Single Choice Type Questions on Crystal Structure and Colloids

Single Correct Choice Type
01. The crystal structure with no element of symmetry is.

a) Rhombohedral b) Monoclinic c) Triclinic d) Orthorhombic

02. How many octahedral sites per sphere are there in a cubic closest packed (face-centred
cubic) structure?
a) 1 b) 8 c) 6 d) 3

03. Which among the following will bring about the coagulation of gold sol quickest and in the
least of molar concentration?
a) NaCl b)
4
MgSO c)
( )
2 4
3
Al SO d)
( )
4
6
K Fe CN (

04. At
0
25 Cthe vapour pressure of methyl alcohol is 96 torr. The mole fraction of methyl
alcohol in a solution in which the partial vapour pressure of methyl alcohol is 23 torr at
0
25 C is
a)
96
23
b)
23
96
c)
2 23
96
d)
23
2 96

05. An ionic compound AB crystallises in FCC lattice. The radius ratio of the compound is
0.5. If all the ions along one of the axes passing through face centres are removed, the
percentage of the volume occupied by the cations/unit cell is
a) 74 b) 37 c) 27.75 d) 6

06. On adding few drops of dil.HCl to freshly precipitated ferric hydroxide, a red coloured
colloidal solution is obtained. This phenomenon is known as
a) Protective action b) Coagulation c) Peptisation d) Dialysis

07. Which of the following 1m solutions has highest depression in freezing point?
a) aq. Glucose solution
b) aq.
( )
3
2
Mg NO which is 50% ionized
c)
( )
4
6
aqK Fe CN (

which is 30% ionized
d) aq. NaCl which is 100% ionised

08. The graph between
x
log
m
| |
|
\ .
and log P is a straight line inclined at an angle
0
45 u = and log
K = 0.699. Then the amount in grams of adsorbate adsorbed per gram of adsorbent when
the pressure is 0.2 atm is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) 2.5
01. The lowering of vapour pressure due to the solute in a 3 m aqueous solution at
0
100 C is
approximately
a) 14 torr b) 28 torr c) 40 torr d) 7.6 torr

02. Which of the following is an example of associated colloid?
a)
( )
2 3
3
As O Fe OH + b)rubber + benzene c) Soap + water d) Protein +
water

03. An ionic compound AB crystallizes in B.C.C. lattice. If the radius ratio is almost one, the
ratio of volumes occupied by cation to that of anion in the unit cell is
a)
1
2
b)
1
4
c)
2
3
d) 1

04. NaF and NaI are dissolved in water to prepare 100ml solution which produces the same
osmotic effects as 0.1 molar solution of urea in water at the same temperature. The solution
on complete evaporation left a residue of 0.48g. Then the ratio of weights of NaF to NaI
added to water is
a) 0.14 b) 0.28 c) 0.46 d) 0.75

05. According to adsorption theory of catalysis, the reaction rate increases because
a) In the process of adsorption, the kinetic energy of the molecules increases
b) The activation energy of reaction becomes high due to adsorption
c) Adsorption produces heat which increases the rate of reaction
d) The concentration of reactants at the active centres becomes high due to adsorption.
06. An element (Molecular weight = 200) has an atomic radius of
0
2A . The density of that
element is 7 g/cc. The crystal structure of the element is
a) Simple cubic b) BCC c) FCC d) HCP.
4. Fully charged lead storage battery contains 1.5 L of 5.00 M H
2
SO
4
. If 2.5 amp of current is
drawn for 965 minutes, then final left concentration of H
2
SO
4
is (Assume volume of battery fluid
to be constant.)
(A) 3.5 M (B) 2.00 (C) 4.25 M (D) 4.00 M
3. Consider the plots of radial wave function R
(n, l)
(r) against r for electrons belong to different
orbitals.
R
1.0
1s
r

R
2.0
2s
r

R
3.0
3s
r

The number of radial nodes in each of these orbitals respectively is
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 0, 1, 2 (C) 1, 1, 1 (D) 2, 2, 2

1. An oxide of a metal has the formula M
2
O
3
. When 0.16g of the oxide on being reduced to pure
metal by hydrogen 54mg of water are formed. Hence the atomic mass of the metal is
A) 27 B) 159.6 C) 79.0 D) 55.8
2. The extent of dissociation of N
2
O
4
is 40% at 27
0
C under a pressure of 760 mm Hg. Hence the
density of the equilibrium mixture of N
2
O
4
and NO
2
in g/L would be
A) 4.85 B) 2.67 C) 3.82 D) 3.18
3. A certain mass of NH
4
Cl was boiled with 200mL of 0.6M NaOH until the reaction is completed.
After that, the reaction mixture containing excess of NaOH on being titrated, it required 100 mL
of 0.4N HCl. Hence the mass of NH
4
Cl taken to start with [M.M. of NH
4
Cl = 53.5]
A) 2.14 g B) 6.42 g C) 4.28 g D) 8.56 g
4. Two moles of an ideal gas expanded isothermally and reversibly from 1 litre to 10 litre at 300 K.
the enthalpy change (in kJ) for the process is:
A) 11.4 B) -11.4 C) 0 D) 4.8
8. Which electronic transition in a hydrogen atom, starting from the orbit n = 7, will produce
infrared light of wavelength 2170 nm? (Given : R
H
= 1.09677 10
7
m
-1
)
A) n = 7 to n = 6 B) n = 7 to n = 5 C) n = 7 to n = 4 D) n = 7 to n = 3
1. K
sp
of AgCN is
16
4.8 10
and Ka of HCN is
10
3.0 10
. Hence the solubility of AgCN in a

buffer solution of pH equal to 3 in mol/L
A)
12
4.4 10
B)
5
1.4 10
C)
4
6.4 10
D)
5
4.0 10

2. A mixture of N
2
(g), H
2
(g) and NH
3
(g) is present in a 10L flask at equilibrium as per the equation.

( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 3
3 2 N g H g NH g +
and the equilibrium constant at a particular temperature is 10. In case the molar concentrations
of H
2
and NH
3
are 1.0 and 0.5, the number of moles of N
2
present in the flask.
A) 0.5 B) 5.0 C) 6.25 D) 0.25
2. In mineral wurtzite, iron oxide is usually non-stoichiometric with approximate formula
0.91
Fe O .
What is percentage of cationic sites are occupied by ( ) Fe III ?
(A) 5.2% (B) 30% (C) 19.78% (D) 8.88%
3. Which of the following relation is true in respect of adsorption?

G A S A H A
(A)
0 < 0 > 0 <
(B)
0 > 0 < 0 <
(C)
0 > 0 > 0 >
(D)
0 > 0 > 0 <
1. KCl crystallizes in the same type of lattice as does NaCl. Given that / 0.5
Na Cl
r r
+
= and
/ 0.7
Na K
r r
+ +
= . Calculate ratio of the side of unit cell for KCl to that for NaCl
(A)
8
7
(B)
4
9
(C)
7
9
(D)
2
3

3. A graph of log
x
m
Vs log P is plotted as shown below. What will be the value of
x
m
when
pressure is 0.4atm

(A) 0.2 (B) 0.4 (C) 0.6 (D) 0.8

8. Mixture of x containing 0.02mole of
( )
3 4
5
Co NH SO Br (

and 0.02mol of
( )
3 4
5
Co NH Br SO (

was dissolved in water to get 2L of solution of
1L of X + Excess of
3
AgNO Y mol of ppt
1L of X + Excess of
2
BaCl Z mol of ppt
Number of moles of Y and Z are
(A) 0.01,0.01 (B) 0.02,0.01 (C) 0.01,0.02 (D) 0.02,0.02
1. A mixture containing 100 g
2
H and 100 g is ignited so that water is formed according to
the reaction,
2 2 2
2H O 2H O + ; How much water will be formed?
A) 113 g B) 50 g C) 25 g D) 200 g

2. A partially dried clay mineral contains 8% water. The original sample contained 12%
water and 45% silica. The % of silica in the partially dried sample is nearly:
A) 50% B) 49% C) 55% D) 47%

3. The reaction
2 2 2 2 2
5H O XClO 2OH XCl YO 6H O

+ + + + is balanced if:
A) X = 5, Y = 2 B) X = 2, Y = 5 C) X = 4, Y = 10 D) X = 5, Y = 5

4. The number of electrons lost or gained during the change,
2 3 4 2
Fe H O Fe O H + + , is:
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8

45. Hexamethylene diamine, a compound used in making nylon-66 has 24.14% nitrogen. There are two
nitrogen atoms per molecule. What is the molecular weight of hexamethylenediamine ?
A) 36 B) 116 C) 292 D) 146
46. Li
3+
and a proton are accelerated by the same potential, their de-Broglie wavelengths have the ratio
(mass of Li 7 & mass of proton 1)
A) 1:2 B) 1 : 4 C) 1 : 1 D) 1: 7
47. If an electron is travelling at 200 m/s within 1 m/s uncertainty, what is the theoretical
uncertainty in its position in m (micrometer)?
A) 14.5 m B) 29 m C) 58 m D) 114 m
48. What percentage of oxygen is present in the compound CaCO
3
.3Ca
3
(PO
4
)
2
?
A) 23.3% B) 45.36% C) 41.94% D) 17.08%
49. Suppose two elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY
2
and X
2
Y
3
when 0.05 mole of
XY
2
weighs 5 g while 3.011 x 10
23
molecules of X
2
Y
3
weighs 85 g. The atomic masses of X and Y are
respectively :
A) 20, 30 B) 30, 40 C) 40,30 D) 80, 60
50. An excited state of H-atom emits a photon of wavelength of and return to ground state, the
principal quantum no. of excited state is given by:
A) R(R-1) B) R/(R - 1) C) (R-1) D) (R-1)/ R
51. It is known that atom contain protons, neutrons and electrons. If the mass of neutron is assumed
to half of its original value whereas that of proton is assumed to be twice of its original value then
the atomic mass of
6
C
14
will be :
A) same B) 14.28% less C) 14.28% more D) 28.56% less
52. What is the degeneracy of the level of the hydrogen atom that has the energy -R
H
hc

/9.
A) 1 B) 4 C) 9 D) 16
53. 44g of a sample on complete combustion gives 88 gm CO
2
and 36 gm of H
2
O. The molecular
formula of the compound may be:
A) C
4
H
6
B) C
2
H
6
O C) C
2
H
4
O D) C
3
H
6
O
54. Statement 1 : When 40 g CH
3
CHO is allowed to react with 10 g of O
2
amount of product
obtained is governed by mass of O
2

Statement -2 : O
2
is more reactive

55. Statement 1 : De-Broglie principle can be used to calculate wavelength associated with a
moving car
Statement 2 : De-Broglie relation is applicable only for submicroscopic bodies

56. Statement 1 : One mole of SO
2
contains double the number of molecules present in one mole
of O
2
.
Statement - 2 : Molecular weight of SO
2
is double that of O
2
.
57. Statement 1 : One of the applications of quantum theory is quantization of energy of orbits in
an atom
Statement 2 : Energy of n
th
orbit of an atom is given by
2
2
13.6
/
n
Z
E eV atom
n
=
32. Statement I : - 2p orbitals do not have any spherical node
Statement II : - The number of spherical nodes in p orbitals is given (n - 2) where n' is principal
quntum number
33. Statement I : - Each electron in an atom has two spin quantum numbers.
Statement II : -Spin quntum number is not obtained by solving Schrodinger wave equation

34. Statement I : -The 19
th
electron in K atom enters into 4s orbital and not into 3d - orbital
Statement II : - (n+l) rule is followed for determining the orbital of the lowest energy state.

35. Statement I : - s orbital cannot accommodate more than two electrons.
Statement II : - Spin exchange can take place among two electrons occupying an orbital.
2. In 0.1 M aq. H
2
S solution K
b
for HS
is 10
9
. If [S
2
] in this solution is 10
10
, then the dissociation
constant for
2
2
H S 2H S
+
+ will be (approximately)
(A) 10
15
(B) 10
13
(C) 10
19
(D) 10
18
8. n containers having volumes v, 2v, 3v..nv containing gaseous moles n, 4n, 9n,..n
3

respectively are connected with stopcock at same temperature. If pressure of first container is
P, then the final pressure when all the stopcocks are opened is
(A)
( ) n 2n 1 P
3
+
(B)
( ) 2n 1 P
3n
+

(C)
( ) 2n 1 P
6n
+
(D)
( ) 2n 1 P
3
+

23. The orbital angular momentum for s-electron is
a)
2
h
t
b) 2
2
h
t
c)
2
h
t
d) zero
24. The number of electrons with the azimuthal quantum number 1 l = and 2 l = in ground state of
24
Cr is respectively
a) 16 and 5 b) 12 and 5 c) 16 and 4 d) 12 and 4
25. The number of radial nodes of 3s and 2p orbitals are respectively
a) 2, 0 b) 0, 2 c) 1, 2 d) 2, 1
26. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represent the highest energy of an atom?
a)
1
3 1 1
2
n l m s = = = = + b)
1
3 2 1
2
n l m s = = = = +
c)
1
4 0 0
2
n l m s = = = = + d)
1
3 0 0
2
n l m s = = = = +
27. Which of the following ion is paramagnetic?
a) Cu
+
b)
2
Zn
+
c)
3
Sc
+
d)
2
Ni
+

28. If the probability density of 1s orbital is given by
2
1s
( )
0
2 / 2 3
1 0
1/
r a
s
a e
= t and its radial

probability by
( )
2 2
4 . P r dr r dr = t . then
a) r =
3
0
2
a
b)
0
r a = c)
0
2
a
r = d) r =
0
2
a

29. If the nitrogen atom had electronic configuration
7
1s , it would have energy lower than that of
normal ground state configuration
2 2 3
1 2 2 s s p because the electrons would be closer to nucleus
yet
7
1s is not observed because it violates
a) Heisenbergs uncertainty principle b) Hunds rule
c) Pauli exclusion principle d) Bohr postulate of stationary orbits
30. The maximum number of electrons in an orbital having same spin quantum number will be
a) 2 l + b) 2 1 l + c) ( ) 1 1 l + d) ( ) 1 1 l +

31.
310
has
a) 1 radial node and 1 angular node b) 2 radial node and 1 angular node
c) 1 radial node and 2 angular node d) 2 radial node and 2 angular node

23. The angle made by angular momentum vector of an electron with z-axis is given as
a) cos
l
m
u = b) cos
l
m
u = c)
( ) 1
cos
l l
m
+
u = d)
( )
cos
1
m
l l
u =
+

24. Which of the following orbitals has zero probability of finding the electron in yz plane around
the nucleus
a)
y
p b)
2
z
d c)
yz
d d)
xy
d
25. An ion
x
Mn
+
has the magnetic moment equal to 4.9 BM. What is the value of x
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 5
26. Which has the same number of s-electrons as the d-electrons in
2
Fe
+
?
a) Li b) Na c) N d) P
27. Which of the following graphs corresponds to one node ?

a)

b)

c)

d)

28. The orbital angular momentum of 4f electron is
a) 4
2
h | |
|
t
\ .
b) 12
2
h | |
|
t
\ .
c) 6
2
h | |
|
t
\ .
d)
2
2
h
t

29.
2 3
2 7 2 3
xCr O y NO zH Cr NO
+ +
+ + + x.y.z values in balanced equation are
a) 2,3,8 b) 1,3,8 c)1,3,4 d) 3,1,8
30. If the weights of N
2
& O
2
are equal then the ratio of number of atoms in N
2
& O
2
is
a) 1 : 1 b) 7 : 8 c) 8 : 7 d) 2 : 3
31. Heating 10 gr of a mixture of
2 3
Na CO and
3
CaCO below 500C gives CO
2
the volume of which
when reduced to STP is 448 ml. The weight percent of
2 3
Na CO in the mixture is
a) 8 b) 20 c) 80 d) 40
32. Statement 1 : Bohrs theory is not applicable to ionized hydrogen atom
Statement 2 : H
+
is devoid of electron
33. Statement 1 : Half filled and fully filled state degenerate orbitals are more stable.
Statement 2 : Extra stability is due to the symmetrical distribution of electrons and exchange
energy.
34. Statement 1 : d-orbitals are five fold degenerate orbitals.
Statement - 2 : A d-orbital can accommodate a maximum number of ten electrons.
35. Statement 1 : Limiting line in the Lyman series has a wave length of
0
912 A .
Statement 2 : Wave length of Lyman limiting line is calculated for a jump of electron from
n = to 1 n =

1. 5 g sample contain only
2 3
Na CO and
2 4
Na SO . This sample is dissolved in distilled water
and the volume made up to 250 ml. 25 ml of this solution neutralises 20 ml of 0.1 M
2 4
H SO . The % of
2 4
Na SO in the sample is
a) 42.4 b) 57.6 c) 36.2 d) 63.8

2. 1 mole of equimolar mixture of ferric oxalate
( ) ( )
2 2 4
3
Fe C O and ferrous oxalate
( )
2 4
FeC O
will require a mole of
4
KMnO in acidic medium for complete oxidation, a is
a) 3.6 mole b) 1.8 mole c) 0.9 mole d) 0.5 mole

3. 100ml of a 0.2 M NaOH is exactly neutralised by
a) 100ml of 0.1 M HCl + 100 ml of 0.1 M
2 4
H SO
b) 100 ml of 0.1 M HCl + 50 ml of 0.1 M
2 4
H SO
c) 50 ml of 0.1 m HCl + 500 ml of 0.1 M
2 4
H SO
d) 50 ml of 0.1 M HCl + 100 ml of 0.1 M
2 4
H SO

4. 10 ml of
2 2 3 2
.5 Na S O H O decolourises 15 ml of / 20 N iodine solution when starch is used
as an indicator. The amount in grams of
2 2 3
Na S O
2
5H O present in the given solutions is
2 2
2 3 2 4 6
1
2
2
S O I S O I

| |
+ +
|
\ .

a) 0.186 b) 2.34 c) 8.02 d) 3.27

5. 7.35 g of a dibasic acid was dissolved in water and diluted to 250 ml. 25 ml of this solution
was neutralised by 15 ml of N NaOH solution . The molecular weight of this aid is
a) 49 b) 31 c) 62 d) 98

6. The volume of water to be added to 100
3
cm of 0.5
2 4
NH SO to get decinormal
concentration
a)
3
400cm b)
3
450cm c)
3
100cm d)
3
500cm

7. Equal volumes of 0.1 M
3
AgNO and 0.2 M NaCl are mixed. The concentration of
3
NO

ions in the mixture will be
a) 0.1 M b) 0.05 M c) 0.2 M d) 0.13 M

8. 320 mg of a sample of magnesium having a coating of its oxide required 20 ml of 0.1 M
hydrochloric acid for the removal of the coating. The composition of the sample is
a) 5.32% Mg and 68% MgO b) 68% Mg and 32% MgO
c) 87.5% Mg and 12.5 % MgO d) 12.5 Mg and 87.5% MgO
3. Which is a possible set of quantum numbers for a valence electron in ground state atom of
phosphrous (Z = 15)?
n l m s n l m s
A) 2 1 0 +1/2 B) 3 0 0 0
C) 3 1 +1 +1/2 D) 3 2 0 -1/2
4. If aufbau rule is not used, 19
th
electron in Sc(Z = 21) will have
A) n = 3 0 l = B) n = 3 1 l = C) n = 3 2 l = D) n = 4 0 l =
57 Statement I : - Eudiometry helps in predicting the empirical / molecular formula
Statement II: - In eudiometry, turpentine is used to absorb ozone
58 Statement I : - On combustion of hydrocarbon, CO
2
and water are formed and the liberated
gas can be absorbed by baryta water (Ba(OH)
2
)
Statement II: - Baryta water has high affinity towards carbondioxide and absorbs it

23. A small bubble rises from the bottom of a lake, where the temperature and pressure are
0
8 C
and 6.0atm, to the waters surface, where the temperature is
0
25 C and pressure is 1.0atm.
Calculate the final volume of the bubble if its initial volume was 2mL.
A) 14mL B) 12.72mL C) 11.21mL D) 15mL

24. A certain amount of gas at
0
25 C and a pressure of 0.80atm is contained in a glass vessel.
Suppose that the vessel can withstand a pressure of 2.0atm. How high can you raise the
temperature of the gas without bursting the vessel?
A)
0
745 C B)
0
472 C C)
0
500 C D)
0
250 C

25. Dry ice is solid carbon dioxide. A 0.050g sample of dry ice is placed in an evacuated 4.6L vessel at
0
30 C . Calculate the pressure inside the vessel after all the dry ice has been converted to
2
CO
gas.
A) 6.14atm B) 0.614atm C) 0.0614atm D)
3
6.14 10 atm

26. A mixture of helium and neon gases is collected over water at
0
28.0 C and 745 mm of Hg. If the
partial pressure of helium is 368 mm of Hg, what is the partial pressure of neon? (Vapour pressure
of water at
0
28 C = 28.3 mm of Hg)
A) 348.7 mm Hg B) 377 mm Hg C) 384.7 mm Hg D) 322.7 mm Hg

27. Nitrogen forms several gaseous oxides. One of them has a density of 1.33 g/L measured at 764
mm of Hg and
0
150 C . The molecular formula of the oxide is.
A) NO B)
2
N O C)
2
NO D)
2 5
N O

28. Calculate relative rate of effusion of
2
O to
4
CH through a container containing
2
O and
4
CH in
3: 2 mass ratio
A) 3 2 / 4 B) 3/ 4 2 C) 3/ 2 2 D) 2 3 / 4

29. 4gm of sulphur dioxide gas diffuses from a container in 8min. Mass of helium gas diffusing from
the same container over the same time interval is
A) 0.5gm B) 1gm C) 2gm D) 4gm

30. Two glass bulbs A and B at same temperature are connected by a very small tube having a stop-
cock. Bulb A has a volume of
3
100cm and contained the gas while bulb B was empty. On opening
the stop-cock, the pressure fell down to 20%. The volume of the bulb B is
A)
3
100cm B)
3
200cm C)
3
250cm D)
3
400cm

31. Pressure of 1g ideal gas X at 300K is 2atm. When 2g of another gas Y is introduced in the same
vessel at same temperature, the pressure become 3atm then correct relationship between molar
mass of X and Y is
A) 2
Y X
M M = B) 4
Y X
M M = C) 4
X Y
M M = D)
X Y
M M =
32. Statement 1: A lighter gas diffuses more rapidly than a heavier gas under the same
conditions of temperature and pressure.
Statement 2: At a given temperature, the rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional
to the density.

33. Statement 1: The pressure of a fixed amount of an ideal gas is proportional to its absolute
temperature at constant volume.
Statement 2: The product of pressure and volume of a given mass of gas is constant at
constant temperature.

34. Statement 1: When temperature of an ideal gas increases from
0
27 C to
0
127 C at
constant P, its volume increases by 100L.
Statement 2: V T at constant P.

35. Statement 1: Daltons law is applicable for the non reacting gases only.
Statement 2: A gaseous mixture containing CO and
2
Cl does not follow the
Daltons law
1. The ratio between the root mean square speed of H
2
at 50K and root mean square speed
of O
2
at 800K is
A) 1:2 B) 1:1 C) 2:1 D) 8:1

2. A real gas is supposed to obey the gas equation P(V-b) = RT at STP. If one mole of a gas
occupies 25dm
3
volume at STP, then its compressibility factor is (b = 2.586 lit mole
-1
)
A) 1.115 B) 0.115 C) 0.784 D) 0.885

3. One mole of N
2
gas at 0.8atm. takes 38sec to diffuse through a pinhole, where as one
mole of an unknown gas at 1.6atm. takes 57sec to diffuse through the same pinhole. The
molecular weight of unknown gas is
A) 126 B) 64 C) 80 D) 252

4. 4g of argon (M.W = 40) in bulb at temperature of T K had a pressure P atm. When the
bulb was placed in a hotter bath at temperature 50
0
more, 0.8g of gas had to be removed
to get original pressure. The value of T is
A) 100K B) 400K C) 200K D) 250K
1. At low pressure, vander Waals equation is written on
2
a
P V RT
V
(
+ =
(

. The
compressibility factor is then equal to
A) 1
RTV
a
(
(

B) 1
a
RTV
(
(

C) 1
a
RTV
(
+
(

D) 1
RTV
a
(
+
(

2. The gas which can most easily be liquefied is (In brackets the value of vander Waals
constant a was given )
A)
2
O ( a = 1.360
2
L atm. mole
-2
)
B)
2
N ( a = 1.390
2
L atm. mole
-2
)
C)
4
CH ( a = 2.253
2
L atm. mole
-2
)
D)
3
NH ( a = 4.170
2
L atm. mole
-2
)
3) The temperature at which the most probable velocity of oxygen is equal to the RMS
velocity of ozone at 50
0
C is
A) 323K B) 484.5K C) 215.3K D) 646K

4) The temperature at which the RMS velocity of
2
SO is half the RMS velocity of He at
300K
A) 300K B) 150K C) 600K D) 1200K

5)
2
SO molecule is twice as heavy as
2
O molecule. Hence at
0
25 C the ratio of the average
kinetic energy of
2
SO and
2
O is
A) 2:1 B) 1:2 C) 1:1 D) 4:1

6) For two gases , A and B with molecular weights
A
M and
B
M , it is observed that at a
temperature T, the average velocity of A is equal to the root mean square velocity of B.
Thus the average velocity of A can be made equal to the average velocity of B, if
A) T
A
is lowered and T
B
is raised
B) T
A
is made equal to 0.85 times of T
B

C) Both T
A
and T
B
are raised to a higher temperature.
D) Both T
A
and T
B
are placed at a lower temperature (where T
A
and T
B
are temperatures
of gases A and B)
7) The compressibility factor of a gas is more than unity at STP, then
A) 22.4
m
V lit > B) 22.4
m
V lit < C) 22.4
m
V lit = D) 20.5
m
V lit =

8) The vander waals constant b for helium is
5 3 1
2.433 10 m mole

. The diameter of
helium atom is
A)
30
2.41 10 m B)
0
2.68 A C)
0
5.36 A D)
0
1.34 A
45. An aqueous solution contains 10% ammonia by mass and has density of 0.99 g/cc.
Calculate hydrogen ion concentration in solution
( )
5
2 10
b
K

=
(A)
2
10
(B)
13
9.26 10

(C)
10
9.26 10
(D)
6
7.4 10

46. Conjugate base of [Fe(H
2
O)
6
]
2+
is
(A) [Fe(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
(B) [Fe(H
2
O)
5
(OH)]
+

(C) [Fe(H
2
O)
5
(OH)]
3+
(D) [Fe(H
2
O)
5
H]
3+

47. For the reaction
2
[ ( ) ] 2 , Ag CN Ag CN
+
+ the equilibrium constant at 25C is
19
4 10
. If a solution is 0.1 M in KCN and 0.03 M in AgNO

3
originally at equilibrium,
the concentration of Ag
+
is
(A)
16
7.5 10 M
(B)
18
7.5 10 M

(C)
16
1.25 10 M
(D)
17
1.25 10 M

48. In the solution
2
4 6 4
2 ; SnCl Cl SnCl SnCl

+ is
(A) Lewis acid (B) Lewis base
(C) Neutral salt (D) Basic salt

49. 2NO Br (g) 2NO (g) + Br
2
(g). If nitrosyl bromide is 34% dissociated at 25C and
a total pressure of 0.25 atm, K
p
for the dissociation at this temperature is
(A)
3
1.37 10
(B)
3
9.78 10

(C)
2
2.16 10
(D)
3
5.67 10

50. An equilibrium can be represented by following equation
P (aq) + Q (aq) 2 R (aq) + S (aq)
In a certain mixture, the equilibrium concentration of Q is 10 mole per litre. What will be
equilibrium concentration of Q if 5 moles of pure Q is dissolved in mixture ?
(A) 15 mole/dm
3
(B) between 10 mole/dm
3
and 15 mole/dm
3

(C) 10 mole/dm
3
(D) between 5 mole/dm
3
and 10 mole/dm
3

51. For a hypothetical reaction; A (g) + B (g) C (g) + D (g), a graph between log K and T
-
1
is straight line as follows, when
1
tan u

= 0.5 and OA = 10, assuming
0
H A is independent of
temperature. The equilibrium constant at 298 K and 798 K are respectively

(A) K
1
= 9.96 10
9
; K
2
= 2.76 10
10
(B) K
1
= 3.79 10
8
; K
2
= 9.98 10
9

(C) K
1
= 7.96 10
8
; K
2
= 7.96 10
9
(D) K
1
= 9.96 10
9
; K
2
= 9.96 10
9

52. H
3
PO
3
is a dibasic weak acid if its initial concentration is 0.3 M and degree of
dissociation is 0.3%. Find pH at this point and K
a
is (consider
1 2
a a
K K = )
(A)
2 3
2.75, 4C o (B)
2
2.75, Co
(C)
2
4.72, Co (D)
2 3
3.74, 2C o

53.

Correct statements related to given graph is / are
(A) At moderate pressures inter molecular repulsive forces are dominant than attractive
forces for CO
2

(B) Only at high pressure repulsive forces are dominant than attractive forces for H
2

(C) At low pressure attractive forces are dominant over repulsive forces for CH
4

(D) All of these

54. STATEMENT 1: A substance that can either act as an acid or a base is called ampholyte.
STATEMENT 2: Bisulphide ion ( ) HS
and bicarbonate ion

3
( ) HCO

are ampholytes.

55. STATEMENT 1: It is difficult to distinguish the strength of the strong acids such as HCl, H
2
SO
4
,
HNO
3
, HBr in dilute aqueous solutions.
STATEMENT 2: In dilute aqueous solution all strong acids donate a proton to water and are
essentially 100% ionised to produce a solution containing H
3
O
+
ions plus the anions of strong
acid.

56. STATEMENT 1: For the equilibrium N
2
O
4
(g) 2NO
2
(g) the mean molar mass of the
equilibrium mixture is always more than 46 and less than 92.

STATEMENT 2: Addition of xenon at constant volume to the equilibrium mixture will result in
decrease in mean molar mass of mixture.

57. STATEMENT 1: Ice melts at 0C under normal conditions, it would melt at lower temperature
under higher pressure.
STATEMENT 2: Formation of ice is an exothermic process.
1. Solubility of a substance which dissolves with decrease in volume and absorption of heat will be
increased by
(a) Low temperature and high pressure (b) Low temperature and low pressure
(c) High temperature and low pressure (d) High temperature and high pressure
2. A nitrogen-hydrogen mixture initially in the molar ratio of 1:3 reached equilibrium to form
ammonia when 25% of the material had reacted. If the total pressure of the system was 21 atm,
the partial pressure of ammonia at the equilibrium was
(a) 4.5 atm (b) 3.0 atm (c) 2.0 atm (d) 1.5 atm
3. In a system A(s) 2B(g) +3C(g). if the concentration of C at equilibrium is increased by a
factor of 2, it will cause the equilibrium concentration of B to change to

(a) Two times the original value (b) One half of its original value
(c) 2 2 times its original value (d)
1
2 2
times
4. Ice(s) Water ( l ), H A =+ve. The melting of ice is favoured by
(a) Low T and Low P (b) High T and High P (c) Low T and High P (d) Low P and High T
5. For the reaction:
2 2
2 ( ) ( ) ( ) HI g H g I g + the degree of dissociation ( ) o of HI(g) is related
to equilibrium constant
P
K by the expression.
(a)
1 2
2
p
k +
(b)
1 2
2
P
K +
(c)
2
1 2
P
P
K
K +
(d)
2
1 2
P
P
K
K +

6. For
4 3 2
( ) ( ) ( ) NH HS s NH g H S g + , If
2
64
P
K atm = , equilibrium pressure of mixture is:
(a) 8 atm (b) 16 atm (c) 64 atm (d) 4 atm

7. When chemical equilibrium is attained:
(a) AG=0 and (Q) attains the maximum value
(b)
0
0 G A = and Q=K (where K is equilibrium constant)
(c) AG=0 and Q assumes minimum values
(d)
0
G A = - RT in K
8. One mole of
2 4
( ) N O g at 300 K is kept in a closed container under one atmosphere. It is heated
to 600K when 20% by mass of
2 4
( ) N O g decomposes to
2
( ) NO g . The resultant pressure is
1. For a fixed mass of a gas and at a given temperature, which of the following graphs is not
consistent with the Boyles law.

