Chapter 14 Bioenergetics and Oxidative Metabolism

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following enzymes in the tricarboxylic acid cycle requires the same set of cofactors or coenzymes as the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex? A. alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase B. isocitrate dehydrogenase C. succinate dehydrogenase D. malate dehydrogenase E. citrate synthase Ans: A 2. Which enzyme catalyzes substrate level phosphorylation? A. succinyl-CoA synthase B. citrate synthase C. alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase D. aconitase E. succinate dehydrogenase Ans: A 3. The tricarboxylic acid cycle does not occur in which cells in your body? A. skeletal muscle cells B. liver parenchymal cells C. adipose cells D. renal tubular epithelium E. erythrocytes Ans: E 4. All of the following are intermediates of the Krebs cycle EXCEPT A. cis-aconitate. B. pyruvate. C. fumarate. D. succinyl-CoA. E. malate. Ans: B 5. Which of the following contains high energy bonds?

A. B. C. D. E.

glucose 6-phosphate. creatine phosphate. acetoacetate. citric acid. glutamine

Ans: B 6. The iron in the cytochromes function in biological systems by A. undergoing oxygenation and deoxygenation. B. undergoing oxidation and reduction. C. combining with phosphate. D. undergoing dehydration and hydration. E. interchanging with the iron of adrenodoxin. Ans: B 7. The structure of oxidized flavin differs from that of fully reduced flavin by A. one proton. B. one electron and one proton. C. two electrons. D. two protons. E. two electrons and two protons. Ans: E 8. M1755lAll of the following concerning the human mitochondrial genetic apparatus are true EXCEPT A. the mitochondrial genome is a circular DNA. B. the mitochondrial genome codes for several essential proteins for oxidative phosphorylation. C. the mitochondrial genome exhibits maternal inheritance. D. the mitochondrial genome uses the same genetic code as the nuclear genome. E. a mitochondrial DNA mutation results in Leber's Hereditary Optic Neuropathy. Ans: D 9. In order to be considered a high energy compound, a metabolic intermediate must have a free energy of hydrolysis, (delta G0 hydrolysis), equal to, or greater than ______ kilocalories / mole. A. + 5.3 B. - 5.3 C. + 7.3 D. - 7.3 E. + 9.3

Ans: D 10. All of the following reactions are observed in the tricarboxylic acid cycle EXCEPT A. hydration of cis-aconitate to isocitrate B. dehydration of citric acid to form cis-aconitic acid C. oxidative decarboxylation of alpha-ketoglutaric acid to form succinyl-CoA D. hydration of fumaric acid to form malic acid E. decarboxylation of citric acid to form oxalosuccinic acid Ans: E 11. The mammalian pyruvate dehydrogenase complex A. catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA and carbon dioxide. B. catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate. C. functions as a tetramer made up of two types of subunits which are identical to those of either muscle (M) or heart (H) origin. D. utilizes NAD as the only required coenzyme. E. catalyzes the oxidation of lactate to pyruvate. Ans: A 12. The effect of malonate on succinate dehydrogenase is A. noncompetitive inhibition. B. competitive inhibition. C. irreversible inhibition. D. uncompetitive inhibition. E. no inhibition; it is the product of the reaction. Ans: B 13. The prosthetic group in mitochondrial cytochromes is A. FeS B. NAD C. heme D. flavin E. ADP Ans: C 14. The free energy change for a reaction at equilibrium is A. less than 1. B. zero. C. greater than 1. D. equal to -RT 1n Keq. E. can be utilized to do work in the cell.

Ans: B 15. The enzymes of the respiratory chain are A. in the cytosol. B. on the outer membrane of the mitochondria. C. on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. D. in the mitochondrial matrix. E. in the lysosomes. Ans: C 16. How is uncoupling produced in brown adipose tissue? A. Action of thyroid hormone on a mitochondrial thyroid receptor B. Activation of UCP-1 by fatty acids C. Induction of ATPase D. Synthesis of a small non-protein uncoupling molecule E. Transfer of protons out of the mitochondrial matrix Ans: B 17. Oligomycin inhibits oxidative phosphorylation by: A. Binding to cytochromes B. Channeling protons C. Binding to coenzyme Q D. Oxidizing FAD E. Inhibiting phosphorylation Ans: E 18. Which coenzyme is NOT required for the activity of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex? A. biotin B. lipoic acid C. thiamine pyrophosphate D. coenzyme A E. flavin adenine dinucleotide Ans: A 19. Anaplerotic reactions A. are generally endergonic. B. are typified by that catalyzed by pyruvate kinase. C. are defined as reactions which produce pyruvate. D. increase the concentrations of intermediates of the Krebs cycle. E. are typified by those catalyzed by pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase.

Ans: D 20. An allosteric activator of mitochondrial NAD-linked isocitrate dehydrogenase is A. alpha-ketoglutarate. B. ADP. C. NADH. D. acetyl-CoA. E. glucose 6-phosphate. Ans: B 21. The chemiosmotic hypothesis suggests that the potential energy of the electrons moving down the mitochondrial electron transport chain from a negative to a positive oxidation potential is initially conserved in the form of a A. proton gradient across the membrane. B. a high energy phosphate bond. C. a different conformational form of the electron carriers. D. a protonated form of coenzyme Q. E. a reduced non-heme iron protein. Ans: A 22. All of the following statements about oxidative phosphorylation are correct EXCEPT A. ATP synthesis is driven by a pH gradient and a membrane potential. B. ATP synthase translocates ATP through mitochondrial membrane. C. the respiratory chain consists of three enzyme complexes linked by two mobile electron carriers. D. the process can be uncoupled by 2,4-dinitrophenol. Ans: B 23. The definition of a high energy bond is a bond A. with a high chemical bond energy. B. which is highly unstable. C. which is highly exergonic. D. with a high phosphate group transfer potential. E. with a large negative free energy change on hydrolysis. Ans: E 24. In the Q cycle for electron transfer and protein pumping in Complex III of the mitochondrial electron transport chain, how many proteins are taken up from the matrix side of the inner membrane and how many are released into the inner membrane space respectively? A. 1 and 2

B. C. D. E.

2 and 2 2 and 4 4 and 2 4 and 4

Ans: C 25. Respiratory control refers to the striking dependence of respiration on the availability of A. O2 B. Glucose C. ADP D. ATP E. electrons Ans: C 26. All of the following molecules, without further metabolism, can cross the inner membrane of functioning mitochondria EXCEPT A. ATP. B. oxygen. C. inorganic phosphate. D. pyruvate. E. acetyl CoA. Ans: E 27. The enzyme which catalyzes the entrance of acetyl CoA into the Krebs cycle is A. aconitase. B. citrate synthase. C. succinate thiokinase. D. pyruvate dehydrogenase. E. isocitric dehydrogenase. Ans: B 28. A simple explanation of the action of an uncoupler of mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation is that it is any agent that A. blocks the oxidation of reduced cytochrome c by cytochrome oxidase. B. prevents formation of ATP by interacting with and blocking proton transport through the proton translocating ATPase. C. acts to conduct protons back into the mitochondrial matrix without accompanying formation of ATP. D. blocks proton conductance and slows oxygen uptake rates. Ans: C

29. A simple explanation of the action of an uncoupler of mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation is that it is any agent that A. blocks the oxidation of reduced cytochrome c by cytochrome oxidase. B. prevents formation of ATP by interacting with and blocking proton transport through the proton translocating ATPase. C. acts to conduct protons back into the mitochondrial matrix without accompanying formation of ATP. D. blocks proton conductance and slows oxygen uptake rates. Ans: C 30. What effect does the chemical uncoupler 2,4-dinitrophenol have on mitochondria? A. inhibits electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation B. allows electron transport to proceed without ATP synthesis C. blocks the transfer of electrons from NADH to O2 D. stimulates ATP synthesis E. blocks the transfer of electrons from complex I to complex II. Ans: B 31. What thermodynamic parameters are compatible with the spontaneity of a chemical reaction? A. positive standard free energy change only. B. positive standard free energy change and high activation energy. C. negative standard free energy change and high activation energy. D. positive standard free energy change and low activation energy. E. negative standard free energy change. 32. How does the binding-change model for synthesis and hydrolysis of ATP in the inner mitochondrial membrane work?? A. Flipping of orientation of F1Fo-ATP synthase in the membrane B. A one-step rotation of 180o C. Change in the binding constant for ATP on the T subunit D. Conformation change of the b subunit resulting in release of protons E. Rotation of the g subunit in 120o steps Ans: E 33. Employs a flavoprotein: A. Glucose production from glycogen B. Lactate production from glucose C. Malate production from succinyl CoA D. pyruvate production from fructose E. Succinate production from succinyl CoA

Ans: C 34. Which of the following enzyme systems is most analogous to the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex? A. oxaloacetate dehydrogenase B. succinate dehydrogenase C. fumarase D. isocitrate dehydrogenase E. alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase Ans: E 35. Oxaloacetate moves through the mitochondrial membrane A. after conversion to glycerol phosphate. B. by passive diffusion. C. after reaction with carnitine. D. after oxidation to pyruvate. E. after reduction to malate. Ans: E 36. Certain bacterial mutant lacks the kinase catalyzing the reaction ATP + GDP <==> ADP + GTP but otherwise possesses enzymes similar to those in mammals. This mutant could still produce GTP from GDP by utilizing the enzyme A. phosphoglycerate kinase. B. pyruvate kinase. C. pyruvate carboxylase. D. creatine kinase. E. succinate thiokinase. Ans: E 37. The electron transport chain of mitochondria is specifically located in the A. outer membrane. B. intermembrane space. C. inner membrane. D. matrix. E. tonoplast. Ans: C 38. Which of the following is the only mobile electron carrier in the electron transport system that is neither permanently associated nor covalently attached to a protein? A. FMN B. coenzyme Q C. heme a3

D. FeS cluster E. FAD Ans: B 39. Which of the following is a potential oxidant? A. FAD B. NADPH C. NADH D. ATP E. Fe2+ Ans: A 40. What is the most visible sign of reactive oxygen species damage? A. Age spots B. Cataracts C. Dental caries D. Hair loss E. Osteoporosis Ans: A 41. Substrate level phosphorylation in mitochondria A. Consumes ATP B. Consumes NADH C. Is catalyzed by a flavoprotein D. Produces coenzyme A E. Produces fumarate Ans: D 42. A number of intermediates in lipid metabolism are esters of coenzyme A. The vitamin precursor of coenzyme A is A. beta-carotene. B. biotin. C. nicotinic acid. D. pantothenic acid. E. riboflavin. Ans: D 43. The activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH) decreases A. as the concentration of acetyl CoA decreases. B. as the concentration of NAD increases. C. when the dephospho-enzyme is converted to its phospho form.

D. as the concentration of pyruvate increases. E. as the concentration of AMP increases. Ans: C 44. Which is a flavoprotein? A. isocitrate dehydrogenase B. succinate dehydrogenase C. carbonic anhydrase D. citrate synthase E. aconitase Ans: B 45. A major control point of the Krebs cycle is exerted at the level of A. succinate dehydrogenase. B. citrate synthase. C. succinyl CoA synthase. D. malate dehydrogenase. E. aconitase. Ans: B 46. The uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation in the human might be of physiological importance because it A. allows storage of nutrients. B. produces water. C. increases carbon dioxide level in the blood. D. produces heat. E. raises the oxygen level in the blood. Ans: D 47. Which of the statements below is correct for the reaction NADH + FMN + H+ ---> NAD+ + FMNH2 A. the reaction involves only the transfer of a hydrogen atom. B. NAD+ is the oxidant. C. FMNH2 is the electron acceptor. D. FMN is the reducing agent. E. NADH is the electron donor. Ans: E 48. Which molecule is involved in the major step for the production of superoxide in the mitochondrial electron transport chain? A. cytochrome c

B. C. D. E.

cytochrome oxidase NADH dehydrogenase Succinate dehydrogenase Ubiquinone

Ans: E 49. A substrate with a P:O ratio of 1.5 is: A. Alpha-ketoglutarate B. Isocitrate C. Malate D. pyruvate E. Succinate Ans: E 50. Each of the following statements concerning mitochondrial protein synthesis are true EXCEPT which one? A. Mitochondrial protein synthesis is inhibited by chloramphenicol. B. The enzymes of the respiratory chain are all coded by mitochondrial genes. C. Mitochondrial protein synthesis is initiated by N-formylmet-tRNA fmet. D. The mitochondrial genome codes for only certain proteins of the inner mitochondrial membrane. E. Protein synthesis in mitochondria is closely integrated with cytoplasmic protein synthesis. Ans: B 51. Which statement about the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is true? A. Lipoamide functions in the decarboxylation of pyruvate. B. Coenzyme A is covalently bound to a lysine residue in one of the proteins of the complex. C. phosphorylation catalyzed by a kinase results in decreased activity. D. NADH is an allosteric activator of pyruvate oxidation. E. The function of FAD is to oxidize NADH. Ans: C 52. Which enzyme occurs in mammals in both NAD- and NADP-linked forms? A. isocitrate dehydrogenase B. succinate dehydrogenase C. alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase D. citrate synthase E. aconitase Ans: A

53. How many molecules of NAD are reduced as one molecule of pyruvate is metabolized through one turn of the Krebs cycle? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 Ans: D 54. Cyanide is toxic because it inhibits A. succinate dehydrogenase. B. NADH-dehydrogenase. C. phosphorylase. D. pyruvate dehydrogenase. E. cytochrome oxidase. Ans: E 55. In liver cells, substrate-level phosphorylation may be differentiated from mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation in that all substrate-level phosphorylation A. can continue in the presence of dinitrophenol. B. requires inorganic phosphate. C. forms GTP as the immediate product. D. requires a proton gradient. E. is characterized by all of the above. Ans: A 56. A reaction between hydrogen peroxide and superoxide can produce hydroxyl radicals. What else can cause hydrogen peroxide to form this toxic species? A. Fe2+ B. K+ C. Mg2+ D. Mn2+ E. Na+ Ans: A 57. How does lack of oxygen in the cell decrease TCA cycle activity? A. synthesis of lactic acid from pyruvate is inhibited B. increased malonyl CoA inhibits carnitine acyl transferase I. C. electron transport cannot be used to regenerate NAD+ D. epinephrine levels are increased E. glycogenolysis is decreased, causing less requirement for the TCA cycle.

