
9. D
10. A

True/False Questions

1. False (tuberculosis and Hansen’s disease are caused by Mycobacterium species)


2. True
3. True
4. False (diseases caused by fungi are referred to as mycoses)
5. True
6. True
7. False (measles, German measles, and mumps are caused by viruses, but whooping cough
is caused by a bacterium)
8. True
9. False (influenza is caused by influenza viruses)
10. True
Chapter 18
Major Parasitic Diseases of Humans:
An Introduction to Medical Parasitology

Terms Introduced in This Chapter


After reading Chapter 18, you should be familiar with the following terms. These terms are
defined in Chapter 18 and in the Glossary.

Biological vector
Cestodes
Definitive host
Ectoparasite
Endoparasite
Facultative parasite
Helminth
Intermediate host
Mechanical vector
Nematodes
Obligate parasite
Trematodes

Insight

A Closer Look at Helminths

1The following information about helminth infections supplements the material on helminths in
Chapter 18 of the book.

Nematodes (roundworms)

Intestinal Nematodes

Ascariasis: Ascaris lumbricoides is the large intestinal roundworm of humans, reaching a


maximum length of approximately 35 cm (about 14 inches). Humans are the only hosts. Male
and female worms live in the small intestine. Female worms release eggs, which pass in the
feces. The eggs must reach moist, warm soil, where it takes about 2 weeks for the larvae within
the eggs to become infective. Humans become infected by ingesting eggs, often by ingesting
unwashed or inadequately washed vegetables. In the human body, the larva then matures into an
adult worm. Adult worms can live in the body for about 1 year. Ascariasis is most common in
areas where human feces (“night soil”) is used to fertilize crops.

Pinworm infection: Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) infection is the most common


helminth infection in the world. Humans are the only hosts. Male and female worms, which
reach a maximum length of about 13 mm, live in the cecum (the first part of the colon). Female
worms migrate down through the colon, emerge from the anus, and release eggs onto the perianal
skin. The eggs are fully embryonated and infective within a few hours. Humans become infected
by ingesting the eggs. In the human body, the larva then matures into an adult worm. Adult
worms can live in the body for several months to several years.

Hookworm infection: Necator americanus (the new world hookworm) lives in the small
intestine, where it anchors itself to the intestinal mucosa by means of its well-developed mouth
parts (called cutting plates). Female worms release eggs, which pass in the feces. The eggs must
reach moist, shady, warm soil, where they hatch within 1 to 2 days. In the soil, it takes about 5 to
8 days for the immature larva to become a mature infective larva. The infective larvae remain
viable in the soil for several weeks. Humans become infected by penetration of the skin (usually
the soles of the feet) by the infective larvae. In the human body, the larva then matures into an
adult worm. Adult worms can live in the body for 4 to 20 years. Humans are the only hosts.

Tissue Nematode

Dracunculiasis: The adult Dracunculus medinensis (guinea worm), which can be up to a


meter in length, migrates in the deep connective tissues and subcutaneous tissues of the body.
The female worm migrates to the ankle or foot (usually), where a blister forms. On contact with
water, the blister bursts, and a portion of the worm protrudes through the opening. Larvae are
discharged into the water. A larva is ingested by a small, freshwater crustacean called a Cyclops.
Within the Cyclops, it takes about 8 days before the larva becomes infective for humans. Humans
become infected by drinking water that contains the infected Cyclops. In the human body, the
larva matures into an adult worm. In this life cycle, the human is the definitive host and the
Cyclops is the intermediate host.

Filarial Nematodes

Filariasis: The adult worms (such as Brugia malayi and Wuchereria bancrofti) that cause
filariasis live in lymph nodes, where they can block the flow of lymph (leading to elephantiasis).
They reach lengths of up to 40 mm. Female worms release tiny, microscopic, prelarval stages
called microfilariae, which get into the bloodstream. When a mosquito takes a blood meal, it
ingests the microfilariae. Within the mosquito, the microfilariae mature into infective larvae.
When the mosquito again takes a blood meal, it injects the infective larvae into the human. In the
human body, a larva matures into an adult worm. In this life cycle, the human is the definitive
host and the mosquito is the intermediate host.

Onchocerciasis (river blindness): Adult Onchocerca volvulus worms live within fibrous
tissue nodules. Female worms release tiny, microscopic, prelarval stages called microfilariae,
which get into the skin, eyes, and bloodstream (occasionally). When a black fly (genus
Simulium) takes a meal of tissue juices, it ingests the microfilariae. Within the black fly, the
microfilariae mature into infective larvae. When the black fly again takes a blood meal, it injects
an infective larva into the human. In the human body, the larva matures into an adult worm.
Adult worms may live for 15 years in the human body, producing microfilariae for about 10
years. In this life cycle, the human is the definitive host and the black fly is the intermediate host.