A) B)
(C) (D)

2. Two flasks X and Y of volumes 250ml and 300ml respectively at the same temperature
are connected by a stop cock of negligible volume. The flask X contains nitrogen gas at a
pressure of 660 torr and the flask Y contains neon gas at a pressure of 825torr. If the stop
cock is opened to allow the two gases to mix, the partial pressure of neon gas and total
pressure of the system will be
(A) 300 torr,700torr (B) 400 torr,700torr
(C) 450 torr,750torr (D) 300 torr,750torr

3. At temperature ,
P
T K K for the reaction of
2
CO with excess of hot graphite to form CO
is 9atm. The mole% of CO in the equilibrium mixture of gases is
(A) 14.3% (B)25% (C) 75% (D) 85.7%

4. A gas obeys the equation of state P(V-b)=RT(The parameter b is a constant). The slop for
an isochore will be:
(A) Negative (B) Zero
(C) R/(V-b) (D) R/P
47. What will be the pH of a solution formed by mixing 40 cm
3
of 0.1 M HCl with 10 cm
3
of 0.45 M
NaOH ?

a) 10 b) 8 c) 5 d) 12
48. 2.5 mL of 2/5 M weak monoacidic base
( )
12 0
1 10 25
b
K at C
= is titrated with 2/15 M HCl in

water at 25C. The concentration of H
+
ion at equivalence point is
( )
14 0 0.5
1 10 25 ,10 3.16
= =
w
K at C
a)
4
3.7 10 M
b)
3
3.2 10 M
c)
2
3.2 10 M
d)
2
2.7 10 M

49. The compound whose 0.1 M solution is basic is
( ) ( )
( ) 4
5 5
a 3 b
K CH COOH 1.7 10 .K NH OH 1.8 10

= =
a) ammonium acetate b) ammonium chloride
c) ammonium sulphate d) sodium acetate
50. Which of the following solutions will have pH close to 1.0 ?
a) 100 ml of (M/10) HCl + 100 ml of (M/10) NaOH
b) 55 ml of (M/10) HCl + 45 ml of (M/10) NaOH
c) 10 ml of (M/10) HCl + 90 ml of (M/10) NaOH
d) 75 ml of (M/10) HCl + 2.5 ml of (M/10) NaOH

51. Hydrolysis constant of two salts KA and KB of weak acids HA and HB are 10
-8
and 10
-6
. If the
dissociation constant of third acid HC is 10
-2
. The order of acidic strengths of three acids will be
a) HA >HB > HC b) HB > HA > HC
c) HC > HA > HB d) HA = HB = HC

52. The pH of 10
-10
M H
2
SO
4
will be almost
a) 6 b) 7 c) 6 d) 0

57. STATEMENT1: When CH
3
COONa is dissolved in water, the hydrolysis of
3
CH COO
ion takes
place.
STATEMENT 2:.The ion which is derived (in the salt) from weak acid, undergoes hydrolysis.
58. STATEMENT 1 : H
3
BO
3
is protic acid.
STATEMENT 2: Borax is salt of H
3
BO
3
and NaOH, its aqueous solution is alkaline in nature.
59. STATEMENT 1: Benzoic acid
5
( 6.5 10 )
a
K

= is weaker acid than acetic acid
5
( 1.74 10 )
a
K

=
STATEMENT 2: Greater is the value of K
a
, more is the acidic character.
60. STATEMENT 1: Sodium chloride (NaCl) does not undergo hydrolysis
STATEMENT 2: Salts of strong acids and bases are not hydrolysed.
1. Calculate the pH of solution made by mixing 50ml of 0.2M
4
NH Cl & 75 ml of
0.1 M
5
3
1.8 10
b
NaOH K of NH

( =

a) 4.2629 b) 9.7324 c) 8.3 d) 4.74

2. The equilibrium constant for reaction
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
7
2
3.6 10
aq l aq aq
OCl H O HOCl OH is

+ +
What is
a
K for HOCl
a)
4
6 10
b)
6
2.8 10
c)
7
3.6 10
d)
8
2.8 10

3. 2.5 ml of
2
5
M weak mono acidic base
( )
12
1 10
b
K

= is titrated with
2
15
M HCl
in water at 25
o
C. The concentration of H
+
ion at equivalence point is
( )
14
1 10
w
K

=
a)
13
3.7 10 M
b)
7
3.2 10 M
c)
2
3.2 10 M
d)
2
2.7 10 M

4. The H
+
(

in 0.2M solution of
3
6.4 10 HCOOH is

.To this solution format is
added so as to adjust the conc. of HCOONato one mole per liter. What will be
the PH of solution
( )
4
2.4 10 , 0.75
a
K for HCOOH of HCOONa o
= =
a) 10.8 b) 4.19 c) 6.25 d) 7

1. Calcium lactate is a salt of weak acid i.e. lactic acid having general formula
( )
2
Ca LaC .
Aqueous solution of salt has 0.3M concentration. POH of solution is 5.60. If 90% of the
salt is dissociated them what will be the value of Pka?
(A)
( ) 2.8 log 0.54 (B)
( ) 2.8 log 0.54 + (C)
( ) 2.8 log 0.27 + (D) none of these

2. Amount of
3
NaHCO in an antacid tablet is to be determined by dissolving the tablet in
water and titrating the resulting solution with HCl. Which indicator is most suitable in
this titration?
Acid Ka

2 3
H CO
4
2.5 10

3
HCO

8
2.4 10

(A) Methyl orange 3.7
In
PK = (B) Bromothymol blue 7
In
PK =
(C) Phenolphthalein 9.3
In
PK = (D) Alizarin yellow 12.5
In
PK =

3. 0.2g sample of benzoic acid
6 5
C H COOH is titrated with 0.12M
( )
2
Ba OH solution.
What volume of
( )
2
Ba OH solution is required to reach equivalence point? (Molar mass
of benzoic acid = 122)
(A) 6.82 ml (B) 13.6 ml (C) 17.6 ml (D) 35.2 ml

4. Ka for formic acid and acetic acids are
4 5
2.1 10 &1.1 10

respectively. The relative
strength of acids having same concentration is
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 2:3:1 (C) 1:2:1 (D) 4.36:1
47. A solution is a mixture of 0.05 M KCl and 0.05 M Nal. The concentration of
I in the solution
when AgCl just starts to precipitate is equal to :
10 2 16 2
10 ; 4 10
SP SP
K AgCl M K Agl M

= =
A)
6
4 10 M
B)
8
2 10 M
C)
7
2 10 M
D)
15
8 10 M

48. To separate and identify the ions in a mixture that may contain
2 2
, Pb Cu
+ +
and
2
Mg
+
use the
reagents
2
H S , HCl and NaOH. They should be added in the order :
A)
2
, , HCl H S NaOH B)
2
, , H S HCl NaOH C)
2
, , HCl NaOH H S D)
2
, , NaOH H S HCl
49. Slaked lime,
2
( ) Ca OH is used extensively in sewage treatment. What is the maximum pH that
can be established in
2
( ) ( ) : Ca OH aq
2
( ) ( .),
2( )
( ) 2 aq aq
S
Ca OH Ca OH
+
+
6
5.5 10
SP
K

=
A) 1.66 B) 12.35 C) 7.0 D) 14.0
50. One litre of N/2 HCl solution was heated in a beaker. When volume was reduced to 600 mL, 3.25g
of HCl was given out. The new normality of solution is :
A) 6.85 B) 0.685 C) 0.1043 D) 6.50
51. The density of liquid (mol. wt. = 70) is 1.2 g
1
mL
. If 2 mL of liquid contains 35 drops,

the number of molecules of liquid in one drop are :
A)
1.2
35
A
N B)
1
35
A
N C)
2
1.2
35
A
N D) 1.2
A
N
52. 3 g of an oxide of a metal is converted completely to 5g chloride. Equivalent weight of metal is
A) 33.25 B) 3.325 C) 12 D) 20
57. STATEMENT -1: In acidic medium
2
Zn
+
is not precipitated by
2
H S .
STATEMENT 2: Common ion effect reduces the concentration of
2
S

to a minimum level

58. STATEMENT -1: Salting out action of sodium soap in presence of NaCl is based on common
ion effect
STATEMENT -2: Salting out action of soap is based on the fact that as the concentration of
Na
+
increases, the RCOONa shows precipitation because
SP
RCOO Na K
+
( ( >

59. STATEMENT -1: One equivalent of
2 2 7
K Cr O has 1 equivalent of K, Cr and O each.
STATEMENT -2: Equivalent and milli equivalent reacts in equal number to give same eq. or
meq of product.
60. STATEMENT -1: On increasing the temperature the milli-moles of solute, milli- equivalent of
solute, molality, mole fraction of solute and % by weight does not change.
STATEMENT -2: Each of these involves only weights of solute and solvent.
1. Aspirin
COOH
3
OCOCH
, at body temperature, 37
0
C, Ka is
5
3 10
. If two aspirin
tablets, each having a mass of 325mg are dissolved in a full stomach whose volume is 1L
& whose pH is 2, what percent of a aspirin is in the form of molecules?
(a) 5% (b) 95.9% (c) 99.7% (d) 99.2%

2. If
1 2 3 4
, , & S S S S are the solubilites of AgCl in
2
H O, 0.01M
2
CaCl , in 0.01M NaCl & in
0.05M
3
AgNO respectively at certain temperature, the correct order of sdubilities is
(a)
1 2 3 4
S S S S > > > (b)
1 3 2 4
S S S S > > > (c)
1 2 3 4
S S S S > = > (d)
1 3 4 2
S S S S > > >
3. The maximum pH at which the 0.1M
( )
2
Mg OH solution does not precipitates is equal to
( Ksp of
( )
2
Mg OH =
11
1.2 10
)
(a) 11 (b) 1.96 (c) 9.04 (d) 10.04
4. A weak acid HA after treatment with 12ml of 0.1M strong base has a pH of 5. At the end
point the volume of same base required is 26.6 ml. The Ka of acid is
(a)
5
1.74 10
(b)
4
6.2 10
(c)
8
3.9 10
(d)
6
8.2 10

5. Two buffers
( ) ( ) and X Y of pH 4.0 & 6.0 respectively are prepared from adding weak
acid HA & its salt NaA. Both the buffers are 0.5M in HA. What would be the pH of the
solution obtained by mixing equal volumes of two buffers? ( KHA=
5
1 10
)
(a) 5.0 (b) 6.30 (c) 5.70 (d) 4.30
6. What is the pH of saturated solution of ( )
2
Cu OH ?
( )
19
2.6 10 KSp

=
(a) 6.1 (b) 7.3 (c) 8.42 (d) 7.90
7. What is the minimum pH required to prevent the precipitation of ZnS in a solution that is
0.01M ZnCl
2
and saturated with 1.0M H
2
S? (Given: KSp
21 20
1 2
10 , 10 Ka Ka

= = )
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4
8. An acidbase indicator has KH In
5
3 10
= .The acid form of the indicator is red & the

basic form is blue. The change in H
+
(

required to change the indicator form 75% red to
75% blue is
(a)
5
8 10 M
(b)
5
9 10 M
(c)
5
1 10 M
(d)
4
3 10 M

1. In determination of molecular weight with the help of depression in freezing point, in
which of the following aq solutions, abnormal mol. mass will deviate most from its
original mol, mass value (assume 100% dissociation in all cases)
(A) 0.1 m-NaCl (B) 0.05 mKI
(C) 0.75m-MgSO
4
(D) 0.1 m - NH
4
Cl
where h is degree of hydrolysis
2. Liquid A can give binary ideal solution S
1
and S
2
with liquid B and liquid C separately.
Molecules of liq. B and liq. C can combine to give another gaseous product BC in vapour
phase only. They do not react in liquid phase.
Now S
1
and S
2
are mixed. In vapour phase before combination of B and C, partial
pressure of A is P. After combination ________.
(A) P will remain same, because A is not taking part in combination
(B) P will decrease, because total number of moles in vapour phase will decreases
(C) P will increase because total number of moles in vapour phase will decrease
(D) P will remain same, because number of moles in vapour phase will not change.
3. Activities of components forming ideal solutions are equal to their respective
(A) number of moles (B) molar concentrations
(C) partial pressure (D) mole fractions
4. A liquid mixture is composed of 1 mole of benzene and 1 mole of toluene. If pressure
over the mixture is reduced, at what pressure does the first vapour form ?
(
0
T
P 32mm = and
0
B
P 102mm = )
(A) 67 mm (B) 134 mm
(C) 760 mm (D) process does not depend on pressure

5. Two solutions (both 5% by wt) of non-volatile solutes A and B are prepared. Molar mass
ratio M
A
: M
B
= 1 : 3. If these solutions are mixed to prepare two new solutions S
1
and S
2
,
the mixing ratio being 2 : 3 and 3 : 2 by volume for S
1
and S
2
respectively, then ratio
( )
( )
1
2
f
S
f
S
T
T
A
A
will be
(A) 7/9 (B) 7/11
(C) 5/7 (D) 9/11

6. A volatile solute AB is dissolved in water, in which mole fraction of water is 5/6. If 50%
of molecules of AB get dissociated into A and B and remaining 50% get dimerised into
(AB)
2
. Then relative lowering in vapour pressure will
(A) increase by 20%
(B) increase by 25%
(C) remain same because mass of solute is unchanged
(D) remain same because no of solute particles will not change

7. For an ideal solution, Rault's Law is obeyed exactly at
(A) fixed concentrations and at fixed temperature
(B) all concentrations and at all temperature
(C) all concentrations at fixed temperature
(D) fixed concentrations and at all temperature
8. A binary solution is prepared with 1 mole of liquid A(
0
A
P 50mm = ) and 1 mole of liq.
( )
o
B
B P 100mm = . If pressure over the mixture is reduced, then the pressure at which last
trace of liquid will disappear, will be
(A) 75 mm (B) 66.67 mm
(C) 150 mm (D) 133.33 mm
9. Available solutions are 1L of 0.1 M NaCl and 2L of 0.2 M CaCl
2
. Using only these two
solutions what maximum volume of a solution can be prepared having [Cl
] = 0.34 M
exactly. Both electrolytes are strong
(A) 2.5 L (B) 2.4 L
(C) 2.3 L (D) 2.8 L

10. Consider equimolal aqueous solutions of NaHSO
4
and NaCl with AT
b
and AT'
b
as their
respective boiling point elevations. The value of
b
m 0
b
T
Lt
T
A
' A
, will be
(A) 1 (B) 1.5
(C) 3.5 (D) 2/3
11. A solute 'S' undergoes a reversible trimerization when dissolved a certain solvent. The
boiling point elevation of its 0.1 molal solution was found to be identical to the boiling
point elevation in case of a 0.08 molal solution in the same solvent of a solute which
neither undergoes association nor dissociation. To what percent had the solute 'S'
undergone trimerization ?
(A) 30% (B) 40%
(C) 50% (D) 60%v

12. Ratio between boiling point elevations of aq. solutions of 0.1 M-NaA and 0.1 M-NaCl
100% dissociation in both cases) is 21/20. NaA is a salt of weak acid HA. Then
dissociation constant of weak acid HA will be
(A) 1.1 10
-12
(B) 8.1 10
-13

(C) 10
-11
(D) 9 10
-12

1) A sample of liquid H
2
O of mass 18.0 g is injected into an evacuated 7.6L flask maintained at 27.0
0
C. If
vapour pressure of H
2
O at 27
0
C is 24.63 mm Hg. What weight percentage of the water will be
vapourised when the system comes to equilibrium? Assume water vapour behaves as an ideal gas.
The volume occupied by the liquid water is negligible compared to the volume of the container:

A) 1% B) 10% C) 18% D) 20%

2) At 88
0
C benzene has a vapour pressure of 900 torr and toluene has a vapour pressure of 360 torr.
What is the mole fraction of benzene in the mixture with toluene that will boil at 88
0
C at 1 atm
pressure, benzene toluene form an ideal solution?

A) 0.416 B) 0.588 C) 0.688 D) 0.740

3) If P
0
and P
S
are the vapour pressures of the solvent and solution respectively, n
1
and n
2
are the mole
fractions of the solvent and solute respectively, then

A)

B)

C)

D)

4) The vapour pressure of water depends upon
A)
Surface area of container
B)
Volume of container
C)
Temperature
D)
All of the above

45. Two volatile liquids A and B form an ideal binary solution and variation of vapour
pressure versus mole fraction is described in the following diagram.
Which of the following statements regarding A, B and the solution of
A and B is incorrect?

A) Vapour pressure of A in pure state is greater than that of B in pure state at same
temperature.
B) Vapour pressure of solution at P is 480 mm of Hg.
C) Mole fraction of B at P is 0.60.
D) At point P, the mole fraction of A in the vapour phase, which is in equilibrium with the
solution, is 0.60.
46. Consider two liquids A and B having pure vapour pressure
0
A
p and
B
0
p forming an ideal
solution. The plot of
A A
1 1
v / s
X Y
( when
A
X and
A
Y are the mole fraction of A in liquid
and
vapour phase respectively) is linear with slope and intercepts respectively
A)
0 0
A B
p / p and
0 0
A B
0
B
p / p
P
B)
0 0
A B
p / p and
0 0
B A
0
B
p p
P

C)
0 0
B A
p / p and
0 0
A B
0
B
p p
P
D)
0 0
B A
p / p and
0 0
B A
0
B
p p
p

47. Identify the false statement.
A) the volume of solution cant be less than the sum of volumes of the pure solvent and
solute
used to prepare the solution (binary solution of two liquids).
B) At constant T and P,
mix
G A will be necessarily negative for the ideal solution
C) An ideal binary solution
( )
0 0
A B
p p + cant form an azeotropic mixture.
D) In binary solutions ideality is more of an exception rather than a rule.

48. Equal weights of two non-volatile non-electrolytic solids 1 and 2 were dissolved in two
different vessels A and B respectively, each containing 100 mL water, The vessels were
maintained at constant temperature as shown in the following figure. At equilibrium,
vessels A and B were found to contain 80 mL and 120 mL of water respectively. Which of
the following is true?

A) The weight of solute in vessel A is greater than the weight of solute in the vessel B
B) The weight of solute in vessel A is lesser than the weight of solute in the vessel B
C) Molecular weight of 1 > molecular weight of 2
D) Molecular weight of 1 < molecular weight of 2

49.
2 2
2 4 3 4 2 3
H PO HBO HPO H BO

+ +
The equilibrium constant for the reaction represented by the equation above is greater
than 1.0. Which of the following gives the correct relative strengths of the acids and bases
in the reaction?
Acids Bases
A)
2 2
2 4 2 3 3 4
H PO H BO and HBO HPO

> >
B)
2 2
2 3 2 4 3 4
H BO H PO and HBO HPO

> >
C)
2 2
2 4 2 4 4 3
H PO H BO and HPO HBO

> >
D)
2 2
2 3 2 4 4 3
H BO H PO and HPO HBO

> >
50. In beaker A, an ice cube of pure
2
D O is to be placed in pure liquid
2
H O. In beaker B, an
ice cube of pure
2
H O is to be placed in pure liquid
2
D O. Which of the following is the
correct statement?
A) Ice cube will sink in both the beakers A and B
B) Ice cube will float in both the beakers A and B
C) Ice cube will sink in beaker A but float over in B
D) Ice cube will sink in beaker B but float over in A

51. The correct order of bond angles is :
A)
2 2 2
NO NO NO
+
> > B)
2 2 2
NO NO NO
+
> >
C)
2 2 2
NO NO NO
+
> > D)
2 2 2
NO NO NO
+
> >
52. Nodal planes of t -bond(s) in
2 2
CH C C CH = = = are located in :
A) all are in molecular plane
B) two in molecular plane and one in a plane perpendicular to molecular plane which
contains C C o-bond
C) one in molecular plane and two in plane perpendicular to molecular plane which
contains C C o-bonds
D) two in molecular plane and one in a plane perpendicular to molecular plane which
bisects C C o-bonds at right angle

53. Among the following, the molecule with 2
nd
highest dipole moment is:
A)
3
CH Cl B)
2 2
CH Cl C)
3
CHCl D)
4
CCl

54. Assertion : Adding a non-volatile solute to a volatile solvent increases the boiling
point.
Reason : Addition of non-volatile solute results in lowering of vapour pressure.
55. Assertion : When dry air is passed continuously through an aqueous solution of a
non-volatile solute, vapour pressure of solution decreases gradually.
Reason : Some air is absorbed in the solution.

56. Assertion : Connecting a flask at vacuum to another flask containing solid
4
NH Cl (s)
in equilibrium with its dissociation products
3
NH (g) and HCl (g)
decreases the amount of solid ( )
4
NH Cl s . Both the flasks are at same
temperature.
Reason :
p
K for the decomposition process ( ) ( ) ( )
4 3
NH Cl s NH g HCl g +
decreases
in the above process.

57. Assertion : In
5
PCl , the axial P Cl bonds are stronger than the equatorial PCl
bonds.
Reason : Axial PCl bonds have greater d-character.
1) Which curve does not represent Boyles law ?

A)

B)

C)

D)

6) The apparatus shown consists of three
bulbs connected by stopcocks of
negligible volume. The temperature is
constant.

P
A
= 2.13 atm P
B
= 0.861 atm P
C
= 1.15
atm
V
A
= 1.50 L V
B
= 1.0 L V
C
= 2.0 L
When all the stopcocks are opened, the
pressure in the bulb B will be
A) 1.41atm B)
0.861
C)
1.38
D)
1.18
atm atm atm

7) Which of the assumption of the kinetic molecular theory best explains.
Dalton's law of partial pressure?

A) Gas molecules move at random with no
attractive force between them

B) the velocity of gas molecules is
proportional to the absolute
temperature

C) the amount of space, occupied by a gas
is much greater than the space,
occupied by the actual gas molecules.

D) collisions with the wall of the container
or with other molecules are elastic.

8) The ratio between the root mean square speed of H
2
at 50
K and that of O
2
at 800 K is,
A) 4 B) 2 C) 1 D)

1)
A 40ml solutions of weak base is titrated
with 0.1N solution. The of the
solution is found to be 10.04 and 9.14 after the
addition of 5ml and 20ml of the acid
respectively. The dissociation constant of the
base will be.

A)

B)

C)

D)

1) X mL of H
2
gas effuses through a pinhole in a container in 5 seconds. The time taken for
the effusion of the same
volume of the gas specified below under indentical condition is
A)
10 seconds : He
B)
20 seconds : O
2

C)
25 seconds : CO
D)
55 seconds : CO
2

2) A gaseous mixture contains 56 g of N
2
, 44 g CO
2
and 16 g of CH
4
.The total pressure of
mixture is 720 mm Hg.
The partial pressure of CH
4
is :

A) 180 mm B) 360 mm C) 540 mm D) 720 mm

3) The circulation of blood in human body supplies O
2
and releases CO
2
. The
concentration of O
2
and CO
2
is
variable but on the average, 100 mL blood contains 0.02 g of O
2
and 0.08 g of CO
2
. The
volume of O
2
and CO
2
at 1 atm and
at body temperature of 37
0
C, assuming 10 litre blood in human body, would be
A)
2 litre, 4 litre
B)
1.5 litre, 4.5 litre
C)
D)

4) If the pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessel is increased by 0.4% when heated by
1
0
C its initial
temperature must be :

A) 250 K B) 250C C) 25 K D) 25C

1) Equal weights of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty container at 25
0
C. The
fraction of the total pressure
exerted by oxygen is

A)
1/2
B)
2/3
C)
1/3
D)

2) A gas has vapour density 11.2. The volume occupied by 1 g of the gas at N.T.P. will be

A) 11.2 L B) 22.4 L C) 1 L D) Unpredictable

3) At a temperature TK, the pressure of 4.0g argon in a bulb is P. The bulb is now put in a
bath having
temperature 50K higher by T. 0.8g of argon had to be removed to maintain original
pressure. The temperature
T is equal to

A) 510 K B) 200 K C) 100 K D) 73 K

4) Use of hot air balloons in sports and meteorological observation is an application of
A)
Boyles law
B)
Charles law
C)
Kelvins law
D)
Ideal gas equation

5) A sealed container with a gas at 2.00 atm is heated from 20.0 K ot 40.0 K. The new
pressure is:

A) 0.50 atm B) 1.0 atm C) 4.00 atm D) 2.14 atm

6) Which curve does not represent Boyles law ?

A)

B)

C)

D)

7) Density of a gas is found to be 5.46 g/dm
3
at 27
0
C at 2 bar pressure. What will be its density at STP?

A) 6 g/l B) 8 g/l C) 2.75 g/l D) 1.5 g/l

8) A 10 g of a gas at atmospheric pressure is cooled from 273
0
C to 0
0
C keeping volume constant. Its
pressure would be
come

A) 1/2 atm B) 1/273 atm C) 2 atm D) 273 atm

23) The vapour pressures of two pure liquids A and B, that form an
ideal solution are 100 and 900 torr respectively at temperature
T. This liquid solution of A and B is composed of 1 mole of A and
1 mole of B. What is the vapour pressure above the liquid
mixture.

A)
800 torr
B)
500 torr
C)
300 torr
D) none of
these

24) An industrial waste water is found to contain 8.2% Na
3
PO
4
and
12% MgSO
4
by weight in solution. If % ionization of
Na
3
PO
4
and MgSO
4
are 50 and 60 respectively then its
normal boiling point is

A)

B)

C)

D) none of
these

25) 0.1 M KI and 0.2 M AgNO
3
are mixed in 3 : 1 volume ratio.
The 0.2 depression of freezing point of the resulting solution
will be

A) 3.72 K B) 1.86 K C) 0.93 K D) 0.279 K

26) If 0.1 M H
2
SO
4
(aq.) solution shows freezing point
, then what is the K
a2
for H
2
SO
4
?
(Assume m = M and
)

A)
0.122
B)
0.0122
C)

D) none of
these

27) The total vapour pressure of a 4 mole % solution of NH
3
in
water at 293 K is 50.0 torr, the vapour pressure of pure water
is 17.0 torr at this temperature. Applying Henrys and Raoults
laws, calculate the total vapour pressure for a 5 mole %
solution.

A) 58.25 torr B) 33 torr C) 42.1 torr D) 52.25 torr

47) 10 moles of an ideal gas confined to a volume of 10 lit is released
into atmosphere at 300K, Where the pressure is 1 bar. The work
done by the gas is
A) 249 L bar B) 220 L bar C) 259 L bar D) 239 L bar

48)
AH
f
0
of Benzene and cyclohexane respectively are + 49 KJ and +
156 KJ. Calculate amount of heat involved in the hydrogenation
of Benzene involving 3g of Hydrogen is

A)

B)

C)

D)

49) H A of combustion of yellow P and Red P are 11KJ and 9.78 KJ
respectively. The heat of transition of yellow P to red P is

A)

B)

C)

D)

50) For the reaction,
.Bond energy of C H bond is 20 K.cal
1
mole
greater than the

bond energy of C C l bond. Bond energies of and
H C l are same in magnitude. Then AH value for the reaction
is

A)

B)

C)

D)

51) During a reversible isothermal compression of one mole of an ideal
gas originally at 0 C , 0.525 atm and 43.2 lit, 975 J of heat was
removed. The final pressure of gas is [Antilog ( ]

52) 10 moles of Ideal gas expand isothermally and reversibly from a
pressure of 10 atm to 1 atm at 300K. What is the largest mass
which can be lifted through a height of 100 meter.
A) 31842 kg B) 58.55 kg C) 342.58 kg D) 116.11 kg

57) Statement - I : The heat absorbed during isothermal expansion of an
ideal gas against vacuum is zero.
Statement - II : There will be no work against zero external pressure.

A) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation
for
Statement 1.

B) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is NOT a correct
explanation for Statement 1.
C)
Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False.
D)
Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True.

58) Statement - I: The enthalpy of formation of is greater than that
of .
Statement-II: Enthalpy change is negative for the condensation reaction
.

for
Statement 1.

C) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False.
D) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True.

59
)
Statement - I : The internal energy of an isothermal process doesnt change.
Statement - II : The internal energy of a system depends only on pressure of the system.

for
Statement 1.

C)
D) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True.

60) Statement - I : When 1 lit of 1 M HF aqueous solution is mixed with 1 lit
of 1 M aqueous NaOH solution 68.6 KJ of heat is liberated.
Statement - II : HF is a weak acid.

for
Statement 1.

C) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False.
D)

45)
The enthalpies of combustion of Carbon and Carbon monoxide are
and
. The enthalpy of formation of CO(g) is

A)

B)

C)

D)

46)
A solution of 500 ml of 2M KOH is added to 500 ml of 2M HCl solution, the
mixture is shaken well and the rise in temperature T
1
is noted. The experiment is
repeated with 250 ml of each of 0.5M solutions of KOH and HCl and rise in
temperature T
2
is again noted. Assume that all heat is taken by the solution.
Which of the following is correct?

A) T
1
= 4T
2
B) T
1
= T
2
C) 2T
1
= T
2
D) 4T
1
= T
2

47)
Given

, The value of at 300K for
the following reaction is

A)

B)

C)

D)

48)
Given
, Then the formation
constant of is

A)

B)

C)

D)

49)
, X on heating up to 1000
0
C Y is obtained. Y on
heating with excess of HF, a final product Z is obtained. The covalency of central
atom in Z is

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 5

51) The equilibrium constant Kp for the reaction
is 1.64 x 10
-4
atm
-2
at 400
0
C and 0.144 x 10
-4

atm
-2
at 500
0
C. The mean heat of formation of NH
3
from its elements in this
temperature range [Assume AH is constant in this temperature
range][log11.39=1.0565]

A)

B)

C)

D)

52) An impure sample of NaCl weighing 2 grams was dissolved in water and excess of
AgNO
3
solution was added. The weight of precipitate formed was 0.287 grams. The
percentage purity of the sample is

A) 11.7% B) 5.85% C) 25% D) 2.85%

55)
Statement- I: On increasing the intensity of incident radiation the number of
photoelectrons ejected increases but kinetic energy remains same.
Statement-II: Higher the intensity means more the energy of radiation.

A)
Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
B) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
C)
D)

57)
Statement - I : Phenolphthalein does not give pink colour with NaHCO
3
aqueous solution.
Statement - II : Aqueous solution of NaHCO
3
is basic in nature.