Ans: C 58. The formation of GTP in the citric acid cycle is an example of A. phosphorolysis. B. oxidation. C. oxidative phosphorylation. D. reduction. E. substrate level phosphorylation. Ans: E 59. Which reaction in the citric acid cycle requires the participation of lipoic acid and thiamine pyrophosphate? A. acetyl CoA + oxaloacetate ----> citrate B. citrate ----> isocitrate C. isocitrate ----> alpha-ketoglutarate D. alpha-ketoglutarate ----> succinyl CoA E. succinyl CoA ----> succinate Ans: D 60. Oxaloacetate is a substrate of which enzyme? A. isocitrate dehydrogenase B. succinate dehydrogenase C. fumarase D. citrate synthase E. aconitase Ans: D 61. The ratio of NADH/NAD is greatest in A. microsomes. B. mitochondria. C. nucleus. D. cytosol. Ans: B 62. All of the following items are requirements of the chemiosmotic mechanism of oxidative phosphorylation EXCEPT A. a topologically closed, proton impermeable membrane. B. an ATPase which can be driven in reverse by a proton gradient across the membrane. C. a proton translocating system oriented asymmetrically across the membrane. D. a direct coupling of electron transport to phosphorylation.

Ans: D 63. An enzyme which catalyzes the conversion of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen is A. catalase. B. invertase. C. peroxide mutase. D. a cytochrome. E. glutathione peroxidase. Ans: A 64. What is the most reactive form of oxygen? A. H2O B. H2O2 C. O2 D. O2.E. OH. Ans: E 65. In tightly coupled mitochondria, the rate of oxidative phosphorylation is governed by the concentration of A. Acetyl-CoA B. Pi C. ADP D. ATP E. NADPH Ans: C 66. Which of the following would NOT be considered a high energy compound? A. ATP B. phosphoenolpyruvate C. ADP D. 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate E. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate Ans: E 67. Which is the immediate product of an anaplerotic reaction related to the Krebs cycle? A. citrate B. malate C. oxaloacetate D. acetyl CoA E. pyruvate

Ans: C 68. All enzymes of the Krebs cycle, except for succinate dehydrogenase, are found in the A. mitochondrial matrix. B. inner mitochondrial membrane. C. intermembrane space. D. outer mitochondrial membrane. E. cytosol. Ans: A 69. Which is a tricarboxylic acid? A. oxaloacetate B. succinate C. alpha-ketoglutarate D. citrate E. acetate Ans: D 70. Oligomycin has a direct inhibitory effect on A. the adenine nucleotide exchange protein. B. ATP synthase. C. site I of the respiratory chain. D. site II of the respiratory chain. E. site III of the respiratory chain. Ans: B 71. All of the following statements about cytochrome c are correct EXCEPT which one? A. The reduced form of the protein participates in electron transport by directly donating electrons to oxygen. B. Unlike the other mitochondrial cytochromes, it is water soluble. C. It contains iron which undergoes reversible oxidation and reduction during electron transport. D. It is visibly colored. E. It is reduced by the reduced form of the cytochrome bc1 complex. Ans: A 72. A typical enzyme-catalyzed reduction reaction occurring in a biosynthetic pathway would require the cofactor A. NAD+ B. FADH2 C. FAD

D. NADPH E. NADP+ Ans: D 73. Which of the following would NOT have an inhibitory effect on the flow of metabolites through the citric acid cycle? A. High levels of ATP relative to ADP B. Depletion of NADH by its conversion to NAD+ C. Limited availability of oxaloacetate D. High levels of citrate E. Depletion of acetyl-CoA Ans: B 74. Electrons from NADH produced in the cytosol by glycolysis may be transported into the mitochondrion and to the electron transport chain through which of the following compounds? A. glutamate B. lactate C. malate D. oxaloacetate E. pyruvate Ans: C 75. How many moles of ATP can be formed from ADP during the complete oxidation of one mole of pyruvate to carbon dioxide and water in normal liver cells? A. 3 B. 9 C. 12 D. 15 E. 36 Ans: D 76. Oxidation of one molecule of pyruvate by the combined action of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex and the enzymes of the citric acid cycle is thought to result in the generation of how many pairs of electrons which can move through the electron transport chain? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. 7

Ans: C 77. Succinate dehydrogenase is found in which subcellular fraction of the liver? A. microsomes B. mitochondrial matrix C. Golgi apparatus D. inner membrane of the mitochondrion E. cytosol Ans: D 78. Cytochrome a, a3 (cytochrome oxidase) A. contains copper which is required for the reduction of oxygen. B. is a terminal electron acceptor which forms hydrogen peroxide upon reduction of oxygen. C. can be reduced directly by cytochrome b. D. is not inhibited by carbon monoxide. E. is inhibited directly by rotenone and amytal. Ans: A 79. In ATP, the linkage between each of the phosphate groups is a A. phosphomonoester. B. phosphodiester. C. phosphoamide. D. phosphoanhydride. E. phosphoenol. Ans: D 80. A radical is a molecule with a highly reactive unpaired electron in the outer shell. What does it need to attain its preferred state? A. A pair of electrons B. A proton C. Another electron D. Loss of a protein E. Loss of the single electron Ans: C 81. The steady-state activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH) is reduced by increases in all of the following EXCEPT A. acetyl CoA. B. NADH. C. cyclic AMP. D. ingestion of ethanol.

E. ATP. Ans: C 82. All of the following are found in, or associated with the mitochondrial electron transport chain EXCEPT A. cytochromes. B. coenzyme Q (ubiquinone). C. proteins containing non_heme iron and sulfur. D. proteins containing FMN. E. substrate level phosphorylation. Ans: E 83. The initial step in the reactions catalyzed by the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is the formation of carbon dioxide and A. lipoic acid in its reduced form. B. acetyl-CoA. C. the reduction of NAD+. D. a two carbon unit covalently linked to thiamine pyrophosphate. E. citrate. Ans: D 84. The glycerol phosphate shuttle results in the transport of which of the following from the cytosol into the mitochondrial matrix? A. NAD+ B. NADH C. glycerol-3-phosphate D. dihydroxyacetone phosphate E. electrons Ans: E 85. The enzyme in the citric acid cycle that catalyzes the conversion of GDP + Pi --> GTP is A. fumarase. B. isocitrate dehydrogenase. C. malate dehydrogenase. D. succinate dehydrogenase. E. succinyl-CoA synthetase. Ans: E 86. NADH can reduce coenzyme Q through the mediation of an enzyme associated with which of the following?

A. B. C. D. E.

cytochrome c Lipoic acid Iron-Porphyrin cytochrome a FMN

Ans: E 87. Uncouplers of oxidative phosphorylation A. increase ATP synthesis. B. decrease oxygen consumption. C. decrease substrate oxidation. D. short circuit a proton gradient. E. include substances such as penicillin. Ans: D 88. All of the following are components of the mitochondrial electron transport chain EXCEPT A. cytochrome c. B. thiamine pyrophosphate. C. coenzyme Q. D. cytochrome b. E. flavoprotein. Ans: B 89. There cannot be significant net formation of glucose from stearic acid in a mammal because of the irreversibility of the reaction catalyzed by A. pyruvate kinase. B. pyruvate carboxylase C. hexokinase. D. pyruvate dehydrogenase. E. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase. Ans: D 90. The synthesis of ATP in oxidative phosphorylation occurs at which of the following locations in the cell? A. cytosol B. plasma membrane C. outer membrane of the mitochondrion D. inner membrane of the mitochondrion E. nuclear membrane Ans: D

91. All of these vitamins are essential for the activity of mammalian pyruvate dehydrogenase EXCEPT A. thiamine. B. pyridoxine. C. niacin. D. pantothenic acid. E. riboflavin. Ans: B 92. M17192Lipoamide is a carrier of activated A. acyl groups. B. aldehydes C. carboxylates D. methyl groups E. phosphoryl groups Ans: A 93. All of the following metabolites are oxidized by an NAD-linked enzyme in liver cells EXCEPT A. isocitrate. B. malate. C. lactate. D. succinate. E. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate. Ans: D 94. The locus for rotenone inhibition of mitochondrial metabolism is A. malate dehydrogenase. B. NADH dehydrogenase. C. cytochrome oxidase. D. ATPase. E. succinate dehydrogenase. Ans: B 95. All of the following statements are consistent with the chemiosmotic hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation EXCEPT which one? A. Agents which uncouple oxidative phosphorylation from electron transport disrupt permeability barriers such that mitochondrial membranes become permeable to protons. B. The term electrochemical gradient or proton gradient operationally describes the free energy generated by electron transport which drives phosphorylation of ADP.

C. Protons are transferred into the mitochondria during electron transport establishing a pH gradient. D. Intact mitochondrial membranes are necessary for oxidative phosphorylation to occur. E. electron carriers of the electron transport chain are vectorially oriented. Ans: C 96. All of the following enzymes require a niacin-derived coenzyme EXCEPT which one? A. pyruvate dehydrogenase B. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase C. Malate dehydrogenase D. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase E. Mitochondrial glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase Ans: E 97. Has the LEAST involvement in the oxidative burst: A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase B. Glutathione peroxidase C. Myeloperoxidase D. NADPH oxidase E. Superoxide dismutase Ans: B 98. Thermogenesis in brown adipose tissue could not occur without increased A. calcium levels in the cytoplasm. B. secretion of ketone bodies into blood. C. uncoupling protein in the mitochondria. D. oxidation of glucose. E. synthesis of triacylglycerols. Ans: C 99. Syntheses and release of ATP in the mitochondrion from the F1_ATPase is driven by A. the discharge of a proton gradient between the intermembrane space and the matrix of the mitochondrion. B. the discharge of a proton gradient between the cytosol and the intermembrane space. C. the direct formation of a high energy compound in electron transport. D. the reduction of oxygen at the end of the electron transport chain. E. the discharge of a sodium gradient between the intermembrane space and the mitochondrial matrix. Ans: A

100. Which reaction of the Krebs cycle is not physiologically reversible? A. the formation of citrate from oxaloacetate B. the oxidation of succinate C. the oxidation of malate D. the reduction of fumarate E. the reduction of oxaloacetate Ans: A 101. A flavoprotein is required for the A. formation of glucose from glycogen. B. production of lactate from glucose. C. production of malate from succinyl CoA. D. production of pyruvate from fructose. E. production of succinate from succinyl CoA. Ans: C 102. All of the following must be catabolized to acetyl CoA before entering the Krebs cycle EXCEPT A. palmitate. B. glucose. C. lactate. D. alanine. E. glutamate. Ans: E 103. All of the following compounds would inhibit the oxidation of pyruvate by intact liver mitochondria EXCEPT A. sodium cyanide. B. rotenone. C. antimycin A. D. 2,4-dinitrophenol. E. oligomycin. Ans: D 104. Myokinase catalyzes the reaction: ADP + ADP <---> ATP + AMP. From your knowledge of high energy bonds, predict the equilibrium constant for this reaction. A. <<1. B. >>1. C. approximately 1. D. 0. E. none of the above.

Ans: C 105. Which does NOT occur among the reactions catalyzed by the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex of liver mitochondria? A. the transfer of an acetyl group to coenzyme A. B. the reduction of a disulfide. C. formation of an acetyl derivative of lipoic acid. D. a redox reaction involving coenzyme Q. E. formation of a covalent bond between a two-carbon unit and thiamine pyrophosphate. Ans: D 106. Which Krebs cycle intermediate helps to regulate the overall rate of glycolysis by direct influence on the activity of phosphofructokinase? A. citrate B. succinate C. alpha-ketoglutarate D. oxaloacetate E. malate Ans: A 107. The citric acid cycle is slowed by which of the following? A. ADP and AMP B. oxaloacetate and ADP C. NAD+ and ADP D. NADH and ATP E. NAD+ and oxaloacetate Ans: D 108. The main function of the glycerol phosphate shuttle is in A. anaerobic glycolysis for regeneration of NAD. B. the beta-oxidation of fatty acids. C. the transport of reducing equivalents into mitochondria from NADH formed during glycolysis. D. the biosynthesis of triacylglycerols. E. the biosynthesis of serine for use in mitochondrial protein synthesis. Ans: C 109. An intermediate in the Krebs cycle which is an immediate precursor of CO2 is A. malate. B. citrate. C. isocitrate.

D. aconitate. E. succinate. Ans: C 110. Which statement about the mammalian pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is FALSE? A. The complex functions in the matrix of mitochondria. B. The complex contains three different enzyme activities. C. The complex contains five different coenzymes. D. The complex is not regulated by phosphorylation- dephosphorylation. E. Lipoic acid is covalently bound to one of the proteins of the complex. Ans: D 111. Oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondrion is carried out by enzymes A. in the outer membrane. B. in the inner membrane. C. in the matrix. D. in the intermembrane space. E. All of the above. Ans: B 112. Which has the most POSITIVE reduction potential? A. NADP/NADPH B. cytochrome c/reduced cytochrome c C. FAD/FADH2 D. NAD/NADH E. O2/H2O Ans: E 113. The oxidation of NADH involves the removal of A. one hydrogen atom. B. one electron. C. two electrons. D. a hydride ion. E. one proton and one electron. Ans: D 114. Which of the following enzymes is important in protecting the cell from the potential toxicity of superoxide anion and its derivatives? A. superoxide dismutase B. cytochrome oxidase

C. succinate dehydrogenase D. FoF1-ATPase Ans: A 115. The electron transport, which occurs at the inner membrane of the mitochondrion and leads to the synthesis of ATP, results in which of the following processes? A. pumping of protons from the matrix of the mitochondrion to the intermembrane space. B. pumping of protons from the intermembrane space into the matrix of the mitochondrion. C. pumping of electrons from the matrix of the mitochondrion to the intermembrane space. D. pumping of electrons from the intermembrane space into the matrix of the mitochondrion. Ans: A 116. Which enzyme of the Krebs cycle requires free coenzyme A as a substrate? A. citrate synthase B. succinyl-CoA synthetase C. succinic dehydrogenase D. alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase E. isocitrate dehydrogenase Ans: D 117. If acetyl-CoA, uniformly labeled with 14C in the acetyl group, is condensed with unlabeled oxaloacetate and the product is oxidized via the Krebs cycle, how much of the original radioactivity will be found in the oxaloacetate formed after one turn of the cycle? A. 100% B. 75% C. 50% D. 25% E. 0% Ans: A 118. All of the following are enzymes of the Krebs cycle EXCEPT A. isocitrate dehydrogenase. B. alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase. C. enolase. D. succinate thiokinase. E. succinate dehydrogenase. Ans: C

119. When a high energy compound undergoes hydrolytic cleavage, there is a(an) A. large increase in internal bond energy. B. decrease in resonance. C. lowering of the redox potential. D. large decrease in free energy content between reactant and products. E. increase in the equilibrium constant. Ans: D 120. The main function of the mitochondrial electron transport chain is to A. generate a P/O ratio of 3. B. recycle NAD for glycolysis. C. provide reducing equivalents. D. lower the oxidation state of the cell. E. generate energy for ATP formation. Ans: E 121. Which type of enzyme can supply the citric acid cycle with oxaloacetate from pyruvate? A. an isomerase B. a mutase C. a ligase D. a kinase E. a lyase Ans: C 122. Mitochondrial genes code for 13 proteins, 2 rRNAs, and tRNAs. For which multisubunit protein do these genes encode the most proteins? A. ATP synthase B. cytochrome c reductase C. NADH-ubiquinone oxidoreductase D. Succinate dehydrogenase E. Ubiquinol-cytochrome c oxidoreductase Ans: C