Cestodes (tapeworms) (Note: tapeworms are hermaphroditic, meaning that each tapeworm
contains both male and female reproductive organs; thus, it only takes one worm to produce
fertile eggs.)

Intestinal Cestodes

Fish tapeworm infection: The adult Diphyllobothrium latum tapeworm lives in the
human small intestine, where it can reach 10 m in length. Eggs released by the tapeworm are
passed in the feces. An egg must reach fresh water, where a ciliated organism called a coracidium
emerges from the egg. The coracidium is eaten by a Cyclops. Within the Cyclops, the coracidium
matures into a procercoid larva. If the Cyclops is eaten by a fish, the procercoid larva matures
into a plerocercoid larva in the muscle of the fish. If the raw or undercooked fish is then eaten by
a human, the plerocercoid larva matures into an adult worm. Adult worms may live for up to 25
years in the human body. In this life cycle, the human is the definitive host, the Cyclops is the
first intermediate host, and the fish is the second intermediate host.

Dog tapeworm infection: The adult Dipylidium caninum tapeworm lives in the dog’s
small intestine, where it can reach 70 cm in length. Egg packets released by the tapeworm are
passed in the feces. If an egg is eaten by a larval flea, a cysticercoid larva develops within the
flea. If the flea is then ingested by a dog (or a cat or a human), the larva matures into an adult
worm. Adult worms usually live less than 1 year in the human body. In this life cycle, the dog is
the usual definitive host and the flea is the intermediate host. Humans are considered accidental
hosts.

Rat tapeworm infection: In nature, the life cycle of Hymenolepis diminuta usually
involves a rodent (the definitive host) and a beetle (the intermediate host). The adult
Hymenolepis diminuta tapeworm lives in the rodent’s small intestine, where it can reach 60 cm in
length. Eggs released by the tapeworm are passed in the feces. If an egg is eaten by a beetle, a
cysticercoid larva develops within the beetle. If the beetle is then ingested by a rodent (or a
human), the larva matures into an adult worm. Adult worms usually live less than 1 year in the
human body. Humans are considered accidental hosts.

Dwarf tapeworm infection: Adult Hymenolepis nana tapeworms live in the human
small intestine, where they can reach 4 cm in length (a very small tapeworm; hence, the name
“dwarf” tapeworm). Eggs released by the tapeworm are passed in the feces. If an egg is ingested
by another human, a cysticercoid larva develops within the human. The cysticercoid larva then
matures into an adult worm. Usually, humans are the only hosts; an intermediate host is not
required. However, it is possible for an insect to ingest an egg, for the cysticercoid larva to
develop within the insect, and then, for a human to ingest the insect.

Beef tapeworm infection: The adult Taenia saginata tapeworm lives in the human small
intestine, where it can reach 8 m in length. Eggs released by the tapeworm are passed in the
feces. The egg contains a six-hooked embryo, called an oncosphere. If an egg is ingested by a
cow or bull, the oncosphere matures into a cysticercus larva in striated muscle of the animal.
Humans become infected by ingestion of raw or undercooked beef containing a cysticercus larva.
In the human body, the cysticercus larva matures into an adult worm. Adult worms can live for
up to 25 years in the human body. In this life cycle, the human is the definitive host and the cow
or bull is the intermediate host.

Pork tapeworm infection: The adult Taenia solium tapeworm lives in the human small
intestine, where it can reach 5 m in length. Eggs released by the tapeworm are passed in the
feces. The egg contains a six-hooked embryo, called an oncosphere. If an egg is ingested by a
pig, the embryo matures into a cysticercus larva in striated muscle of the animal. Humans
become infected by ingestion of raw or undercooked pork containing a cysticercus larva. In the
human body, the cysticercus larva matures into an adult worm. Adult worms can live for up to 25
years in the human body. In this life cycle, the human is the definitive host and the pig is the
intermediate host. There is another medical problem associated with T. solium, however. If
humans ingest the eggs, cysticercus larvae develop in various tissues within the body, e.g., the
brain. Larvae in the brain can lead to seizures and other CNS problems. This disease—in which
the larvae of T. solium are present in human tissues and organs—is known as cysticercosis.