A)
Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
B) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
C)
D)

1)
is a stable isotope.
13
Al
29
is expected to disintegrate by

A)
-emission
B)
-emission
C) positron emission D) proton emission

2) 23
Na is the more stable isotope of Na. Find out the process by which can undergo
radioactive decay

A)
- emission
B)
-emission
C) positron emission D) proton emission

3)
84
Po
210
decays by o particle emission to
82
Pb
206
with a half life of 138.4 days. If 1.0 g of
84
Po
210
is placed in a sealed tube, how much helium will accumulate in 69.2 days. Express
the answer in cm
3
at STP.
A) 25.21 B) 42.32 C) 37.25 D) 31.25

4)
During a negative -decay
A) An atomic orbital electron is ejected
B) An electron which is already present within the nucleus is ejected
C) A neutron in the nucleus decays emitting an electron
D) A part of the binding energy of the nucleus is converted into an electron

5) Time required to deposit one millimole of aluminium metal by the passage of 9.65 ampere
through aqueous solution of aluminium ion is
A) 30 s B) 10 s C) 30,000 s D) 10,000 s

6)
Electrolysis of a solution of ions produces . Assuming 75% current efficiency, the
current that should be employed to achieve a production rate of 1 mole per hour is nearly
A) 43.3 A B) 71.5 A C) 35.2 A D) 58.3 A

7) Same quantity of electricity is being used to liberate iodine (at anode) and a metal x (at
cathode). The mass of x deposited is 0.617g and the iodine is completely reduced by 46.3 cc
of 0.124 M sodium thiosulphate. The equivalent mass of x is nearly
A) 213.5 B) 108.2 C) 111.2 D) 310.6

8) A current of 9.65 A is drawn from a Daniel cell for exactly 1 hr. The loss in mass at anode and gain
in mass at cathode, respectively are
A) 11.43 g, 11.77 g B) 11.77 g, 11.43 g
C) 22.86 g, 23.54 g D) 23.54, 22.86 g

1) The freezing point of a solution of 0.1965 mole of KCN in 1 kg of water
is (AT
f
)
1
after adding to the solution, 0.095 mole of Hg(CN)
2
, the freezing
point is (AT
f
)
2
. Complex formation occurs according to the equation
Hg(CN)
2
(s) + mC
(in solution)
[Hg(CN)
m + 2
]
m-
. If the ratio
, Calculate the value of m.
A) 4 B) 3 C) 1 D) 2

3) A direct current of 1.25A was passed through 200 ml of 0.25M Fe
2
(SO
4
)
3
solution for a period of 1.1 hour. The
resulting solution in cathod chamber was analysed by titrating against acidic solution of 25 ml KMnO
4
was
required to reach the end point. What is the molarity of KMnO
4
solution
A) 41 M B) 4.1 M C) 0.41 M D) 2.0 M

8) Using van der Waals equation, calculate the constant a , when two mole of a gas confined in a 4L flask
exerts a pressure of 11.0 atmospheres at a temperature of 300 K. The value of b is 0.05 L

A)

B)

C)

D)

23
)
In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible when :
A) Surroundings and system change into each other
B) There is no boundary between system and surroundings
C) The surroundings are always in equilibrium with the system
D) The system changes into the surroundings spontaneously.

24) The internal energy change when a system goes from state A to B is 40 KJ/mol. If the system goes from A to
B by a reversible path and returns to state A by an irreversible path, the net change in internal energy is :
A) < 40 KJ B) zero C) 40 KJ D) > 40 KJ

25) When 1mol of gas is heated at constant volume, temperature is raised from 298K to 308K.The
energy supplied to the system during this process is 500J. Then which statement is correct ?
A)

B)

C)

D)

26) The difference between the heats of reaction at constant pressure and constant volume for the reaction
at in kJ is
A)

B)

C)

D)

27) Molar heat capacity of water in equilibrium with ice at constant pressure is
A) Zero B)

C)

D)

28) One mol of an ideal gas (C
V
= 20 J K
-1
mol
-1
) initially at STP is heated at constant volume to twice the initial
temperature. For the process, W and q will be :
A) W = 0; q = 5.46 kJ B) W = 0; q = 0
C) W = -5.46kJ ; q = 5.46 kJ D) W = 5.46 kJ; q = 5.46 kJ

29) The dissociation energy of CH
4
and C
2
H
6
are respectively 360 and 620 kcal/mol. The bond energy of C - C
bond is:
A) 260 kcal/mol B) 180 kcal/mol C) 130 kcal/mol D) 80 kcal/mol

30)
The enthalpy of Vaporization of water at 100
0
C is 40.63 KJ mol
-1
. The value of for this process would be
A) 37.53 KJ mol
-1
B) 39.08 KJ mol
-1

C) 42.19 KJ mol
-1
D) 43.73 KJ mol
-1

31) 20 mL of 0.5 M NaOH are mixed with 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl. If x kJ heat is liberated, the enthalpy of
neutralization (in kJ ) is
A) -100x B) -50x C) 100x D) 50x

32) Statement I : During compression between the same initial & final volume for an ideal gas work done on gas is
lesser for reversible process than for irreversible process.
Statement II : reversible process is more efficient than an irreversible process.

A) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true ; Statement 2 is the correct explanation for
statement 1.

B) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true ; Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for
statement 1.
C) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
D) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true

33) Statement I : A process is called adiabatic if the system does not exchange heat with the surroundings
Statement II : It does not involve increase or decrease in temperature of the system

1. A hydrogen electrode placed in a buffer solution of NaCN and HCN in the mole ratio

A) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true ; Statement 2 is the correct explanation for
statement 1.

B) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true ; Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for
statement 1.

34
)
Statement 1: Heat of neutralization of perchloric acid, , with is same as that of with .
Statement 2: Both and are strong acids.

A) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement
1.

B) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement 1.

35
)
Statement I: Enthalpy of combustion is always negative but enthalpy of oxidation (involving combination with
oxygen) may be negative or positive.
Statement II: Oxidation reaction involving combination with oxygen is always a combustion reaction.

A) If both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement-II is the correct explanation of
Statement I

B) If both Statement-I and statement II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation
of statement I.
C) If statement I is true but Statement-II is false.
D) If statement I is false and Statement II is true.

of X : Y and Y : X has an oxidation electrode potential values E
1
and E
2
volts
respectively at 25C. The pKa value of HCN is
(A)
( )
1 2
E E
0.118
+
(B)
( )
1 2
E E
0.118
+

(C)
( )
1 2
E E
0.118
(D)
( )
2 1
E E
0.118

2. The e.m.f. of the cell
Cd (s) + Hg
2+
(aq) Cd
+2
(aq) + Hg
is given by E = 0.6708 1.02 10
4
(T 25 V) where T is the temperature in C and E in
volts. The entropy change for the reaction is
(A) 19.69 J deg
1
(B) 129.3 kJ
(C) 19.69 kJ deg
1
(D) 9.85 J deg
1

3. If
2
4
MnO /Mn
E 1.51V
+
= and
2
2
MnO /Mn
E 1.23V
+
= , then
4 2
MnO / MnO
E

is
(A) +0.28 V (B) 0.28 V
(C) + 0.74 V (D) + 1.69 V

4. A graph is plotted between E
cell
of quinhydrone half cell and pH of solution. Intercept is
0.699 V. At what pH, E
cell
will become 0.492 V?
(A) 3.5 (B) 4.2
(C) 7 (D) 10

5. Calculate the cell EMF in mV for

( ) ( )
2
Pt | H 1atm | HCl 0.01M | AgCl(s) | Ag(s) at 298 K
Given :
f
G
A (AgCl) = 109.56 kJmol

1
and
f
G
A (H
+
+ Cl
)
(aq)
= 130.79 kJ mol
1

(A) 456 mV (B) 654 mV
(C) 546 mV (D) none of these

6. At what
2
3
Br
CO
(

(

does the following cell have its reaction at equilibrium?

( ) ( )
2 3 2 3
Ag(s) | Ag CO s | Na CO aq || KBr(aq) | AgBr(s) | Ag(s)
Given : K
sp
= 8 10
12
for Ag
2
CO
3
and K
sp
= 4 10
13
for AgBr
(A)
7
1 10
(B)
7
2 10

(C)
7
3 10
(D)
7
4 10

7. Calculate the EMF of the cell at 298 K
Pt | H
2
(1 atm) | NaOH (xM), NaCl (xM) | AgCl (s) | Ag (Given
Cl /AgCl/Ag
E 0.222V
= + )
(A) 1.048 V
(B) 0.04 V
(C) 0.604 V
(D) emf depends on x and cannot be determined unless value of x is given

8. Consider the cell Ag
( ) ( )
1 2
Ag x, C Ag y, C
+ +
Ag. Given that C
2
= 10C
1
and that x and
y are degrees of dissociation in AgNO
3
solution of concentrations C
1
and C
2
in the two
half cells, then log
y
x
| |
|
\ .
in terms of the emf E of the cell at 298 Kelvin will be
(A)
E
0.059
(B)
E
1
0.059
+
(C)
E
1
0.059
(D)
E
0.118

1)
A positron is emitted from . The ratio of the atomic mass and atomic number of the resulting
nuclide is

A) 22 ; 10 B) 22 ; 11 C) 23 ; 10 D) 23 ; 12

2) A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life period of 2hr emits radiation of intensity which is 64
times the permissible safe level. Minimum time after which it would be possible to work with the
source is

A) 6hr B) 12hr C) 24hr D) 48hr

3)
Mathematical representation for life i.e., when 1/4
th
reaction is over is given by :

A)

B)

C)

D)

4) Two faradays of electricity will liberate one gram atom of the metal from the aqueous solution of :

A)

B)

C)

D)

1)
7 2 2
K Cr O is one of the most widely used oxidizing reagent. The following equilibria are established
in aqueous solution of Cr (VI)
1
2 7
4 2 4 3
3.16 10
a
HCrO H O CrO H O K
+
+ + =
2
2
7 4 2 2
2 22.9
a
HCrO Cr O H O K

+ =
All other equilibria involving other chromium species should be ignored.
Evaluate the equilibrium constant for
2 2
7 2 4 2
2 2 Cr O OH CrO H O

+ +
A)
20
1.38 10
B)
16
2.323 10
C)
13
4.4 10
D) 0.436

2)
( ) ( ) ( )
5 3 2
PCl g PCl g Cl g + . If o = degree of dissociation, initial pressure and temperature
are
1 1
P and T and at equilibrium
2 2
P and T (Vconstant), then o is equal to
A)
int
. .
2 .
equilibrium initial
ial
V D V D
V D
B)
2 2 1 1
2 2
PT PT
PT

C)
1 2 2 1
2 1
T P T P
T P

D) All

5) 1L concentrated NaCl solution is electrolysed using Hg cathode. Calculate the pH of
solution after passing 0.005 F charge to this solution. Assume volume of electrolyte
remains constant during the electrolysis
A) 12.7
B) 11.7
C) 5.3
D) Will remain unchanged, i.e solution will have pH = 7

8) Oxide ions are arranged in ccp (Cubic Close Packing) in a spinel-structure. One eighth
of tetrahedral holes occupied by
2
A
+
ions and one half of the octahedral holes are
occupied by
3
B
+
. The volume unoccupied in unit cell of this spinel approximately is
A) 38% B) 46% C) 32% D) 24%

3)
( ) ( ) ( )
5 3 2 g g g
PCl PCl Cl +
The degree of dissociation of
5
PCl at one atmosphere is 0.3. The pressure at which
5
PCl is
dissociated to 50% is nearly

8. n containers having volumes v, 2v, 3v..nv containing gaseous moles n, 4n, 9n,..n
3

respectively are connected with stopcock at same temperature. If pressure of first
container is P, then the final pressure when all the stopcocks are opened is
(A)
( ) n 2n 1 P
3
+
(B)
( ) 2n 1 P
3n
+

(C)
( ) 2n 1 P
6n
+
(D)
( ) 2n 1 P
3
+

2. In 0.1 M aq. H
2
S solution K
b
for HS
is 10
9
. If [S
2
] in this solution is 10
10
, then the
dissociation constant for
2
2
H S 2H S
+
+ will be (approximately)
(A) 10
15
(B) 10
13
(C) 10
19
(D) 10
18

4. 1 mole HCOOH
Na
salt
Electrolysis

Total moles of H
2
gas produced in this entire process is
(A)
1
2
(B) 1
(C)
3
2
(D) 2
1. Three graphs are plotted between P and V for a sample of constant amount of an ideal
gas at three different temperatures 400C, 400F, 400K. Match the corresponding graph
with their corresponding temperature.

(A) a at 400K ; b at 400F ; c at 400C
(B) a at 400K ; b at 400C ; c at 400F
(C) a at 400C ; b at 400K ; c at 400F
(D) a at 400F ; b at 400K ; c at 400C

2. In a solid xy having the rock salt structure, y-atoms are in FCC. If the atoms at body
centered octahedral void and at one edge centred octahedral void is missing, then the
formula of the compound will be
(A) x
16
y
11
(B) x
3
y
4
(C) x
11
y
16
(D) x
4
y
3

3. 10 ml of 0.02 M weak monoacidic base (K
b
= 1 10
12
) is titrated with 0.02 M HCl in water
at 298 K. The concentration of H
+
at equivalence point is (K
w
= 1 10
14
at 25C)
(A) 6.18 10
3
M (B) 2.7 10
2
M
(C) 0.01 M (D) 0.1 M

1) 0.1 mol of benzene (P
o
= 100 mm Hg) and 0.1 mol of toluene (P
o
= 80 mm Hg) are mixed. To this
solution 0.1 mole of urea is added. The decrease in vapour pressure by addition of urea is
A) 60 mm Hg B) 50 mm Hg C) 40 mm Hg D) 30 mm Hg

2) Which of the following ions have highest molar ionic conductance at infinite dilution.
A) Ca
2+
B) K
+
C) Cl
-
D) H
+

4)
For a liquid, the normal boiling point is
0
173 C
,
then at 2atm pressure its boiling point
should be nearly
( )
1 1
200 / , 2 , ln 2 0.7
vap
H cal mole R cal mol K

A = = =

A)
0
73 C
B)
0
333 C
C)
0
60 C
D)
0
103 C

1) When conc. NaCl is electrolysed using mercury as cathode and graphite as anode then which of
the following is true :
A) Cl
2
is liberated at cathode B) O
2
is liberated at cathode
C) Pure Na is formed at cathode D) Na
+
is reduced at cathode

2) An element crystallizes in bcc as well as fcc having edges 300 and 400 pm respectively. The ratio
of their densities would be
A) 1.18 B) 2.28 C) 3.38 D) 4.48

3) A first order reaction is 50% complete in 200 hrs at 27
o
C & in 20 hrs at 27
o
C in presence of
catalyst. The decrease in activation energy caused by catalyst is nearly
A) 5.7 kJ B) 7.5 kJ C) 6.7 kJ D) 7.6 kJ

5)
The gaseous reaction,
( ) ( ) ( ) A g 2B g C g +
is found to be first order with respect to A. If the reaction is started with
A
P 90mmHg = , the
pressure after 10 min is found to be 180 mm Hg. The rate constant of the reaction is

A)
3 1
1.15 10 s

B)
3 1
2.30 10 s

C)
1
0.0690s

D)
3 1
4.60 10 s

1. Three graphs are plotted between P and V for a sample of constant amount of an ideal gas at
three different temperatures 400C, 400F, 400K. Match the corresponding graph with their
corresponding temperature.

(A) a at 400K ; b at 400F ; c at 400C
(B) a at 400K ; b at 400C ; c at 400F
(C) a at 400C ; b at 400K ; c at 400F
(D) a at 400F ; b at 400K ; c at 400C

2. In a solid xy having the rock salt structure, y-atoms are in FCC. If the atoms at body centered
octahedral void and at one edge centred octahedral void is missing, then the formula of the
compound will be
(A) x
16
y
11
(B) x
3
y
4
(C) x
11
y
16
(D) x
4
y
3

3. 10 ml of 0.02 M weak monoacidic base (K
b
= 1 10
12
) is titrated with 0.02 M HCl in water at 298
K. The concentration of H
+
at equivalence point is (K
w
= 1 10
14
at 25C)
(A) 6.18 10
3
M (B) 2.7 10
2
M
(C) 0.01 M (D) 0.1 M

1)
The rate constant of a first order reaction,
product, is . Its rate at (A) = 0.01
would be

A)

B)

C)

D)

2) In the presence of catalyst the activation energy of
reaction decreased by 4.606 k.cal at . The rate
of the reaction will be increased by
A) 2 times B) 10 times C) 100 times D) 1000 times

3) The activation energy of a reaction is 94.14 kJ/mole and
the value of rate constant at 313 K is .
Calculate frequency factor A.

A)
collision/sec
B)
collision/sec

C)
collision/sec
D)
collision/sec

1) The root mean square velocity of one mole of a
monoatomic gas having molar mass M is U
r.m.s.

The
relation between the average kinetic energy (E) of
the gas and U
r.m.s.
is
A)

B)

C)

D)

2) The compressibility of a gas is less than unity at
N.T.P. Therefore
A) liters B) litres C) litres D) litres

3) For a real gas obeying van der Waals equation, a graph
is plotted between PV
m
(y- axis) and P (x-axis) where V
m

is molar volume. y-intercept of the graph is

A) RT B)

C)

D) can not be determined

4) Equal weights of methane and oxygen are mixed in any
empty container at 25
0
C. The fraction of the total pressure
exerted by oxygen is
A) 1/2 B) 2/3 C) 1/3 D)

47) On electrolyzing K
2
SO
4
solution using inert electrodes, 1.68 L (STP) of gases were obtained.
How many moles of could be reduced to Mn
2 +
by the same quantity of electricity?
A) 0.10 B) 0.20 C) 0.15 D) 0.02

48) One litre of 0.1M acetic acid containing enough NaCl is electrolysed by
passing 25 milli faradays of electricity. The pH of the solution after
electrolysis is, (assume electrolysis of only aq.NaCl & pk
a
of acetic acid
= 4.74)
A) 4.26 B) 4.74 C) 4.44 D) 5.22

49) One gram of molten SnCl
2
is electrolysed for some time using inert
electrodes until 0.238g of Sn (At.wt=119)is deposited at cathode. No
substance is lost during electrolysis, the % by weight of SnCl
2

remaining is,
A) 62% B) 76% C) 24% D) 50%

50)
Specific conductance of 0.01 M KCl solution is . When
conductivity cell is filled with 0.01 M KCl the conductance observed is y
. When the same cell is filled with 0.01 M H
2
SO
4
, the observed
conductance was Z . Hence specific conductance of 0.01 M H
2
SO
4

is:
A) Xz B)

C)

D)

51)
A saturated solution of AgBr is taken. K
sp
of AgBr is . If mole
of AgNO
3
are added to 1 litre of this solution find conductivity (specific
conductance) of this solution? Given, Molar conductance of and

.
A)

B)

C)

D)

52)
Given the following molar conductivities at ; HCl,
NaC (sodium crotonate), . The
conductivity of 0.001 mol/dm
3
acid solution is . The
dissociation constant of crotonic acid is
A)

B)

C)

D)

57) STATEMENT 1: Specific conductance decreases with dilution whereas equivalent
conductance increases for strong electrolytes.
STATEMENT 2: On dilution, no. of ions per milli litre decreases but total number of
ions increases considerably.
A)
Statement1 is True, Statement2 is True; Statement2 is a correct explanation for Statement1

B) Statement1 is True, Statement2 is Tue; Statement2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement1.
C) Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is False
D) Statement - 1 is False, statement - 2 is True.

58) STATEMENT 1: During the electrolysis of water two faraday of charge will produce a
total of 33.6 litre of gases at STP at electrodes.
STATEMENT 2: In the electrolysis of H
2
O, four faraday of charge will produce one
mole of H
2
gas and 1/2 mole of O
2
gas
A) Statement1 is True, Statement2 is True; Statement2 is a correct explanation for Statement1

Statement1.

59) STATEMENT 1: Among the alkali metal salts Li salts exhibit the least electrical
conductance in aqueous solutions.
STATEMENT 2: Smaller the radius of the hydrated cation, lower is the electrical
conductance in aqueous solution.
A)
Statement1 is True, Statement2 is True; Statement2 is a correct explanation for Statement1

Statement1.
C)
Statement - 1 is True, Statement - 2 is False

60) STATEMENT 1: The equivalence conductance of HNO
2
varies linearly with square root of
molar concentrations.
STATEMENT 2: The extent of ionization increases with dilution for all weak electrolytes and
the equivalence conductance increases.
A) Statement1 is True, Statement2 is True; Statement2 is a correct explanation for Statement1

Statement1.

45) 100ml of a sample of KMnO
4
required 1amp of electricity for 1hr 20min and 25sec for
the complete reduction of Mn in acidic medium to Mn
+ 2
. The volume of 0.5M MnSO
4

required for the complete neutralization of 100ml of same sample of KMnO
4
in slightly
alkaline medium,
A) 120ml B) 100ml C) 60ml D) 30ml

46) In the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of sulphuric acid 1.4L of oxygen and 5.6L of
hydrogen at STP are liberated at anode and cathode respectively along with the
formation of perdisulphuric acid. The weight of H
2
S
2
O
8
formed will be
A) 97g B) 46g C) 19.82g D) 24.25g

47)
The molar conductance at infinite dilution of Fe
2
(SO
4
)
3
and are x and y
respectively. The equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of is
A)

B)

C)

D)

48)
Equivalence conductance of saturated solution of BaSO
4

is
and specific conductance is . Hence of is:
A)

B)

C)

D)

49)
At the EMF of the cell Pb/PbCl
2
//AgCl/Ag is 0.5V and its temperature coefficient
is . If the heat of formation of is . The heat of
formation of AgCl is,

A)

B)

C)

D)

50)
In acidic medium, MnO
2
is an oxidant as, . If
the pH of the solution is decreased by one unit, the electrode potential of the half cell
Pt: will change by
A) -0.118 V B) 0.118 V C) 0.236 V D) -0.236 V

51) Given,

The for the fuel cell reaction at 298K is,
A) -474.8JK
-1
B) -325.0JK
-1
C) 474.8JK
-1
D) 571.6JK
-1

52)
The heat of solution of anhydrous CuSO
4
is and that of is
. Calculate the heat of hydration of CuSO
4
.
A)

B)

C)

D)

53)
Given the data at
What is the value of log K
sp
for AgI?
A)

B)

C)

D)

54) Statement 1: Only coloured metal ions give borax bead test.
Statement 2: Borax on heating gives a glassy bead comprising of boric
anhydride and sodium metaborate.

A) Statement1 is True, Statement2 is True; Statement2 is a correct explanation
for Statement1

B) Statement1 is True, Statement2 is Tue; Statement2 is NOT a correct
explanation for Statement1.
C)
D)
Statement - 1 is False, statement - 2 is True.

55)
Statement 1: Decrease in freezing point ( ) of ethanoic acid is more in
benzene than in water.
Statement 2: Molecules of ethanoic acid dimerise in solvents of low
dielectric constants.

for Statement1

C)
D)

56) Statement 1: Entropy change in reversible adiabatic expansion of an ideal
gas is zero.
Statement 2: The increase in entropy due to volume increase just
compensate the decrease in entropy due to fall in temperature.

for Statement1

C)
D)

57) Statement1: Lithium is the strongest reducing agent in aqueous
solutions, yet it is the least reactive among alkali metal.
Statement2: The reducing property and reactivity both are
thermodynamically controlled.

for Statement1

C)
D)

1)
Two moles of an ideal gas ( = 3/2 ) is made to expand reversibly and adiabatically to four times
to its initial volume . The change in entropy of the system during expansion is : [R= 2 cal
, ln2=0.7]

A)
5.6 cal
B)
11.2 cal
C)
2.8 cal
D)
Zero

2)
At , gaseous dinitrogen tetra oxide is 50% dissociated. The standard free energy change
per mole of at this temperature and at 1 atm is nearly
R=8.3 JK
-1
mol
-1
, In 10= 2.3, log2=0.3, log3=0.48
A) -756 KJ mol
-1
B) -856 KJ mol
-1

C) -656 KJ mol
-1
D) None of these

3)
At, 1 atm pressure, = 75 J mol
-1
= 30 kJ mol
-1
. The temperature of the reaction at
equilibrium is :
A) 400 K B) 330 K C) 200 K D) 110 K

4) In which of the following cases entropy decreases?
A) Solid changing to liquid B) Expansion of a gas
C) Crystals dissolve D) Polymerisation

5)
A dilute aqueous solution of is electrolysed using platinum
electrodes. The product formed at the anode and cathode are
A)

B)

C)

D)

6) When electric current is passed through a cell containing the electrolyte ;
+ ve ions move towards the cathode and ions move towards anode.
If the cathode is pulled out of the solution
A)
+ ve and ions both will move towards the anode.
B)
+ ve ions will start moving towards anode and ions will stop moving
C) ions will continue moving towards the anode and + ve ions will stop moving
D)
+ ve ions and ions will start moving randomly.

7) Which one of the following statements is correct for an electrolytic cell ?
A) Electrons flow from cathode to anode through the external battery.
B) Electrons flow form cathode to anode within the electrolytic solution.

C) Migration of ions takes place along with oxidation reaction at cathode and reduction reaction at
anode.

D) Migration of ion takes place along with reduction reaction at cathode and oxidation reaction at
anode.

8) In the electrolytic cell , flow of electrons is from
A) Cathode to anode in solution
B) Cathode to anode through external supply
C) Cathode to anode through internal supply
D) Anode to cathode through internal supply

1. The enthalpy of neutralization of a weak monobasic acid in 1M solution with a strong
base is 56.1 kJ mol
1
whereas the enthalpy of ionization of the acid is 1.5 kJ mol
1
and
AH
neutralisation
of strong acid against a strong base is 57.3 kJ equiv
1
. The percent
ionization of the weak acid is
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 25 (D) 80

2. Dissociation constant K
a
value for H
3
O
+
at 298 K will be
(A) 10
14
(B) 1.8 10
16

(C) 55.5 (D) 1 10
6

Given : Ionic product of water at 298 K = 10
14
M
2
.

3. A certain mass of gas is expanded from (1L, 10 atm) to (4L, 5 atm) against a constant
external pressure of 1 atm. If initial temperature of gas is 300 K and the heat capacity of
process is 50 J / C. Then the enthalpy change during the process is (1L atm ~ 100 J )
(A) AH = 15 kJ (B) AH = 15.7 kJ
(C) AH = 14.4 kJ (D) AH = 14.7 kJ

4. If
298
G A for the reaction:
2(g)(1atm) 2(g)(1atm) 2 (g)(1atm)
2H O 2H O + is 240 kJ, what is
AG
298
for the reaction:
2 (g, 0.2atm) 2(g, 4 atm) 2(g, 0.25atm)
1
H O H O
2
+
(A) 245.7 kJ (B) 239.3 kJ
(C) 125.70 kJ (D) 245.7 kJ
1)
The heats of neutralization of four acids A, B, C and D are and kcal equiv
-
1
respectively, when they are neutralized by a common base. The acidic character obeys the order:
A) A > B > C > D B) A > D > C > B C) D > C > B > A D) D > B > C > A

2) Calculate Q and w for the isothermal reversible expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from an initial
pressure of 1.0 bar to a final pressure of 0.1 bar at a constant temperature of 273 K
A)

B)

C)

D)

3) Latent heat of vaporisation of a liquid at 500 K and 1 atm pressure is 30.0 kcal/ mol. What will be the
change in internal energy of 3 mole of liquid at same temperature?
A) 13.0 kcal B)

C) 27.0 kcal D)

4)
For the reaction at Given,
the value of
for the process is
A)

B)

C)

D)

5)
Calculate the enthalpy change when 50 mL of 0.01 M reacts with 25 mL of 0.01 M HCl.
Given that neutralization of a strong acid and a strong base is
A) 14 kcal B)

C)

D)

6)
For the reaction, bond energy of
then calculate the average bond energy of bond
using the above data.
A)

B)

C)

D)

7)
Heat of neutralization of oxalic acid is using . Hence of

A) 5.88 kJ B)

C)

D)

8)
Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of from the following data:

A)

B)

C)

D)

1)
On the basis of information available from the reaction per mole
of oxygen, the minimum emf required to carry out electrolysis of Al
2
O
3
is
A) 2.14V B) 4.28 V C) 6.42V D) 8.56 V

2)
Calculate the electrode potential at 25 C of electrode at pOH = 11 in a solution of
0.01M both in and . value for the cell is 1.33 V .

A) 0.725 V B) 0.936 V C) 0.652 V D) 0.213 V

3) In the following sequence of reactions, the standard reduction potentials in volts in acidic medium
are given
. Calculate for the
reaction,
A) 7.34 V B) 1.468 V C) 4.465 V D) 0.897 V

4) The standard EMF of the cell in which the reaction

occurs is 0.59 V at .
The equilibrium constant for the given reaction is approximately .
A)

B)

C)

D)

5) The numerical value of the useful work done during the cell reaction,
under standard conditions
A)

B)

C)

D)

6) In lead storage battery, during discharging process, which of the following is/are not the correct
statement/s ?

A)
PbO
2
gets oxidized
B)
is produced

C)
Density of solution decreases
D)
Density of solution increases

7) The emf of the cell: (ct = 1.0 M)
Calomel electrode | HCl of unknown pH | Quinhydrone electrode
is 0.25 volt at . The of the calomel electrode at is volt and of the
quinhydrone electrode is 0.699 volt. The pH of HCl solution is
A) 3.0 B) 6 C) 8 D) 7

8)
log graph is of the type as shown in figure where OA=0.34 V then
electrode potential of the half cell of will be:

A)

B) 0.34 + 0.0591 V C) 0.34 V D) 0.17 V

Multiple Correct Choice Type
5. Of the following cells the condition E
cell
=
cell
E
is met by
(A)
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2
Cu s | Cu 0.01M || Ag 0.1M | Ag s
+ +

(B)
( ) ( ) ( )
2
2
Pt H | pH 1|| Zn 0.01M | Zn s
+
=
(C)
( ) ( ) ( )
2
2
Pt H | pH 1|| Zn 1M | Zn s
+
=
(D)
( ) ( ) ( )
2
2
Pt H | H 0.01M|| Zn 0.01M | Zn s
+ +
=
6. An ideal gas is taken from the same initial pressure P
1
to the same final pressure P
2
by
three different processes. If it is known that point 1 corresponds to a reversible adiabatic
and point 2 corresponds to a single stage adiabatic then the correct statement (s) is / are

1
2 3
P
P
2

P
1

V
4

(A) Point 3 may be a two stage adiabatic
(B) The average K.E. of the gas is maximum at point 1
(C) Work done by surrounding in reaction point number 3 will be maximum
(D) If point 3 and 4 lie along an isotherm, then W
4 3
> W
4 2
> W
4 1

7. Consider the standard red Pot. Values of species values :

2
Br / Br
+1.09 V
2
2
Hg / Hg
+
+0.80V

2
Cu / Cu
+
+0.34 V H
+
/ H
2
0.00V
Sn
+2
/ Sn 0.14 V Fe
+2
/ Fe 0.41 V
Al
+3
/ Al 1.67 V
Under standard conditions the species that will oxidize iron but not mercury are
(A) H
+
(B) Sn
+2

(C) Br
2
(D) Cu
+2

8. Hydrogen peroxide can be obtained by the action of dilute acid on
(A) PbO
2
(B) NaBO
3

(C) H
2
S
2
O
8
(D) BaO
2

9. Choose the correct statement
(A)
2
N
+
is more stable than
2
N

inspite of the fact that their bond order is same
(B) When the concentration of the solution of sodium metal in liquid ammonia is
increased the paramagnetism of the solution decreases.
(C) The acidity of oxides follows the order : CO
2
< SiO
2
< N
2
O
5
< SO
3

(D) Amongst boron trihalides (BX
3
), the acidity increases as X is replaced gradually by F,
Cl, Br and I.