Chapter 15 Carbohydrate Metabolism I: Major Metabolic Pathways and Their Control

Multiple Choice

1. The activity of which enzyme would be expected to increase as levels of insulin increase? A. pyruvate dehydrogenase B. pyruvate carboxylase C. glucose 6-phosphatase D. glycogen phosphorylase E. PEP carboxykinase Ans: A 2. Lack of activity of hepatic phosphoglucomutase in a non- fasting subject is most likely to produce a deficiency of A. pyruvate. B. ribose 5-phosphate. C. NADP. D. NADH. E. glycogen. Ans: E 3. Biotin participates in the reaction catalyzed by A. phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase kinase. B. pyruvate carboxylase. C. pyruvate dehydrogenase. D. pyruvate kinase. E. lactate dehydrogenase. Ans: B 4. Which of the enzymes below acts in the conversion of glucose -6-phosphate to fructose -6-phosphate? A. kinase B. isomerase C. phosphatase D. mutase E. dehydrogenase Ans: B

5. All of the following are involved in some aspect of galactose metabolism EXCEPT A. an epimerase. B. a uridyltransferase. C. glucose 1-phosphate phosphatase. D. UDP-glucose. E. a pyrophosphorylase. Ans: C 6. In the glycolytic pathway for conversion of glucose to lactate, an immediate product of the reaction catalyzed by aldolase is A. fructose 2,6-bisphosphate. B. fructose 2-phosphate. C. 3-phosphoglycerate. D. dihydroxyacetone phosphate. E. 1,3-diphosphoglycerate. Ans: D 7. Glycogen phosphorylase catalyzes the following reaction Inorganic phosphate + glycogen (n) -->glucose -phosphate + glycogen (n-) To which enzyme class does it belong? A. transferase B. ligase C. hydrolase D. lyase E. isomerase Ans: A 8. Which of the following compounds is a key intermediate in gluconeogenesis from lactate, pyruvate, alanine, and glutamic acid? A. ornithine B. citrate C. acetyl-CoA D. oxaloacetate E. malonyl-CoA Ans: D 9. The net products of anaerobic glycolysis are A. ATP, lactate B. ATP, pyruvate C. NAD, lactate D. ATP, acetyl-CoA

Ans: A 10. A deficiency of hepatic phosphoglucomutase would most likely lead to a deficiency of which one of the following cellular components A. pyruvate. B. ribose 5-phosphate C. NADP D. NADH E. glycogen Ans: E 11. Epinephrine stimulates the formation of A. AMP. B. the inactive, dephosphorylated form of glycogen synthase. C. the active, phosphorylated form of phosphorylase. D. phosphodiesterase. E. hexokinase. Ans: C 12. Which of the following reactions IS NOT INVOLVED in regulation of the phosphorylase kinase cascade? A. formation of cyclic AMP. B. activation of protein kinase. C. phosphorylation of certain amino acids of phosphorylase kinase. D. proteolysis. E. phosphatases. Ans: D 13. An enzyme catalyzing an anaplerotic reaction is A. pyruvate dehydrogenase. B. glucose 6-phosphatase. C. thiolase. D. citrate synthase. E. pyruvate carboxylase. Ans: E 14. The substrates for the phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase reaction are A. alanine and GTP. B. oxaloacetate and GTP. C. oxaloacetate and ATP. D. phosphoenolpyruvate and GTP.

E. pyruvate and GTP. Ans: B 15. The substrate for the committed step in glycolysis is A. glucose B. fructose 6-phosphate C. glucose 6-phosphate D. fructose 1,6-bisphosphate E. fructose 2,6-bisphosphate Ans: B 16. The glucose-alanine cycle serves to A. transport carbons from skeletal muscle to the liver. B. transport nitrogen from liver to skeletal muscle. C. transport carbons and nitrogen from skeletal muscle to the liver. D. transport carbons and nitrogen from liver to skeletal muscle. E. transport glucose from skeletal muscle to liver. Ans: C 17. Which metabolic process is most markedly impaired in the ABSENCE of insulin? A. Degradation of glycogen to glucose. B. Use of acetoacetic acid for energy. C. Transport of glucose through the muscle cell membranes. D. Reabsorption of glucose by the renal tubules. Ans: C 18. Skeletal muscle glycogen is not a source of blood glucose because skeletal muscle does not contain A. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase. B. phosphorylase. C. phosphoglucomutase. D. glucokinase. E. glucose 6-phosphatase. Ans: E 19. The malate-aspartate shuttle results in the reduction of intramitochondrial A. dihydroxyacetone phosphate. B. pyruvate. C. NAD. D. glycerol-3-phosphate E. all of the above.

Ans: C 20. Which enzyme is not subject to allosteric regulation? A. phosphofructokinase B. hexokinase C. pyruvate kinase D. glycogen synthase E. glucose 6-phosphatase Ans: E 21. Which statement regarding the control of glycogen metabolism by cyclic AMP is TRUE? A. Cyclic AMP binds allosterically to both glycogen phosphorylase and glycogen synthase, activating the former and inactivating the latter. B. Cyclic AMP stimulates the phosphorylation of glycogen phosphorylase and glycogen synthase, activating both. C. Cyclic AMP stimulates the phosphorylation of glycogen phosphorylase and the dephosphorylation of glycogen synthase, activating the former and deactivating the latter. D. Cyclic AMP stimulates the phosphorylation of both glycogen phosphorylase and glycogen synthase, activating the former and deactivating the latter. E. Cyclic AMP increases the intracellular concentration of calcium ions which stimulates the dephosphorylation of both glycogen phosphorylase and glycogen synthase. Ans: D 22. Which of the following employs the enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase? A. glycolysis B. Hexose monophosphate shunt C. Krebs cycle D. gluconeogenesis E. glycogenolysis Ans: D 23. Which process is NOT increased in the presence of insulin? A. gluconeogenesis in liver B. glucose transport into adipose tissue C. protein synthesis in muscle D. lipogenesis in adipose tissue E. glycogen synthesis in muscle Ans: A

24. Increased levels of ATP inhibit which pair of enzymes? A. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase and enolase B. lactate dehydrogenase and triose phosphate isomerase C. phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase D. phosphofructokinase and glucose 6-phosphate isomerase E. glucokinase and phosphoglucomutase Ans: C 25. All of the following enzymes have been shown to be defective in one of the glycogen storage diseases EXCEPT which one? A. glucose 6-phosphatase B. pyruvate kinase C. phosphorylase D. branching enzyme (alpha-1,4 --> alpha-1,6) Ans: B 26. A true statement concerning phosphofructokinase- (PFK-) and fructose-,bisphosphatase is that A. PFK-1 catalyzes the fastest step in glycolysis. B. PFK-1 catalyzes a reversible step in both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis. C. PFK-1 is not found in red blood cells. D. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase requires ATP for energy. E. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate is a positive allosteric regulator of PFK-1 and is a negative allosteric regulator of fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase. Ans: E 27. All of the following sugars require the action of phosphofructokinase for their metabolism to carbon dioxide and water EXCEPT A. glucose. B. galactose. C. mannose. D. maltose. E. fructose. Ans: E 28. Two allosterically regulated enzymes on the pathway from lactate to glucose are A. phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase B. pyruvate carboxylase and fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase C. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase D. pyruvate dehydrogenase and pyruvate carboxylase

Ans: B 29. All of the following statements about glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are true EXCEPT which one? A. High concentrations of acetyl-CoA inhibit acetyl-CoA formation from pyruvate and high concentrations of acetyl-CoA stimulate carboxylation of pyruvate. B. When citrate concentrations in the cytosol are high, PFK-1 activity is inhibited and fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase activity is stimulated. C. Oxaloacetate is formed from acetyl CoA. D. Formation of glucose from glycerol does not require the involvement of mitochondria. E. NADH2 is required for the formation of glucose from pyruvate. Ans: C 30. In fructose metabolism in the liver, the action of fructokinase on fructose results in the production of A. fructose 6-phosphate B. fructose 1-phosphate C. fructose 1,6-bisphosphate D. pentose 6-phosphate + carbon dioxide E. None of the above Ans: B 31. Phosphorylase is activated most directly by A. epinephrine. B. phosphorylase kinase. C. phosphorylase phosphatase. D. cAMP. E. glucagon. Ans: B 32. UDP-glucose is intermediate in each of these conversions EXCEPT which one? A. glucose to glycogen B. fructose to glycogen C. galactose to glycogen D. glycogen to glucose E. galactose to glucose Ans: D 33. Which one of the following molecules is a negative allosteric effector of phosphofructokinase? A. Succinic acid

B. C. D. E.

ADP Oxaloacetate Citrate All of the above

Ans: D 34. The biosynthesis of glycogen from glucose phosphate A. is catalyzed by glycogen phosphorylase. B. requires UTP. C. is stimulated by a low energy charge. D. occurs in the mitochondrial matrix. E. is stimulated by increased levels of cyclic AMP. Ans: B 35. Which is an unlikely metabolic fate of glucose--phosphate in muscle? A. Conversion to fructose-6-phosphate. B. Conversion to glucose-1-phosphate. C. Conversion to dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. D. Hydrolysis to glucose. E. Conversion to lactate. Ans: D 36. Binding of epinephrine to muscle cell receptors results directly in increased activity of A. glycogen synthase. B. phosphofructokinase. C. isocitrate dehydrogenase. D. glucose 6-phosphatase. E. adenyl cyclase. Ans: E 37. The activity of which enzyme is controlled by phosphorylation and dephosphorylation of serine residues? A. glucokinase B. PEP carboxykinase C. phosphofructokinase D. 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde dehydrogenase E. glycogen phosphorylase Ans: E 38. Which statement concerning phosphorylase is FALSE?

A. The active enzyme catalyzes the reaction: (glucose)n + Pi -> (glucose)n-1 + Glucose1-P B. The enzyme is activated by phosphorylation. C. Phosphorylation of phosphorylase in muscle is controlled by glucagon. D. The phosphorylation of phosphorylase is catalyzed by a protein kinase. E. The phosphorylation of phosphorylase increases at higher concentrations of cAMP Ans: C 39. The effects of insulin on glucose uptake by muscle tissue are most directly opposed by A. cortisol. B. glucagon. C. epinephrine. D. somatomedin A. E. thyroid hormones. Ans: B 40. Which enzyme uses inorganic phosphate as a substrate? A. glucose 6-phosphatase. B. phosphofructokinase. C. glucokinase. D. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase. E. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase. Ans: E 41. The principal tissue involved in gluconeogenesis to provide glucose for the resynthesis of muscle glycogen following prolonged exercise is A. skeletal muscle. B. brain. C. kidney. D. heart muscle. E. liver. Ans: E 42. The glycogen branching enzyme is classified as A. a glycogen phosphorylase. B. a uridine diphosphate glucose-glycogen glucosyl transferase. C. an amylo (1,4 --> 1,6) D. a beta-amylase. E. an alpha-amylase. Ans: C

43. Glucagon plays a homeostatic role by A. being released from the pancreas in response to elevated blood glucose levels and then activating the liver phosphorylase system. B. being released from the pancreas in response to lowered blood glucose levels and then activating the liver phosphorylase system. C. stimulating the release of glucose residues from muscle glycogen during periods of intense muscular activity. D. activating adenylate cyclase in skeletal muscle cells. E. facilitating glucose uptake into skeletal muscle. Ans: B 44. Glycolysis will cease if A. the concentration of cAMP is decreased. B. phosphofructokinase is activated. C. mitochondria are not present in the cell. D. NADH is not oxidized. Ans: D 45. The actions of glycogen phosphorylase and the debranching enzyme on glycogen results in which of the following product or products? A. glucose 6-phosphate B. glucose 1-phosphate and glucose C. UDP-glucose D. glucose 6-phosphate and glucose E. UDP-glucose and glucose Ans: B 46. In glycogen, what types of linkages are present between the glucose units? A. Beta-1,4-linkages only B. Beta-1,4 and beta-1,6 linkages C. Alpha-1,4 linkages only D. Alpha-1,4 and alpha-1,6 linkages E. Beta-1,3 linkages Ans: D 47. Which liver enzyme is required to form glucose from both glycogen and lactate? A. pyruvate carboxylase B. fructose-1, 6-bisphosphatase C. glucose-6-phosphatase D. phosphorylase a E. phosphoglucomutase

Ans: C 48. Which of the following are activators of glycolysis AND inhibitors of gluconeogenesis? 1. AMP 2. ATP 3.citrate 4..fructose 2,6-bisphosphate 5. fructose 1,6bisphosphate A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 3 and 5 D. 4 and 1 E. 5 and 3 Ans: D 49. Which of the following enzymes forms alpha-, linkages in glycogen? A. glycogen synthase B. glycogen branching enzyme C. amylo-(1,6) D. phosphorylase kinase Ans: B 50. For which glycolytic enzyme is inorganic phosphate a substrate? A. aldolase B. glucose-6-phosphatase C. enolase D. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase E. pyruvate kinase Ans: D 51. The disaccharide lactose is composed of A. galactose and mannose. B. glucose and mannose. C. glucose and galactose. D. glucose and glucosamine. E. glucose and fructose. Ans: C 52. Which of the following enzymes reactivates inactive liver phosphorylase? A. glycogen synthase B. glycogen branching enzyme C. amylo-(1,6) D. phosphorylase kinase

Ans: D 53. Glycogen phosphorylase P (the phosphorylated form) may be activated by A. ATP. B. AMP. C. glucose-1-phosphate. D. glucose-6-phosphate. E. fructose-1,6-biphosphate. Ans: D 54. The following enzyme(s) is/are required to synthesize phosphoenol_pyruvate from pyruvate in gluconeogenesis: A. pyruvate kinase B. pyruvate carboxylase and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase C. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase and glucose-6-phosphatase D. pyruvate dehydrogenase E. phosphoenolpyruvate dehydrogenase and pyruvate alpha_ketolase Ans: B 55. A decrease in the ATP:ADP ratio would result in A. a decrease in phosphofructokinase activity. B. a decrease in the rate of electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation. C. an increase in the net flux of intermediates through the glycolytic pathway. D. a decrease of isocitrate dehydrogenase activity. E. none of the above Ans: C 56. Which statement about gluconeogenesis is correct? A. The acetate group of acetyl-CoA is used for the net synthesis of glucose. B. It occurs primarily in skeletal muscle. C. It occur through reversal of the reactions of glycolysis. D. Lactate and alanine can both serve as substrates. E. ATP is not required. Ans: D 57. For gluconeogenesis A. The enzymes that catalyze the 3 irreversible steps of glycolysis are used in the process of glucose synthesis. B. The enzymatic reactions are carried out in 3 different subcellular compartments. C. The brain and testis are the most important tissues involved. D. No high energy phosphate compounds are involved.