Tissue cestode

In nature, the life cycle of Echinococcus granulosus usually involves a dog (the definitive
host) and a sheep (the intermediate host). The adult Echinococcus granulosus tapeworm lives in
the dog’s small intestine, where it can reach 6 mm in length (very small). Eggs released by the
tapeworm are passed in the feces. Each egg contains an oncosphere. If an egg is eaten by a
sheep, the oncosphere develops into a larva (a fluid-filled cyst called a hydatid cyst) somewhere
in the internal organs of the sheep. The fluid within the hydatid cyst contains many daughter
cysts and scolices (tapeworm heads). If the sheep’s viscera (internal organs), containing the
hydatid cyst, are fed to a dog, each scolex can mature into an adult worm. Adult worms can live
for up to 20 months in the dog’s intestine. If a human ingests an egg, a hydatid cyst develops
somewhere in the human body. Humans are considered accidental hosts. Hydatid cysts must be
very carefully removed from the human body by surgery. If the cyst is punctured during surgery,
and the contents of the cyst spill out into a body cavity, each daughter cyst can mature into
another hydatid cyst.

Trematodes (flukes)

Blood Flukes: The blood flukes—Schistosoma haematobium, Schistosoma mansoni, and


Schistosoma japonicum—cause the disease known as schistosomiasis. Adult male and female
worms, which are between 1 and 2 cm in length, live together in pairs within the human body in
blood vessels that surround either the urinary bladder (in the case of S. haematobium) or the
intestine (in the case of S. mansoni and S. japonicum). The eggs that are released by the female
worms can penetrate through the blood vessel walls and migrate through tissues. Eggs of S.
haematobium gain access to the lumen of the urinary bladder, and eggs of the other two species
gain access to the lumen of the intestine. Eggs passed either in urine or feces must reach fresh
water. In the water, a ciliated organism called a miracidium emerges from the egg. The
miracidium penetrates into a snail, where it matures into a mother sporocyst. The mother
sporocyst produces daughter sporocysts, each of which matures into a cercaria. The mature
cercariae are released from the snail into the water. Humans become infected by penetration of
the skin by a cercaria. Within the human body, the cercaria matures into an adult worm. Adult
worms may live throughout the lifetime of the infected human. In this life cycle, the human is the
definitive host and the freshwater snail is the intermediate host.

Increase Your Knowledge


1. Students seeking additional information about the major parasitic diseases of humans
should consult one of the following books:

Control of Communicable Diseases Manual, 18th ed., by D.L. Heymann. Washington,


D.C., American Public Health Association, 2004.

The Merck Manual of Medical Information, by R. Berkow. Whitehouse Station, Merck &
Company, 1997.

2. A veritable “treasure house” of parasitology information can be found at the CDC


Division of Parasitic Diseases web site (www.dpd.cdc.gov/dpdx).

Critical Thinking
1. Study the malarial parasite life cycle diagram in Chapter 18. Be prepared to discuss ways
in which the life cycle could be interrupted, thus preventing malaria from occurring.

2. Scientists have been attempting to develop a malaria vaccine for more than 20 years. Use
the Internet to learn the latest status of a vaccine to prevent malaria. You might try using a
search engine such as www.google.com or www.search.com.

3. A friend of yours is being treated for trichomoniasis. She tells you that she’s pretty sure
she contracted the disease from a toilet seat. Tactfully explain to her why that’s not very
likely.

Case Studies
1. A 20-year-old male soldier, who has just recently returned from duty in Panama, is
admitted to a military hospital because of recurrent bouts of fever and shaking chills,
headaches, muscle aches, and malaise. A physical examination reveals that the patient has
splenomegaly (an enlarged spleen). A blood specimen is sent to the parasitology
laboratory. A Giemsa-stained peripheral blood smear reveals the presence of
intraerythrocytic parasites. Which one of the following pathogens do you suspect is
causing this patient’s disease?

a. Ehrlichia
b. Plasmodium
c. Toxoplasma
d. Trypanosoma cruzi

2. A 19-year-old pregnant woman is visiting the clinic for a routine prenatal examination.
Included in the advice that she is given are the following statements: (1) “Wash your
hands thoroughly after handling raw meat.” (2) “Never eat raw or rare meat.” (3) “If you
have a cat, wear latex gloves when changing the kitty liter, and wash your hands
thoroughly afterward. Better yet, have someone else change the kitty litter.” (4) “Avoid
contact with sand in sandboxes.” All of these precautions are necessary to avoid infection
with which one of the following parasites?

a. Balantidium coli
b. Cryptosporidium parvum
c. Toxoplasma gondii
d. Trichomonas vaginalis

3. A 24-year-old man visits the clinic complaining of persistent diarrhea, crampy abdominal
pain, and foul-smelling flatulence. He hasn’t had any fever or chills, but often feels
nauseous after a meal. He states that the diarrhea has lasted for more than 2 weeks, and
started about a week to 10 days after he returned from a backpacking trip high in the
Colorado Rockies. When asked if he drank any stream or lake water on the trip, he replies
“Sure, all the time! That water sure is pure!” Perhaps the water is not as pure as he thinks!
The laboratory reports the presence of trophozoites and cysts of a flagellated protozoan in
his stool specimens. Which one of the following parasites, all of which cause diarrheal
illness, do you suspect?