11) The pressure of 11 gm of a gas which is placed in a 4 litres container at
is 2 atm, then the gas would be ?

(Take R = 0.08 ltr. atm/mol K)
A) N
2
O B) O
3
C) NO
2
D) CO
2

12) For a gas having extremely low molecular weight

A)
the value of can be neglected compared with p
B) the value of Z increases with increase in p
C) the value of Z decreases with increase in p
D) none of these

7. Pick out the correct statement(s) :
A) All adiabatic changes are isoentropic.
B) The heat of a reaction depends upon the temp at which it is carried out
C) During a cyclic process, Q=0
D) EMF of a cell is an extensive property.

09. Which is/are correct for metal sulphide sols?
a) The solution particles are positively charged due to preferential adsorption of metal ions
b) The solution particles are negatively charged due to preferential adsorption of sulphide
ions
c) The cations of added electrolytes are effective in causing the coagulation of the solution
d) The solution is unstabilised due to both electric charge and hydration of the particles

10. The activity and selectivity of zeolites as catalyst is based on
a) Their pore size b) Their surface area
c) Size of their cavities on the surface d) Their amount

11. Which of the following statements is/are true?
a) In an anti-fluorite structure, anions form fcc lattice and the cations occupy all the
tetrahedral voids.
b) If the radius of cations and anions are
0
0.2A and
0
0.95A then the coordination number
of the
cations in the crystal is 4
c) A cation is transferred from a lattice site to an interstitial position in Frenkel defect.
d) Density of crystal always increases due to substitution (impurity) defect.

12. 1 mole of a non-volatile compound AB is added to 1 kg of water (
1
b f
K 0.56&K 1.86K.kg.mol
= = ). If the ratio of quantities of the compound that undergo

dissociation and dimerisation is 1 : 1, which is/are true ?
a) The R.L.V.P. of the solution is
1
2
56.55
| |
|
\ .

b) The elevation in boiling point of the solution is
0
0.7
c) The depression in freezing point of the solution is
0
2.32
d) The osmotic pressure of the solution at
0
27 Cis 49.26 atm.

13. Two different solutions of non-volatile and nonelectrolytic solutes A and B are prepared.
The molar mass ratio
A B
M : M 1: 3 = . Both are prepared a 5% solution by weight in water.
Then the correct statements is/are [assume m = M].
a) The ratio of freezing point depressions
( ) ( )
f f
T A : T B A A of the solutions is 3 : 1
b) The ratio of L.V.P. of the solutions A and B is 9 : 1
c) The two solutions prepared above are mixed together in the ratio 2 : 3 and 3 : 2 by
volume to prepare two other different solutions
1
S and
2
S respectively, the ratio of
( ) ( )
b 1 b 2
T S : T S A A is 9 : 11
d) The ratio of osmotic pressures of the two solutions ( ) ( )
1 2
S : S t t at the same
temperature is 5 : 9
9. Which of the following is(are) correct for Cs Cl type crystal:
(A) It is ideal BCC structure.
(B) Cs
+
and Cl

both ions forms a simple cubic lattice which inter penetrate each other.
(C) Cs
+
ions are at the body centre of Cl
unit cell
(D) Cl
ions are at the body centre of Cs

+
unit cell.

10. The capacity of an ion to flocculate the colloidal solution depends upon:
(A) amount of its charge (B) sign of its charge
(C) formula weight (D) charge density
9. Pick out the correct statement(s) from among the following :
A) One gram each of Radium elemental and RaSO
4
will have the same activity
B) The beta particle emitted by a radio active element is from the valence shell of the atom.
C) Nuclear isomers will have the same mass number as well as atomic number.
D) The fraction decayed during n half lives is
2 1
2
n
n

5. Pick out correct statements :
A) An aqueous solution of a weak acid on being diluted its pH decreases.
B) The conjugate acid of a weaker base is a stronger acid
C) All Arrhenius acids are Lewis acids
D) The degree of hydrolysis of a salt of a weak acid versus strong base is more if the acid
becomes weaker.
9. A 0.1M solution of
3
KNO has an osmotic pressure of 4.5atm at 27 C , then
(A) Vant Hoffs factor 1.82 i = (B) degree of ionization = 0.82
(C) It is isotonic with 0.1M urea at 27 C (D) degree of dissociation = 0.96
11.
2
6
t
is the packing fraction for structure(s)
(A) Face centred cubic (B) HCP (C) BCC (D) cubic close packing
11. Which of the following have 4 Z = (Z is rank of unit cell = No of formula units per unit cell)
(A) ZnS (B)
2
Na O (C)
2
CaF (D) NaCl

12. Lyophilic solutions have/are
(A) Surface tension is less than dispersion medium
(B) Viscosity is more than dispersion medium
(C) Surface tension and viscosity remains constant
(D) Self stabilized
5. Which of the following have the same mass?
A) 0.1 mole of
2
O gas B) 0.1 mole of
2
SO gas
C)
22
6.023 10 molecules of
2
SO gas D)
23
1.204 10 molecules of
2
O gas

6. In which of the following pairs do 1 g of each have an equal number of molecules?
A)
2
N OandCO B)
2
N and
3 2
C O C)
2
N and CO D)
2
N Oand
2
CO

7. The oxidation number of Cr is +6 in:
A)
2 4
FeCr O B)
3
KCrO Cl C)
5
CrO D) ( )
4
Cr OH

(

8. Which of the following have been arranged in order of decreasing oxidation number of
sulphur?
A)
2 2 7 2 4 6 2 2 3 8
H S O Na S O Na S O S > > > B)
2 2 2
4 3 4
SO SO SO HSO
+
> > >
C)
2 5 2 3 2 2
H SO H SO SCl H S > > > D)
2 4 2 2 2 2 8
H SO SO H S H S O > > >
9. Which among the following are autoredox reactions?
A)
4 2 4 3
P OH H PO PH

+ + B)
2 2
2 3 4
S O SO S

+
C)
2 2 2 2
H O H O O + D)
( )
3 3
2
AgCl NH Ag NH Cl ( +

9. Which of the following statements about the compound
x y
PQ formed from P & Q is/are
correct?
a) equivalent weight of
x y
PQ = equivalent weight of P + equivalent weight of Q
b) 1 mole of
x y
PQ contains y moles of P and x moles of Q
c) 1 mole of
x y
PQ contains 1 mole of P and I mole of Q
d) 1 mole of
x y
PQ contains x moles of P and y moles of Q

10.
2 2 4
H C O and
2 4
NaHC O behave as acids as well as reducing agents which are correct
statements?
a) Equivalent weight of
2 2 4
H C O and
2 4
NaHC O are equal to their molecular weights when
behaving as reducing agents
b) 100ml of 1 N solution of each is neutralised by equal volumes of 1M Ca
( )
2
OH
c) 100 ml of 1 N solution of each is neutralised by equal volumes of 1N Ca
( )
2
OH
d)
2 4
NaHC O behaves as acid salt
11)
For reaction
3 2 2
2 2 A B B A
+ + +
+ + , the value of cell potential
0
E of given redox
reaction cannot be :
2 0
3 2 0
2 A e A E x V
B e B E y V
+
+ +
+ +
+ = +

A) 2 x y B)
2
x y +
C)
x y
D)
y x

53) Identify the correct statements

A)
increases with increase in temperature

B)
decreases with increase in concentration
C) Specific conductance increases with increase in concentration
D) Specific conductance decreases with increase in temperature.

54) Which of the following concentrated aqueous solutions on electrolysis using inert electrodes
liberate oxygen at anode and hydrogen at cathode.
A) MgSO
4
B) KNO
3
C) CH
3
COONa D) AgNO
3

55) For which of the following electrolytes the equivalence conductance is same as molar
conductance?
A) BaSO
4
B) NaCl C) CaCl
2
D) CsBr
3

56) Which of the following statement is/are correct?
A)
In an electrolytic cell the anode is represented by negative sign
B)
In an electrolytic cell reduction takes place at cathode
C)
In an electrolytic cell a non spontaneous reaction takes place
D)
During electrolysis only electrolyte takes part in electrochemical reaction

11.
( )
3 4 4 2
2
2 H PO Ca OH CaHPO H O + + which are the correct statements?
a) The product in above neutralisation contains an acidic hydrogen
b) resulting mixture is neutralised by 1 mole of KOH
c) resulting mixture can also be titrated against HCl
d) 1 mole of
3 4
H PO is completely neutralised by 1.5 mole of
( )
2
Ca OH

12. Which of the following statements are wrong?
a) 1 mole of
2
( ) Ba OH will exactly neutralize 3 moles of
3 2
H PO
b) Weight fraction, vapour density and specific gravity have no units
c) 30 ml of
( )
3
3
0.8 / CH OH d g cm = is mixed with 60 ml of
2 5
C H OH
( )
3
0.92 / d g cm =
at
0
25 C to form a solution of density 0.88 g/
3
cm
d) Molarity of aqueous solution is independent of temperature
7. Which of the following each with 24 electrons can have
| |
5 1
3 4 Ar d s electronic
configuration?
A)
2
Fe
+
B) Mn
+
C) Cr D)
3 +
Co
8. s orbitals is spherically symmetrical hence it is
A) directional independent B) angular dependent
C) directional dependent D) A,C
9. On the following quantum state designations, which is/are not allowed state for an electron in an
atom?
n l m
I 3 2 -2
II 3 1 0
III 3 0 -1
IV 3 3 0
V 3 0 +1/2
A) I, II B) IV, V C) III, IV, V D) I, III

5. A gas obeys P(V-b) = RT. Which of the following are correct about this gas
A) Isochoric curves have slope =
R
V b

B) Isobaric curves have slope R/P and intercept b
C) For the gas the compressibility factor = 1
Pb
RT
+
D) The attractive forces are overcome by repulsive forces
9) Two flask A and B have equal volumes. Flask A contains hydrogen at 600 K while flask B has same
mass of CH
4
at 300 K. Then choose the correct options.
A) In flask A the molecules move faster than B
B) In flask B the molecules move faster than A
C) Flask A contains greater number of molecules than B
D) Flask B contains more molecules than A

12) Which of the following statements is/ are correct?
A) All real gases are less compressible than ideal gas at high pressures?
B) Hydrogen and helium are more compressible than ideal gas for all values of pressure.

C)
Except H
2
and He, the compressibility factor for all gases at low pressures.
D) The compressibility factor of real gases is independent of temperature.

9) Which of the following molecules have one unpaired electron in antibonding orbitals ?

A)

B)

C)

D)

10)
Which of the following masses of gas would occupy about 3 L at and 1 atmosphere? (1
mole of gas occupies 24 L at and 1 atmosphere)

A)

B)

C)

D)

11)
In the equation the value of R will not depend on
A)
the nature of the gas
B)
the temperature of the gas
C)
the pressure of the gas
D)
units of measurement

12) Which of the following do not obey Daltons law of partial pressure?
A)
and at room temperature
B)
and at room temperature
C)
and steam at room temperature
D)
and

6. A bulb A of volume V contain H
2
gas and another bulb B of same volume contain
CH
4
gas at same T exerting same pressure. Which of the following are correct
A) Both the bulbs contain equal number of moles
B) The average K.E. of molecules in both the bulbs is same
C) Bulb B weighs more than that of bulb A
D) Bulb A contain more number of molecules than that of bulb B

7. Which of the following are wrong?
A) In mixture of equal weights of O
2
and H
2
gasses, the fraction of the partial pressure
exerted by O
2
is more than that of H
2

B) At high P and low T, gases approach ideal behavior
C) When gases are collected over water, P
observed
= P
drygas
+ Aqueous tension
D) At critical state the compressibility factor for one mole of gas = 1

8. Which of the following are correct
A)
2 2 2
Ne O F SO > > > ( order of rate of diffusion at same T and P)
B)
2 4 2
1 1 1 1 g H g He g CH g O > > > (total K.E. at same T )
C) mpv average rms
u u u > >
(order of value of velocities)
D)
2 2 3 2
N O O SO > > > (order of average K.E per molecule at same T)

9. Which of the following indicate kinetic gas equation
A)
2
1
3
PV mnu = B) PV nRT = C)
2
3P du = D)
2
1
3
PV Mu =

9) 1 mole of
2
SO gas occupies 0.35 lit at 300K and 50atm. Which of the following is/are
correct.
A) The compressibility factor for
2
SO is 0.711
B) Since 1 z < , the attractive forces predominates.
C)
M
V is lesser than the volume of ideal gas
D) It is more compressible than ideal gas

10) According to kinetic theory of gases postulates which are incorrect.
A) The average KE of a gas molecule is proportional to absolute temperature.
B) There are forces of attraction among the gas molecule.
C) The actual volume of gas molecule is not negligible when compared to the empty
space between them.
D) Pressure is exerted by the gas as a result of collision of the particles with the walls of
container.

11) When the temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 27
0
C to 927
0
C then
A) The average kinetic energy per molecule gets doubled
B) The r.m.s velocity of the gas molecule gets doubled.
C) The r.m.s velocity of the gas molecule gets quadrupled.
D) The average KE per molecule gets quadrupled.

12) The correct statements are
A) If 1
PV
nRT
< , the gases show negative deviation
B) If 1
PV
nRT
> , the gases are less compressible than expected from ideal behavior.
C) Ammonia always shows positive deviation.
D) At high pressures 1
Pb
Z
RT
= +
9. For the following reactions
2 2 1
( ) 2 ( ), A B g AB g K

2 2 2
1 1
( ) ( ) ( ),
2 2
A g B g AB g K +

2 2 3
2 ( ) ( ) ( ), AB g A g B g K +

2 2 4
1 1
( ) ( ) ( ),
2 2
+ AB g A g B g K
Then which of the following relation (s) is/are correct?
(a)
1 2
1 K K = (b)
1 4
1 K K = (c)
3 2
1 K K = (d)
1 2 3 4
K K K K =
10. For the following equilibrium :
2 4 3 2
( ) 2 ( ) ( ), NH COONH s NH g CO g H ve + A = + partial
pressure of
3
NH will increase if
(a)
2 4
( ) NH COONH s is added to the system at equilibrium
(b)
3
( ) NH g is added to the system
(c)
2
( ) CO g is added to the system
(d) Temperature of the system is raised

11. The equilibrium
2 2 2 2
( ) ( ) ( ) SO Cl g SO g Cl g + is attained at
0
25 C in a closed container and
inert gas helium is introduced. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect?
(a) Concentrations of
2
SO ,
2
Cl and
2 2
SO Cl change
(b) More chlorine is formed
(c) Concentration of
2
SO is reduced
(d) More
2 2
SO Cl is formed

12. When two reactants, A and B are mixed to give products , C and D. The reaction quotient (Q) at
the initial stages of the reaction
(a) is zero (b) decreases with time
(c) increases with time (d) is independent of time

5. If temperature of a gas is raised, which of the following would be true?
(A) Fraction of the molecules possessing most probable velocity will increase
(B) Fraction of the molecules possessing most probable velocity will decrease
(C) Fraction possessing very low velocity will decrease
(D) Fraction possessing very high velocity will increase
6. Precisely 1mol of helium and 1mol of neon are placed in a container. Indicate the correct
statements about the system:
(A) Molecules of the two gases strike the wall of the container with same frequency.
(B) Molecules of helium strike the wall more frequently
(C) Molecules of helium has greater average molecular speed
(D) Helium exerts larger pressure.
7. What will be the effect of addition of catalyst at constant temperature ?
(A) The equilibrium constant will remain constant
(B) H A of the reaction will remain constant
(C)
f
k and
b
k will increase upto same extent.
(D) equilibrium composition will change.
8. Increase in the pressure for the following equilibrium:
2 2
( ) ( ) H O l H O g , result in the
(A)formation of more
2
( ) H O l (B) formation of more
2
( ) H O g
(C) increase in b.p.
2
( ) H O l (D) decrease in b.p. of
2
( ) H O l
9. What conclusion would you draw from the following graphs for an ideal gas?

(A) As the temperature is reduced, the volume as well as the pressure increase
(B) As the temperature is reduced, the volume becomes zero and the pressure reaches
infinity
(C) As the temperature is reduced, the pressure decrease
(D) A point is reached where, theoretically, the volume become zero.

53. Which of the following form conjugate acid-base pairs in the right order ?
a)
3 2
/ NH NH
b)
2
/ OH H O
c)
2
3 3
/ HCO CO

d)
2
/ H S HS

54. Which among the following statement is/are correct ?
a) pH = - log
10
(H
3
O
+
)
b) pH decreases with increase of temperature
c) pH cannot be zero, negative
d) If a solution is diluted ten times, its pH increases by 1

55. Let us consider the ionization of HCl in the aqueous solution of
CH
3
COOH + HCl
3 2
CH COOH Cl
+
+
Select the correct statement(s) among the following :
a) Cl
is the conjugate base of HCl

b) CH
3
COOH is the conjugate base of
3 2
CH COOH
+

c)
3 2
CH COOH
+
is the conjugate base of CH
3
COOH
d) Cl
is the conjugate base of CH

3
COOH

56. If equal volumes of 0.1 M HBr and 0.1 M KOH are mixed, then which of the following is/are
correct about the resulting solution ?
a)
7 1
3
[ ] 1.0 10 H O mol L
+
= b)
7 1
[ ] 1.0 10 OH mol L

=
5. Which can be act as buffer.
a)
| | | |
3 3
, CH COOH NaOH If CH COOH NaOH + >
b)
| | | |
3 3
, HCl CH COONa If CH COONa HCl + >
c)
4
NH CN
d) HCN NaCN +
6. If you have saturated solution of
2
CaF then
a)
2
sp
Ca K
+
( =

b)
2
2 Ca F
+
( ( =

c)
2
2 Ca F
+
( ( =

d)
1/ 3
2
/ 4
sp
Ca K
+
( ( =

7. If equal volumes of 0.1M HBr and 0.1 M KOH are mixed then which of the
following is /are correct about the resulting solution
a)
7
3
1 10 H O M
+
( =

b)
7
1 10 OH M

( =

c) 0.05 K M
+
( =

d) 0.1 Br M
( =

8. 2 moles of each of A and B were taken in a container and the following reaction
took place
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 2
g g g g
A B C D
+ +
. When the system attained equilibrium.

a)
| | | |
int equilibrium ial
A A > b)
| | | | A B <
c)
| | | | A B = d)
| | | | D C =
9. Equal volume of following solutions are mixed. In which case the pH of resulting
solution will be average pH value of two solutions
( )
10 5
3 3
10 , 1.8 10
a a b
K of HCN K of CH COOH K of NH

= = =
a)
( ) ( ) 2 12 HCl pH and NaOH pH = =
b)
( ) ( ) 2 4 HCl pH and pH pH = =
c)
( ) ( ) 2 12 HCN pH and NaOH pH = =
d)
( )
( )
( )
3 3
5 9
aq
CH COOH PH and NH pH = =

5. The % hydrolysis & pH of the 0.1M
4
NH Cl ( )
4
5
1.78 10
-

=

b
K NH OH are
(A) 0.01 (B) 0.0075 (C) 5.12 (D) 6.15

6. At 25
0
C, the molar solubility of
( )
2
Mg OH in pure water is
4
1.4 10
. Then its molar

solubility in a buffer medium whose pH = 12.00 & 9.00 are (Ksp of
( )
11
2
1.2 10 Mg OH

= )
(A) 0.12 (B) 0.1219 (C)
7
1.2 10
(D)
3
1.2 10

7. What will be effect of addition of a positive catalyst at constant temperature?
(A) The equilibrium constant will remain constant.
(B) H A of the reaction will remain constant.
(C) Kf & Kb will increase up to same extent
(D) Equilibrium composition will change.

8. Select the correct statements:
(A) At Boyle temperature, the effects of repulsive & attractive intermolecular forced just
offset each other.
(B) The value of compressibility actor Z for H
2
gas is greater than one at roam
temperature and pressure.
(C) At high pressures, Wander Waals constant b dominates over a
(D) For a real gas following Wander waals equation o state, the expression of critical
temperature is 8 / 27 . a Rb

9. For 0.01N solution of
3
CH COONa (Ka =
5
1.9 10
).select correct statements.

(A)
10
5.26 10
h
K

= (B)
4
2.29 10 h

=
(C) pH of solution is 8.36 (D) pH of solution is 7.46

53. Which of the following is/are correct for the saturated solution of
3 4 2
( ) Ca PO salt if its
SP
K is
33
2.05 10
:
A) Solubility of
3 4 2
( ) Ca PO is
7
1.136 10 M
B)
3 7
4
2.272 10
eq
PO M

(
=

C)
2 7
3.4 10
eq
Ca M
+
( =

D)
| |
3 4
1
eq
Ca PO =
54. When equal volumes of the following solutions are mixed, precipitation of AgCl
11
( 1.8 10 )
SP
K

= will occur only with:
A)
4
10 ( ) M Ag
+
and
4
10 ( ) M Cl

B)
5
10 ( ) M Ag
+
and
5
10 ( ) M Cl

C)
6
10 ( ) M Ag
+
and
6
10 ( ) M Cl

D)
10
10 ( ) M Ag
+
and
10
10 ( ) M Cl

55. One mole of
2
CO contains :
A)
23
6.023 10 g atom of
2
CO B)
23
12.04 10 atom of oxygen
C)
3
18.1 10 molecule of
2
CO D)
23
6.023 10 atom of carbon
56. The density of 3M solution of
2 2 3
Na S O is 1.25 g
1
mL
. Select the correct statements :

A) The % of weight of
2 2 3
Na S O is 37.92 B) The mole fraction of
2 2 3
Na S O is 0.065
C) The molality of Na
+
is 8.732 D) The molality of
2
2 3
S O

is 3.866
9. On mixing equal volumes of each of the following solutions, the precipitation of AgCl
will take place in case of (Ksp for AgCl =
10
1.8 10
)
(a)
5
3
10 M AgNO
with
4
10 M NaCl
solution
(b)
4
10 M NaCl
with
5
3
10 M AgNO
solution
(c)
3
3
10 Mg AgNO
with
8
10 M NaCl
solution
(d)
3
10 M NaCl
with
8
3
10 M AgNO
solution
10. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding titrations?
(a) In a titration of weak acid with strong base,the pH at the half equivalence point is
PKa.
(b) In the acid base titration involving strong base and weak acid, methyl red can be
used as
an indicator
(c) The ionization constants of weak diprotic acid are in the order of Ka
1
>> Ka
2
(d) At half equivalence point, it will form acid buffer (For strong base, weak acid
titration) at
its maximum capacity where [acid] = [salt]
11. Which one of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding solubility & solubility
product?
(a) Solubility product of
2
BaF will increase on dilution.
(b) Solubility of sparingly soluble salt depends upon temperature.
(c) Solubility of sparingly soluble salt decreases due to common ion effect according to
Lechatliers principle
(d) Solubility product constant does not depend on common ion effect.
12. Regarding titration of
2 3
& Na CO HCl which of the following statements ate correct.
(a) At the start of titration, hydrolysis of
2
3
CO

takes place
(b) At the first equivalent point amphiprotic anion, ( )
1 2
1
2
pH pKa pKa = +
(c) Before the first equivalent point the titrating solution act as a buffer solution of

2
3 3
& HCO CO

and between the first and second equivalent point the titrating solution
act as
a buffer solution of
2 3 3
& H CO HCO

(d) In this titration, using methyl orange indicator, the volume of the acid required at the
equivalence point is twice that of the acid required using phenolphthalein indicator
13. Vapour pressure of a solution depends on
(A) temperature (B) nature of solvent
(C) addition of non-volatile solute (D) pressure
14. Mole fraction of water in a solutions is 0.8

-1
f
K 1.86 K kg mol =

-1
b
K 0.51 K kg mol =
(A) Relative lowering in V.P. is 0.2` (B) Depression in freezing point is 25.9
(C) Elevation in b.p. is 7.08 (D) If mole fraction of water increases,
relative lowering in v.p. is less than
0.2.

15. Solution (A) is ideal and solution (B) is non-ideal with ve deviation ,which of the
following are correctly ?
(A)
mi x mix
H 0, V 0 A = A = for A
(B)
mix
S A positive for both A, B
(C)
mix
H A is positive,
mix
V A is negative for B
(D)
mix
H A is negative,
mix
V A is positive of B
16. Which of following statements are correct ?
(A) For non-ideal solution with positive deviation,
0 0
mix 1 1 2 2
P X P X P > +
(B) For non-ideal solution with negative deviation,
0 0
mix 1 1 2 2
P X P X P < +
(C) We can't determine molecular weight of a non-volatile solute by Raoult's law
(D) If 0.01 mole of HCl and 0.01 mole of CH
3
COOH are added separately in 1M-
NaOH solution, osmotic pressure will be same in both the cases.

17. Select the not correct statement
(A) The semipermeable membrane is the cause of osmotic pressure
(B) Osmosis results from decrease in entropy
(C) Osmotic pressure depends on temperature and concentration but is independent of
the nature of the membrane
(D) The passage of solvent molecules occur only in one direction through a
semipermeable membrane.
18. When more water is added to an aq. solution of NH
4
OH
(A) Dissociation constant of NH
4
OH increases
(B) degree of dissociation increases
(C) (OH
-
) concentration increases
(D) vapour pressure increases
19. The equilibrium of which of the following reaction will not be disturbed by the addition
of in ert gas at constant volume ?
(A) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 2
H g I g 2HI g + (B) ( ) ( )
2 4
N O g 2NO g
(C) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 3
CO g 2H g CH OH g + (D) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 2
C s H O g CO g H g + +
20. Which of the following graphs do not represents an exothermic reaction ?
(A)
ln K
P
1/T
(B)
ln K
P
1/T

(C)
ln K
P
1/T
(D)
ln K
P
1/T

21. Consider the equation z=
PV
RT
. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect ?
(A) When z > 1 real gases are easier to compress than the ideal gas
(B) When z = 1 real gases get compressed easily
(C) When z > 1 real gases are difficult to compress
(D) When z = 1 real gases are difficult to compress
5)
A base say B has of . If 0.02 M HCl and 0.02 M base are mixed to make 200 ml of
buffer of . Then
A)
The volume of HCl added in the solution is 61.8 ml
B)
The volume of base added in the solution is 61.8 ml
C)
The volume of HCl added in the solution is 138.2 ml
D)
The volume of base added in the solution is 138.2 ml

6) For the following balanced redox reaction, 2MnO
4
-
+ 4H
+
+ Br
2
2Mn
2 +
+ 2BrO
3
-
+ 2H
2
O If the
molecular wt. of MnO
4
-
, Br
2
be Mx, My respectively, then
A)
equivalent wt. of MnO
4
-
is Mx/5
B)
equivalent wt. of Br
2
is My/10
C)
the n-factor ratio of Mn
2 +
to BrO
3
-
is 1 : 1
D)
none of these

7) Calculate osmotic pressure of a solution obtained by mixing 100 ml of 3.4 % solution ( wt / vol) of
urea ( molecular weight 60 ) and 100 ml of 1.6 % solution ( wt / vol) of cane sugar at 20
0
C

A)
atm
B)
atm
C)
= 7.38 atm
D)
5.43 atm

8) An ideal solution is formed, when
A)
its components have the same intermolecular attractions in solution as in pure components

B)
is zero

C)
is positive

D)
is positive

9) If P
0
and P
s
are the vapour pressures of the solvent and its solution respectively and N
1
and N
2
are
the mole fractions of the solvent and solute respectively, then
A)
P
S
= P
0
N
2

B)
P
0
P
S
= P
0
N
2

C)
P
S
= P
0
N
1

D)
(P
0
- P
S
)/P
S
= N
1
/(N
1
+ N
2
)

9)
An electron revolving in a excited state of on deexcitation produced
6 spectral lines. Then the correct statements are.

A)
Energy of the orbit in which revolving is 13.6 eV

B)
It releases wave length of radiation of 911.8 when returns to ground state.

C)
Angular momentum of in that orbit.

D)
The is revolving at a distance of 1.06 from the nucleus.

5) Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A)
All real gases are less compressible than ideal gas at high pressure?
B)
Hydrogen and helium are more compressible than ideal gas for all values of pressure.

C)
Except for H
2
and He, the compressibility factor Z = for all gases at low
pressures.
D)
The compressibility factor of real gases is independent of temperature.

6) According to kinetic theory of gases:
A)
the pressure exerted by a gas is proportional to mean square velocity of the molecules

B) the pressure exerted by the gas is proportional to the root mean square velocity of the
molecules
C)
the root mean square velocity is inversely proportional to the temperature

D) the mean translational K.E. of the molecule is directly proportional to the absolute
temperature.

7) If the rms velocity of nitrogen and oxygen molecule are same at two different temperature
and same pressure then
A)
Average speed of molecules is also same
B)
Density (gm/lt.) of nitrogen and oxygen is also equal.
C)
Number of moles of each gas is also equal
D)
Most probable velocity of molecules is also equal

8) Which of the following statements are correct?
A)
It is not possible to compress a gas at temperature below T
C

B) At a temperature below T
C
, the molecules are close enough for the attractive forces to
act, and condensation occurs
C)
No condensation takes place above T
C

D) The kinetic energy of the gas molecule is higher above T
C
, so is considered as super
critical fluid.

9) If temperature of a gas is raised, which of the following would be true?
A)
Fraction of the molecules possessing most probable velocity will increase
B)
Fraction of the molecules possessing most probable velocity will decrease
C)
Fraction possessing very low velocity will decrease
D)
Fraction possessing very high velocity will increases

53) The bond energies of , H - H and N - H bonds are 945 KJ/mole, 435 KJ/mole and 390
KJ/mole respectively. Then which of the following are correct.

A) The standard enthalpy of NH
3(g)
is

B)
The heat of reaction is + 90 KJ
C) NH
3
is exothermic compound
D) for formation reaction of NH
3
,

54)
Given . Which of the following are
correct

A) The heat of combustion of graphite is
B) For this reaction H
R
> H
P

C)
The standard enthalpy of CO
2(g)
is

D)
The standard heat of formation of CO
2(g)
is

55) A sample of 0.16 g of CH
4
was subjected to combustion at 27 C in a bomb calorimeter. The
temperature of the calorimeter system was found to rise by 0.5 C . Thermal capacity of the
calorimeter system is . Which of the following are correct
A) Heat liberated in the combustion process is 8850 J
B) The heat of combustion of CH
4
at constant volume is - 885 KJ mole
-1

C) The enthalpy of combustion of CH
4
is - 885 KJ mole
-1

D) the heat of reaction at constant pressure is equal to enthalpy change

56) Which of the following are correct statements?
A) in cyclic process work done is zero

B)
If dissociation energy of
( )
4 g
CH is and that of is 2812
KJ/mole, then the value of bond energy will be .
C) C
(graphite)
is thermodynamically more stable than C
(diamond)

D)
for the reaction is negative

9) Nuclear reactions accompained with emission of neutron(s) are :

A)

B)

C)

D)

10) A radio element X has an atomic number of 100. It decays into an element Y which decays directly
into an element Z. In both processes a charged particle is emitted, which of the
following statements would be true
A) Y has an atomic number 102 B) Y has an atomic number 101
C) Z has an atomic number 100 D) Z has an atomic number 99

11) Which of the following aqueous solutions turn alkaline during electrolysis?
A) NaCl B) CuCl
2
C) CH
3
COONa D) K
2
SO
4

12) The electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuBr
2
using platinum electrode would lead to the evolving of
A) Br
2
gas at anode B) Br
2
gas at anode and O
2
gas at cathode
C) Copper(s) at cathode D) H
2
gas at cathode.