Ans: B 58. Which is a positive allosteric effector of phosphofructokinase? A. glucose 6-phosphate B. acetyl-CoA C. citrate D. fructose 2,6-bisphosphate E. ATP Ans: D 59. Two enzymes specifically required for gluconeogenesis from lactate but not from glycerol are A. pyruvate kinase and phosphoglycerate kinase. B. pyruvate carboxylase and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase. C. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase. D. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase and phosphofructokinase-1. E. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase and aldolase. Ans: B 60. Biotin participates in the reaction catalyzed by A. phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase kinase. B. pyruvate carboxylase C. pyruvate dehydrogenase. D. pyruvate kinase. E. lactate dehydrogenase. Ans: B 61. Insulin A. stimulates the phosphodiesterase enzyme which breaks down cAMP. B. decreases the concentration of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate in liver. C. inhibits hepatic glycolysis. D. stimulates glucose transport into the liver. E. has the same effect on glycolysis in the liver as glucagon. Ans: A 62. All the following statements about the enzyme glyceraldehyde -phosphate dehydrogenase are correct EXCEPT A. it conserves the energy of an oxidation reaction as a high energy phosphate bond. B. the enzyme forms a covalent high energy intermediate in the reaction. C. NAD is required for the enzyme to function. D. ATP is a product of the reaction. E. phosphate is consumed in the reaction.

Ans: D 63. A substrate which transfers phosphate directly to ADP is A. 3-phosphoglycerate. B. 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde. C. phosphoenolpyruvate. D. fructose 1,6-bisphosphate. E. 2-phosphoglyceric acid. Ans: C 64. All of the following statements about galactose and its metabolism are true EXCEPT: A. A UDP-glucose molecule is an intermediate in galactose metabolism. B. Galactokinase uses ATP as substrate. C. Galactose is a ketose. D. Galactose is converted to glucose in the liver. E. Digestion and absorption of lactose results in an increase in blood glucose concentrations. Ans: C 65. Cyclic AMP A. has a phosphodiester bond between C-5 and C-2 carbons of the ribose moiety. B. inhibits glucose-6-phosphatase. C. is degraded in response to high glucagon levels. D. is synthesized directly from AMP. E. modulates the level of fructose 2,6 bisphosphate. Ans: E 66. Glycolysis is only partially reversible because of energy barriers at the reactions catalyzed by A. hexokinase, triose phosphate isomerase, and pyruvate kinase. B. phosphofructokinase, aldolase, and lactate dehydrogenase. C. hexokinase, pyruvate dehydrogenase, and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase. D. hexokinase, phosphofructokinase, and pyruvate kinase. E. hexokinase, glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase, pyruvate kinase. Ans: D 67. An increase in glucagon will cause A. an increase in liver glycogenolysis. B. a decrease in blood glucose. C. an inactivation of liver adenyl cyclase. D. an increase in muscle glycogenesis.

Ans: A 68. The enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of fructose-l,-bisphosphate to fructose-phosphate + Pi is classified as A. an oxidoreductase. B. a transferase. C. a hydrolase. D. a lyase. E. a ligase. Ans: C 69. All of the following metabolic conditions favor the conversion of pyruvate to glucose EXCEPT A. an active form of pyruvate carboxylase. B. a rapid rate of fatty acid oxidation. C. an energy charge near 1.0. D. a low level of active phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase. E. an inhibited pyruvate dehydrogenase complex. Ans: D 70. If liver glucose -phosphatase were deficient, what would best characterize the expected change in metabolism relative to the normal state? A. increased energy supply to the brain. B. hyperglycemia after a normal meal. C. depletion of glycogen stores in liver. D. hypoglycemia one or two hours after a meal. Ans: D 71. Glucocorticoids such as cortisol and corticosterone have distinct effects on hepatic carbohydrate metabolism, such as promoting gluconeogenesis and glycogen deposition. The likely mechanism of these effects involves A. binding of glucocorticoids to liver cell membrane receptors with concomitant activation of adenylate cyclase. B. acute stimulation of enzymes in the pathways of gluconeogenesis and glycogenesis. C. direct inhibition of enzymes participating in glycolysis and glycogenesis. D. induction of new enzyme synthesis for enzymes in the pathways of gluconeogenesis and glycogen synthesis. Ans: D 72. Which of the following is an enzyme which catalyzes a freely reversible reaction under physiological conditions?

A. B. C. D. E.

glucose 6-phosphatase phosphofructokinase aldolase phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase fructose bisphosphatase

Ans: C 73. In the following pathway for conversion of glucose to pyruvate, what is compound X? glucose --> --> --> --> glyceraldehyde -phosphate --> X --> phosphoglycerate --> -> --> pyruvate A. glyceraldehyde 2- phosphate B. 2-phosphoglycerate C. 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate D. 1-phosphoglycerate E. 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate Ans: C 74. All of the following statements concerning the conversion of pyruvate to glucose in mammals are true EXCEPT A. electrons are shuttled from mitochondria to the cytoplasm during this conversion. B. high levels of cellular ATP results in stimulation of this process. C. GTP is involved in this process. D. only one regulated enzyme is involved in the overall conversion of pyruvate to glucose. E. some of the enzymes of glycolysis participate in the conversion. Ans: D 75. Adenylate cyclase is an enzyme which increases the concentration of the second messenger, cyclic AMP. In liver high adenylate cyclase activity brings about A. conversion of glycogen synthase D to glycogen synthase I. B. increased conversion of carbohydrate into fatty acids. C. increased conversion of phosphorylase a to phosphorylase b. D. increased lipogenesis from gluconeogenic amino acids. E. increased activity of a protein kinase. Ans: E 76. During the breakdown of glycogen, free glucose is formed from A. the reducing end. B. the non-reducing end. C. glucose residues in an alpha 1-->4 linkage to the chain. D. glucose residues in an alpha 1-->6 linkage to the chain. E. hydrolysis of glucose 1-phosphate.

Ans: D 77. All of the following can stimulate the activity of muscle glycogen phosphorylase EXCEPT A. calcium ions. B. epinephrine. C. cyclic AMP. D. phosphorylase kinase. E. glucagon. Ans: E 78. What is the primary process by which epinephrine increases blood sugar? A. synthesis of carbohydrate from fat B. absorption of carbohydrate from the digestive tract C. liver glycogenesis D. liver glycogenolysis E. glyconeogenesis Ans: D 79. Which reaction is catalyzed by glycogen synthase? A. UTP + glucose 1-P --> UDP-glucose + PPi B. UDP glucose + glycogenin --> PPi + glycogenn+1 C. UDP glucose + glycogenin --> UMP + Pi + glycogenn+1 D. glycogenin + UDP-glucose --> glycogenn+1 + UDP E. glucose 6-P + glycogenin --> Pi + glycogenn+1 Ans: D 80. The glycerol phosphate shuttle A. results in production of dihydroxyacetone phosphate in the matrix of mitochondria. B. transfers electrons from cytosolic NADH to the respiratory chain of mitochondria. C. inhibits glycolysis. D. supports phosphorylation of three moles of ADP per mole of cytosolic NADH oxidized. E. uses 3-phosphoglyceric acid as a substrate. Ans: B 81. All of the following statements concerning gluconeogenesis are correct EXCEPT which one? A. gluconeogenesis from lactate occurs in both mammalian liver and muscle. B. One mole of glucose is produced from two moles of lactate. C. Given ATP, all the reactions of gluconeogenesis can occur in the absence of air.

D. Although a net of two molecules of ATP are generated per molecule of glucose converted to lactate, six molecules of ATP (or its equivalent) are required to synthesize one molecule of glucose from lactate. E. Photosynthesis in green plants utilizes part of the gluconeogenic pathway for hexose synthesis. Ans: A 82. Which statement about glycolysis is TRUE? A. The first step for which ATP is required is catalyzed by phosphofructokinase. B. The rate of glycolysis in the absence of oxygen is usually less than the rate in the presence of oxygen. C. The phosphoglycerate kinase reaction is reversible under physiological conditions but the hexokinase reaction is not. D. The product of the reaction catalyzed by triose phosphate isomerase is phosphoenolpyruvate. E. The conversion of pyruvate to lactate requires NAD. Ans: C 83. The action of phosphoprotein phosphatase would be expected to activate which of the following? A. phosphorylase B. glycogen synthase C. protein phosphatase inhibitor_1 D. phosphorylase kinase E. cAMP_dependent protein kinase Ans: B 84. Which of the following compounds is the direct glucosyl donor in the biosynthesis of glycogen in animal tissue? A. uridine diphosphate glucose B. thymidine diphosphate glucose C. glucose 1-phosphate D. adenosine diphosphate glucose E. glucose 1,6-bisphosphate Ans: A 85. Muscle cells are metabolizing glucose in the absence of oxygen. What change will occur when oxygen is introduced? A. increased rate of utilization of glucose B. decreased rate of utilization of glucose C. increased accumulation of lactate D. activation of phosphofructokinase

E. decreased activity of the Krebs cycle Ans: B 86. The action of the enzyme phosphorylase kinase results in the A. activation of glycogen synthase. B. inactivation of glycogen synthase. C. activation of glycogen phosphorylase. D. inactivation of glycogen phosphorylase. E. activation of a protein phosphatase. Ans: C 87. A rise in ATP/ADP ratio in liver tends to increase the A. degradation of glycogen. B. glycolysis activity. C. activity of phosphofructokinase. D. activity of gluconeogenesis. E. concentration of AMP. Ans: D 88. Regulated steps in glycolysis of muscle tissue include which of the following? () the phosphohexose isomerase reaction () the phosphofructokinase reaction () the enolase reaction () the phosphoglycerate kinase reaction () the pyruvate kinase A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 3 and 5 D. 1 and 4 E. 2 and 5 Ans: E 89. The two enzymes which catalyze the substrate-level phosphorylation of ADP to ATP in glycolysis are A. hexokinase and glycerol kinase. B. succinyl-CoA synthase and phosphorylase b kinase. C. phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase. D. pyruvate kinase and 3-phosphoglycerate kinase. E. phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase and 3-phosphoglycerate kinase Ans: D 90. Galactose is found in the hydrolytic products of: A. maltose. B. amylose.

C. lactose. D. sucrose. E. glycogen. Ans: C 91. All of the following statements concerning glycogen synthase are true EXCEPT which one? A. The D and I forms of the enzyme are interconvertible through phosphorylation and dephosphorylation. B. The D form depends upon high intracellular levels of glucose 6-phosphate in order to be active. C. In skeletal muscle, increased intracellular levels of glycogen inhibits the conversion of the D form to the I form. D. High intracellular levels of ATP can stimulate glycogen synthase D activity. E. None of the above; they are all true. Ans: D 92. Enzymes in liver which are exclusively gluconeogenic are A. glucose 6-phosphatase, fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase and glucokinase. B. PEP carboxykinase, glucose 6-phosphatase and aldolase A. C. fructose bisphosphatase, pyruvate dehydrogenase and PEP carboxykinase. D. PEP carboxykinase, fructose bisphosphatase and glucose 6-phosphatase. Ans: D 93. Glycogen synthase A. catalyzes a freely reversible reaction. B. catalyzes the synthesis of alpha-1,6 glycosidic linkages. C. requires a primer. D. uses glucose 1-phosphate as a substrate. E. when phosphorylated yields a more active form. Ans: C 94. Which of the following type of cells are not dependent on insulin for glucose transport? A. Skeletal muscle B. Adipose tissue C. Kidney D. Brain E. C & D Ans: E

95. Which directly stimulates the activity of glycogen synthase D? A. AMP B. glucose 6-phosphate C. ATP D. epinephrine E. cAMP Ans: B 96. Which of the following statements concerning the regulation of glycolysis and gluconeogenesis is FALSE? A. Citrate inhibits gluconeogenesis. B. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate stimulates glycolysis. C. insulin stimulates glycolysis. D. NADH and acetyl-CoA inhibit the formation of more acetyl-CoA. E. glucagon inhibits glycolysis in the liver but not in skeletal muscle. Ans: A 97. Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism for glucagon's control of metabolism? A. glucagon allosterically regulates many enzymes directly. B. glucagon decreases the synthesis of glycolytic enzymes. C. glucagon stimulates a cAMP mediated cascade which results in the phosphorylation of one or more target enzymes. D. glucagon decreases membrane permeability to glucose. E. glucagon decreases membrane permeability to fatty acids. Ans: C 98. Which is NOT an obligatory intermediate in the anaerobic glycolysis of glucose? A. glucose 6-phosphate B. glucose 1-phosphate C. fructose 6-phosphate D. fructose 1,6-bisphosphate E. 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde Ans: B 99. The main organ responsible for keeping the blood glucose level steady between meals by making glucose via gluconeogenesis is the A. pancreas. B. kidney. C. liver. D. muscles. E. adipose tissue.

Ans: C 100. Glucagon secretion would be most likely to lead to the elevation of which one of the following enzymes? A. acetyl CoA carboxylase B. citrate lyase C. phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase D. 3-hydroxy-3-methyl glutaryl CoA reductase E. lipoprotein lipase Ans: C 101. Acetyl-CoA regulates gluconeogenesis by activating A. phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase. B. pyruvate kinase. C. pyruvate carboxylase. D. lactate dehydrogenase E. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase. Ans: C 102. Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of __ linked to__ . A. galactose, glucose B. glucose, glucose C. galactose, fructose D. fructose, fructose E. glucose, fructose Ans: E 103. Two allosterically regulated enzymes on the pathway from lactate to glucose are A. phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase B. pyruvate carboxylase and fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase C. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase D. pyruvate dehydrogenase and pyruvate carboxylase Ans: B 104. All of the following statements apply to skeletal muscle glycogen phosphorylase EXCEPT which one? A. Phosphate ion is one substrate of this enzyme. B. Its activity is increased by high levels of AMP. C. The fully functional enzyme has more than one active site. D. The b form contains a phosphorylated serine group. E. The activity of the liver enzyme is influenced by levels of epinephrine.