a. Balantidium coli
b. Cryptosporidium parvum
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Giardia lamblia

4. A 26-year-old woman visits a public health clinic, concerned that she might have
contracted some type of sexually transmitted disease. She states that she has experienced
a greenish-yellow, frothy vaginal discharge and mild pain in her genital area. Physical
examination reveals inflamed and swollen labia. Specimens of the discharge material are
sent to the laboratory for a wet mount examination and culture and sensitivity. The wet
mount examination reveals the presence of actively moving flagellated protozoa. Which
one of the following pathogens is causing her vaginitis?

a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
c. Treponema pallidum
d. Trichomonas vaginalis

5. A 53-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with severe dysentery. Other symptoms that
he reports include nausea, vomiting, anorexia, headache, insomnia, muscle weakness, and
weight loss. The patient states that he is a farmer, and that his illness has made it
impossible for him to care for his crops and animals. He also mentions that most of his
pigs are experiencing a diarrheal illness. Examination of a trichrome-stained stool
specimen reveals the presence of trophozoites and cysts of a ciliated protozoan. Which
one of the following parasites, all of which cause diarrheal illness, do you suspect?

a. Balantidium coli
b. Cryptosporidium parvum
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Giardia lamblia

Answers to the Chapter 18 Self-Assessment Exercises


in the Text
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. D
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. C
10. D

Answers to the Chapter 18 Case Studies


1. B
2. C
3. D
4. D
5. A

Additional Chapter 18 Self-Assessment Exercises


(Note: Don’t peek at the answers before you attempt to solve these self-assessment exercises.)

Matching Questions

A. Ciliophora _____ 1. African trypanosomiasis,


B. Flagellates American trypanosomiasis, giardiasis,
C. Amoebozoa and trichomoniasis are caused by
D. Sporozoa protozoa in the category of protozoa
known as _______________.

_____ 2. Protozoa in the category of protozoa


known as _______________ move by
means of pseudopodia.

_____ 3. Cryptosporidiosis, malaria, and


toxoplasmosis are caused by protozoa in
the category of protozoa known as
_______________.

_____ 4. In the category of protozoa known as


_______________, only one protozoan
causes human disease.

_____ 5. A disease known as PAM is caused by a


protozoan in the category of protozoa
known as _______________.
A. oocyst _____ 6. In the malarial parasite’s life
B. ookinete cycle, a/an _______________ contains
C. schizont numerous merozoites.
D. trophozoite
E. zygote _____ 7. In the malarial parasite’s life cycle,
sporozoites are produced within a/an
_______________.

_____ 8. In the malarial parasite’s life cycle, a/an


_______________ is a motile organism
within the mosquito’s stomach.

_____ 9. In the malarial parasite’s life cycle, a/an


_______________ may mature to
become a female gametocyte, a male
gametocyte, or a schizont.

_____ 10. In the malarial parasite’s life cycle, the


_______________ is located on the
outer wall of the mosquito’s stomach.
True/False Questions

_____ 1. In a parasite’s life cycle, the definitive host harbors the adult or sexual
stage of the parasite or the sexual phase of the life cycle.

_____ 2. The amebae that cause amebic keratitis and PAM are good examples of
obligate parasites.

_____ 3. In the malarial parasite’s life cycle, humans serve as definitive hosts.

_____ 4. When causing infections, parasitic protozoa and helminths are


endoparasites.

_____ 5. Scabies is caused by an insect.

_____ 6. In a parasite’s life cycle, it is possible for a particular arthropod to serve as


both a host and a biologic vector.

_____ 7. It is possible to acquire cryptosporidiosis, cyclosporiasis, and


toxoplasmosis by ingesting oocysts.

_____ 8. Trichomonas vaginalis cannot survive very long outside of the human
body because it has no cyst form.

_____ 9. Toxoplasmosis could be acquired by eating raw or rare meat.

_____ 10. African trypanosomiasis and American trypanosomiasis are transmitted by


the same type of arthropod vector.

Answers to the Additional Chapter 18 Self-


Assessment Exercises
Matching Questions

1. B
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. C
6. C
7. A
8. B
9. D
10. A

True/False Questions

1. True
2. False (the amebae that cause these diseases are good examples of facultative
parasites)
3. False (in the malaria parasite’s life cycle, humans serve as intermediate hosts and
mosquitoes serve as definitive hosts)
4. True
5. False (scabies is caused by an arachnid—specifically, a mite)
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. False (African trypanosomiasis is transmitted by a tsetse fly, whereas American
trypanosomiasis is transmitted by a reduviid bug)

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