12) The rate of diffusion of gases will increase with
A) Increase in pressure B) Increase in relative molecular mass
C) Increase in temperature D) Addition of platinum as a catalyst

56)
Molal depression constant of a solvent can be calculated from
heat of fusion of solid solvent, Molar heat of fusion,
freezing point of solvent. The equation for K
f
is
A)

B)

C)

D)

9. The standard reduction potentials of some half cell reactions are given below :

2
2 2
PbO 4H 2e Pb 2H O
+ +
+ + + E 1.455V =

2
4 2
MnO 8H 5e Mn 4H O
+ +
+ + + E = 1.51 V

4 3
Ce e Ce
+ +
+ E = 1.61V

2 2 2
H O 2H 2e 2H O
+
+ + E = 1.71 V
Pick out the correct statement :
(A) Ce
+4

will oxidize Mn
+2
to
4
MnO
(B)
4
MnO
will oxidize Pb to PbO

2

(C) H
2
O
2
will oxidize Mn
+2
to
4
MnO
(D) PbO
2
will oxidize Mn
+2
to
4
MnO

10. Identify the incorrect statement (s)
(A) In the spontaneous chemical reaction of a galvanic cell, electrons flow from the
cathode to the anode.
(B) In the equation
cell RHS LHS
E E E ,

= the
RHS
E
and
LHS
E
are the standard reduction

potentials.
(C) Doubling the coefficients in a chemical reaction will square the value of K
eq
will
double AG and will double
cell
E
.
(D) Salt Bridge is essential for all types of cells.

11. Consider the cell Ag | AgBr | KBr (0.01 M) | | KCl (1M) | AgCl | Ag with EMF 0.059 V.
Conclusion inferred may be
(A) The ratio of the simultaneous solubilities of AgCl and AgBr in pure water is 1000
(B) It is concentration cell
(C) Change in concentration of KCl will not affect EMF.
(D) K
SP
(AgCl) > K
SP
(AgBr)

12. For which of these electrodes will the reduction potential vary with pH?
(A)
2
2 2
AmO / AmO
+ +
(B)
2 4
2
AmO / Am
+ +

(C)
4 2
Am / Am
+ +
(D) Fe/Fe
2
O
3
/ KOH

5) Which statements are true regarding nuclear stability?
A)
Promethium contains no stable isotopes.
B)
emits a -particle.
C)
decays by emitting positron.
D)
Astatine-213 undergoes -emission.

6) Which one of the following statements for order of reaction is/are correct?
A)
Order can be determined experimentally
B)
Order of reaction is equal to sum of the powers of concentration terms in differential rate law
C)
For a reaction, order of reaction is sum of the stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants
D)
Order of reaction can be fractional value.

7) The rate - law for the reaction , RCl + NaOH ROH + NaCl is given by:
rate = k [RCl]. The rate of this reaction
A)
is doubled by doubling the concentration of NaOH
B)
is halved by reducing the concentration of RCl by one half
C)
is increased by increasing the temperature of the reaction
D)
is unaffected by change in temperature

8) When an aqueous concentrated solution of lithium chloride is electrolysed using inert electrodes:
A)
Cl
2
is liberated at the anode
B)
Li is deposited at the cathode
C)
as the current flows, pH of the solution remains constant
D)
as the current flows, pH of the solution increases

9) Equal quantity of electricity is passed through three electrolytic cells containing aqueous solutions
of and . Regarding the electrolytic process which of the following
is/ are correct, assuming at cathode only iron is reduced.
A)
The amount of iron deposited in three cases is equal
B)
The amount of iron deposited in and is equal
C)
Same gas is evolved at anode in all three electrolytic processes
D)
Amount of iron deposited in is double to that of iron deposited in case of

8) A 150 ml mixture of CO and CO
2
is passed through a tube containing excess of red hot
charcoal. The volume become 200ml due to reaction
( ) ( ) ( )
2
2 CO g C s CO g +

A)
Mole percent of
2
CO in the original mixture is 50
B) Mole fraction of CO in the original mixture is 0.66

C)
The original mixture contains 50 ml of
2
CO
D) The original mixture contain 50 ml of CO

6) Which of the following statements is are/correct ?

A)
2
4
SO

ion possesses greater flocculation value than ( )
6
3
Fe CN

(

ions, for ferric
hydroxide sol.

B)
( )
14
3 2
O
CH CH C O Na
+

P
has higher critical micellar concentration (CMC) than
( )
3 2
10
O
CH CH C O Na
+

P

C) Peptisation works on the principle of relative adsorption of common ions from electrolyte

D) Above Kraft temperature with increase in temperature the micellar concentration
decreases

11. When a nonvolatile solute is added to a volatile solvent
(A) VP decreases
(B) Rate of evaporation is affected
(C) Rate of condensation at that instant is lowered
(D) Rate of condensation at that instant is not affected
12. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) It is not possible to compress a gas at a temperature below T
C
(Critical temperature)
(B) At a temperature below T
C
, the molecules are close enough for the attractive forces to act
and condensation occurs
(C) No condensation takes place above T
C

(D) The kinetic energy of the gas molecule is higher above T
C
and the attraction among them
decreases.
9) For the reaction between A and B, the relationship between the concentrations of A and B and
rate is given by

The reaction is
A) First order with respect to A B) Second order with respect to A
C) First order with respect to B D) Third order oveall

9) Following graph is constructed for the fixed amount of the gas

A) From 1 to 2 pressure will increase
B) From 2 to 3 pressure remains constant
C) Gas pressure at (3) is greater than the pressure at (1)
D) From 1 to 2 pressure will decrease

10) Which of the following statements is/are wrong?

A) At a given temperature the translational K.E. of one mole of every gas is same which is
equal to 3/2 RT
B) K.E. of a gas depends on its mass
C) K.E. depends on the volume
D) K.E. depends on the pressure

11) If temperature of a gas is raised, which of the following would be true?
A) Fraction of the molecules possessing most probable velocity will increase
B) Fraction of the molecules possessing most probable velocity will decrease
C) Fraction of the molecules possessing very low velocity will decrease
D) Fraction of the molecules possessing very high velocity will increase

12) Two flask A and B have equal volumes. Flask A contains hydrogen at 600 K while flask B has
same mass of CH
4
at 300 K. Then choose the correct options.
A) In flask A the molecules move faster than in B
B) In flask B the molecules move faster than in A
C) Flask A contains greater number of molecules than in B
D) Flask B contains more molecules than in A

9)
for the formation of HI(g) from its gaseous elements is -9.67 kJ/mol at 500K. when the
partial pressure of HI is 10.0 atm and that of . 0.001 atm what must be the partial pressure of
hydrogen at this temperature to reduce the magnitude of for the reaction to zero?
A)

B)

C)

D)

10) The latent heat of fusion of ice is 5.99 kJ/mole at its melting point.

A)
The S
fusion
for 900 g of ice is 299.5
B) The S
fusjon
for 900 g of ice is 1097 JK
-1

C)
The S
fusion
for freezing of liquid water is JK
- I
mol
-1

D) The H
fusion
for 900 g of ice is 299.5 kJ

11) At an anode in an electrolytic cell where electrolysis is taking place,
which of the following processes must occur ?
A) Oxidation B) Loss of electrons by anions
C) Formation of cations by anode D) Electron density is higher

12) On passing electricity through an aqueous solution of copper sulphate
using copper electrodes then
A) Copper is deposited at cathode
B) Copper is dissolved at anode

C)
is liberated at anode
D) The concentration of the solution does not change

9) Which of the following are the intensive properties?
A) Temperature B) Pressure C) Density D) Enthalpy

10) The process of evaporation of a liquid is accompained by:
A) increase in enthalpy B) Increases in kinetic energy
C) no change in kinetic energy D) increase in internal energy

11)
H
2
S(g) HS(g) + H(g), = x
1

[H
2
S(g)] = x
2
, [H(g)] = x
3

Hence (HS) is :
A) x
1
+ x
2
-x
3
B) x
3
-x
1
-x
2
C) x
1-
x
2
-x
3
D) x
3
-x
1
+ x
2

12) N
2
gas is assumed to behave ideally. A given volume of N
2
originally at 373 K and 0.1013 M Pa
pressure is adiabatically compressed due to which its temperature rises to 673 K .
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) The change in internal energy is 6235.5 J mol
-1

B) In this case the final internal pressure is equal to the external pressure
C) The final pressure of N
2
is approximately 0.39 MPa
D) The final pressure of N
2
is approximately 0.02 MPa

9)
In the above cell, the emf of cell increases with
A)
Increase in concentration of
B)
Decrease in concentration of
C)
Decrease in concentration of
D)
Increase in concentration of

10) Which of the following metal(s) is (are) not used for cathodic protection of iron?
A) Mg B) Ni C) Al D) Zn

11) A concentration cell is a galvanic cell in which

A) The electrode material and the solution are made up of same substances but solution
concentration is different
B) Electrodes are different and electrolyte concentrations are also different.
C)

D) The Nernst equation reduces to

12) A hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell involves following reaction(s):
A)

B)

C)

D)

Paragraph Type

P) When 1 gm of any of three isomeric hydrocarbons P, Q and R are burnt in excess of oxygen ,
3.138 gm of CO
2
and 1.284 gm of water are produced P, Q & R all react with HBr. P & Q form
the
same major product S, whereas R forms predominantly T. S and T both contain 58.32% Br
2

by mass.
When heated with alcoholic KOH, S gives Q as the major product and T gives R.
13) The empirical formula for P, Q & R is
A) CH
2
B) CH
3
C) C
2
H
3
D) CH

14) The molar mass of the hydrocarbon is
A) 56.1 g mol
-1
B) 137.1 g mol
-1

C) 70.2 g mol
-1
D) 84.1 g mol
-1

15) The correct statement is
A) P is propene & S is 2-bromopropane B) T is 2-bromo, 2-methyl propane
C) Q is 1, 3 buta diene D) R is 2-methyl butene.

P) The change in internal energy (U) can be brought about in two ways.(i) Either by allowing the heat
to flow into the system or out of the system. (ii) By doing work on the system or the work done by
the system. According to the First law of thermodynamics .
If the reaction is carried out in a closed container with constant volume, so then . Hence
.On the other hand, if a reaction is carried out in open vessel that keeps the pressure
constant and allow volume of the system to change freely, in such case, and .
Hence,
58) In a process a system does 140J of work on surroundings and only 40J of heat is added to the
system. The change in internal energy is

A)

B)

C)

D)

59) A system provided 50 KJ energy and work done on the system is 100J. The change in internal
energy is

A)

B)

C)

D)

60) One mole of gas occupying 3 lit volume is expanded against a constant external pressure of one
atm. to a volume of 15 lit. The work done by the system is

A)

B)

C)

D)

Paragraph

As we know there are three states of matter: solid, liquid and the gas. Only the gases
have most of the properties common. Gases have neither definite shape nor definite
volume. Gases can be compressed on applying pressure. Gases also obey various gas laws
like Boyles law, Charles law, Daltons law of partial pressure, etc. we have also derived an
ideal gas equation using these gas laws:
13) When PV is plotted against P for a fixed amount of a gas, the line obtained is
(Assume that gas behave as an ideal gas)
A) parallel to x-axis B) parallel to y-axis
C) linear with positive slope D) linear with negative slope

14)
Which of the following gas (4.4 g) at STP occupies a volume of 2.24 ?

A)

B)

C)

D)

15)
Equal masses of and are present in a container. The partial pressure due to
is?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Paragraph

Pressure of an ideal gas is obtained from kinetic gas equation. The kinetic gas equation
is : where, (molar mass)
Avogadros number
u = root mean square velocity.
Translational kinetic energy of n moles
Average translational kinetic energy per molecule =

And
16) The mass of molecule A is twice the mass of molecule B. The rms speed of A is twice the
rms speed of B. If two samples A and B contain same number of molecules, what will be
the ratio of pressures of 2 samples in 2 separate containers of equal volume?

A)

B)

C)

D)

17) Under 3 atm; 12.5 litre of a gas weigh 15 gm. What will be the average speed of gaseous
molecules?

A
)

B
)

C
)

D
)

18)
What is the rms speed of a gas molecule of mass at room temperature
according to kinetic theory of gases?

A)

B)

C) 0.70 m/sec D) 0.35 m/sec

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 13 to 15
Influence of pressure, temperature, concentration and addition of inert gas on a reversible
chemical reaction in equilibrium can be explained by formulating the expression for equilibrium
constant
c
K or
P
K for the equilibrium. On the other hand le chatelier principle can be theoretically used
to explain the effect of P,T or concentration on the physical or chemical equilibrium both.

13. For the reaction :
5 3 2
PCl PCl Cl + , increase of pressure shows.
(a) An increase in degree of dissociation and a decrease in
c
K
(b) A decrease in degree of dissociation and a decrease in
c
K
(c) An increase in degree of dissociation but
c
K remains constant
(d) A decrease in degree of dissociation but
c
K remains constant

14. For the reaction:
2 2 3
2 2 SO O SO + ; H ve A = , An increase in temperature shows :
(a) More dissociation of
3
SO and a decrease in
c
K
(b) Less dissociation of
3
SO and an increase in
c
K
(c) More dissociation of
3
SO and an increase in
c
K
(d) Less dissociation of
3
SO and a decrease in
c
K
15. For the reaction nA B C + . If degree of dissociation of A is independent of initial
concentration of A then n is.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

A given sample of
2 4
N O in a closed vessel shows 20% dissociation in
2
NO at
0
27 C and 1atm.
The sample is now heated upto
0
127 C and the analysis of mixture shows 60% dissociation at
0
127 C
16. The total pressure of equilibrium mixture in atm at
0
27 C is:

17. The molecular weight of mixture at 27C is
(a) 80.24 (b) 78.69 (c) 66.52 (d) 76.66

18. The equilibrium constant
( )
P
K for the decomposition of
2 4
N O at
0
27 C is
(a) 0.291 (b)0.166 (c) 0.523 (d) 0.251
Paragraph
Only those atoms which form four covalent bonds produce a repetitive three
dimensional structure using only covalent bonds e.g., diamond structure. The later based
on a f.c.c. lattice where lattice points are occupied by carbon atoms. Every atom in this
structure is surrounded tetrahedrally by four others. Germanium, silicon and grey tin also
crystallise in the same way as diamond.
[Given
( )
23 0 1
A
N 6 10 , sin 54 44 0.8164 = = ]
14. If edge length of the cube is
0
3.60A then radius of carbon atom is
a)
0
0.78A b)
0
0.92A c)
0
0.64A d)
0
0.35A

15. If the edge length is
0
3.60A , density of diamond is
a) 3.92g/ cc b) 2.40g/ cc c) 3.37g/ cc d) 2.58g/ cc

16. The total number of diamond unit cells in 1.2 gm of diamond sample is
a)
21
6.0 10 b)
22
6.0 10 c)
21
7.5 10 d)
22
5.0 10

Paragraph

Estimation of phenol is performed by brominating it with a mixture of KBrO
3
+ KBr. The excess reagent
is estimated by Iodometric titration. To estimate, phenol was dissolved in water and made upto 1 litre. 20
ml of this solution was treated with 40 ml of mixture of KBrO
3
+ KBr and acidified. Exces KI was
added to the reaction mixture and the liberated iodine required 15 ml of 0.1 N hypo solution (25 ml of
mixture 20 ml of hypo)
14. The weight of phenol present in 20 ml of made up solution is
(A) 0.1598 gm (B) 0.0266 gm (C) 0.0799 gm (D) 0.0533 gm
15. The equivalent weight of phenol for this reaction is
(A) 94 (B) 94/ 6 (C) 94/2 (D) 94/3

16. The weight of phenol present in 1 lit of the solution is
(A) 7.99 gm (B) 3.995 gm (C) 1.33 gm (D) 2.665 gm
Liquids P and Q form an ideal solution. The vapour pressures of pure P and Q at 60
0
C and
200 mm and 400 mm Hg, respectively. Suppose that the vapour above a solution composed of 2
moles of P in solution and 2 moles of Q in solution at 60
0
C is collected and condensed. This
condensate is then heated to 60
0
C and the vapour is again condensed to form liquid R.

17. What is the mole fraction of P in first condensate is
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 1/5

18. The composition of the second condensate R is
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/5 d) 1/6
PARAGRAPH FOR QUESTIONS NOS. 12 TO 14
The pressure of two pure liquids A and B which form an ideal solution are 400
mm Hg and 800 mm Hg respectively at a temperature T. A liquid containing 3 : 1 molar
composition of A and B present in a cylinder closed by a piston on which pressure can be
varied. The solution is slowly vapourised at temperature T by decreasing the applied
pressure starting with a pressure of 760 mm Hg. A pressure guage (in mm Hg) is
connected which gives the reading of pressure applied.

12. The reading of pressure guage at which only liquid phase exists is
a) 299 b) 399 c) 499 d) 599

13. The reading of pressure guage at bubble point is
a) 400 b) 500 c) 600 d) 800

14. The reading of pressure guage at which only vapour phase exists is
a) 525 b) 425 c) 501 d) 457.14
P)
The rate law for the decomposition of gaseous N
2
O
5
is . Reaction
mechanism has been suggested as follows (log 5 = 0.699)
N
2
O
5
(fast equilibrium)
NO
2
+ NO
3
(slow)
NO + NO
3
2NO
2
(fast)
13) Order of the reaction is
A) 0 B) -1 C) 1 D) 3/2

14)
In 20 minutes of 80% of N
2
O
5
is decomposed. Rate constant is:
A) 0.08 B) 0.05 C) 0.12 D) 0.2

15) At the equilibrium state N
2
O
5
, NO
2
and NO
3
concentrations are 0.2, 0.4 and 0.4 M respectively. k
1

is
A) 0.1 B) 0.2 C) 1 D) 2

PARAGRAPH FOR QUESTIONS NOS. 15 TO 17

A solution containing 0.1 mole of naphthalene and 0.9 mole of benzene is cooled out until
some benzene freezes out. The solution is then decanted from the solid and warmed to 353 K
where its vapour pressure was found to be 670 torr. The freezing and normal boiling points of
benzene are 278.5 K and 353 K respectively
f
H A =
1
10.67kJ mol

15. The value of
0
P
P
A
at 353 K is
a) 0.8 b) 0.2 c) 0.12 d) 0.22

16. When 0.2 moles of naphthalene and 0.8 moles of benzene are taken then the lowering in
freezing point would be
a) 20 b) 25 c) 10 d) 15
17. The amount of solidified benzene is
a) 0.13 g b) 1.31 g c) 13.1 g d) 131 g

Arrhenius concept successfully explains acid base neutralization. It is the only concept which suggests
that base is OH
donor. In aqueous solution OH
of base combines with H

+
given by acid as per the
reaction
H
+
+ OH
H
2
O
Thermodynamics says that it is an exothermic reaction and heat change observed is termed as enthalpy of
neutralization. It is defined as the enthalpy change, which takes place during the neutralization of one
gram equivalent of an acid by a base in solution.
As strong acid and strong base are almost completely ionised in water, the enthalpy of neutralization of
strong acid and strong base is constant and given as
NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq) NaCl (aq) + H
2
O : AH = 13.7 kcal at 298 K
If any one of the acid or base is weaker then the released heat becomes lower than those cases where both
acid and base are strong. Actually evolved heat is same but a part of it utilized in the dissociation of
weaker one.

12. The enthalpy of neutralization of aqueous NH
4
OH against aqueous HCl is approximately
(A) 27.4 kcal (B) 13.7 kcal
(C) more than 13.7 kcal (D) 11.8 kcal
13. The enthalpy of neutralization of aqueous HF and aqueous NaOH is given as NaOH (aq) + HF
(aq) NaF (aq) + H
2
O AH = - 14.8 kcal
this behavior of solution can be explained by the fact that
(A) NaOH increases ionization of HF which is a weak acid
(B) weak acid HF on ionization releases heat
(C) weak acid HF liberates heat of neutralization with NaOH
(D) F
, being small in size undergoes hydration

14. The enthalpy of neutralization of 1 mole sulphuric acid with aqueous KOH solution becomes:
(A) 13.7 kcal (B) 27.4 kcal
(C) 6.85 kcal (D) 1.37 kcal
Paragraph
I : For the cell :
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2
, ,1 atm / 1 // / ; p H g HCl M AgCl S Ag S
t
,
The standard potential at 15
0
C is 0.23V and it is 0.21V at 35
0
C
Given
0
,
0.80
Ag Ag
E V
+
=
Answer the following :
13.
0
S A of the cell reaction in J/K
A) 193 B) 96.5 C) + 48.5 D) + 96.5
14.
0
H A of the cell reaction in kJ/mol
A) 99.8 B) +99.8 C) 49.9 D) +49.9
15.
sp
logK of AgCl :
A) 12.82 B) 10.68 C) +9.81 D) 9.81
Paragraph
A solution containing 0.1 mol naphthalene and 0.9 mol benzene is cooled out until some
benzene freezes out. The solution is then decanted from the solid and warmed to 353K where
its vapour pressure was found to be 670 torr. The freezing and normal boiling points of benzene
are 278.5K and 353K respectively. 10.67 /
f
H kJ mol A =
12. Amount of solidified benzene nearly is
(A) 1.3 gm (B) 1318 gm (C) 138 gm (D) 13 gm
13. The value of
0
P
P
A
=
(A) 0.88 (B) 0.28 (C) 0.12 (D) 0.22
Paragraph1
Comprehension : Read the following passage and answer the questions based on it. In a
reaction formation of maximum number of moles of any of the products depends upon the
reagent which has minimum number of moles among the reactants. This reagent, having
minimum number of moles is called 'Limiting Reagent', which is identified by considering
number of moles of all reactants together with stoichiometry (balanced) of the reaction.
58. 14 g N
2
and 6.023x 10
23
molecules of H
2
react to form x moles of NH
3
at certain temperature and
pressure. The value of x is:
A) 1/2 mole B) 0.5 mole C) 2/3 mole D) 1 mole
59. If 0.30 mol Zn is added to HCl containing 0.52 mol HCl. How many moles of H
2
are produced
according to the equation
Zn + 2HCl ZnCl
2
+ H
2
Zn + 2HCl ZnCl
2
+ H
2

A) 0.30 mol B) 0.26 mol C) 0.52 mol D) 0.60 mol
60. 3.01lx l0
23
atoms of Zn, 28g Fe and 6.023x l0
23
atoms of sulphur were allowed to react in a
container to form Zn(Fe
2
S)
2
compound. Which of following statements is correct?
A) 0.5 mole Zn(Fe
2
S)
2
is formed
B) 0.25 mole Zn remains unused
C) 0.125 mole Zn(Fe
2
S)
2
is formed
D) 0.75 mole S was consumed

Paragraph-II
Werner Heisenberg considered the limits of how precisely we can measure the properties of an
electron or other microscopic particle. He determined that there is a fundamental limit to how
closely we can measure both position and momentum. The more accurately we measure the
momentum of a particle, the less accurately we can determine its position. The converse is also true.
This is summed up in what we now call the Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
The equation is x . (mv) h/4
The uncertainty in the position or in the momentum of a macroscopic object like a baseball is
too small to observe. However, the mass of microscopic object such as an electron is small enough
for the uncertainty to be relatively large and significant.
61. If the uncertainties in position and momentum are equal, the uncertainty in the velocity is :
A) h / B) h / 2 C) 1/2m h / D) 1/4m h /
62. If the uncertainty in velocity and position is same, then the uncertainty in momentum will be :
A) hm/ 4t B) m h / 4 C) h / 4m D) 1/ m h / 4
63. The police are monitoring an automobile of mass 2 tons speeding along highway. They are
certain about location of the vehicle only to within 1m. What is the minimum uncertainty in the
speed of vehicle?
A) 1.3x10
-38
m/s B) 2.6x10
-38
m/s C) 1.3x10
-33
m/s D) 1.3x10
-31
m/s
Paragraph1
An orbital is designated by certain values of first three quantum numbers (n, 1 and m) n, l and
m denotes size, shape and orbital. The possible values of n are 1, 2, 3 . and that of l are 0
to n-1 and m are - l to +l . Spin motion of electrons is characterized by spin quantum number(s)
1
2
s = + and
1
2
s = respectively.
36. What is the total spin angular momentum of nitrogen atom?
a) zero b)
3
4 2
h | |
|
t
\ .
c)
15
4 2
h | |
|
t
\ .
d)
1
2 2
h | |
|
t
\ .

37. Which of the following represents the correct set of the four quantum numbers of 4d- electron ?
a)
1
2, 3, 2,
2
+ b) 4,2,+1,0 c) 4,3,-2,
1
2
+ d) 4,2,+1,
1
2

38. An orbital has n=5 and its l value is the maximum possible. The orbital angular momentum of
the electron in this orbital will be
a) 2
2
h
t
b) 6
2
h
t
c) 12
2
h
t
d) 20
2
h
t


Paragraph 2
39. Which in each pair is most stable ion Cu
+
or
2
Cu
+
and
2
Fe
+
or
3
Fe
+
?
a)
3
, Cu Fe
+ +
b)
2 3
, Cu Fe
+ +
c)
2 2
, Cu Fe
+ +
d)
2
, Cu Fe
+ +
?
40. The total magnetic moment of
2
Ni
+
ion is
a) 6BM b) 8 BM c) 15 BM d) 12 BM
41. The possible number of spectral lines when an electron can jump from 5
th
shell to 2
nd
shell is
a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6
Paragraph1
de Broglie proposed dual nature for electron by putting his famous equation
h
mu
= . Later on
Heisenburg proposed uncertainty principle .
2 2
h
p x
| |
A A > =
|
t
\ .
. On the eontrary particle nature
of electron was established on the basis of photoelectric effect. When a photon strikes the metal
surface, it gives up its energy to the electron. Part of this energy (say W) is used by the electrons
to escape from the metal and the remaining imparts the kinetic energy
2
1
2
mu
| |
|
\ .
to the
photoelectron. The potential applied on the surface to reduce the velocity of photoelectron to
zero is known as stopping potential
36. The wavelength of helium atom whose speed is equal to its rms speed at 27
0
C
(rms.speed=1367.8 m/sec)
a)
11
7.29 10 m
b)
11
4.28 10 m
c)
11
5.31 10 m
d)
11
6.28 10 m

37. With what potential should a beam of electron be accelerated so that its wavelength becomes
equal to 1.54A
0

a) 63.3 V b) 6.33 V c) 633 V d) none of these
38. The element most commonly used in photoelectric cell is
a) Na b) Ba c) Cs d) Ni
Paragraph 2
According to de Broglie, every object should exhibit dual behavior. According to de-Broglie theory
h
mv
= Where =wavelength , h = planks constant , m=mass of particle, v = velocity of particle
39. The number of waves made by Bohr electron in one complete revolution in an orbit of H-atom in
which maximum value of l = 3
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 1
40. With what velocity must an electron travel so that its momentum is equal to that of photon of
wavelength 520 nm
a) 1400 m/sec b) 800 m/sec c) 2400 m/sec d) 3200 m/sec
41. Wavelength associated by the electron in second Bohr orbit of H-atom is x. The wavelength
associated by electron in 3
rd
orbit of He
+
ion
a)
3
4
x
b)
3
8
x
c)
4
8
x
d)
8
3
x

Passage-I
Equivalent weight =
/ Molecular weight Atomic weight
n factor
n factor is very important in redox as
well as non
redox reactions. With the help of n factor we can predicts the molar ratio of the reactant
species taking
part in reactions. The reciprocal of n factors ratio of the reactants is the molar ratio of the
reactants.
In general n-factor of acid/base is number of moles of / H OH
+
furnished per mole of acid/base.
n-factor
of a reactant is number of moles of electrons lost or gained per mole of reactant.

13. When potassium permanganate is titrated ferrous ammonium sulphate in acidic medium,
the equivalent weight of potassium permanganate is
a)
3
molecular weight
b)
5
molecular weight
c)
2
molecular weight
d)
10
molecular weight

14. Hydrazine reacts with
3
KIO in presence of HCl as
2 4 3 2 2
2 3 N H IO H Cl ICl N H O
+
+ + + + + The equivalent masses of
2 4
N H and
3
IO

respectively
a) 16 and 43.75 b) 8 and 87.5 c) 8 and 43.75 d) 32 and 175

15. In the following reaction,
3 2
2 3 3 2 4 4
As S H NO NO H O AsO SO
+
+ + + + + , equivalent
weight of
2 3
As S is related to its molecular weight by
a) M/2 b) M/4 c) M/24 d) M/28

Passage-II
The concentration of solutions can be expressed in number of ways such that normality,
molarity,
molality, mole fractions, strength, % by weight(w/w), % by volume (w/v; v/v) The molarity of
ionic
compound is usually expressed as formality because we use formula weight of ionic compound.
Increase in
temperature does not change molality, mole fraction and % by weight terms.

16. The normality of 0.3 M
3 3
H BO is
a) 0.9 N b) 0.15 N c) 0.6 N d) 0.3 N

17. Weight of
2
BaCl needed to make 250 ml of a solution having same concentration of Cl

as the one containing 3.78 g of NaCl per 100 ml is
a) 8.40 g b) 16.80 g c) 25.20 g d) 4.20 g

18. 1.24 g of
4
. CuSO x
2
H Owas dissolved in water and
2
H S was passed into it till CuS was
completely precipitated. The
2 4
H SO produced in the filtrate required 10 ml of 1 N NaOH
solution. The x value in
4 2
CuSO xH O is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) 10
Passage II
The branch of chemistry which deals with measurement of changes in the volumes of gases
during chemical reactions is known as eudiometry. The device used is known as eudiometer. Eudiometer
is a graduated glass tube sealed at one end and inverted in mercury. Wires passing into the tube allow
the gas mixture to be sparked to initiate the reaction between gases in the tube.
25 cc of a mixture of hydrogen, methane and carbondioxide were exploded with 25 cc of
oxygen and total volume decreased to 17.5 cc. On treatment with potash solution, the volume further
decreased to 7.5 cc.