Ans: D 105. An enzyme required for gluconeogenesis and which uses GTP as a substrate is A. pyruvate dehydrogenase B. pyruvate carboxylase C. malate dehydrogenase D. pyruvate kinase E. phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase Ans: E 106. In the carboxylation of pyruvate to oxaloacetate by the enzyme pyruvate carboxylase, acetyl CoA interacts with pyruvate carboxylase as a A. substrate. B. noncompetitive inhibitor. C. homotropic activator. D. heterotropic activator. E. competitive inhibitor. Ans: D 107. All of the following would be caused by or would be the result of increased levels of epinephrine in the circulatory system EXCEPT A. production of cyclic-AMP. B. activation of a protein kinase. C. phosphorylation in liver cells of side-chain of specific serine units of certain proteins. D. stimulation of a phosphoprotein phosphatase. E. increased breakdown of liver glycogen. Ans: D 108. Fructose ,-bisphosphate stimulates A. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase B. fructose 6-phosphate C. glucokinase D. phosphofructokinase-1 Ans: D 109. The earliest consequence of an increase in the level of cyclic AMP in muscle cells will be A. stimulation of adenylate cyclase. B. inhibition of phosphodiesterase. C. dissociation of the catalytic subunit of protein kinase from the regulatory subunit. D. phosphorylation of phosphorylase b kinase.

E. increased rate of glycogen breakdown. Ans: C 110. The conversion of UDP-galactose to UDP-glucose involves A. an isomerase. B. a mutase. C. an epimerase. D. an aldolase. E. a dehydrase. Ans: C 111. Enzymes catalyzing reactions that are essentially irreversible under physiological conditions include A. phosphopentose isomerase. B. hexokinase. C. aldolase. D. phosphoglycerate kinase. E. more than one of the above. Ans: B 112. Which of the following would stimulate the principal controlled step of glycolysis? A. ATP B. citrate C. fructose 2,6_bisphosphate D. glucose 6_phosphate E. fructose 1,6_bisphosphate Ans: C 113. Concerning the reaction Phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP -----> pyruvate + ATP which of the following statements is true? A. Formation of ATP and pyruvate occurs since under intracellular conditions the hydrolysis of ATP is exergonic while the hydrolysis of phosphoenolpyruvate is endergonic. B. Reaction is an example of oxidative phosphorylation. C. Reaction equilibrium lies far to the left. D. Formation of ATP and pyruvate occurs since hydrolysis of phosphoenolpyruvate results in the release of free energy that is numerically larger than the free energy associated with the phosphorylation of ADP E. None of the above is correct. Ans: D

114. What is the approximate yield of ATP (from ADP) when one residue of glucose, released from glycogen, is converted to lactic acid under anaerobic conditions? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 Ans: D 115. Glycogen in muscle A. serves as a source of fuel for ATP synthesis within that tissue. B. serves primarily as a buffer of blood glucose levels. C. serves as a source of glucose-6-phosphate which is subsequently dephosphorylated by glucose-6-phosphatase and transported out of the cell. D. is rapidly depleted during fasting. Ans: A 116. All of the following are gluconeogenic enzymes EXCEPT A. glucose 6-phosphatase. B. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase. C. phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)-carboxykinase. D. pyruvate carboxylase. E. pyruvate dehydrogenase. Ans: E 117. Which characterizes the activity of (glycogen) debranching enzyme? A. breakage of alpha-1,4-bonds B. breakage of alpha-1,6-bonds C. transfer of a chain of three glucosyl residues. D. production of free glucose E. all of the above Ans: E 118. Using a signal transduction pathway, glucagon influences the activity of the enzyme that catalyses the formation of A. fructose 1_phosphate. B. fructose 6_phosphate. C. fructose 1,6_bisphosphate. D. fructose 2_phosphate. E. fructose 2,6_bisphosphate. Ans: E

119. The NET products of anaerobic glycolysis are A. pyruvate, NAD, ATP. B. lactate, NAD, ATP. C. lactate, ATP. D. acetyl-CoA, NADH, ATP. E. pyruvate, ATP. Ans: C 120. The formation of one molecule of glucose from pyruvate in liver requires as substrates A. one molecule each of GTP and ATP. B. two molecules each of GTP and ATP. C. two molecules of GTP and four molecules of ATP. D. two molecules of GTP and eight molecules of ATP. E. one molecule of GTP and two molecules of ATP. Ans: C 121. An enzyme required for gluconeogenesis from lactate and which uses ATP as a substrate is A. pyruvate dehydrogenase. B. pyruvate carboxylase. C. malate dehydrogenase D. phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase. E. pyruvate kinase. Ans: B 122. Fructose-,-bisphosphate A. allosterically inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis. B. phosphorylates 6-phosphofructo-1-kinase. C. is elevated in pyruvate kinase deficiency. D. uncouples oxidative phosphorylation. E. modulates oxygen binding by hemoglobin. Ans: A 123. When glycogen synthase is phosphorylated, it A. is inactive but can be allosterically stimulated by AMP. B. is active in the synthesis of glycogen from UDP-glucose. C. catalyzes synthesis of alpha-1,6 bonds between glucose molecules. D. is inactive but can be allosterically stimulated by glucose 6-phosphate. E. acquires a phosphate group on a tyrosine residue.

Ans: D 124. Phosphorylase a A. contains phosphorylated serine residues. B. exists as a dimer. C. is the less active form of the enzyme. D. is activated directly by cyclic AMP. E. none of the above Ans: A 125. The hepatic sensor of blood glucose levels is: A. Adenylate cyclase B. Calmodulin C. Fructose bisphosphatase D. phosphofructokinase E. Phosphorylase b Ans: E 126. Ethanol may inhibit gluconeogenesis by A. direct activation of glucose 6-phosphatase. B. competition with lactate for NAD. C. inhibition of pyruvate dehydrogenase. D. inhibition of fatty acid oxidation. E. decreasing FAD in liver. Ans: B 127. Which of the following participates in sugar transfer reactions in man? A. UDP-beta-D-glucose B. UDP-alpha-D-glucose C. GDP-beta-D-mannose D. UDP-alpha-D-mannose E. GDP-alpha-D-galactose Ans: B 128. High concentrations of glucosephosphate A. stimulate hexokinase. B. stimulate glucokinase. C. stimulate phosphorylase. D. stimulate glycogen synthase D. E. inhibit phosphofructokinase-1.

129. The immediate event that occurs to glucose on entering a liver cell that prevents the glucose from escaping the cell is A. conversion into galactose. B. phosphorylation at C-6. C. phosphorylation at C-1. D. polymerization into glycogen. E. oxidation at C-6. Ans: B 130. Gluconeogenesis is stimulated by A. glucagon and norepinephrine. B. epinephrine and somatostatin. C. glucagon and epinephrine. D. insulin and glucagon. Ans: C 131. Which of the following stimulates gluconeogenesis? A. high concentration of acetyl CoA in the mitochondria B. high concentration of fatty acyl CoA in the cytosol C. insulin D. high concentration of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate in the cytosol E. increase in the amount of the enzyme glucokinase Ans: A 132. Mannose is made in the body from glucose. The immediate precursor of mannose phosphate is A. glucose 6-phosphate. B. UDP-mannose. C. fructose 6-phosphate. D. mannose 1-phosphate. E. fructose 1-phosphate. Ans: C 133. AMP (cyclic AMP) activates glycogen phosphorylase by which mechanism? A. It adenylates inactive phosphorylase converting it to an active form. B. It allosterically activates the phosphorylase. C. It allosterically inhibits phosphorylase phosphatase. D. It allosterically activates an enzyme which initiates a series of reactions resulting in the activation of phosphorylase. E. It phosphorylates an enzyme which initiates a series of reactions resulting in the activation of phosphorylase.

Ans: D 134. All of the following mechanisms govern the activity of phosphofructo- kinase(PFK-) EXCEPT A. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate stimulates PFK-1. B. ATP inhibits PFK-1. C. Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate stimulates PFK-1. D. AMP stimulates PFK-1. E. Citrate inhibits PFK-1. Ans: A 135. The Cori cycle is important as a consequence of the lack of which of the following enzymes in muscle? A. enolase B. aldolase C. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase D. glucokinase E. glucose 6-phosphatase Ans: E 136. The increase in blood sugar level resulting from epinephrine injection can best be explained by which one of the following? A. Synthesis of carbohydrate from fat B. Absorption of carbohydrate from the digestive tract C. Liver glycogenesis D. Liver glycogenolysis E. gluconeogenesis Ans: D 137. There cannot be significant net formation of glucose from stearic acid in a mammal because of the irreversibility of the reaction catalyzed by A. pyruvate kinase. B. pyruvate carboxylase. C. hexokinase. D. pyruvate dehydrogenase. E. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase. Ans: D 138. The most important enzyme in the physiological regulation of glycolysis is A. hexokinase. B. hexosephosphate isomerase. C. phosphofructokinase.

D. triose phosphate isomerase. E. aldolase. Ans: C 139. Which statement is true of glucokinase? A. It catalyzes the phosphorylation of fructose. B. It has a lower Km for glucose than does hexokinase. C. It is found in liver. D. It does not require Mg++. E. None of the above is correct. Ans: C 140. Glucuronic acid is synthesized most directly from A. ascorbic acid. B. gluconolactone. C. UDP-glucose. D. galactose. E. glucose. Ans: C 141. You have just been awarded a grant to study the relationship of glycogen metabolism to blood glucose levels in laboratory rats and are planning your first experiments. Which of the following tissues would be the most critical to include in your study? A. Adipose tissue B. Liver C. Skeletal muscle D. Kidney E. Bone marrow Ans: B 142. Phosphofructokinase catalyzes the phosphorylation of fructose -phosphate to form fructose ,-bisphosphate. ATP is the phosphate donor and also inhibits phosphofructokinase. How can ATP act as a substrate and as a feedback inhibitor? A. The formation of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is forced toward completion because standard free energy for the reaction is negative. B. There are two ATP-binding sites on the enzyme; a catalytic site with low affinity and a regulatory binding site with high affinity. At high ATP levels, the enzyme is inhibited fully. C. There are two ATP-binding sites on the enzyme; a catalytic site with a high affinity for ATP, and a regulatory site with low ATP affinity. The enzyme is shut down only at high ATP concentrations when the energy charge is high.

D. There is a single ATP-binding site; binding ATP lowers the probability of reaction for a short time, even after ATP is unbound. Thus a high ATP concentration inhibits the reaction. E. none of the above Ans: C 143. One form of glycogen synthase has a requirement for glucose -phosphate (GP). This is because A. G6P is a feedback inhibitor of the enzyme. B. G6P is required for activation of the enzyme by cAMP. C. G6P is a substrate for the enzyme. D. G6P is an allosteric activator of glycogen synthase. E. G6P is a substrate for branching enzyme. Ans: D 144. Net gluconeogenesis (the net synthesis of glucose) can be carried out using which of the following metabolic intermediates as a starting material? . acetyl CoA . oxaloacetate . acetoacetate . pyruvate . stearic acid A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 3 and 5 D. 4 and 5 E. 2 and 3 Ans: B 145. Oxidation of NADH produced in the cytoplasm can be catalyzed by all EXCEPT A. lactate dehydrogenase. B. alpha-glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase. C. cytoplasmic malate dehydrogenase. D. 3-Phosphoglyceraldehyde dehydrogenase. E. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase. Ans: E 146. When epinephrine binds to its receptor on skeletal muscle, glycogenolysis is stimulated. The hormone signal influences the activity of each of these enzymes EXCEPT A. phosphorylase. B. adenylate cyclase. C. phosphorylase kinase a. D. cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase. E. debranching enzyme.

Ans: E 147. You are studying a patient with an unusual metabolic defect resulting in abnormal glucose metabolism. You have determined that the patient has very low levels of phosphofructokinase_ and fructose ,_bisphosphate. Which of the following would you predict? A. increased rate of glycolysis B. decreased rate of gluconeogenesis and increased rate of glycolysis C. decreased rate of glycolysis and increased rate of gluconeogenesis D. decreased rate of gluconeogenesis Ans: C 148. All of the following are negative modulators of liver pyruvate kinase EXCEPT A. alanine. B. fructose 1,6-bisphosphate. C. palmitic acid. D. oleic acid. E. ATP. Ans: B 149. How many moles of ATP (or equivalent) are required for the reactions through which lactic acid is converted to a mole of glucose in the liver. A. 2. B. 3. C. 4. D. 5. E. 6. Ans: E 150. Which of the following tissues utilize insulin_dependent (GLUT) transporters for glucose uptake? A. Brain, muscle, small intestine B. Adipose, skeletal muscle, heart muscle C. Liver, cardiac muscle, pancreas D. Skeletal muscle, connective tissue, nervous tissue Ans: B 151. The reaction that is common to both the breakdown and the biosynthesis of glucose is A. glucose + ATP < ---> glucose-6-phosphate + ADP. B. fructose 6-phosphate + ATP <----> fructose 1,6-bisphosphate + ADP. C. phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP <----> pyruvate + ATP.

D. 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate + ADP <----> 3-phosphoglycerate + ATP. E. glucose 6-phosphate + water <----> glucose + Pi. Ans: D 152. During gluconeogenesis, which enzyme must be present in addition to the glycolytic enzymes? A. fructose 1,6-bisphosphate phosphatase B. phosphofructokinase C. pyruvate kinase D. pyruvate dehydrogenase E. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase Ans: A 153. The reducing equivalents of cytosolic NADH derived from glycolysis can be utilized for the mitochondrial electron transport system by A. Direct donation of electrons to cytochrome c in the intermembrane space. B. Transport of NADH into the mitochondrial matrix and donation of electrons to electron transport complex I. C. Reduction of dihydroxyacetone phosphate to phosphatidyl glycerol, transport of phosphatidyl glycerol into the mitochondrial matrix, reduction of NAD+ to NADH, and donation of electrons to complex I. D. Direct reduction of FAD by NADH by mitochondrial glycerol_3_ phosphate dehydrogenase. E. Reduction of cytosolic oxaloacetate to malate, transport of malate into the mitochondrial matrix, reoxidation of malate to oxaloacetate and reduction of NAD+ to NADH, and donation of electrons from NADH to complex I. Ans: E 154. An enzyme in the glycolytic pathway that results in the conversion of hexosebisphosphate into triose-phosphates is A. hexokinase. B. triose isomerase. C. aldolase. D. pyruvate kinase. E. citrate synthase. Ans: C 155. Which pair of enzymes participates in the synthesis of glycogen from glucose? A. glycogen phosphorylase and amylo-1,6-glucosidase B. phosphoglucomutase and UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase C. glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase D. amylase and amylo-1,6-glucosidase

E. glucose 6-phosphatase and phosphoglucose isomerase Ans: B 156. As blood levels of glucagon increase, there is a concomitant A. decrease in liver glycogenolysis. B. decrease in blood glucose. C. activation of liver adenylate cyclase. D. increase in muscle glycogenesis. E. increase in fructose 2,6_bisphosphate. Ans: C 157. Fructose A. unlike glucose, cannot be metabolized by any part of the glycolytic pathway. B. in the liver, enters directly into glycolysis mainly as fructose-6-phosphate. C. must be isomerized into glucose-6-phosphate before it can be metabolized. D. is converted into UDP-fructose and then epimerized into UDP-glucose. E. catabolism in liver requires the action of a special aldolase that recognizes fructose-1phosphate. Ans: E 158. Which enzyme would be expected to increase in activity on administration of insulin? A. fructose 1,6-bisphosphate phosphatase B. pyruvate carboxylase C. glucokinase D. glycogen phosphorylase E. PEP carboxykinase Ans: C 159. What is the net yield of NADH when glucose -6-phosphate is converted to lactate by anaerobic glycolysis? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 Ans: A 160. Insulin promotes glycogen synthesis in the liver by: A. inhibiting glycogen synthase. B. binding to phosphorylase.