64 Volume of hydrogen in the mixture is
A) 20 cc B) 15 cc C) 5 cc D) 10 cc

65 Volume of methane in the mixture is
A) 20 cc B) 10 cc C) 5 cc D) 10.5 cc

66 Total volume of carbondioxide absorbed by potash solution is
A) 5cc B) 10 cc C) 15 cc D) 20 cc
Passage I :
Density of gas inversely proportional to absolute temperature and directly proportional to
pressure constant
P dT
d
T P
=
1 1 2 2
1 2
d T d T
P P
=
Density at a particular temperature and pressure can be calculated by using ideal gas equation

mass
molar mass (M)
PV nRT PV RT = =

mass
volume
P M RT = P M d RT =

PM
d
RT
=

36. Which of the following has maximum density?
A)
2
O at
0
25 C and 1 atm B)
2
O at
0
0 C and 2atm
C)
2
O at
0
273 C and 1atm D)
2
O at
0
0 C and 1atm

37. The density of
2
CO at 1 atm and 273K is
A)
1
1.96 g L
B)
1
2.12 g L
C)
1
1.09 g L
D)
1
2.02 g L

38. The density of gas is
1
3.8g L
at STP. The density at

0
27 C and 700 mm Hg pressure will be
A)
1
3.185 g L
B)
1
3.185 g ml
C)
1
3.185Kg L
D)
1
3.185Kg ml

Passage II:

Grahms Law of Diffusion: The phenomenon of spontaneous intermixing of gases against the law
of gravitation is known as diffusion. If diffusion occurs through small orifice of the container, then
it is known as effusion.
The rate of effusion is defined as
2
PA
RTM
t
=
Where P is partial pressure of the gas, A is the area of cross-section of the orifice of the
container, M is the molar mass of the gas.
Rate of diffusion
Vol.effused Moles effused Pressure drop distance travelled
Time Time time t
= = = =

39. 1 mole of gas A and 4 moles of gas
2
O is taken inside the vessel, which effuse through the small
orifice of the vessel at the same temperature, then which is the correct % of effused volume of
gas A and
2
O initially respectively? (Assume that the gas A does not react with
2
O gas and molar
mass of gas A is 2g)
A) 50%, 50% B) 60%, 40% C) 30%, 70% D) 10%, 90%

40. 1 mole of gas X and 2 moles of gas Y enters from the end P and Q of the cylinder
respectively. The cylinder has the same area of cross-section through out.

The length of the cylinder is 150cms. The gas X intermixes with gas Y at the point A. If the
molecular weight of the gases X and Y is 20 and 80 respectively, then what will distance of point A
from Q?
A) 75cms B) 50cms C) 100cms D) 90cms

41. The density of the gaseous mixture in a vessel (
4
CH and He ) at 2 atmosphere pressure and
300K is 0.9756 g/litre. If a small pin-hole is made on the wall of the vessel, through which gas
effuse, then which of the following is the correct composition of the gasses
4
CH and He effusing
out initially?
A) 1 : 1 B) 2 : 1 C) 3 : 1 D) 1 : 4

Passage -1

The gas molecules randomly move in all directions and collide with each other and with
the wall of the container. It is difficult to determine the speed of individual molecule but
it has become possible to work out distribution of molecules among different molecular
speeds. This is known as Maxwell Boltzmann distribution. Three types of molecular
velocities namely most probable velocity, average velocity and rms velocity are defined
for gas molecules.

13) The ratio of MPV, average and rms velocity of gas molecules is
A) 1: 2 : 3 B) 1:1.128:1.224 C) 1: 3 : 2 D)
1: 3 : 8/ t

14) In the following graph of Maxwell Boltzmann distribution of molecular velocities which
of the following is the correct order of temperature?

A)
1 2 3
T T T < < B)
1 2 3
T T T > > C)
1 2 3
T T T = = D)
1 2 3
T T T > <

1
T
2
T
3
T
n
n
A
velocity
15) In the above graph, the velocity corresponding to the peak of the curve is calculated using
the formula
A)
3RT
M
B)
8RT
M t
C)
RT
M
D)
2RT
M

Passage-II
The root mean square velocity of an ideal gas is given by
3
rms
RT
u
M
= . Thus the rms
velocity is proportional to T and inversely proportional to M . The average kinetic
energy of a gas molecule is proportional to T. Gas constant for 1 molecule is known as
Boltzmann constant.
16) The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule at 27
0
C in S.I units is
A) 3741.3 B)
21
6.21 10
C)
23
6.21 10
D)
16
6.21 10

17) The ratio of the kinetic energy of 4g of hydrogen and 4g of oxygen gasses at 400 K is
A) 1:1 B) 2:1 C) 8:1 D) 16:1

18) At 27
0
C the rms velocity of a gas of molecular weight 83.14 is
A)
4
3 10 / sec cm B)
4
1.58 10 / sec cm C)
8
6 10 / sec cm D)
4
8.31 10 / sec cm
Paragraph1
For a chemical reversible reaction aA + bB mC + nD, the G A for the reaction
is expressed as
0
G G RT ln Q A = A + . When the reaction attains equilibrium 0 G A =

0
G RT ln Q A =

0
2.303 log ; G RT Q A = where Q = K at equilibrium

0
2.303 log G RT K A =

58. K
p
for a reaction x
2
+ 3y
2
2c is
4
2 10
at 336C. Hence the value of

0
G A for the
reaction is
(A) 3416.5 kJ (B) 34.66 kJ
(C) 11500 kJ (D) 43.11 kJ

59. For a reaction x
2
(g) + y
2
(g) 2xy (g)
(A) K
p
= K
c
and
0 0
p c G G A = A (B) K
p
= K
c
and
0 0
p c G G A = A
(C) K
p
= K
c
and
0 0
p c G G A = A (D) K
p
= K
c
and
0 0
p c G G A = A

60. Forward reaction is feasible when
(A)
0
0 1 G or K A < > (B)
0
0 1 G or K A > >
(C)
0
0 1 G or K A = = (D)
0
0 1 G or K A < <

Paragraph-II
It is known that equation of state PV = nRT derived from postulates of kinetic theory of
gases, is valid only for ideal gas. Real gases tend to obey this equation only under conditions of
low pressure and high temperature. At higher pressure and lower temperature greater would be
deviation from ideal behaviour.
Compressibility factor,
PV
z
nRT
=
For ideal gas z = 1 and for real gas z > 1 or z < 1

Based on the informations provided in the graph, answer the following questions:
61. The correct order for a of gases given is
(A) CO > H
2
> CH
4
> NH
3
> He (B) NH
3
> CH
4
> CO > He > H
2

(C) H
2
> He > CO > CH
4
> NH
3
(D) NH
3
> CO > CH
4
> He > H
2

62. For NH
3
(g), Z < 1, so volume occupied by 1 mole of NH
3
at STP is
(A) = 22.4 lts (B) > 22.4 lts
(C) < 22.4 lts (D) = 0
63. In which of the following gases repulsive forces are dominating between molecules ?
(A) NH
3
(B) CO
(C) CH
4
(D) H
2


. The concentration of hydrogen ion is a measure of acidity or alkalinity of a solution.
For mono basic acids :
3 3
CH COOH CH COO H
+
+

a
K
C
o = where K
a
= Dissociation constant of acid, C = molarity of acid
[ ] , [ ] , [ ]
a
a
K
H C H H CK o
o
+ + +
= = = pH of a weak acid can be calculated using [H
+
] by any
of above methods.

1 2
1 2
[ ]
+
= +
Total a a
H C K C K (where two weak acids are mixed)
[H
+
] of polyprotic acid (weak, H
3
A) (has dissociation consultants
1 2 3
);
a a a
K K K >> >> will be
contributed by first dissociation at the most.
61. What will be the value of [H
+
] of 10
-6
M CH
3
COOH ? K
a
=
5
1.8 10

a)
6
4.24 10 M
b)
6
10 M
c)
7
9.5 10 M
d)
8
10 M

62. The following constant for this reaction is approximately
3
10

2 2
4 3 2 4 3
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) HPO aq HCO aq H PO aq CO aq

+ +
Whis is strongest conjugate base in this reaction ?
a)
2
4
( ) HPO aq
b)
3
( ) HCO aq

c)
2 4
( ) H PO aq
d)
2
3
( ) CO aq

63. The pH of 0.01 M HCOOH
4
( 1.4 10 )
a
K

= will be
a) 2.926 b) 3.296 c) 4.962 d) 5.92


Weak acids and bases are not completely ionized when dissolved in polar medium like water.
HA H A
+
+
t
0
c 0 0
t
eq
c co co co

2
2
1
a
c
K c
o
o
o
= =

a
K
c
o =

1 1
2
2
a
a
K
K
o
o
= (for two acids at same concentration)

1 2
2 1
c
c
o
o
= (for same acid at different concentration)
64.
1
o and
2
o are in the ratio 1 : 2 at same concentration.
4
1
2 10 ,
a
K

= what will be
2
a
K ?
a)
4
8 10
b)
4
2 10
c)
4
4 10
d)
4
1 10

65. The correct increasing order for strength of following bases is
a)
3 3
, , Cl CH COO NH

b)
3 3
, , CH COO NH Cl

c)
3 3
, , CH COO Cl NH

d)
3 3
, , NH CH COO Cl

66. Relative strength of two weak monoprotic acids may be given as
a)
1
2
[ ]
[ ]
H
H
+
+
b)
1
2
o
o
c)
1
2
a
a
K
K
d) all of these
Acid rain takes place due to combination of acidic oxides with water. In atmosphere,
sulphur dioxide and nitrogen monoxide are oxidized to sulphur trioxide and nitrogen
dioxide respectively, which react with water to give sulphuric and nitric acid. The
resultant solution so called is acid rain. Sulphur dioxide dissolves in water to form
diprotic acid in aqueous solution.

1
2
2 2 3
( ) ( ) ; 10
a
SO g H O l HSO H K M
+
+ + =

2
2 7
3 3
; 10
a
HSO SO H K M
+
+ =
And for equilibrium,

1 2
2 9
2 2 3
( ) ( ) 2 ( ); 10
a a a
SO aq H O l SO H aq K K K
+
+ + = = at 300 K at 27C

67. If [H
+
] is increased in an aqueous solution containing
2
3
SO

ion, the ion mainly existing in
solution is
a)
4
HSO

b)
2
3
SO

c) SO
2
d)
3
HSO

68. The pH of 0.01 M aqueous solution of sodium sulphite will be
a) 8.5 b) 9 c) 4.5 d) 9.5

69. The dominant equilibrium in an aqueous solution of sodium hydrogen sulphite is

2
3 2 3 2
2 ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) HSO aq SO aq SO aq H O l

+ +
The equilibrium constant for the above reaction is
a)
6
10
b)
9
10
c)
5
10
d)
3
10

The solubility product of a soluble salt
x y
A B is given by :
x y
y x
SP
K A B
+
( ( =

. As soon as the
product of concentration of
y
A
+
and
x
B

increase than its
SP
K , the salt starts precipitation. It
may practically be noticed that AgCl is more soluble in water and its solubility decreases
dramatically in 0.1 M NaCl or 0.1 M
3
AgNO solution. It may therefore be concluded that in
presence of a common ion, the solubility of salt decreases.
61.
SP
K of
2
SrF in water is
10
8 10
. The solubility of
2
SrF in 0.1 M NaF aqueous solution is :
A)
10
8 10
B)
3
2 10
C )
10
2.71 10
D)
8
8 10

62. The pH of a saturated solution of
2
( ) Mg OH is
11
2
( ( ) 1 10 ) :
SP
K Mg OH

=
A) 9 B) 3.87 C) 10.43 D) 5
63. The volume of water needed to dissolve 1 g
10
4
( 1 10 )
SP
BaSO K

= is :
A) 230 litre B) 429 litre C) 500 litre D) 320 litre


The term mole first used by Ostwald in 1896 refers for the ratio of mass of a substance in g and its
molecular weight. 1 mole of a gaseous compound occupies 22.4 litre at NTP and contains
23
6.023 10 molecules of gas.
64. The amount of sulphur required to produce 100 mole of
2 4
H SO is :
A)
3
3.2 10 g B) 32.65 g C ) 32 g D) 3.2 g
65. The vapour density of a mixture containing
2
NO and
2 4
N O is 38.3 at
0
27 C . The moles of
2
NO
in 100 mole mixture is :
A) 33.48 B) 53.52 C) 38.3 D) 76.6
66. A substance conatains 3.4% sulphur. If it contains two atoms of sulphur per molecule, the
minimum molecular weight of substance will be :
A) 941 B) 1882 C ) 470.5 D) 1411.5

The concentration of solutions can be expressed in number of ways such that
Normality, Molarity, Mole fractions,strength, % by weight, % by volume and % by
strength. The molalrity of ionic compound is usually expressed as formality because we
use formula weight of ionic compound.
67. Number of oxalate ions in 100 mL of 0.1 N oxalic acid is :
A)
100
A
N
B)
20
A
N
C)
200
A
N
D)
1000
A
N

68. A 6.90 MKOH solution in water has 30 % by weight of KOH. The density of KOH solution is
A) 1.288 g/mL B) 12.88 g/mL C) 0.1288 g /mL D) 128.8 gr/mL
69. Weight of
2
BaCl needed to make 250 mL of a solution having same concentration of CI
as the
one containing 3.78 g of NaCl per 100 mL is :
A) 8.40 g B) 16.80 g C) 25.20 g D) 4.20 g

Indicators show characterically different colours due to the presence of different coloured
species HIn & In
-
in the solution. Assume that HIn shows P- colour and IN
-
shows Q
colour which are distinct and eye sensitive colours. When [HIn] dominates on [In
-
], then
P colour dominates on Q-colour and vice versa. HIn shows P-colour when it has certain
minimum amount or concentration of HIn needed to show eye-sensitive and distinct
colour-P and similar is the case, to see the eye sensitive and distinct colour Q.
In acidic medium, the equilibrium (equation-I) shifts towards backward direction due
to which [HIn] > [In
-
] and P-colour dominated over Q-colour and reverse is the case in
the basic medium. In acidbase titrations, the use of of indicators has great importance,
which tells us when to stop a titration. Indicators are nothing but these are weak organic
acids or weak organic bases which show the completion of reaction (end point of
reaction) by changing its colour. The colour change of the indicators are accompanied by
the structural charges i.e. when benzenoid structures changes into quinonoid structures.
Let the acid indicator HIn (K
In
= 10
-7
) which ionises as under:

+ -
+

K
In
HIn H In .. (1)
Where
In
K is indicator constant, which is temperature dependent like equilibrium
constant, H
+
(

is the final concentration of H
+
in the solution. Let
A
pH be the pH in
acidic medium to see the eye sensitive and distinct colour-P, then
| |
log
A In
In
pH pK
HIn
(

s +
Similarly, if
B
pH be the pH in basic medium to see the eye sensitive and distinct
CL
-
colour-Q, then
| |
log
B iIn
In
pH pK
HIn
(

> +
Then from
A
pH to
B
pH is known as the pH range of the indicator, which basically
depends upon the ratio of concentration of In
to conc. of HIn and within this pH range

there occurs transition of non-distinct colour (assume).
For salt of weak amphoteric anion and strong base i.e. strong cation, i.e.
3
NaHCO ,
the pH is given by
1 2
2
a a
pK pK +
=
Where
1 a
K and
2 a
K are the dissociation constants of
2 3
H CO .
In National Chemical Laboratory, Pune, two scientists A and B have two different kinds
of experiments for indicators as under:
Experiment-I: This experiment is done by the scientist A, where he finds that when
(HIn] is 10 times of In
(

, then P-colour is seen and when In
(

is 10 times of
| | HIn ,
then Q-colour is seen.
Experiment-II: This experiment is done by scientist B. Scientist B observes that the
P-colour dominated over Q-colour when [HIn] is 100 times of [In
-
] in acidic medium,
while reverse is the amount of [HIn] and [In
-
] in basic medium, where Q-colour
dominates on
P-colour.
13. What is the maximum pH upto which the solution has distinct colour-P of HIn in
experiment-I?
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) None

14. What is the maximum [H
+
] upto which the solution has distinct Q-colour in experiment-
I?
(a) 10
-8
(b) 10
-5
(c) 10
-7
(d) 10
-6

15. What will be the pH range of the indicator in which transition of non-distinct colour will
occur in experiment-II?
(a) 5 - 9 (b) 7 - 9 (c) 6 - 9 (d) 6 10


The process in which solution containing more than one ions and in which one ion
undergoes almost complete precipitation followed by second ion and similarly second ion
undergoes almost complete precipitation followed by the third ion, is known as
preferential precipitation. It is the solubility of the salt, not the solubility product of the
salt, by means of which one case predict the preferential precipitation of the salt or ion
among the lot of ions in the solution. For example, in a solution containing , Cl Br

and
I
ions, if Ag
+
ions added. Then out of three, the less soluble salt is precipitated first. If
the addition of Ag
+
ion continued, eventually, a stage is reached when the next lesser
soluble salt starts precipitating along with the least soluble salt and so on.
If the stoichiometry of the salt is same, then the salt with the minimum
SP
K
(solubility product) will have minimum solubility and will precipitate first, followed by
the salt of next higher solubility product and so on. If the stoichiometry of the salt is not
same, then from the solubility product data alone, we cannot predict which ion will
precipitate first. For example, a solution containing Cl
and
2
4
CrO
. Both these ions

precipitate with Ag
+
. Assume the solubility product of AgCl is
16 2
10 M
and that of
2 4
Ag CrO is
21
4 10 M
. Yet AgCl is lesser soluble than

2 4
Ag ClO , thereby AgCl will
precipitate first when Ag
+
ions added to the solution containing Cl
and
2
4
CrO
ions. In
order to predict which ion i.e. Cl
or
2
4
CrO
will precipitate first, we have to calculate

the amount of Ag
+
ions needed to start precipitation through the solubility product data
and given Cl
(

or
2
4
CrO
(

. When
3
AgNO is added to the solution, the minimum of the
two concentrations needed to start the precipitation will be reached first and thus
corresponding will be precipitated in preference to other. During the course of
precipitation, the concentration of Cl
decreases and the corresponding Ag

+
(

to start
the precipitation increases. Its concentration eventually becomes equal to the value
required for
2
4
CrO
. At this stage, practically almost the whole of Cl
ions get
precipitated.
Addition of more
3
AgNO causes the precipitation of both the ions together. X,
a postgraduate student of Chemistry performs the following two sets of experiments in
order to know the preferential precipitation of ions i.e. anions and cations as well as its
precipitated percentage amount.
Experiment-I: In experiment I, X forms a solution of anions composed of 0.1 M of
each of , Cl Br

and I
. Now X gradually adds solid

3
AgNO to this solution the
concentration of , &
- - -
Cl Br I do not change after addition of
3
AgNO . Given that:
9 2 10 2 12 2
1.0 10 , 1.0 , 1.0
SP SP SP
K AgCl M K AgBr M K AgI M

= = =
Experiment-II: In experiment II, X forms a solution of cations
( )
2
0.2 Cd M
+
and
( )
2
0.3 Bi M
+
. Now X adds S
-2
ions into the cationic solution in order to separate it by
selective precipitation.
2
Cd
+
forms yellow ppt.CdS
3
Bi
+
forms black precipitate with S
-2

ions respectively.

( )
25 5
2 3
9 10
sp
k Bi S m
=

( )
10 2
2 10
sp
k Cds m
=
Answer the following questions on the basis of the above write up.

16. Which of the following ions will precipitate first in experiment-I?
(a) I
ion (b) Br
ion (c) Cl
ion (d) cannot be

predicted.

17. What percent of the anions Br
and I
get precipitated respectively when the third ion

starts precipitating in experiment I?
(a) 90%, 99.9% (b) 99.9%, 90% (c) 80%, 90% (d) 90%, 80%

18. In experiment-II, what % of the metal ions get precipitated at which S
2-
gets saturated
with another ion?
(a) 10% (b) 80% (c) 20% (d) 90%
Paragraph - I
The vapour pressures of two pure liquids A and B that form an ideal solution are 300 and 800
Torr, respectively, at temperature T. A liquid solution of A and B for which the mole fraction of
A is 0.60 is contained in a cylinder closed by a piston on which the pressure can be varied. The
solution is slowly vaporized at temperature T by decreasing the applied pressure, starting with a
pressure of about 1 atom. Calculate
22. The pressure at which the first bubble of vapor is formed
(A) 180 torr (B) 500 torr
(C) 600 torr (D) 800 torr
23. The mole fraction of B in the first bubble of vapour is
(A) 0.36 (B) 0.46
(C) 0.64 (D) 0.54
24. The mole fraction of A in the last drop of liquid is
(A) 0.80 (B) 0.20
(C) 0.60 (D) 0.40

Paragraph - II
2 liter of 1 molar solution of a complex salt
3 2
CrCl .6H O (mol. wt 266.5) shows an osmotic
pressure of 98.52 atm at 300K. The solution is now treated with 1 liter of 6 M AgNO
3

25. Weight of AgCl precipitated is
(A) 861 gm (B) 143.5 gm
(C) 287.0 gm (D) 574.0 gm
26. Osmotic pressure of the clear solution that is obtained after removing precipitate is
(A) 54.28 atm (B) 65.68 atm
(C) 75.45 atm (D) 95.80 atm

27. The van't Hoff factor i is :
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4


Paragraph1

The properties such as boiling point, freezing point and vapour pressure of a pure
solvent change when solute molecules are added to get homogeneous solution. These are called
colligative properties. Applications of colligative properties are very useful in day-to-day life. One
of its examples is the use of ethylene glycol and water mixture as anti-freezing liquid in the
radiator of automobiles. A Solution M is prepared by mixing ethanol and water. The mole
fraction of ethanol in the mixture is 0.9.
Given : Freezing point depression constant of water ( )
1
f
K for water 1.86 Kkg mol
=
Freezing point depression constant of ethanol (
f
K for ethanol) = 2.0 K kg
1
mol

Boiling point elevation constant of water (
b
K for water) = 0.52 K kg
1
mol

Boiling point elevation constant of ethanol (
b
K for ethanol) = 1.2 K kg
1
mol

Standard freezing point of water = 273 K
Standard freezing point of ethanol = 155.7 K
Standard boiling point of water = 373 K
Standard boiling point of ethanol = 351.5 K
Vapour pressure of pure water = 32.8 mm Hg
Vapour pressure of pure ethanol = 40 mm Hg
Molecular weight of water = 18 g
1
mol

Molecular weight of ethanol = 46 g
1
mol

In answering the following questions, consider the solutions to be ideal dilute solutions and
solutes to be non-volatile and non-dissociative.

Answer the following questions:

58. The freezing point of the solution M is
A) 268.7 K B) 268.5 K C) 234.2 K D) 150.9 K

59. The vapour pressure of the solution M is:
A) 39.3 mm Hg B) 36.0 mm Hg C) 29.5 mm Hg D) 28.8 mm Hg

60. Water is added to the solution M such that the mole fraction of water in the solution
becomes 0.9. The boiling point of this solution is:
A) 380.4 K B) 376.2 K C) 375.5 K D) 354.7 K

P) Work is the mode of transference of energy. If the system involves gaseous substance and
there is difference of pressure between system and surroundings, such a work in referred
to as pressure volume work . It has been observed that reversible work
done by the system is the maximum obtainable work. Work done in isothermal reversible
process

61) The q value and work done in isothermal reversible expansion of one mole of an ideal gas
from initial pressure of 1 bar to a final pressure of 0.1 bar at constant temperature 273K
are

A)

B)

C)

D)

62)
An ideal gas expands in volume from to at 300K against a constant
pressure of The work done is

A)

B)

C)

D)

63)
1 mole of an ideal gas and 2 mole of an ideal gas are
taken in a container and expanded reversibly and adiabatically from 1 lit to 4 lit starting
from initial temperature of 320 K. The change in internal energy for the process is
A) 240 R B) 480 R C) 960 R D) 240 R

P)
Heat of reaction at constant pressure is equal to change in enthalpy . The enthalpy
of formation of a compound may be negative (or) positive. The enthalpy of combustion is
always negative. The heat of reaction at constant pressure and constant volume are
related by . Generally exothermic compounds are stable than
endothermic compounds. Enthalpy of formation is calculated using Hess law of constant
heat summation.
64)
The heats of combustion of Carbon (graphite), Hydrogen and ethanol are, ,
and respectively. The heat of formation of ethanol is

A)

B)

C)

D)

65)
For the reaction at constant temperature
, is
A) + RT B)

C)

D) + 3 RT

66)
If ,

The enthalpy of formation of H
2
SO
4
under the same conditions will be

A)

B)

C)

D)

P) The enthalpy of neutralization is defined as the enthalpy change when one equivalent of
an acid is completely neutralized by 1 equivalent of base. For a strong acid or strong base
(neutralization) is . For a weak acid or weak base, the heat of
neutralization is some what less because of the absorption of heat for the ionization of
weak acid or weak base.
67) When 400 ml of 0.2 M acetic acid is mixed with 800ml of 0.5M NaOH solution 4.416 KJ of
heat is liberated. The heat of ionization of acetic acid is

A
)

B
)

C
)

D
)

68) In the neutralization of which of the following more quantity of heat is liberated

A)

B)

C)

D)

69) The heat of neutralization of four acids A, B, C, D with a strong base are
respectively. Which of the following is
wrong?
A) The order of strength of the acids is

B) The order of strength of these conjugate bases is

C) More quantity of heat is absorbed for the ionization of acid B

D)
ionization energy of acid D is

P)
A solution of cupric sulphate containing 0.4 gm of is electrolysed until
all the copper is deposited. The electrolysis is continued for seven more
minutes with the volume of the solution kept at 100 ml and the current at
1.2 amp.
13) In the beginning of the electrolysis the substances evolved at cathode and
anode are respectively

A)
Cu and
B)
and
C)
Cu and
D)
and Cu

14) During another seven minutes of electrolysis the substances evolved at
cathode and anode are respectively

A)
Cu and
B)
and
C)
Cu and
D)
Only is
evolved at
cathode

15) The total volume of gases evolved at STP at cathode during the entire
electrolysis is
A) 58.49 ml B) 48.23 ml C) 60.35 ml D) 35.58 ml

P) The age of fossils is determined by radiocarbon dating. The principle is that
the ratio of to in atmosphere (or) in all living system is the
same and constant always since living systems are in equilibrium with
atmosphere which is supposed to maintain to ratio as
constant atleast for a greater period if not through evolving ages.
Similarly the age of earth is decided by rock dating method where the
assumption is that the sample of rock or the mineral is as old as earth. We
estimate the present composition of and in the given
sample of rock. All radioactive disintegrations follow 1
st
order kinetics. Now
answer the following:

16) Which is true?

A)
is an emitter and
is a emitter
B)
is a emitter and
is an emitter

C)
is an emitter and
is a emitter
D)
is a emitter and
is a emitter

17)
The mole ratio of to in a rock specimen is found to be
0.5. The half-life of is . The age of rock is

A
)

B
)

C
)

D
)

18)
The amount of in a piece of wood is found to be one-sixth present in
a fresh piece of wood. The age of wood is

A) 14423 years B) 15671 years C) 18242 years D) 19182 years

P)

Graph for one mole gas
36) Process, represents
A) Isobaric B) Isochoric C) Isothermal D) adiabatic

37) The process which occurs in going form is
A) Isothermal B) adiabatic C) Isobaric D) isochoric

38) The pressure at C is :

P) Molar heat capacity is heat required to raise the temperature of one mole of material
by one
degree, since heat is not a state function , the amount of heat required to produce a
given change in its
state depends on the path followed
Specific heat Molecular weight. It is measured at constant pressure.
Specific heat Molecular weight. It is measured at constant volume.
39) Which of the following is correct
A)

B)

C)

D) All of these

40)
for monoatomic gas is
A) 5/2 R B) 3/2 R C) 7/2 R D) R

41) The specific heat of a gas at constant volume is 0.075 cal/g. predict the atomicity of the
gas. Molar mass of gas is 40 g
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) None of these

The potential of an electrode when each species involved in it exists in the standard state is
called its standard potential. The standard reduction potential of a couple is the measure of its
tendency to get reduced. A series obtained by arranging the various couples in order of their
decreasing standard potential is called electrochemical series. Any of the two couples of this
series joined together gives an electrochemical cell in which reduction occurs at the electrode
which occupies the higher position. The standard potential of hydrogen electrode is taken to be
zero by convention.
Given below are the sequence of halfreactions (acidic media) with relevant E
0
values in volt at
298K.

0.560 2.26 0.95 1.50 1.18 2 3 2
4 4 2
MnO MnO MnO Mn Mn Mn
+ +

Also given some more
0
298
E data are:

0.44 0.036 2 3
(s)
Fe Fe Fe
+ + +

13. The E
0
for
2
4
MnO Mn
+
is equal to
(A) 1.054V (B) 1.506V
(C) 5.27V (D) 7.53V
14. The value of E
0
of reaction:

2 2 3
4 2
MnO 5Fe 8H Mn 5Fe 4H O
+ + + +
+ + + +
(A) 0.734V
(B) 0.282V
(C) 4.498V
(D) Cant be calculated as concentrations of species are not given.
15. For the all
Fe
(s)
| Fe
2+
(0.1M) || 100 mL 0.3M HA (pKa =5.2)
mixed with 50 mL 0.4M NaOH | H
2
(1 atm), Pt
the E
cell
at 298 (
RT
2.303 0.059V
F
= and log
10
20 = 1.3) is equal to
(A) 0.15V (B) +0.185V
(C) 0.44V (D) +0.145V
A hydrogenoxygen fuel cell has a solid electrolyte, which is an ion exchange membrane. The
membranes is impermeable to the reactant gases, but is permeable to hydrogen ions, which carry
the current between the electrodes. To facilitate the operation of the cell at 40 to 60C, the
electrodes are covered with finely divided platinum that function as a catalyst. Water is drained
out of the cell during operation. Fuel cells of this general type have been used successfully in the
space program and are quite efficient. Their disadvantages for largescale commercial
application are that hydrogen presents storage problems, and platinum is an expensive catalyst.
Cheaper catalysts have been found for higher temperature operation of hydrogenoxygen fuel
cells.
Fuel cells that use hydrocarbons and air have been developed, but their power per unit weight is
too low to make them practical in ordinary automobiles. Better catalysts are needed.
A hydrogenoxygen fuel cell may have an acidic or alkaline electrolyte. The halfcell reactions
are
( ) ( )
2 2
1
O g 2H 2e H O
2
+
+ + = E = 1.22 88 V
2H
+
+
( )
2
2e H g
= E = 0

( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 2
1
H g O g H O
2
+ = E = 1.2288V
or
( ) ( )
2 2
1
O g H O 2e 2OH
2

+ + = E = 0.4009 V

( ) ( )
2 2
2H O 2e H g 2OH

+ = + E = 0.8279 V

( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 2
1
H g O g H O
2
+ = E = 1.2288 V
To maximize the power per unit mass of an electrochemical cell, the electronic and electrolytic
resistances of the cell must be minimized. Since fused salts have lower electrolytic resistances
that aqueous solutions, hightemperature electrochemical cells are of special interest for practical
applications.
High temperature also allow the use of liquid metal electrode, which make possible higher
current densities than solid electrodes.