C. causing the dephosphorylation of both phosphorylase and glycogen synthase. D. activating phosphorylase. E. facilitating the transport of glucose into the cell. Ans: C

Chapter 18 Lipid Metabolism II: Pathways of Metabolism of Special Lipids

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following statements concerning the serum lipoproteins is true? A. The chylomicron particle is smaller than the LDL particle. B. The density of a lipoprotein increases as the ratio of lipid to protein in the particle increases. C. Most of the triglyceride in serum is contained in VLDL and chylomicrons. D. Most of the cholesterol in serum is contained in LDL as unesterified cholesterol. E. none of the above. Ans: C 2. Which of the following is the most correct sequence involved in the synthesis of triacylglycerols (triglycerides) in the fat cell? A. glycerol 3-phosphate ==> PA ==> 1,2-DG ==> TG B. PA ==> glycerol 3-phosphate ==> 1,2-DG ==> TG C. glycerol 3-phosphate ==> MG ==> DG ==> TG D. glycerol 3-phosphate ==> 1,2-DG ==> PA ==> TG E. glycerol ==> glycerol 3-phosphate ==> PA == 1,2-DG ==> TG Ans: A 3. Both aspirin and indomethacin block prostaglandin formation by inhibition of A. cyclooxygenase B. diacylglycerol lipase. C. 5-lipooxygenase. D. phospholipase A2. E. phospholipase C Ans: A 4. Which of the following statements about the synthesis of phospholipids is TRUE? A. phosphatidyl ethanolamine is methylated to phosphatidyl choline by S-adenosyl methionine. B. Free unesterified choline reacts with a diglyceride to form phosphatidyl choline. C. phosphatidyl alanine is hydroxylated to form phosphatidyl serine. D. Fatty acids are added to phospholipids as CDP-fatty acids. Ans: A

5. Niemann Pick disease results from a deficiency of A. lipoprotein lipase. B. sphingomyelinase. C. adipolytic lipase. D. pancreatic lipase. E. none of the above. Ans: B

6. Phosphatidate phosphatase is involved in the synthetic pathway for A. choline. B. glycerol phosphate. C. phosphatidic acid. D. cholesterol. E. triglycerides. Ans: E 7. The products of the hydrolysis of sphingomyelin by sphingomyelinase, a phospholipase C - like enzyme, are A. acylceramide and phosphate. B. ceramide and phosphorylcholine C. ceramide, choline, and phosphate. D. ceramide, a fatty acid, and choline. E. ceramide phosphate and choline. Ans: B 8. Geranyl pyrophosphate condenses with isopentenyl pyrophosphate to form A. 3,3-dimethylallyl pyrophosphate. B. presqualene pyrophosphate. C. squalene. D. farnesyl pyrophosphate. E. none of the above possibilities. Ans: D 9. The uptake of LDL into a cell by the LDL receptor does all of the following EXCEPT A. stimulates cellular acyl-CoA:cholesterol acyltransferase (ACAT). B. inhibits hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) reductase.

C. decreases the rate of synthesis of the LDL receptor. D. increases cholesterol esterification. E. converts LDL to HDL and HDL remnants. Ans: E 10. In the cell, squalene A. is a hydrocarbon that may undergo attack by oxygen to form an epoxide. B. is a complex fatty acid which accumulates in Refsum's disease. C. is a steroid which is a cholesterol precursor. D. is a product of cholesterol catabolism. E. is found only in sharks of the genus Squalus. Ans: A 11. All of the following statements on the biosynthesis of phosphatidylcholine (lecithin) in mammalian adipose tissue are correct EXCEPT which one? A. CTP is required B. S-adenosylmethionine is required C. The non-phosphorylated form of glycerol phosphate acyl transferase is required D. Absence of 3',5'-cyclic AMP is inhibitory E. phosphatidate phosphohydrolase is required Ans: E

12. Very low density serum lipoproteins transport A. non-esterified fatty acids to the liver. B. medium chain non-esterified fatty acids via the lymphatic system. C. non-esterified fatty acids to the adipose tissues. D. triacylglycerol from the liver to the adipose tissues. E. none of these. Ans: D 13. Capillary lipoprotein lipase is activated by A. Apo B-100. B. Apo C-II. C. Apo C-III. D. Apo A-I. E. Apo E. Ans: B 14. Lipoprotein lipase is

A. B. C. D. E.

an intracellular enzyme. stimulated by cAMP. stimulated by epinephrine. stimulated by one of the apolipoproteins found in VLDL. the stimulus for mobilization of stored triglycerides from adipose tissue.

Ans: D 15. All of the following are true about a ceramide EXCEPT which one? A. It has two nonpolar tails. B. The sphingosine base is attached via an amide linkage to a saturated or monounsaturated fatty acid. C. The different polar head groups are attached to the hydroxyl group (position 1)of the sphingosine base. D. They are found in highest concentration in depot fat. Ans: D 16. A pharmacological dose of a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent would not inhibit the synthesis of A. thromboxanes. B. prostacyclins. C. leukotrienes. D. E-series prostaglandins. E. F-series prostaglandins. Ans: C 17. A characteristic feature common to the degradation of most sphingolipids, including gangliosides, is A. catalysis by lysosomal enzymes. B. catalysis by peroxisomal enzymes. C. feedback regulation by ceramide. D. hormonal regulation by glucocorticoids. E. participation of nucleotide intermediates. Ans: A

18. In the metabolism of cholesterol in the human A. cholesterol conversion to bile salts involves shortening of the side chain of cholesterol.

B. plasma cholesterol readily exchanges with the brain cholesterol. C. plasma cholesterol is entirely in the form of cholesterol esters. D. cholesterol can be oxidized to carbon dioxide and water. E. cholesterol is synthesized only in the liver. Ans: A 19. In the synthesis of cholesterol A. only the methyl group of acetyl CoA is incorporated. B. most of the reactions take place in the mitochondria. C. dietary cholesterol has no influence on the rate. D. mevalonic acid formation seems to be the controlling step. E. the adrenal gland is the only tissue which is active. Ans: D 20. Cholesterol serves as a precursor for each of the following EXCEPT A. prostacyclin. B. pregnenolone. C. glycocholate. D. cholecalciferol (Vitamin D3) Ans: A 21. Which group of molecules appropriately combined would form lecithin? A. glucose, N-acetylgalactosamine, glycerol, phosphoric acid, two fatty acids B. phosphoric acid, glycerol, two fatty acids, choline C. phosphoric acid, sphingosine, fatty acid, glucose, N-acetylneuraminic acid, Nacetylgalactosamine D. choline, phosphoric acid, sphingosine, fatty acid E. glycerol, two fatty acids, phosphoric acid, ethanolamine Ans: B 22. The enzyme that condenses serine and palmitoyl-CoA to form -dehydrosphinganine requires A. retinal. B. pyridoxal phosphate. C. niacin. D. vitamin B12. E. biotin. Ans: B 23. Phosphatidylcholine is synthesized by the reaction of A. phosphatidic acid and CDP-choline.

B. C. D. E.

1-palmitoyl-sn-glycerol-3-phosphate and CDP-choline. 1-palmitoyl-sn-glycerol and CDP-choline. lysolecithin and CDP-choline. diacylglycerol and CDP-choline.

Ans: E

24. Chylomicrons: A. mainly carry dietary triglycerides. B. require the action of LDL for absorption. C. are secreted into the blood directly from the intestine. D. are smaller than HDL. E. have more phospholipid than HDL. Ans: A 25. Treatment of phosphatidylcholine with which enzyme would be most likely to liberate arachidonic acid? A. phospholipase A1. B. phospholipase A2. C. phospholipase C. D. phospholipase D. Ans: B 26. A precursor of leukotrienes. A. inositol 1,4,5 trisphosphate B. diacylglycerol C. cholera toxin D. arachidonic acid E. cAMP Ans: D 27. The initial catalytic steps in the synthesis of cholesterol from acetyl-CoA are utilized by the pathway producing A. acetoacetate. B. ceramide. C. citrate. D. palmitate.

E. ribulose 5-phosphate. Ans: A 28. An established function of one of the apolipoproteins in the LDL particle is to A. activate lecithin-cholesterol acyl transferase. B. coat pits in the plasma membrane with its cage-like structure. C. hydrolyze cholesterol esters in preparation for receptor-mediated endocytosis. D. provide a recognition marker for binding to the LDL receptor. E. disrupt the gel network preventing lysosomal budding. Ans: D 29. The rate-limiting step in the conversion of cholesterol to bile acids is A. side chain oxidation. B. 12-alpha-hydroxylation. C. 7-alpha-hydroxylation. D. 7-beta-hydroxylation. E. conversion to coprostanol. Ans: C

30. The second step of prostaglandin synthase converts PGG 2 to PGH2. What is the cofactor for this reaction? A. Biopterin B. FADH2 C. Glutathione D. NADH E. Pyridoxal phosphate Ans: C 31. Which of the following is directly involved in the biosynthesis of sphingosine? A. squalene B. spermine C. serotonin D. serine E. sorbitol Ans: D 32. Prostaglandins are inactivated A. primarily in the liver.

B. C. D. E.

in the presence of molecular oxygen. only in the circulation. by oxidation of the 15 hydroxy group by a prostaglandin dehydrogenase. by conversion to thromboxanes.

Ans: D 33. Loss of hexosaminidase A activity results in accumulation of A. galactocerebroside. B. glucocerebroside. C. G-ganglioside. D. sphingomyelin. E. sulfatide Ans: C 34. phosphatidylcholine participates in the synthesis of sphingomyelin by providing A. an acylglycerol group. B. a ceramide group. C. a fatty acyl group. D. a phosphorylcholine group. Ans: D 35. A ceramide is composed of A. sphingosine and fatty acid. B. sphingosine and glucose. C. sphingosine and serine. D. glycerol and fatty acid. E. glycerol and choline. Ans: A

36. Which of the following serum lipoproteins possesses the highest concentration of protein (mg protein/g lipoprotein)? A. chylomicrons B. VLDL C. IDL D. LDL E. HDL Ans: E

37. The principal apoprotein in LDL is: A. apo AI. B. apo B-100. C. apo CII. D. apo B-48. E. apo E. Ans: B 38. Transfer of cholesterol from membranes to HDL requires A. serum albumin. B. lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase. C. cholic acid conjugation. D. lipoprotein lipase. E. partial hydrolysis. Ans: B 39. Changes in the extent of phosphorylation of 3-hydroxy-3-methyl glutaryl-CoA reductase A. are induced by reabsorbed bile acids. B. are regulated by the level of dietary cholesterol. C. control the rate of synthesis of cholesterol. D. represent a type of co-translational modification of the protein. Ans: C 40. Cholesterol is metabolized in the mammalian body primarily by conversion to A. vitamins D. B. fatty acids. C. bile acids. D. carbon dioxide. E. mevalonic acid. Ans: C 41. CDP-diglyceride is an intermediate in the de novo synthesis of A. phosphatidylserine. B. phosphatidylcholine. C. phosphatidylethanolamine. D. Triglycerides. E. None of the above. Ans: A

42. In the synthesis of prostaglandins and thromboxanes A. arachidonic acid of the cytosol serves as the primary precursor. B. PG synthase uses 2 molecules of oxygen to generate the endoperoxide PGG 2. C. PGE2 synthesis would be inhibited by aspirin but thromboxane synthesis would not be affected. D. PGH2 is the precursor of PGE2 but PGI2 is the precursor of TXA2. E. all tissues have the capacity to synthesize all of the prostaglandins. Ans: B 43. All the following statements regarding ethanolamine are correct EXCEPT A. For the formation of phosphatidyl ethanolamine, ethanolamine needs to be activated by ATP and CTP. B. Ethanolamine can be produced from serine in the form of phosphatidyl serine. C. Ethanolamine, in the form of phosphatidyl ethanolamine, can be converted to phosphatidyl choline. D. Ethanolamine can exchange reversibly with the serine of phosphatidyl serine. E. The carbons of ethanolamine cannot be derived from glucose but may be derived from fatty acids. Ans: E 44. Which of the following statements about chylomicrons is FALSE? A. chylomicrons transport dietary lipids. B. chylomicrons are synthesized in the liver. C. chylomicron remnants are internalized by the liver. D. chylomicrons have a very high ratio of lipid to protein. E. Lipoprotein lipase catalyzes the hydrolysis of lipid from the chylomicrons. Ans: B 45. In complete biosynthesis of sphingomyelin, all the following are required EXCEPT A. palmitoyl-CoA. B. L-serine. C. choline. D. CDP-diglyceride. E. NADPH. Ans: D

46. All of the following statements about chylomicron metabolism are true EXCEPT which one? A. chylomicrons donate apoprotein B to HDL. B. Another lipoprotein donates apoprotein C to chylomicrons. C. Lipoprotein lipase degrades chylomicron triglyceride. D. The end product of chylomicron metabolism in the circulation is called a remnant particle. E. The liver removes the final component of chylomicron metabolism from the circulation. Ans: A 47. In the biosynthesis of cholesterol from Acetoacetyl CoA and Acetyl CoA, all of the following metabolites are intermediates, EXCEPT: A. Dimethylallyl pyrophosphate B. Malonyl CoA C. Isopentenyl pyrophosphate D. Mevalonate E. Farnesyl pyrophosphate Ans: B 48. The acyl donor for cholesterol ester formation in blood is A. phosphatidylcholine. B. palmitoyl-CoA. C. triglycerides. D. acyl carrier protein. E. monoglycerides. Ans: A 49. During cholesterol biosynthesis the production of HMG CoA involves a condensation reaction of A. acetyl CoA and malonyl CoA which is reversible. B. acetyl CoA and malonyl CoA which is irreversible. C. acetyl CoA and acetoacetyl CoA which is reversible. D. acetyl CoA and acetoacetyl CoA which is irreversible. Ans: C 50. The first sterol synthesized metabolically in man from acetate is A. 7-dehydrocholesterol B. desmosterol C. cholesterol D. lanosterol

E. squalene Ans: D 51. Phosphatidic acid may be the direct or indirect precursor of each of the following lipids EXCEPT A. phosphatidylcholine B. phosphatidylglycerol C. phosphatidylserine D. Triacylglycerol E. Glucocerebroside Ans: E 52. Lipoprotein lipase A. hydrolyzes triacylglycerols in the lumen of the intestine. B. is found in lysosomes. C. hydrolyzes triacylglycerols in lipoproteins such as chylomicrons and VLDL. D. converts cholesteryl esters to free cholesterol in high-density lipoproteins. E. hydrolyzes phosphatidylcholine (lecithin) to lysophosphatidyl choline (lysolecithin). Ans: B 53. The first step in the biosynthesis of sphingosine is the reaction between serine and A. arachidonyl Co A. B. malonyl Co A. C. oleoyl Co A. D. palmitoyl Co A. E. stearoyl Co A. Ans: D

54. Very low density serum lipoproteins (VLDL) transport A. non-esterified fatty acids to the liver. B. medium chain non-esterified fatty acids via the lymphatic system. C. non-esterified fatty acids to the adipose tissues. D. triacylglycerol from the liver to the adipose tissues. E. cholesterol from the intestine to the liver. Ans: D 55. Select the lipid fraction in blood which is most rapidly cleared? A. VLDL

B. C. D. E.

HDL chylomicrons LDL All are cleared at approximately same rate.

Ans: C 56. Sulfatides are synthesized in a reaction between A. ceramide and S-adenosylmethionine (SAM). B. ceramide and phosphoadenosine phosphosulfate (PAPS). C. galactocerebroside and PAPS. D. galactocerebroside and H2SO4. E. sphingomyelin and PAPS. Ans: C 57. Internalization of the LDL receptor occurs in specialized regions of membrane known as: A. Endocytotic blebs B. Microvilli C. Coated pits D. Gap junctions E. Plasma membrane patches Ans: C 58. The 3-beta-hydroxyl group of cholesterol originates by A. direct hydroxylation of ring A by an enzyme which requires NADPH and molecular oxygen as cofactors. B. reduction of a 3-keto group in ring A by an enzyme which requires NADPH as cofactor. C. epimerization of a 3-alpha hydroxyl group. D. opening of an epoxide ring when a squalene derivative is cyclized to a sterol precursor of cholesterol. E. hydration of a 2:3 double bond in ring A. Ans: D 59. The lipoproteins made de novo in the intestine or liver and secreted into the bloodstream are A. chylomicrons, LDL and HDL. B. VLDL, LDL and HDL. C. chylomicrons, IDL and HDL. D. VLDL, IDL and LDL. E. chylomicrons, VLDL and HDL.

Ans: E 60. The committed step in steroid biosynthesis from cholesterol is A. cholesterol esterase conversion of cholesterol ester to free cholesterol. B. conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone. C. the P450 dependent 21-hydroxylation of progesterone. D. the 17-hydroxylation of pregnenolone to 17-alpha-hydroxypregnenolone. E. None of the above. Ans: B 61. Which of the following reactions is inhibited by aspirin? A. phosphatidylcholine => arachidonic acid + 1-acylphosphatidyl choline. B. Arachidonic acid => PGH2 C. PGH2 => PGI2 D. PGE2 => 13,14-dihydro-15-keto-PGE2 E. 15-keto-PGE2 => 13,14-dihydro-15-keto-PGE2 Ans: B 62. To be defined as a ganglioside, a lipid substance isolated from nerve tissue must contain in its structure A. an N-acyl fatty acid derivative of sphingosine plus a hexose. B. N-acetylneuraminic acid (NANA), N-acetylgalactosamine, a hexose, long chain fatty acid and sphingosine. C. N-acetylneuraminic acid (NANA), a hexose, a fatty acid and sphingosine. D. NANA, a hexose, a fatty acid, sphingosine and phosphatidylcholine. E. a 9 carbon 3-deoxy-5-amino sugar called neuraminic acid, sphingosine and ethanolamine. Ans: C 63. Which of the following compounds contain an N-acyl fatty acid? A. ganglioside B. lecithin C. leukotriene D. plasmalogen E. sphingosine Ans: A 64. Which of the substances below is released from lipids of the plasma membrane and provides the precursor of prostaglandins, thromboxanes and leukotrienes? A. a fatty acyl CoA B. a polyunsaturated fatty acid esterified to cholesterol

C. a diacyl glycerol D. a polyunsaturated fatty acid E. a saturated fatty acid Ans: D 65. Tay-Sachs disease is the result of an inborn error of metabolism of A. histidine. B. cholesterol. C. ganglioside. D. lactose. E. cerebroside. Ans: C 66. Prostaglandins A. generally are secreted by one tissue and exert their effects on a different target tissue. B. stimulate protein synthesis at the transcriptional level. C. are degraded primarily by the liver. D. all stimulate the production of cAMP. E. may be rapidly inactivated at their site of production by a specific prostaglandin dehydrogenase. Ans: E 67. Of the apoproteins listed below, which one is recognized by the LDL receptor? A. Apoprotein D B. Apoprotein C II C. Apoprotein B-48 D. Apoprotein B-100 E. Apoprotein A-I Ans: D 68. Glucocorticoid inhibition of phospholipase A2 has the effect of inhibiting the synthesis of A. prostaglandins, but not thromboxanes, leukotrienes, and arachidonic acid. B. prostaglandins and thromboxanes, but not leukotrienes and arachidonic acid. C. prostaglandins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes but not arachidonic acid. D. prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes, and arachidonic acid. Ans: D 69. Which lipoprotein contains the lowest ratio of lipid to protein? A. chylomicrons B. HDL

C. IDL D. LDL E. VLDL Ans: B 70. A general enzyme for the esterification of intracellular cholesterol is A. lecithin-cholesterol acyl transferase. B. acyl-CoA-cholesterol acyl transferase. C. cholesterol esterase. D. CoA transferase. E. none of the other Answers is correct. Ans: B 71. Sphingosine is a product of the condensation of A. acetyl-CoA and malonyl-CoA B. CDP-choline and 1,2-diacylglycerol C. ceramide and CDP-choline D. palmitoyl-CoA and serine E. palmitoyl-CoA and acetyl-CoA Ans: D

72. The substrate for the synthesis of prostaglandins and leukotrienes is released from endogenous A. gangliosides. B. plasmalogen. C. phosphatidylcholine. D. cholesteryl oleate. E. ceramide. Ans: C 73. Which of the following apoproteins serves as a cofactor (activator) for lecithin: cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)? A. APO AI B. APO B-100 C. APO CII D. APO E Ans: A

74. The action of a phospholipase C on a phospholipid substrate may yield A. glycerol, fatty acids, inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate. B. monoacylglycerol, fatty acid, phosphocholine. C. diacylglycerol, phosphoethanolamine. D. phosphoceramide, choline. Ans: C 75. Cerebrosides can be formed by the contribution of all of the following, EXCEPT A. glucose. B. serine. C. palmitic acid. D. glycerol. E. long chain fatty acid. Ans: D 76. The enzyme phosphatidate phosphatase A. cleaves a fatty acid from the 1 position of phosphatidic acid. B. cleaves phosphate from the 3 position of phosphatidic acid. C. cleaves a fatty acid from the 2 position of phosphatidic acid. D. cleaves phosphate from the 2 position of phosphatidic acid. E. catalyzes the formation of a phosphodiester. Ans: B 77. Which statement is false concerning farnesyl pyrophosphate? A. It is an eventual product of activated isoprenes. B. It is a product of Squalene. C. It is involved in prenylation of proteins where the first step is transfer of the farnesyl group to the protein and loss of the phosphates. D. It is made during the synthesis of cholesterol. E. Its formation would, at least partly, be inhibited by Lovastatin. Ans: B

78. An important function of high density lipoproteins (HDL) is the A. acquisition of cholesterol from tissues and other lipoproteins. B. deposition of cholesteryl esters in atherosclerotic lesions. C. transport of bile lipids from liver to gall bladder. D. transport of glycerophospholipids from liver to intestine. E. transport of triacylglycerols from liver to adipose.

Ans: A 79. Which of the following metabolic pathways is CORRECT? A. lanosterol --> squalene --> mevalonate --> cholesterol B. acetyl CoA --> hydroxymethylglutaryl CoA --> mevalonate --> lanosterol C. mevalonate --> hydroxymethylglutaryl CoA --> squalene --> cholesterol D. mevalonate --> lanosterol --> squalene --> cholesterol Ans: B 80. Squalene is the immediate precursor of A. desmosterol. B. farnesyl pyrophosphate. C. geranyl pyrophosphate. D. cholesterol. E. lanosterol. Ans: E 81. An LDL receptor deficiency could cause all of the following to occur EXCEPT A. decreased serum LDL. B. increased cholesterol synthesis. C. increased serum cholesterol. D. decreased LDL endocytosis. E. increased 3-hydroxy-3-methyl glutaryl-CoA reductase activity. Ans: A 82. Prostacyclin (PGI) is A. a potent platelet aggregator. B. a potent smooth muscle relaxer (vasodilator). C. a potent smooth muscle contractor (vasoconstrictor). D. the long sought slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis (SRSA). E. formed from arachidonic acid by the action of lipoxygenase. Ans: B 83. Premature infants may exhibit the respiratory distress syndrome due to inadequate secretion of A. sphingomyelin B. dioleoyl phosphatidyl inositol. C. dipalmitoleoyl phosphatidylcholine D. cholesterol. E. dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl choline. Ans: E

84. An accumulation of gangliosides in brain tissue most likely arises from a deficiency of lysosomal A. acyltransferase. B. aryl sulfatase. C. hexosaminidase. D. phospholipase A2. E. sphingomyelinase. Ans: C 85. Materials that accumulate in the brain and other tissues of patients afflicted with the various lipidoses all contain as a common structural feature A. phosphatidic acid structure. B. polypeptide residue. C. ceramide structure. D. triglyceride structure. E. sialic acid structure. Ans: C 86. A molecule of sphingomyelin is similar to a molecule of lysolecithin in that both contain A. an N-linked fatty acid residue. B. only one fatty acid residue. C. an ethanolamine residue. D. a residue of glycerol. E. phosphorus, nitrogen and sulfur. Ans: B 87. As regards glycerophospholipid biosynthesis in mammals, which of the following statements is false? A. phosphatidylethanolamine is made from CDP-ethanolamine and diacylglycerol B. phosphatidylinositol is made from CDP-diacylglycerol and inositol C. phosphatidylserine is made from CDP-serine and diacylglycerol D. phosphatidylcholine is made from CDP-choline and diacylglycerol E. phosphatidylcholine can also be made from phosphatidylethanolamine via three methyltransferase reactions Ans: C

88. Cholesterol is a source of which of the following substances of biological importance? A. steroid hormones and taurine B. bile salts and carotene C. isoprene units and carotene D. bile salts and pregnenolone Ans: D 89. In the synthesis of cholesterol from lanosterol A. pyrophosphorylated intermediates are used. B. an anaerobic environment is required. C. three carbons are lost as propionyl-CoA. D. the side chain becomes saturated. E. the number of rings decreases from five to four. Ans: D 90. HMG-CoA is a precursor of all of the following EXCEPT A. biotin. B. cholesterol. C. acetoacetate. D. ketone bodies. E. isopentenyl pyrophosphate. Ans: A 91. The enzymes responsible for the degradation of sphingolipids are localized in which subcellular structure? A. Peroxisomes B. Mitochondria C. Lysosomes D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum E. Rough endoplasmic reticulum Ans: C 92. Statements in accord with the behavior of the membrane receptors for serum low density lipoproteins (LDL) include all of the following EXCEPT A. the receptor for LDL will not bind the high density lipoprotein (HDL). B. once internalized, the receptors reappear in the plasma membrane. C. they migrate laterally in the plane of the membrane. D. they require LDL to be present for recycling. E. they are inserted into the plasma membrane at random sites.

Ans: D 93. In phospholipid synthesis, either phosphatidic acid or phosphoryl head group is activated for transfer by conjugation to A. CMP. B. AMP. C. CoA. D. carnitine. E. pyridoxal phosphate. Ans: A 94. Apoprotein CII activates A. lipoprotein lipase. B. hormone sensitive lipase. C. pancreatic lipase. D. phospholipase A2. E. lipoxygenase. Ans: A

95. Which of the following substances is an intermediate in the synthesis of both triacylglycerols and diacylphosphoglycerides? A. phosphatidic acid B. CDP-choline C. fatty aldehydes D. phosphatidylinositol E. cholesterol Ans: A 96. Which of the following accumulates in tissues of patients with Niemann-Pick disease? A. Diphosphatidylglycerol (cardiolipin) B. phosphatidylcholine (lecithin) C. phosphatidylserine D. Sphingomyelin E. A ganglioside

Ans: D 97. All of the following regarding eicosanoids are true except: A. Omega-6 fatty acids are essential for the production of eicosanoids. B. prostaglandins and thromboxanes are derived from arachidonic by cyclooxygenase. C. prostaglandins and prostacyclin are characterized by long half-lives. D. Leukotrienes are derived from arachidonic acid by lipoxygenase. Ans: C 98. A principal function of the apo-E receptor (remnant receptor) is the A. delivery of cholesterol to liver for bile lipid synthesis. B. internalization of cholesterol by endocrine cells for hormone synthesis. C. protection of the central nervous system from neurodegenerative diseases. D. redistribution of apoprotein E among lipoproteins. E. uptake of triacylglycerol by adipose for storage. Ans: A 99. In the biosynthesis of cholesterol from mevalonic acid, an intermediate is A. acetone. B. Acetyl CoA. C. acetoacetyl CoA. D. isopentenyl pyrophosphate. E. beta-hydroxy-beta-methylglutaryl CoA (HMG CoA). Ans: D 100. Squalene is formed A. by a phosphorylation reaction. B. by a reductive condensation reaction. C. by an oxidation. D. from lanosterol. Ans: B

101. Phospholipase A2 plays a biologically significant role in A. degrading phosphatidic acid. B. degrading lysolecithin. C. releasing arachidonic acid for the synthesis of prostaglandins. D. arresting inflammation. E. releasing the saturated fatty acids from lecithin.