16. If 560 mL of H
2
gas at STP is fed into and is consumed by the fuel cell in 10 minutes,
then what is the current output of the fuel cell?
(A) 4A (B) 8A
(C) 16A (D) 12A

17. For a HydrogenOxygen fuel cell if
f
H
A
( )
2
H O, = 285 kJ / mole, then what will be
its thermodynamic efficiency under standard conditions
(A) 0.91 (B) 0.41
(C) 0.63 (D) 0.83

18. Why are fuel cells not being used in daily life despite their very high efficiency
(A) The fuels needed for their operation are rarely found in nature
(B) Their operation always needs very high temperature
(C) The catalyst used in fuel cells at normal temperature are very expensive
(D) The design of fuel cells is so complicated that it is not feasible to construct these for
daily life applications.
P)
A liquid (A) (mol.wt 120)has a normal boiling point of
0
60 C .When a 0.5g of solute
(Mol.wt 130)is dissolved in 20g of A, it shows an elevation in boining point of 0.50 K. Answer the
following
13)
The vapour pressure of the solution at
0
60 C is nearly
A) 750 mm B) 740 mm C) 730 mm D) 720 mm

14)
The molal elevation constant
( )
1
K molal
of liquid (A) is nearly

A) 1.6 B) 2.6 C) 3.6 D) 4.6

15)
If liquid (A) is to be distilled at
0
50 C without decomposition, what maximum pressure is to be
maintained in the flask nearly ?
A) 340 mm B) 470 mm C) 520 mm D) 640 mm

Paragraph for Questions 17 to 18
An acid base indicator is a weak organic acid or a base which possesses one colour in acid
solution and an entirely different colour in alkaline solution. The actual colour that it produces in
solution depends on the pH of the solution. At any given pH of the solution, both terms ionized
and unionized of the indicators will be present. It is important to realize the human eye has a
limited ability to detect either of the two colours, when one of the two predominates. In general
when
| |
n
n
HI
10
I
=
(

the colour of the solution will appear to be due to the unionized form. On the
other hand when the ratio
| |
n
n
HI
0.1
I
=
(

, the colour will be due to ionized form. Change in colour
of indicator takes place in a small pH range called colour change interval of the indicator.
17. The colour change interval in general may be represented as
(A) pH = pK
ind
+ 1 (B) pH = pK
ind
1
(C) pH = pK
ind
1 (D)
ind
ind
pK 1
pH
pK 1
+
=

18. Alizarin yellow has pH range (10.1 12.1), it will be best suitable for titration of
(A) Strong acid Vs strong base only (B) Weak acid Vs weak base
(C) Weak acid Vs strong base
(D) Strong acid Vs strong base or weak base

P) The apparatus consists of three temperature jacketed 1.000 L bulbs connected by stopcocks. Bulb A contains a
mixture of H
2
O(g), CO
2
(g), and N
2
(g) at 25
o
C and a total pressure of 564 mm Hg. Bulb B is empty and is held at
a temperature of -70
o
C. Bulb C is also empty and is held at a temperature of -190
o
C. The stopcocks are closed, and
the volume of the lines connecting the bulbs is zero. CO
2
sublimes at -78
o
C, and N
2
boils at -196
o
C.
14) The stopcock between A and B is opened, and the system is allowed to come to equilibrium. The pressure in A and B is
now 219 mm Hg. What does bulb A contain?

A) CO
2
B) CO
2
& N
2

C) N
2
D) CO
2
, N
2
& Water

15) Both stopcocks are opened, and the system is again allowed to come to equilibrium. The pressure throughout the
system is 33.5 mm Hg. What does bulb B contain?
A) CO
2
B) CO
2
& N
2

P) Consider the interconversion of nitrosotriacetoaminie into nitrogen, phorone and water.
C
N
O
ONO
CH
3
CH
3
C H
3
C H
3
( ) aq
( ) ( )
2 2
N g H O + l
C
C
C
O
CH
3
C H
3
CH
3
3
CH
+
20 kJ / mol
( ) Phorone
( ) aq

The reaction is 1
st
order in each direction, with an equilibrium constant of 10
4
. The activation
energy for the backward reaction is 57.45 kJ/mol. Assume its Arrhenius preexponential
factor as 10
12
s
-1

12) What is the expected forward constant at 300 K, if we initiate this reaction starting with only
reactant?
A) 10
2
B) 10
6
C) 10
8
D) 10
4

13) If the change in entropy of the reaction is 0.07 kJ K
-1
mol
-1
at 1 atm pressure. Calculate upto which
temperature the forward reaction would not be spontaneous?
A) T < 285.7 K B) T > 250 K C) T < 340.2 K D) T > 200 K

14) Calculate K
p
of the reaction at 300 K

A) 4 1
2.4 10 atm

B) 4
10 atm
C) 4
24.6 10 atm
D) 2 1
2.82 10 atm

P) Alkali bromates are formed by the action of hot and conc. alkali on bromine. They
are employed in volumetric analysis as a source of bromine. They act as good
oxidising agents and under go reduction in stages to finally bromide. The standard
potentials at each stage are shown in the following diagram.
C) N
2
D) CO
2
, N
2
& Water

16) How many moles of CO
2
are in the system?

58)
What is the value of for the reaction-I in the above diagram?

A)

B)

C)

D)

59) The standard potential (E
o
) for the reaction path (II) is
A) 1.52 V B) 0.62 V C) 0.76 V D) 0.97 V

60) Identify the correct statement.
A) Br
2
cannot disproportionate spontaneously
B)
BrO
can disproportionate spontaneously

C) the reduction of
3
BrO
is non-spontaneous
D)
BrO
cannot disproportionate spontaneously

P) Always enthalpy is not enough to talk of spontaneity of a process or even entropy alone.
Hence new term Gibb's energy has been introduced that explains the spontaneity of a process by
making use of both enthalpy and entropy along with temperature and they are related as :

A decrease in Gibb's energy is a measure of useful work that a system can do A decrease in Gibb's
energy is a measure of spontaneity . Gibb's energy change is zero for a system in equilibrium
13) The lattice energy of a salt AB is 764 kJ and the hydration energy of the salt is 755 kJ. In case
entropy dissolution of AB in water is 40 J/K/mol at 298 K, the Gibb's energy change of dissolutions
is :

A) 9.0 kJ B) -2.92
kJ
C) -11.2
kJ
D) -9.0 kJ

14) In case 20 g Argon is compressed from 10 L to 5 L under reversible isothermal conditions at 300
K, the Gibb's energy change would be

A)

B) 0.863
kJ
C)

D)

15) In case standard Gibb's energy change of a system is zero, then the equilibrium constant
would be :
A) 100 B) Zero C) 10.0 D) 1.0

P) Electrolysis involves electronation and de-electronation at
the respective electrodes. Anode of electrolytic cell is the
electrode at which de-electronation takes place where as
at cathode electronation is noticed. If two or more ions of
same charge are to be elecronated (or) de-electronated.
The ion having lesser discharge potential is discharged.
Discharge potential of an ion refers for

(or) as
the case may be. The products formed at either electrode
is given in terms of Faradays laws of electrolysis i.e
.
16)
During of electrolysis of , the mole ratio
of gases formed at cathode and anode is
A)

B)

C)

D)

17)
During electrolysis of , the gas liberated at
anode and cathode are respectively
A) B)
a
C)
and
D)
a
and
n
d

n
d

18)
During electrolysis of , the pH of solution
becomes
A)

B)

C)

D)

P)
The first law of thermodynamics was given as ; where q is heat given to a system
and represents increase in internal energy and is work done by the system. Various
processes such as isothermal, adiabatic, cyclic, isobaraic and isochoric processes in terms of first
law of thermodynamics leads to important results. The molar heat capacity for 1 mole of
monoatomic gas is 3/2R at constant volume and 5/2R at constant pressure. Now, answer the
following :
13) Which of the following statements are correct :
(1) Both work and heat appear at the boundaries of system.
(2) Heat given to a system is given + ve sign.
(3) Heat given to a system is equal to increase in internal energy under isothermal conditions
(4) Heat given to a system is used to increase internal energy under isochoric conditions
(5) Both work and heat are not state functions but their sum (q + w) is state function.
14) One mole of a diatomic ideal gas adiabatically expands from an initial state
to an intermediate state against an external pressure
of 1 atm. The final temperature, is

15) 1 mole of a monoatomic gas is expanded through path ABC as shown in figure.

Select the correct statements :
(1) If specific heats (C
p
and C
v
) of a gas are 0.125 and 0.075 cal/g, the mol. wt. of gas= 40.
(2) Temperatures at point A, B, C are 273K, 546K and 273 K respectively.
(3) W in the process A to B is
(4) for the process B to C is .
(5) for the overall cycle is 3.4 kJ.
P) Work is the mode of transfer of energy .If the system involves gaseous substance and there is
difference of pressure between system and surroundings, such a work is referred to as a pressure
volume work . The works of isothermal and adiabatic processes are different.

16) Calculate work done when 1mol of an ideal gas is expanded reversibly from 20L to 40L at constant
temperature of 300K.
17)
One mole of a gas occupying expands against constant external pressure of 1 atm to a
volume of . The work done is
18)
One mole of an ideal gas with , at 300K temperature undergoes adiabatic expansion
reversibly .The final temperature is 100K .Find work done in this process

P) In a lead
storage
battery,
Pb(anode)
and PbO
2

(cathode)
are used.
Concentrate
d H
2
SO
4
is
used as
electrolyte.
The battery
holds 3.5
litre acid
with it. In
the
discharge
process, the
density of
acid fell
from 1.294
to 1.139
g/mL. The
sulphuric
acid of
density
1.294 g mL
-1

is 39% by
mass and
that of
density
1.139 g/mL
is 20% by
mass.
13) Equivalent
mass of
sulphuric
acid in lead
storage
battery is
A) 49 B) 98 C) 24.5 D) none of these

14) Normalities of sulphuric acid before and after discharge are
:
A) 5.15, 2.32 B) 2.32, 5.15 C) 5.15, 5.15 D) 2.32, 2.32

15) Which of the following takes place
in discharge process at anode :

A
)

B)

C)

D
)

P) The potential of an electrode when each species involved in it exists in the standard state is
called its standard potential. The standard reduction potential of a couple is the measure of its
tendency to get reduced. A series obtained by arranging the various couples in order of their
decreasing standard potential is called electrochemical series. Any of the two couples of this
series joined together gives an electrochemical cell in which reduction occurs at the electrode
which occupies the higher position. The standard potential of hydrogen electrode is taken to be
zero by convention.
Given below are the sequence of half-reactions (acidic media) with relevant E
0
values in volt at
298K.

Also given some more data are:

16)
The E
0
for is equal to
A) 1.054V B) 1.506V C) 5.27V D) 7.53V

17) The value of E
0
for the reaction: is equal to

A) 0.734V B) 0.282V

C) 4.498V D) Cant be calculated as concentrations of
species are not given.

18) For the cll
Fe
(s)
| Fe
2 +
(0.1M) || 100 mL 0.3M HA (pKa =5.2) mixed with 50 mL 0.4M NaOH | H
2
(1
atm), Pt
the E
cell
at 298 K is equal to
A) 0.15V B) + 0.185V C) 0.44V D) + 0.145V

INTEGER TYPE
20. pK
b
for conjugate base of a weak acid is 9. What would be the value of pK
h
(K
h
is hydrolysis
constant) for it?
22. In diamond, effective no. of carbon atoms along any body diagonal of unit cell is n/4. What is the
value of n.
24. Mole fraction of solute in some solution is 1/n. If 50% of solute molecules dissociate into two
parts and remaining 50% get dimerised, new mole fraction of solvent becomes 4/5. Find value of
n.
25. Consider reactions A Pr oduct (order n)
B Pr oduct (order m)
Concentrations of A and B are observed after equal intervals of time. These values are
For A : C,
2 3
C C C
, , ........
x x x

And for B : C, (C y), (C 2y), (C 3y)
Hence value of (n + m) will be

19. 0.1 M KI and 0.2 M
3
AgNO are mixed in 3 : 1 volume ratio. The depression in freezing
point of the resulting Solution: will be x. (By assuming
f
K
2
H O 2kg / mol = ) express
your answer by multiplying with 10
20. 9.8 gm of an acid is present in 300 ml of a solution. 10 ml of this solution required
exactly 20 ml of 0.5 N KOH solution. If molecular weight of acid is 98, calculate no.of
neutrelizeble protons.
21. The mole fraction of solute is 0.0566 and molality of a solution is 1m. molecular weight
of solvent is (Express your answer after dividing with 12).
22. The vapour above the liquid mixture of composition 25% A and 75% B in mole terms, is
allowed for slow cooling. The ratio of B to A in the obtained liquid is.
23. A detergent
( )
12 25 4
C H SO Na
+
solution becomes a colloidal solution at a concentration of
3
10 M
. On an average
13
10 colloidal particles are present in
3
1m.m . What is the average
number of ions are contain in one colloidal particle (micelle). Express your answer by
dividing with 10.
24. No.of unit cells present in 234 grams of NaCl is
23
Y 10 . Y is nearly ...
25. How many of the following emulsions have dispersed phase as an oil
a) Milk b) Cold cream c) Vanishing cream
26. An ionic substance AB has NaCl like structure in which ions A occupy corners of the
cubic unit cell. If all the face centred ions along one of axes are removed. The total no. of
ions of A and B in one unit cell will be:
27. Density of lithium atom is 0.53 g/ml. The edge length of Li is
0
3.5A . The no. of lithium
atoms in a unit cell will be (Atomic weight of Li = 7)
28. The density of Ionic solid B A
+
(rock salt type) is 4 g/cc. and the value of face diagonal
of unit cell is 600 2 p.m. If 2.96 gm of an ionic solid B A
+
(salt of a weak base and a
strong acid) is dissolved in
2
H O to make one litre solution. Then its pHto the nearest
integer is
(T = 298 K;
b
K for BOH
4
10
= )

07. The V.P. of A and B are 100 and 50 m.m. of Hg respectively. The solution of A an B has
vapour pressure of 62.5 m.m. of Hg. Then the mole fraction of A is (Express you answer
by multiplying with 8)
08. A metal crystallizes in f.c.c. Then, the ratio of number of its first nearest neighbours to
the second nearest neighbours is ..
09. When
4
10 gm
of a protective colloid was added to 20 m.l. of saturated gold sol., the

precipitation of latter was just prevented on addition of 1 m.l of 10 % NaCl solution. The
gold number of protective colloid is
2
y 10
. Y is
10. At 20
0
C, the osmotic pressure of urea solution is 400 mm. The solution is diluted and
the temperature is raised to 35
0
C, when the osmotic pressure is found to be 105.3 mm.
Determine extent of dilution.
11. A compound AB has a rock salt type structure with A : B = 1 : 1. The formula weight of
AB is 6.023 y amu and the closest A - B distance is y
1/3
nm. The density of lattice in gm/cc is
3
10 x

where x is
28. 6 m mols of pure gypsum is heated to convert it completely to plaster of paris. What is the
number of m mols of steam evolved in the process.
24. ThO
2
exists in fluorite structure, what is the effective number of bivalent ion in the unit cell of
ThO
2
?

25. One mole of complex Co(NH
3
)
X
Cl
3
is added to 500 g water k
b
of water is 2K kg. mole
-1
. The
B.pt has increased by 8k. The value of x is. Consider complex ionized 100%.
21. Boiling point of a organic compound is 310 K. Its enthalpy of vapourisation per mole AH
vap
is
2.79 kJ mol
1
. Calculate entropy of vapourisation AS
vap
(J mol
1
K
1
) of the organic compounds
23. The rate constant data of the following reactions are as given below:
I. aA Products, k = a mole
1
L min
1

II. bB Products, k = b min
1

The half-lives of both the reactions are the same and equal to 1 hour when molar concentration of
reactant is equal to 1.0 mol L
1
in each case. If these reactions are carried out simultaneously
taking 1 M of the reactant in each case, the ratio [A]/[B] after a lapse of 3 hours will be
7. The excluded volume when two gas molecules are in collision with each other is 0.0834 L . If the
value of a is 3.5 atm L
2
mol
2
, then the value of Boyles temperature is,
(1040 + x) K. What is the value of x ? (R = 0.08 L atm K
1
mol
1
)
12. If the velocity of hydrogen molecule is then its de-Broglie wavelength Angstrom
units.
13. A metal exists in the form of FCC structure with a unit cell edge length of 3.48A
0
. Find the
diameter of the largest atom that can be made to fit into interstices of the metal lattice without
distorting it in Angstrom units.
14. The cell :
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2
2
/ / 1 // ? / , atm / Fe S Fe Fe M H H g pt
+ +
is constructed. For what pH
of the solution of hydrogen electrode the potential of the cell is zero.
( ) 2
0
/
0.42
Fe Fe
E V
+
=
15. PK
b
of NH
4
OH is 5 and conc. of NH
4
OH is 0.4M. Hence number of moles of (NH
4
)
2
SO
4
required to
be added to one litre of NH
4
OH solution to get a pH of 8.7 is
1
10 x

. Find the value of x.
16. The specific conductance of a saturated solution of a salt MX is
7 1
2.8 10 mho cm

and the
equivalent conductances at infinite dilution of
1
M
+
and X

/ ions are 68 and 72 mho cm
2
/
equivalent respectively. Hence, the K
sp
of MX is found to be
12
10 x

. Find x.
17. 0.4 molal aqueous solution of
x
Na A has freezing point of 2.23 C . If K
f
of water is
1
1.86 . , K kg mole
The value of x is (Assume complete ionization of

x
Na A )

18. Among colloidal solutions of gelatin, silver solution, starch solution, gum Arabic, gold sol,
2 3
As S
,How many of them are Lyophilic sols.

19. A covalent molecule
4
x has FCC arrangement of molecules in solid state. If a guest atom A fills
half of tetrahedral voids and complete octahedral voids, empirical formula becomes
m
Ax . Here
m is
23. Normality of 3M
2 2
NaH PO is _______
15.
2 2
, Ba CN and Co
+ +
form a complex. If 75% is degree of ionization with Vant Hoff factor i
equal to four, the coordination number of
2
Co
+
in the complex can be _____
16. If x ml of 5M HCl is mixed with 20 ml of 2M HCl, a 2.6M HCl is produced, then x is
17. When
5
1 10 gms
of a protective colloid is added to 20ml of standard gold solution, the

precipitation of gold solution was prevented by adding 5ml of 10% NaCl solution. Gold number
of colloid is 10
x
. Then x is _____
18. The volume of unit cell of diamond is 0.0454
3
nm and the density is 3.52 gm/c.c. Find the
number of atoms per unit cell of diamond.
12. The number of electrons involved in the conversion of
4
MnO
to
2
MnO is ____

13. In
( )
2 2
2
Ba H PO the oxidation number of phosphorus is ____

14. In the reaction
( )
2
4 2
3
xCr OH yOH zClO aCrO bCl cH O

+ + + + the value of (x + z) is
____

15. In the following reaction
2 3
2 7 2
Cr O 14H ne 2Cr 7H O
+ +
+ + + the value of n is ___

16. If
21
10 molecules are removed from 100 mg of
2
CO , then number of moles of
2
CO left are
4
x 10
. The value of x is ____

17. 26.8 grm of
2 4 2
Na SO .nH Ocontains 12.6 grm of water. The value of n is _____

18. Caffeine has molecular weight of 194 if it contains 28.9% by mass of nitrogen, number of
atoms of nitrogen in one molecule of caffeine is _______

19. 10 ml of mixture containing carbon monoxide and nitrogen required 7 ml of
2
O to form
2
CO and NO, on combination. The volume of
2
N in the mixture will be ____ ml.
12. Number of electrons in
3
1
H
13. Number of radial nodes in 3p orbital
14. In how many d orbitals, the lobes are present between the axes?
15. Maximum number of electrons present in 2
nd
orbit.
19. Maximum number of electrons present in the degenerate p orbitals.
12. Two moles of a gas are confined to a 5lit flask at 27
0
C. Its pressure using Vander Waals
equation is ---atm.(a = 6.25 atm lit
2
mole
-2
and b = 0.037lit mole
-1
)

13 A straight glass tube of length 450cm has two inlets X and Y. Through inlet X the gas
with vapour density 36 and through inlet Y an unknown gas are introduced at same time
and same T,P. The distance of point at which two gasses meet is 180cm from the end X.
what is the weight of 2.8lit of that gas in grams at STP?

14 The density of C
2
H
4
gas at 273
0
C and 152cm of Hg pressure is 0.25 Y g/lit. The value of
Y is

15. Nitrogen is present in a flask of 0.56lit capacity at a pressure of
10
7.6 10 mm
of Hg at
0
0
C. the number of atoms present in the flask is
10
10 m . The value of m is

16) The sulphide of a metal M(At wt 58) has a cubic structure having four formula units per unit cell. If
its density is 4.27g/ccand the edge length is 6.93 A
0
, the number of atoms present per formula unit
are
17)
For a triprotic acid
1
3
,
a
H A K is
2
2
10 ,
a
K
is
3
5
10 and
a
K
is
11
10
. Requisite moles of NaOH are

added to 0.1 molar
3
H A to form maximum
2
HA

(

.
At what pH(nearly), this would occur ?
18)
a
K for HCN is
10
5 10
at
0
25 C . For maintaining a constant pH of 9 , the vol of
5M.KCN solution required to be added to 10 ml of 2M HCN solution is_______
19)
Taking one mole of
( )
2
N g and excess of
( )
2
H g , under suitable conditions, formation of
( )
3
NH g is completed when
( )
3
NH g has a mole fraction of 0.5. The initial moles of
( )
2
H g are

16. The temperature at which the rate of effusion of O
2
is 1.6 times of SO
2
at 127
0
C is
( ) 128 m K . The value of m is

17. At 1280K, if the rms velocity of gas molecule is
4
5 10 cm/sec. the molecular weight of
the gas is 64 m . The value of m is

18 The compressibility factor for N
2
at 330K and 800atm is 1.90 and at 570K and 200 atm is
1.10. A certain mass of N
2
occupies a volume of 1dm
3
at 330K and 800 atm. Volume
occupied by same quantity of N
2
gas at 570K and 200 atm in lit is

19 A flask contain a mixture of N
2
and CO
2
at total pressure of 1.5 atm and at the
temperature 27
0
C. If CO
2
is removed, the pressure falls to 0.5atm and the weight of the
flask drops by 22g. The weight of N
2
in the mixture in grams is
12. A 4:1 molar mixture of He and
4
CH is contained in a vessel at 20atm pressure. Due to
hole in the vessel the gas mixture leaks out. The molar ratio of He and
4
CH effusing out
initially is y:1 Find the value of y.
13. Ammonia gas at 76 cm Hg pressure was connected to a manometer. After sparking in the
flask,
3
NH is partially dissociated as follows.
3 2 2
2 ( ) ( ) 3 ( ) NH g N g H g + The level in
the mercury column of the manometer was found to show the difference of 24cm. The
partial pressure of
2
( ) H g at equilibrium is 6y(in cm Hg). Find the value of y
14. Ammonium carbamate
( )
2 4
NH COONH when heated to
0
250 C gives a mixture of
3
NH
and
2
CO vapours with a density of 13. If the degree of dissociation of
2 4
NH COONH is
expressed as 0.2x, the value of x is
15.
3
( ) AB g dissociates as
3
( ) ( ) 2 ( ) AB g AB g B g +
The initial pressure of
3
AB is 60mm Hg and total pressure at equilibrium is 80mm Hg.
The equilibrium constant
P
K for the reaction is 20Z. Find the value of Z
16. The equilibrium constants
1
P
K and
2
P
K for the reactions 2 A B and C D E + ;
respectively are in the ratio 1:2 . If the degree of dissociation of A and B are equal and at
equilibrium total pressures for these equilibria is related as
2 1
P xP = .The value of x will
be .
17. How many of the following factors can affect the translational kinetic energy of an ideal
gas
(a) temperature (b) pressure (c) molar mass (d) Force (e) molecular diameter
18. Find the number of correct statements among the following
(a) The compressibility factor for He is 1
Pb
RT
(
+
(

(b) The numerical value of vander walls constant a for
2
H O is higher than
6 6
C H due
to H-bonding
(c) Ideal gas does not show Joule-Thomson effect
(d) All molecules of an ideal gas move with same speed
(e) Gases like
2
CO and
3
NH can never show positive deviation
19. Root mean square speed of a gas at 300K is
1
3 R ms
. The molar mass of gas in gm is

expressed as 10
x
find x.
12. For the reaction A B C D
+ +
. The initial concentration of A and B are

equal, but the equilibrium concentration of C is twice that of equilibrium
concentration of A. The equilibrium constant is

20) How much should be the percentage decrease in pressure (approximately) to increase the volume
of a given mass of a gas by 10% at a constant temperature ?
21) How many of the following will be zero for free expansion of ideal gas. (System is thermally
isolated)
(a) U A (b) H A
(c) Work done (d) heat exchange (q)
(e) G A (f)
Total
S A
(g)
system
S A (h) temp.change
(i) pressure change
22) The spin multiplicity of oxygen atom is

27)
0.004 mol of
( )
2 2
SO Cl g is taken in a sealed vessel where it decomposes as
( ) ( ) ( )
2 2 2 2
SO Cl g SO g Cl g +
After 0.2303 hour gaseous mixture is passed through a 150ml of acidified, 0.1N I
2
(aq) solution
where all
2
SO is oxidized to
2
4
SO

. The resulting solution of
2
I required 90ml of 0.1M
( )
2 2 3
Na S O aq solution. Calculate rate constant (in hr
-1
) of the reaction. Given : log2 0.3 =

25) Find the change in pH when 0.1 mol KI is added to 200 ml 0.3 M HI solution.
(Assume volume remains constant)

13. A buffer of pH= 9.26 is made by dissolving
2
10 x

moles of
( )
4 4
2
NH SO and
0.1 mole of ammonia in to 100ml of solution. If
3 b
PK of NH is 4.74. The value
of x is
14. The solubility of
2 3
A X in pure water is
5
10 x

mole/lit. Assuming that neither
kind of ion react with water, and
23
2 3
1.1 10 .
SP
K of A X is Find X value
15. 0.1 mole of
( )
4
3 2
5 10
b
CH NH K

= is mixed with 0.08 mole of HCl and diluted
to one liter. If the H
+
(

is
11
10 x

then x is
16. At 500K. The equilibrium constant for the reaction,
cis
2 4 2 2 4 2
C H Cl trans C H Cl
is 0.1666.At the same temperature the

equilibrium constant for the reaction
trans
2 4 2 2 4 2
C H Cl Cis C H Cl
is
17. Calculate pH at which an acid indicator HIn with concentration 0.1M changes its
colour
( )
5
1 10
a
K

=
18. The number of aq solutions with PH<7 among
( )
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
4 2 2 4 3
2
, , , ,
aq aq aq aq aq
NH SO NaCl ZnCl KCN Na CO
19. What will be the pH of water at
( )
12
90 90 10
o o
w
c K at c

=
12. ____ is the minimum pH required to prevent the precipitation of Zns in a solution i.e.
0.01M
2
ZnCl and saturated with 0.1M
2
H S . (Ksp ZnS= 10
-21
,
( )
20
1 2 2
10 Ka Ka H S

= )
13. _____ is the pH at which an acid indicator HIn with concentration 0.1M changes its
colour (Ka for HIn =
5
1 10
)
14. The compressibility factor for N
2
at 330K and 800 atm is 1.90 and at 570k and 200 atm is
1.10. A certain mass of N
2
occupies a volume of 1dm
3
at 330k and 800 atm. The volume
occupied by same quantity of N
2
gas at 570K and 200 atm is ______ Lts

15.
( )
x
M OH has a Ksp of
9
4 10
and its solubility is 10

-3
M. The value of x is _____.

16. The Ka of
2
HNO is
4
4.5 10
. The pH of
2
0.04MNaNO solution is ____.
17. In a solution containing 0.02M CH
3
COOH and 0.01M
6 5
C H COOH . If Ka
3
CH COOH
and
6 5
Ka C H COOH are
5
1.8 10
and
5
6.4 10
respectively, then the pH of solution is

___.
18. A vessel of 250 litres was filled with 0.01 mole of
2 3
Sb S and 0.01mole of
2
H to attain the
equilibrium at 440
0
C as ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 3 2 2
3 2 2 + + Sb S s H g Sb s H S g . After equilibrium,
the H
2
S formed was analysed by dissolved it in
2
H O and treating with excess of
2
Pb
+
to
give 1.19g of PbS ( )
Pb
M 207 = as precipitate. The value of Kc at 440
0
C is _____.
19. Ammonium carbonate when heated to 473K gives a mixture of
3 2
& NH CO vapour with a
density of 13. Then the degree of dissociation of
3 4
NH COONH is _____.
28. Among (i) addition of CaCO
3
(s), (ii) addition of CaO(s) (iii) addition of CO
2
(iv) addition
of N
2
at constant volume (v) addition of N
2
at constant pressure (vi) increase in
temperature (vii) increase in pressure (vii) addition of HCl and (ix) addition of NaOH, in
how many cases equilibrium CaCO
3
(s) CaO(s) + CO
2
(l) will shift in forward direction
?
29. Reaction constant of reaction of weak base BOH with strong acid is 10
9
. Find the pH of
10
-3
M-BCl aq. solution
30. What volume of water in litres is to be added to 1 liter of aq solution of density 1.6 gm/cc
to reduce its density by 1.2 gm/cc.
31. In a closed container equilibrium ( ) ( )
n
A g nA g is established. Now A pin hole is
made and infinitesimally small amount of equilibrium mixture is effused out in which
mole ratio atomic A : An is 8 : 7. If degree of dissociation of An is 1/8, find the value of
n.
32. Salt
( )
2
X OH under goes following equilibria in water
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2
2
X OH s X aq 2OH aq
+ -
+

21
Sp
K 1.2 10
=
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 4
X OH s 2OH X OH aq
-

+

f
k 0.12 =
Find pH at which solubility of
( )
2
X OH be a minimum.
33.
b
K for X
is 10
-9
. If in a buffer solution concentrations of X
and HX are equal, find its

pH.
34. 0.1 millimoles of CdSO
4
are present in 10 ml acidic solution of 0.08 N-HCl. Now H
2
S is
passed through it. What will be the pH of solution after filtering off precipitate of CdS, if
on dilutions volume of solution is 100 ml.
35. In 10
3
litre sample of hard water CaSO
4
and MgSO
4
are present. If elevation is boiling
point is 0.000052 C, find degree of hardness of water. (k
b
of H
2
O = 0.52)
12) What will be the mass (in gm) of a non-volatile solute (molar mass 40 g mo1
-1
) which should be
dissolved in 114 g octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 80% ?
13) The osmotic pressure (in atm) of a 5% apeous solution of cane sugar at 150C is (Mol. Wt. of cane
sugar = 342)
14) The mass (in gm ) of glucose that would be dissolved in 50 g of water in order to produce the same
lowering of vapour pressure as is produced by dissolving 1 g of urea in the same quantity of
water is
15) Nitrobenzene freezes at 278.98C. 0.25 molal solution of a solute in nitrobenzene causes freezing
point depression of 2C for nitrobenzene is
16) A solution contains 410g of H
2
SO
4
per litre of solution at 20
o
C. If the density is 1.245 g/mL, what will
be its molality?
17) The osmotic pressure (in atm ) of a solution at 0
0
C is 2 atm. What will be its osmotic pressure at
273
0
C under similar conditions ?
18) At 48
0
C, the vapour pressure of pure CS
2
is 850 torr. A solution of 2.0 g of sulphur in 100 g of CS
2
has
a vapour pressure 844.9 torr. Determine the atomicity of sulphur molecule .
19)
A solution of H
2
O
2
is titrated against a solution of KMnO
4
. The reaction is

If it requires 46.9 mL of 1.45 M KMnO
4
to oxidize 20 g of H
2
O
2
, find the approximate mass
percentage of H
2
O
2
in this solution.

15)
The equilibrium constant for the neutralization of the weak acid HA with is
then of aqueous solution of solution is.
12) 50 volume of hydrogen take 20 minutes to diffuse out of a vessel. How long (in minute) will 5
volume of oxygen take to diffuse out from the same vessel under the same conditions?
13)
A gas with molecular formula diffuses through a porous plug at a rate of the rate of
diffusion of hydrogen gas under similar conditions. The value of n in the hydrocarbon is
14) 2 mole of He(atomic mass = 4) and 1 mole of SO
2
(molecular mass = 64) are enclosed in a container.
Find out the number of times the initial rate of diffusion of helium is greater than that of SO
2
.
15) The weight (in gm) of 5.6 L of oxygen at NTP on liquefaction would be
16) What is the compressibility factor (Z) for 0.02 mole of a van der Waals gas at pressure of 0.1 atm.
Assume the size of gas molecules is negligible.
Given: RT=20 L atm and a=1000 atm
17) One mole of nitrogen gas at 0.8 atm takes 38 seconds to diffuse through a pinhole, whereas one
mole of an unknown compound of xenon with fluorine XeF
x
at 1.6 atm takes 57 seconds to diffuse
through the same hole. Find out the value of x.
18) 400ml of ammonia gas at a pressure of 300mmm and 200ml of hydrogen chloride gas at a pressure
of 600mm are mixed in a one litre evacuated flask. Calculate the pressure at normal temperature.
19) A sealed container with gas at 2.00 atm is heated from 20.0 K to 40.0 K. The new
pressure (in atm) is...

12)
The number of neutrons accompanying the nuclear fission of by absorption of a slow
neutron in forming are
13) Hydroxide ion has an effect on the rate of the redox reaction between I
-
and OCl
-
, as per the
following data :

The overall order of the reaction is
14) An ammeter and copper voltameter are connected in series in an electric circuit through which a
constant direct current flows. The ammeter shows 0.525 ampere. If 0.6354g of Cu is deposited in
one hour, the percentage error of ammeter is nearly (At. wt. of
Cu = 63.54)
15) 3 ampere current was passed through an aqueous solution of an unknown salt of Pd for 1 hour.
2.977g of was deposited at cathode. Find n (At.wt.of Pd=106.4)
16)
Number of particles emitted in the disintegration of is
17) What will be pH of the solution of the salt of weak acid and weak base?

18) What will be pH of the resulting solution obtained by mixing 10 mL of 0.1 N HCl and 990 mL solution
of NaCl?
19) CH
3
COONH
4
is dissolved in water at 25
0
C. What will be pH of the solution?
(Assume pK
a
= pK
b
)

7. Conductivity of a solution prepared by dissolving 10
7
mole of AgNO
3
in one litre of saturated
aqueous solution of AgBr is
1 7
11 10

x Sm . Find the value of x . K
sp
of AgBr = 12 10
14

and
3
0 0 0
Ag Br NO
, and
+
are
3
6 10
,
3
8 10
and
3 2 1
7 10 Sm mol

respectively. Neglect the
contribution of solvent.

8. A mixture of two immiscible liquids A (MW = 123) and B (MF = 18) with a normal boiling point of
TK has a partial vapour pressure of B 733 mm. Calculate the weight ratio
B
A
w
w
| |
|
\ .
in distillate to
the nearest integer value.

9. In a thermodynamic process helium gas obeys the law
2/ 5
T
P
= constant. The heat given to n
moles of He in order to raise the temperature from T to 2T is xRT. Find the value of x.

10. Consider the equilibrium +

x A C D. It has been found that the fraction of A
decomposed at equilibrium is independent of initial concentration of A. Find the value of x.

11. Under the same reaction condition, the initial concentration of
3
2 2

ln mol dm of a substance
becomes half in 20 seconds and 60 seconds through 1 order and zero order kinetics respectively.
Find the ratio of
1
0
k
k
| |
|
\ .
, where k
1
and k
0
are the rate constants of the first order and zero order
respectively.
11)
The number of nodes observed in radial probability distribution curves if the wave function is
310

10)
( )
3
2
6
Ti H O
+
(

absorbs energy equal to wavelength 498 nm. On this basis crystal
field splitting energy comes out to be
19
a 10 J.
What is the value of a?

7. Conductivity of a solution prepared by dissolving 10
7
mole of AgNO
3
in one litre of saturated
aqueous solution of AgBr is
1 7
11 10

x Sm . Find the value of x . K
sp
of AgBr = 12 10
14

and
3
0 0 0
Ag Br NO
, and
+
are
3
6 10
,
3
8 10
and
3 2 1
7 10 Sm mol

respectively. Neglect the
contribution of solvent.

8. A mixture of two immiscible liquids A (MW = 123) and B (MF = 18) with a normal boiling point of
TK has a partial vapour pressure of B 733 mm. Calculate the weight ratio
B
A
w
w
| |
|
\ .
in distillate to
the nearest integer value.

9. In a thermodynamic process helium gas obeys the law
2/ 5
T
P
= constant. The heat given to n
moles of He in order to raise the temperature from T to 2T is xRT. Find the value of x.

10. Consider the equilibrium +

x A C D. It has been found that the fraction of A
decomposed at equilibrium is independent of initial concentration of A. Find the value of x.

11. Under the same reaction condition, the initial concentration of
3
2 2

ln mol dm of a substance
becomes half in 20 seconds and 60 seconds through 1 order and zero order kinetics respectively.
Find the ratio of
1
0
k
k
| |
|
\ .
, where k
1
and k
0
are the rate constants of the first order and zero order
respectively.

12. The equilibrium concentration of reactant ions in an ideal solution obtained by mixing 25
ml of 0.1M Tl
+
with 25 ml of 0.2 M Co
3+
is found to be of the order of 10
n
. What is the
value of n?
Given
3
Tl /Tl
E 1.255V
+ +
= ;
2 3
Co /Co
E 1.842V
+ +
=
13. The ratio of P to V at any instant is constant and is equal to 1, for a monoatomic ideal gas
under going a process. If is the molar heat capacity of the gas be nR. What is the value of
n.
14. It is observed that the voltage of a galvanic cell using the reaction M(s) + xH
+
M
x+
+
2
x
H
2
varies linearly with the log of the square root of the hydrogen pressure and the cube
root of the M
x+
concentration. Find the value of x.

15. A cell consists of a platinum electrode immersed in a redox system
( ) x n x
A A ne
+
+
+
is combined with a saturated calomel electrode (RHS el). The EMF of the cell is
measured at various percentage of reduced from and a plot is made with EMF of cell in
the y axis and the
log
| |
| |
reduced form
oxidised form
in the x axis. The slope of the straight line formed is found to be
0.0300 V. Find the value of n.
16. A 12.6 mg sample of argentiferrous lead was dissolved in minimum quantity of nitric
acid and then made to 350 ml with pure water. A pure silver rod was dipped in this
solution and the potential difference between this electrode and S.H.E. was found to be
0.5 V at 25C. What is the percent of silver in lead?
Given
2
Ag/Ag
Pb /Pb
E 0.8V E 0.126V
+

=
17. A sample of pure prismatic sulphur melted initially at 119.25C, but in the course of a
few minutes the melting point fell to 114.5C. When the sulphur has completely melted
at this temperature the liquid sulphur was plunged into iced water; 3.6 percent of the
resultant solid sulphur was then found to be insoluble in carbon disulphide. The
molecular formula of the sulphur insoluble in carbon disulphide was found to be S
n
. The
latent heat of fusion of sulphur is 9 cals g
1
. Find the value of n.
18. A bubble of 8 moles of helium is submerged at certain depth in water. The temperature of
water increases by 30C. How much heat is added approximately to helium (in kJ) during
expansion?

19. For a liquid enthalpy of fusion is 1.435 kcal mol
1
and molar entropy change is 5.26 cal
mol
1
K
1
. Calculate the freezing point of liquid in celcius?

MATRIX TYPE

18. Column I

Column II
a The number of nearest neighbours in F.C.C. p 6
b The distance between the second nearest neighbour in B.C.C q 12
c The number of second nearest neighbours in B.C.C r a
2

d The distance between the second nearest neighbour in simple cube s a
t
2a

19.Match the following

Column 1 Column II
A Peptization P Preparation of sols
B Ultra centrifugation Q Purification of sols
C Electrodialysis R Preparation of metal sols
D Bredigs arc method S Moment of ions across the membrane in presence of electric field

20.

Column I
Themodynamic property
Column II
Meant for an Ideal gas
A) AV
p) zero for an adiabatic reversible process
B) AH
q) zero for an isochoric process
C) AS
r) zero for an Isobaric process
D) AP
s) zero for a cyclic process

t)
( )
2 1 p
nC T T for an adiabatic process

10. Match the compression factor under different condition (in Column-I) with its
value (in Column- II)
Column I Column II
(A) Compression factor (Z) for ideal
gas
(p) > 1
(B) Z for real gas at low P (q)

(C) Z for real gas at high P (r) 1
(D) Z for H
2
and He (s)

19. Match the following:
Column-I Column-II
A Azeotropic mixture p Obey Raoults law
B
Water and
2 4
H SO
q Deviation from Raoults law
C Ideal solution r
0
.
A A A
p P x =
D
3
CH Cl and
3
CH Br
s Constant boiling mixture
10. Column - I Column II
(Compound) (Oxidation state of sulphur)
a) Sulphurus acid(
2 3
H SO ) p) +5
b) Peroxy mono sulphuric acid (
2 5
H SO ) q) +3
c) Dithionic acid (
2 2 6
H S O ) r) +6
d) Dithionous acid (
2 2 4
H S O ) s) +4

a)
2
N p) 40% carbon by mass
b) CO q) Empirical formula
2
CH O
c)
6 12 6
C H O r) Vapour density = 14
d)
3
CH COOH s)
( )
23
A A
14N N 6.023 10 = electrons in a
mole
64. If in Bohr's model, for unielectronic atom following symbols are used
r
n,

z
Radius of n
th
orbit with atomic number Z;
U
n,

z
Potential energy of e
-
; K
n
,
z
Kinetic energy of e
-
;
V
n, z
Velocity of e
-
; T
n, z
Time period of revolution

Column-I Column-II
(A) U
1, 2
: K
1, l
(p) 1 : 8
(B) r
2, 1
: r
l, 2
(q) -8: 1
(C) V
1,3
: V
3,1
(r) 9: 1
(D) T
1, 2
:T
2, 2
(s) 8 : 1
65. Column-I Column-II
(A) Thomson model of atom (p) Electrons are present in extra nuclear region
(B) Rutherford model of atom (q) Atom is electrically neutral
(C) Bohr model of atom (r) Positive charge is accumulated in the nucleus
(D) Sommerfeld model of atom (s) Uniform sphere of positive charge with embedded
electrons
66.
Column-I Column-II (change in oxidation number per atom of
underlined atom)
(A)
Oxidation
6 12 6 2 2
C H O CO + H O (p) 1
(B)
Oxidation
2 4 2 2
N H NO + H O (q) 5
(C)
Oxidation
2 2 4 2 2
H C O H O+CO (r) 6
(D)
( )
-
- Redox reaction -
2 3
OH
C C +C O l l l (s) 4
42.
List I List II
a) Electronic configuration of
4
Mn
+
p)
| |
2 1
4 3 Ar s d
b) Number of unpaired electrons in
2
Fe
+

q) 7
c) Number of electrons in Na(11) having m = 0 r) 4
d) Electronic configuration of
( ) 21 Sc s)
| |
0 3
4 3 Ar s d
43.
List I List II
a) Magnetic property p) n
b) Splitting of spectral lines in magnetic field
q) l
c) Number of spherical nodes r) m
d) Fine line spectra s) s
44.
List I List II
a) n p) Stark effect
b) l
q) Schrodingers equation
c) m r) Somerfeld atomic model
d) s s) Paulis exclusivity

42.
Column-I Column-II
a) Violation of Hunds rule
p)
b) Violation of Paulis exclusion principle but
not Hunds rule
q)
c) Violation of aufbau principle
r)
d) Violation of aufbau principle as well as
Paulis exclusion principle
s)
43.
Column-I Column II
(Oxidation state of under lined
element)
a)
3
NCl
p) + 3
b)
5
CrO
q) 3
c)
2 2 8
H S O
r) + 5
d)
4
H NO
s) + 6
44. According to Bohrs theory :
n
E =total energy;
n
K = kinetic energy ;
n
V = potential energy : v
n
=
velocity
n
r = radius of n
th
orbit match the following

Column-I Column-II
a) /
n n
V K = ?
p) 0
b) if radius of n
th
orbit
x
n
E o , x = ?
q) -1
c) angular momentum in lowest orbital r) -2
d)
y
n
v Z ; y = ?
s) 1
19. Column I Column II
a)
0.95 2 3
Fe O Fe O p)
2
M

b)
( )
3 4 4 2
2
2 H PO X OH XHPO H O + + q)
17
19
M

c)
3 2 3 3 3
+ H PO PH H PO r)
3
4
M

d) ( )
4
3 1
2 3
6
+
( + +

Fe CN Fe CO NO s)
61
M

20. Match the concentrations of acids required (column II) that will completely neutralize the
bases taken (column-I) consider that volume of acid & base taken are equal.

Column-I Column-II
(a)
2 3
10.6g Na CO in 1L solution (p) 0.1M
2 4
H SO
(b) 0.1 mole
( )
2
Ba OH in 1L solution (q) 0.2M HCl
(c) 0.2M NaOH solution (r) 0.2M
3
HNO
(d) 5.6g KOH in 500ml solution (s) 0.2M
3 2
H PO
A) Lyman p)
2 1
3 1 n to n = =
B) Paschen q)
2 1
4 3 n to n = =
C) Brackett r)
2 1
8 6 n to n = =
D) Humphry s)
2 1
9 4 n to n = =
t)
2 1
7 2 n to n = =
a) Boyles law p)
1 2 2
2 1 1
Vt M
V t M
= (at constant T and P)
b) Charles law q)
A A
P x P =
c) Daltons law r) ( at constant T for a fixed amount of gas) PV K =
d) Grahams law s)
1 1
2 2
(at constant P for a fixed amount of gas)
V T
V T
=

(Unit of R) (Value)
a)
1 1
erg K mol

p) 8.314
b)
1 1
ml atm K mol

q)
7
8.314 10
c)
1 1
kPalit K mol

r) 82.05
d)
1 1
lit atm mol K

s) 0.0821


a)
2
1
V
vs P for ideal gas at constant T and n p)

b) V vs
1
T
for ideal gas at constant P and n q)

c) PT vs
2
T for ideal gas at constant V and n r)

d) V vs
2
1
P
for ideal gas at constant T and n s)
10.
Column-I Column-II

A)
d
p
versus P for an ideal gas at p)
constant T and n(d = density)

B) logP versus
1
log
V
| |
|
\ .
for an ideal q)
gas at constant T and n

C) logV versus logT for an ideal gas r)
at constant P and n

D) logP versus logV for an ideal gas s)
at constant T and n

t) Isotherm

11. Matching
List-I List-II
A) Critical temperature p)
a
Rb

B) Boyle temperature q)
2a
Rb

C) Inversion temperature r)
2
27
a
b

D) Critical pressure s)
8
27
a
Rb

19 Matching

Column-I Column-II
A) Hydrogen gas (P=200atm, T=273K) p) 1 Z =
B) Hydrogen gas
( ) 0 P , T=273K) q) Attractive forces are
dominant
C)
2
CO (P=1atm, T=273K) r) PV=nRT
D) Real gasses with very large molar volume s)
( ) P V nb nRT =

20) Match the quantity in List-I with its units in List-II

List-I List-II
A) Gas constant p)
2
Nm

B) Vander wall constant a q)
1 1
Jmole K

C) Boltzmann constant r)
2 2
. . atmlit mole

D) Pressure s)
1 1
JK molecule

64. Match the column I and II
(Column I)
(Nature of salt)
(Column II)
(Value of P
H
)
(A) Salt of WA + WB (p) pH = 7
(B) Salt of SA + SB (q) 14
2
a b
pK pK
pH
+
=
(C) Salt of WA + SB (r) 1 1
7 log
2 2
b
pH C pK =
(D) Salt of WB + SA (s)
1
2
1
7 log
2
= + +
a
pH C pK

65. Match the columnI, columnII
Column I (Acid/base) Column II (Compound/ion)
(A) Lewis acid (p) SnCl
2

(B) Lewis base (q) C
2
H
4

(C) Bronsted acid
(r)
3
HCO
(D) Bronsted base (s) BaCl
2

66. Match the following column I with column II
COLUMN - I Column II
(favourable condition for product)
(A)
2 2
( ) 2 ( ), H g I HI g H ve + A = +
(p) increase of temperature
(B)
5 3 2
( ) ( ) ( ), PCl g PCl g Cl g H ve + A = +
(q) increase of pressure
(C)
2 2 3
( ) 3 ( ) 2 ( ), N g H g NH g H ve + A =
(r) increase of volume
(D)
3 2
( ) ( ) ( ), CaCO s CaO s CO g H ve + A = +
(s) addition of inert gas at constant
pressure

19. Match the reactions in column-I with relations of column II.
Column I
(Reaction)
Column II
(Relation)
(A)
2 2 3
N (g) 3H (g) 2NH (g) H 92.5kJ + A =
(P) K increases with increase in
temperature
(B)
2 2
N (g) O (g) 2NO(g) H 180kJ + A = +
(Q) K decreases with increase in
temperature
(C)
A(g) B(g) 2C(g) D(g) H ve + + A = +
(R) Pressure has no effect on
equilibrium
(D)
5 3 2
PCl PCl Cl H ve + A = +
(S) Catalyst has no effect on
equilibrium

20. Match the Column I with Column II for the following reaction:

( ) ( ) ( )
4 3 2
NH HS s NH g H S g +
Column I
(Gaseous reactions at equilibrium with all reactants at
unit conc. and same degree of dissociation )
Column II
(Degree of dissociation in terms of their equilibrium
constants)
(A) X+Y= 2Z (P)
K
1 K +

(B) 2X Y+Z (Q)
K
2 K +

(C) X+Y Z+D (R)
2K
1 2K +

(D)
XY
1
2
AB
(S)
2
1 2
K
K +

10. The van der walls constants a and b of a real gas are 3.6
2
L atm
2
mol
and
0.05L
1
mol
respectively. If 200g of gas (molecular mass 40) is placed in 10L vessel at

300K,
Match the following:-
Column I Column II
(A) Pressure correction (atm) (P) 0.25
(B) Free space for the molecules to move about(L) (Q) 0.0125
(C) Actual volume of the gas molecules per mole (L) (R) 0.9
(D) Effective volume occupied by total gas molecules(L) (S) 9.75

11.
Column I Column II
(A) Addition of inert gas shifts the
equilibrium in backward direction
(p) 0 V A =
(B) Addition of inert gas shifts the
equilibrium in forward direction
(q) 0 n A =
(C) Addition of inert gas has no effect on
equilibrium
(r) 0, 0 V n A = A >
(D)
P C
K K =
(s) 0, 0 V n A = A <
(t)
10. Match the following

Column-I Column-2
A
( ) ( )
5
4 4
10 ,1 1
b
NH OH K M NH Cl M
= +
P Best buffer
B
( ) ( )
5
4 4
10 ,1 2
b
NH OH K M NH Cl M
= +
Q Buffer, PH > 7
C
( ) ( )
10
10 1 HCl M NaCl M
+
R Not a buffer and PH < 7
D
( )
5
3
25 , 0.2 , 2 10
a
CH COOH ml M K

=
( ) 25 , 0.1 NaOH ml M +
S Buffer PH < 7

11. Match the following

Column-I Column-2
A
2
P
K atm =
P
P C
K K =
B
2 2
2 H I HI
+

Q
( )
P C
K K RT =
C
5 2
PCl PCl Cl

R
( )
2
P C
K K RT =
D
2
5
P
K atm =
S Increase of pressure favourse
backward reaction
10.
Column-I Column-II
A
( ) ( )
3 3
4.74, 0.1 0.1
a
CH COOH pK M CH COONa M = +
p Acidic buffer at its
maximum capacity
B
( ) ( )
3
0.1 0.1 CH COOH M HCl M +
q Buffer solution
C
( ) ( )
3 4
4.74, 0.1 4.74, 0.1
a b
CH COOH pK M NH OH pK M = + =
r pH < 7 at 25
0
C
D
( ) ( )
3
300 0.1 100 0.1 CH COONa mLof M HCl mLof M +
s pH = 7 at 25
0
C

11.

Column-I Column-II
A
( ) ( ) ( ) 2 + X g Y g Z g
p
2
p
K o =
B
( ) ( ) ( ) + X g Y g Z g
q
3
p
K o =
C
( ) ( ) ( ) 3 + X g Y g Z g
r
( )
1
3
2
p
K o =
D
( ) ( ) ( ) 2 2 + X g Y g Z g
s
p
K o =
19.
Column I Column II
(A) Titration of strong acid with strong base (P) Methyl orange (3.1 4.4)
(B) Titration of weak acid with strong base (Q)
Methyl Red (4.2 6.3)
(C) Titration of strong acid with weak base (R) Phenolphthalein (8.3 10)
(D) Titration of weak acid with weak base (S) No general suitable indicator

20.
Column I
Column II
(A) Mercurous Iodide (P) 108 S
5
(B) Aluminium phosphate (Q)
4S
3
(C) Calcium phosphate (R) S
2
(D) Zirconium phosphate (S) 6912 S
7
36.
Column I Column II
(A) Molal elevation constant (p) depends on latent heat of vapourisation
(B) Molal depression constant (q) depends on latent heat of fusion
(C) Elevation in boiling point (r) depends on mole fraction of a solute in
solution
(D) Depression in freezing point (s) depends on boiling point of pure solvent

37.
Column I Column II
(A) Negative deviation from Raoult's Law (p) Benzene-methanol system
(B) Positive deviation from Raoult's law (q) Acetone-chloroform system
(C) Minimum boiling azeotrope (r) water-hydrochloric acid system
(D) Maximum boiling azeotrope (s)
mix
H 0 A > and
mix
V 0 A >
38.

Column I Column II
(A)
P
V

(p) Temperature is increasing
(B)
P
V

(q) temperature is constant
(C)
P
V

(r) volume is constant
(D)
P
T

(s) pressure is increasing
(A)
PV = RT
a
v

(p) Hydrogen gas
(B) PV RT pb = + (q) Van der waal's equation at high pressure
(C) PV RT = (r) Van der waal's equation at extremely low pressure
(D) Pb
z 1
RT
= +
(s) Real gas behaves as ideal gas.
(t) Van der waals equation at low pressure
10) Match the Following:

Column I
(Redox reaction)
Column II
(Eq. wt. of reactant molecule )
(a)

(p) M/2
(b)

(q) M/5
(c)

(r) M/6
(d)

(s) M/3
(t) Oxidising agent

Column I Column II
(a)
Pyridine +
(p)

(b)

(q)

(c)

(r)

(d)

(s)

64. Match the column I and II

Column I
(Solute)
Column II
(Vant Hoff factor, i)
A
3
AC if 0.8 o = l l P i = 3.4
B
2
BaC if 0.9 o = l
Q i = 2.8
C
3 4
Na PO if 0.9 o =
R i = 3.8
D ( )
4
6
K Fe CN if 0.7 ( o =

S i = 3.7
Match the conditions (in Column I) with its expression (in Column II)
Column I Column II
(a) At high pressure of gas (1 mole) (p) PV = RT + Pb
(b) At low pressure of gas (1 mole) (q) Attractive forces are dominating
(c) 1 mole N
2
gas at 0C and 2 atm
pressure
(r) Z > 1
(d) 1 mole H
2
gas at 0C and 10 atm
pressure
(s) PV = RT
(t) Repulsive forces are dominant

Column I Column II
(a)
Wave length of
(p) 0.85
(b)
Bohrs circumference in
(q) 52.8
(c) Separation energy in eV (r) 13.2
(d) Potential energy in eV
(numerical value)
(s) 1.7

Match the term (in Column I) with its expression (in Column II)
Column I Column II
(a) Most probable speed (p) (3/2) KT
(b) Average kinetic energy of gas (q) V
real
/V
ideal

(c) Van der Waals constant a (r) correction factor for the force of
attraction
(d) Compression factor (s)

11)
Column I Column II
A) Root mean square velocity (p)

B) Most probable velocity (q)

C) Average velocity (r)

D)
K.E of a gas
(s)

Column I Column II
(a) Molar volume at NTP (p) Charles Law
(b) PV = constant at constant T (q) Pressure of gas
(c)
constant at constant P
(r) 22.4 litre
(d) Collision of molecules with the walls of the
container
(s) Boyles Law
(t) Avogadros Law


Column I Column II
(a)

(p) Enthalpy of formation
(b)

(q)

(c)

(r)

(d)

(s)

Column I Column II
(a) Isothermal Process (p)
H = 0
(b) Adiabatic process (q)

(c) Isothermal free expansion (r)

(d) For graphite (s)

Column I Column II
(a)

(p)
0
n
1

(b)

(q)
1
H
1

(c)

(r)
2
He
4

(d)

(s)
+ 1
e
0

20) Match the following
Column I Column II
(a) Charge on one mole of electrons (p) 1 F
(b) 108 g of silver deposited at electrode
from
(q) 96500 C
(c) 22.4 lit. of hydrogen at STP collected
from
(r) 2 F
(d)
16.8L of O
2
at STP
(s) 3F

Match the compression factor under different condition (in Column-I) with its value
(in Column- II)
Column I Column II
(a) Compression factor (Z) for ideal
gas
(p) > 1
(b) Z for real gas at low P (q) (1 + Pb)/ RT
(c) Z for real gas at high P (r) 1
(d) Z for H
2
and He (s) (1 - a/RTV)

Column I Column II
(a) For an isothermal reversible process (p) AH = 0, AE = 0, AS = 0
(b) For any reversible cyclic process (q) dq. = 0
(c) For an adiabatic process (r) dV = 0
(d) for an isochoric process (s) AE = 0

Column I Column II
(A)

(p) Heat of neutralisation
(B)

(q) Heat of combustion
(C)

(r) Heat of formation
(D)

(s) Fuel cell

Column I Column II
(A) Hesss law (p)

(B) Combustion reaction (q)
in Kelvin
(C) Troutons law (r) Exothermic
(D) Clausius-Clapeyron equaiton (s)
remains the same irrespective of
steps

19. Match the Column 1 with Column II
Column A Column B
(A) NickelCadmium cell (p) Used in auto vehicles
(B) Lithium Battery (q) Secondary cell
(C) H
2
O
2
cell (r) Fuel cell
(D) Lead storage battery (s) Used in Apollo spacecraft

Column A Column B
(A)
If
O.P
E
of substance ranges between

1.23 to 0.81 V
(p) Oxidation of substance is not possible
(B)
If
O.P
E
of substance ranges between

0.81 to 0.40 V
(q) Oxidation possible only in acidic medium
(C)
If
O.P
E
is less than 1.23 V

(r) Oxidation possible in any medium
(D)
If
O.P
E
is greater than 0.40 V

(s) Oxidation easily takes place
10) Match the following:
Column I Column II
(a)
Zero order
(p)

(b)
First order
(q)

(c)
Second order
(r)

(d)
Third order
(s)

11) If the correct matches are A-p, A-s, B-q, B-r, C-p, C-q and D-s, then the correctly bubbled 4 4
matrix should be as follows:

Match the following
Column I Column II
(a) Very dilute solution of HCl (p)
O
2
evolved at anode
(b) Very dilute solution of NaCl (q)
H
2
evolved at cathode
(c) Concentrated solution of NaCl (r) Cl
2
evolved at anode
(d) Fairly concentrated solution of
AgNO
3

(s) Ag deposition at cathode

Column I Column II
(A) 2
2 2 2
O O O

+
(p) Redox reaction
(B) 2
4
CrO H
+
+
(q) At least one of the products has
trigonal planar structure
(C)
2 4
MnO NO H
+
+ +
(r) Product has dimeric structure with
bridged tetrahedral units
(D) 2
2 4 3
NO H SO Fe
+
+ +
(s) At least one of the product is
paramagnetic

Column I Column II
(A) Decomposition of H
2
O
2
(p) 10t
1/2

(B)

(q) First order
(C) Arrhenius equation (r) Temperature coefficient
(D) t
99.9%
for first order (s)

19)
Match the Following:
Match the term (in Column I) with its expression (in Column II)
Column I Column II
(A) Most probable speed (p) (3/2) KT
(B) Average kinetic energy of gas (q) V
real
/V
ideal

(C) Van der Waals constant a (r) correction factor for the force of
attraction
(D) Compression factor (s)

Column I Column II
(A)

(p)

(B)

(q)

(C)

(r)

(D)

(s)

Column I Column II
(A)

(p) Reaction taking place at anode
during electrolysis of very dilute
solution of NaCl using pt electodes.
(B)
The concentration of
solution does not change on
(q) Reaction taking place at anode
during electrolysis of using
electrolysis Cu electrode.
(C)

(r)
Electrolysis of aq using Cu
electrodes.
(D)

(s) Reaction taking place at cathode
when electrolysis of aq.NaCl is done
using Hg electrode.

Column A Column B
(A) Reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas (p)
w = 2.303 nRT log
2
1
V
V
| |
|
\ .

(B) Reversible adiabatic compression of an ideal gas (q) PV
= constant
(C) Irreversible adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas (r)
w =
( )
( )
2 1
nR
T T
1

(D) Irreversible isothermal compression of an ideal
gas
(s) AH = 0

Column A Column B
(A) Concentration cell (p) Fe is oxidized by Ni
2
O
3

(B) Edison cell (q) Zinc anode
(C) Mercury cell (r) HgO cathode
(D) Dry cell (s) E = 0

Single Choice Type Questions on Crystal Structure and Colloids

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Single Choice Type Questions on Crystal Structure and Colloids

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01. The crystal structure with no element of symmetry is.

. Hence the solubility of AgCN in a

= t and its radial

. If a solution is 0.1 M in KCN and 0.03 M in AgNO

and bicarbonate ion

= is titrated with 2/15 M HCl in

. If 2 mL of liquid contains 35 drops,

= .The acid form of the indicator is red & the

greater than the

A (AgCl) = 109.56 kJmol

= = ). If the ratio of quantities of the compound that undergo

ions are at the body centre of Cs

is the conjugate base of HCl

is the conjugate base of CH

. When the system attained equilibrium.

. Then its molar

).select correct statements.

. Select the correct statements :

will oxidize Pb to PbO

are the standard reduction

donor. In aqueous solution OH

of base combines with H

, being small in size undergoes hydration

at STP. The density at

at 336C. Hence the value of

to conc. of HIn and within this pH range

. Both these ions

. Yet AgCl is lesser soluble than

will precipitate first, we have to calculate

decreases and the corresponding Ag

. At this stage, practically almost the whole of Cl

. Now X gradually adds solid

ion (d) cannot be

get precipitated respectively when the third ion

of liquid (A) is nearly

can disproportionate spontaneously

cannot disproportionate spontaneously

of a protective colloid was added to 20 m.l. of saturated gold sol., the

The value of x is (Assume complete ionization of

of a protective colloid is added to 20ml of standard gold solution, the

. The value of x is ____

. Requisite moles of NaOH are

. The molar mass of gas in gm is

. The initial concentration of A and B are

is 0.1666.At the same temperature the

and its solubility is 10

respectively, then the pH of solution is

and HX are equal, find its

What is the value of a?

respectively. If 200g of gas (molecular mass 40) is placed in 10L vessel at

of substance ranges between

of substance ranges between

is less than 1.23 V

is greater than 0.40 V

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