Ans: C 102. Compared to other lipids, the characteristic feature of a ganglioside is A. covalently linked monosaccharide units. B. ceramide. C. sphingosine. D. N-acyl unsaturated fatty acids. E. terminal sialic acid. Ans: E 103. In the absence of dietary fat intake, identify the lipoproteins which are the major carriers of triacylglycerol and of cholesterol esters, RESPECTIVELY, in the plasma. A. chylomicra and HDL B. VLDL and HDL C. LDL and VLDL D. VLDL and LDL E. LDL and HDL Ans: D 104. Important in prostaglandin synthesis A. lipoprotein lipase B. hormone sensitive lipase C. pancreatic lipase D. phospholipase A2 E. colipase Ans: D 105. A ceramide residue is found in all of the following EXCEPT A. sphingomyelin. B. phosphatidylethanolamine. C. glucocerebroside. D. ganglioside. E. galactocerebroside. Ans: B 106. Phospholipid exchange proteins are known to be involved in A. the conversion of phosphatidylethanolamine to phosphatidylserine. B. the intermembrane transport of phospholipids. C. the intra membrane transport of phospholipids. D. the uptake of choline into cells. E. the action of phospholipases.

Ans: B 107. As regards prostacyclins, which of the following statements is/are true? A. They are made in platelets. B. They stimulate platelet aggregation. C. They are products of lipoxygenase. D. They are made in endothelial cells. E. None of the above. Ans: D 108. The interconversion between phosphatidate and diacylglycerol requires which of the following pairs of enzymes activities? A. acyltransferase and phospholipase B. desaturase and reductase C. lipase and acyl-CoA synthetase D. phosphatase and kinase E. synthase and lyase Ans: D 109. Which of the following chemical changes is required for the conversion of squalene to cholesterol? A. Incorporation of a methyl group at C-19 B. Aromatization of the A-ring C. Attachment of a hydroxyl group to the C ring D. Cleavage of the side chain at C-17 E. Hydroxylation at C-3 Ans: E 110. Mevalonate contains A. 15 carbon atoms. B. 27 carbon atoms. C. 4 carbon atoms. D. 6 carbon atoms. Ans: D 111. LDL A. are substrates for hormone sensitive lipase. B. are involved in the transport and delivery of cholesteryl esters. C. by uncontrolled self-replication are the cause of hypercholesterolemia. D. provide the major means of triacylglycerol transport.

E. are unique in containing no lipids. Ans: B 112. The largest and lowest density lipoproteins are the A. VLDL B. HDL C. chylomicrons D. LDL E. IDL Ans: C

113. Which of the following compounds may be a constituent of a phospholipid and serves as the precursor of leukotrienes? A. acetic acid B. arachidonic acid C. inositol D. oleic acid E. polyacetylphosphatidic aci Ans: B 114. Lipid storage diseases such as Niemann-Pick's, Tay-Sachs' and Gaucher's involve A. increased synthesis of glycosphingolipids. B. increased amounts of glycosphingolipid in the diet. C. inadequate lysosomal hydrolase activity. D. inadequate synthesis of ceramide. E. defects of glycogen synthesis. Ans: C 115. Lecithin consists of all of the following components, EXCEPT A. glycerol. B. sphingosine. C. palmitic acid. D. choline. E. phosphate. Ans: B 116. Which one of the following statements concerning lipoprotein metabolism is CORRECT? A. High density lipoprotein (HDL) contains more than 20% by weight of lipid.

B. C. D. E.

Very low density lipoprotein (VLDL) contains less than 20% of triglyceride. Very low density lipoprotein synthesis is inhibited by high carbohydrate diets. Low density lipoprotein (LDL) has a half life of several hours. Synthesis of chylomicrons is inhibited by ketone bodies.

Ans: A 117. The second step in the first stage of cholesterol biosynthesis leading to production of HMG CoA involves a condensation reaction of: A. Acetyl CoA and malonyl CoA which is reversible. B. Acetyl CoA and malonyl CoA which is irreversible. C. Acetyl CoA and Acetoacetyl CoA which is reversible. D. Acetyl CoA and Acetoacetyl CoA which is irreversible. E. None of the above. Ans: C 118. The plasma lipoprotein most likely to transport triacylglycerols from the liver to the heart is the A. chylomicron. B. high density lipoprotein. C. intermediate density lipoprotein. D. low density lipoprotein. E. very low density lipoprotein. Ans: E 119. Which of the following statements is true concerning cholesterol metabolism? A. HMG-CoA synthase catalyzes the reaction between two molecules of acetyl-CoA. B. Mevalonate is produced by the reduction of HMG-CoA. C. cholesterol synthesis occurs in the mitochondria of cells. D. Squalene is formed by reduction of lanosterol. E. HMG-CoA reductase is activated by cholesterol. Ans: B 120. In the biosynthesis of cholesterol, polymerization of a 5-carbon isoprene unit gives rise to a 30-carbon hydrocarbon called A. 3,3-dimethylallyl pyrophosphate. B. geranyl pyrophosphate. C. HMG-CoA. D. squalene. E. none of the above. Ans: D

121. Which of the following molecules are phospholipids? 1. Cardiolipin 2. Ceramide 3. Cephalin 4. Cerebroside A. Only 1 B. Only 1 and 3 C. Only 1, 2 and 4 D. Only 2, 3 and 4 E. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans: B 122. LDL-particles are involved in all of the following EXCEPT which one? A. They carry TG's, cholesterol and phospholipids. B. They are stabilized by the protein Apo-A. C. They enter cells via a specific membrane receptor. D. They are degraded intracellularly by lysosomal enzymes. E. They are present in high amounts in the plasma of patients with familiar hypercholesterolemia. Ans: B 123. CTP is an important nucleotide in the biosynthesis of A. phosphatidylcholine. B. acetoacetate. C. triacylglycerol (triglyceride). D. free diacylglycerol (diglyceride). E. cholesterol. Ans: A 124. All the statements concerning phosphatidyl choline (lecithin) are TRUE EXCEPT A. It possesses three fatty acyl groups in its structure. B. It can be synthesized using S-adenosyl methionine as an intermediate. C. It can be synthesized using a CDP-derivative as an intermediate. D. It is found in most lipoproteins. E. It is an integral part of membranes. Ans: A 125. Sphingomyelin consists of all of the following components, EXCEPT A. glycerol. B. sphingosine. C. fatty acid. D. choline. E. phosphate. Ans: A

126. In mammals, phosphatidylserine is formed A. from reaction of serine with CDP-diacylglycerol. B. exchange of ethanolamine of phosphatidylethanolamine with serine. C. carboxylation of phosphatidylethanolamine. D. reaction of diglyceride with CDP-serine. Ans: B 127. The formation of very low density lipoproteins takes place in the A. adipose tissue, where stored triacylglycerols are mobilized. B. blood, where circulating triacylglycerols are enzymatically digested. C. liver, where endogenous triacylglycerols are synthesized. D. small intestine, where dietary triacylglycerols are absorbed. Ans: C 128. The rate limiting step in the synthesis of bile acids from cholesterol is catalyzed by A. 7alpha-hydroxylase. B. 11beta-hydroxylase. C. 21beta-hydroxylase. D. side-chain cleavage enzyme. E. squalene synthase. Ans: A 129. The first reaction which is unique to the isoprenoid biosynthetic pathway is A. 2 acetyl-CoA --> acetoacetyl-CoA in the mitochondria. B. acetoacetyl-CoA + carnitine --> acetoacetyl-carnitine + CoA at the inner mitochondrial membrane. C. acetoacetyl-CoA ---> beta-hydroxybutyryl-CoA in the cytosol. D. acetoacetyl-CoA + acetyl-CoA --> HMG-CoA + CoA in the mitochondria. E. HMG-CoA + 2 NADPH --> mevalonic acid + 2 NADP + CoA in the endoplasmic reticulum. Ans: E 130. Which of the following is a precursor of squalene and is derived from geranyl pyrophosphate? A. cholyl-CoA B. mevalonic acid C. farnesyl pyrophosphate D. coprostanol E. lanosterol Ans: C

131. All of the following statements about gangliosides are TRUE except A. They are found only in neural tissues. B. They contain one molecule of sphingosine. C. They contain one or more sialic acid molecules. D. They contain a fatty acid molecule. E. They contain sugars in beta linkage. Ans: A 132. The release of nascent chylomicrons and/or VLDL requires which apoprotein? A. apo-A B. apo-C C. apo-D D. apo-B Ans: D 133. prostaglandin E2 is inactivated in a reaction catalyzed by A. lipoxygenase B. 15-hydroxyprostaglandin dehydrogenase. C. acyl-CoA dehydrogenase. D. cyclooxygenase. E. prostaglandin endoperoxidase. Ans: B 134. Concerning the biosynthesis of the sphingolipids, one of the precursors of sphingomyelin is an unsaturated monoamino, dihydroxy alcohol named A. ceramide. B. sphinganine. C. Sphingosine. D. ganglioside. E. cerebroside. Ans: C 135. Which of the following compounds is a glycolipid? A. Sphingomyelin B. phosphatidyl choline C. cholesterol D. Ganglioside

E. phosphatidyl serine Ans: D 136. Which has a head group containing phosphorus? A. Ceramide B. Sphingomyelin C. Sphinganine D. Cerebrosides Ans: B

137. Cytidine triphosphate (CTP) would be utilized in the synthesis of all of the following EXCEPT A. phosphatidate. B. phosphatidylcholine. C. phosphatidylethanolamine. D. phosphatidylglycerol. E. phosphatidylinositol. Ans: A 138. Which of the following statements about plasma lipoproteins is INCORRECT? A. A high carbohydrate diet leads to an elevation of VLDL. B. Apo B-100 is the only apolipoprotein associated with LDL. C. The liver responds to an increase in the flux of free fatty acids with the synthesis of more and larger HDL. D. The triacylglycerol core of chylomicrons is derived primarily from dietary lipids. E. VLDL is the precursor of LDL in the blood. Ans: C 139. The rate controlling step in cholesterol synthesis is catalyzed by A. mevalonate kinase. B. methyl sterol oxidase. C. squalene monooxygenase. D. isopentenyl diphosphate isomerase. E. hydroxymethylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase. Ans: E 140. Which of the following is synthesized by action of squalene cyclooxygenase upon squalene?

A. cholyl-CoA B. mevalonic acid C. farnesyl pyrophosphate D. coprostanol E. lanosterol Ans: E 141. Which one of the following statements about lipoprotein lipase (LPL) is true? A. It only attacks lipoproteins which possess apoprotein A. B. It is responsible for converting chylomicrons to IDL. C. The products of its action are glycerol and free fatty acids. D. LPL activity is highest in adipose tissue in the fasted state. E. LPL activity is highest in skeletal muscle in the fed state. Ans: C 142. Which of the following lipids is most closely thought of as a lung surfactant? A. sphingomyelin B. cardiolipin C. dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine D. glycerol tristearate E. cholesterol linoleate Ans: C 143. All of the following compounds are amphipathic EXCEPT which one? A. B. C. D. E. phosphatidylcholine oleate sphingomyelin glycocholate triacylglycerol

Ans: E 144. Cerebrosides contain all of the following residues EXCEPT which one? A. ceramide. B. sugar. C. sphingosine. D. long-chain fatty acid in amide linkage. E. phosphate. Ans: E

145. Each of the following metabolites is a substrate directly involved in the biosynthesis of phosphatidyl choline from choline EXCEPT A. ATP. B. phosphorylcholine. C. CTP. D. UDP-choline. E. Diacylglycerol. Ans: D 146. As the chylomicron is acted on by lipoprotein lipase, it becomes a A. VLDL. B. HDL. C. LDL. D. remnant particle. E. None of the other answers is correct. Ans: D 147. The primary metabolic defect in the disease familial hypercholesterolemia is A. altered prostaglandin synthesis. B. decreased lysosomal enzyme activity. C. decreased receptor-mediated endocytosis. D. increased formation of modified low density lipoproteins. E. increased hormone-sensitive lipid mobilization. Ans: C 148. In the transformation of very low density lipoprotein to low density lipoprotein, one critical step is the A. acquisition of apoprotein E from plasma. B. binding to one of the scavenger receptors. C. cleavage of apoprotein B-100 to apoprotein B-48. D. decreased esterification of cholesterol. E. increased hydrolysis of triacylglycerol. Ans: E 149. LDL is derived from A. chylomicrons. B. HDL. C. nascent HDL. D. VLDL and IDL. Ans: D

150. Lecithin-cholesterol acyl transferase (LCAT) A. catalyzes formation of cholesterol ester from free cholesterol and phosphatidylcholine. B. must be bound to the capillary endothelium before it hydrolyzes cholesterol esters. C. is dependent on presence of heparin. D. catalyzes formation of cholesterol esters in the Golgi during VLDL synthesis. E. catalyzes a reaction between oleoyl-CoA and cholesterol Ans: A

Chapter 23 Biochemistry of Hormones

Multiple Choice

1. All of the following statements regarding the mechanism of action of the steroid hormones are true EXCEPT which one? A. steroid hormones are lipid-soluble, therefore Can readily traverse the cell membranes. B. In general, the steroid hormones act by affecting the rate of protein synthesis. C. steroid hormones combine with a cytoplasmic receptors and stimulate the production of cAMP. D. In general, steroid hormones take a rather long time (1-8 hours) to produce an effect. Ans: C 2. Cortisol has primarily A. estrogen activity. B. mineralocorticoid activity. C. androgen activity. D. glucocorticoid activity. E. None of the above is true. Ans: D 3. Thyroxine A. decreases tissue oxygen consumption B. circulates bound to thyroglobulin C. biosynthesis and secretion by the thyroid is directly stimulated by thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH). D. decreases TRH secretion by the hypothalamus E. secretion is increased by thyrocalcitonin Ans: D 4. Which one of the following statements BEST describes the action of the parathyroid hormone? A. it lowers calcium and phosphorus levels in plasma upon prolonged administration B. its secretion is inhibited by high levels of plasma calcium C. it lowers serum calcium levels and raises serum phosphate levels D. it causes (or enhances) precipitation of calcium salts in bone E. it stimulates reabsorption of phosphate from the kidney Ans: B

5. Of the following statements concerning human hormones, which one, if any, is true? A. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) is a steroid hormone. B. Hormones do not enter the blood but act locally on surrounding cells. C. Initially, all hormones are synthesized in the cell as a prohormone. D. Excess/abnormal thyroid hormone produced by a thyroid carcinoma is termed ectopic production. E. None of the above. Ans: E

6. Pregnanediol is a metabolite of A. cortisol. B. progesterone. C. 17-hydroxyprogesterone. D. estradiol. E. androstenedione. Ans: B 7. Specificity in the action of a peptide hormone is determined at the level of A. the receptor, cyclic AMP and the cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase. B. the receptor, cyclic AMP and the substrates to be phosphorylated. C. the receptor and the substrates to be phosphorylated. D. the cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase and the substrates to be phosphorylated. E. none of these. Ans: C 8. The insulin-receptor has in common with other growth-factor receptors such as epidermal growth factor A. the ability to phosphorylate tyrosine residues on certain proteins. B. the ability to phosphorylate serine residues on certain proteins. C. their location in the cytosol. D. the ability to bind steroid hormones. E. the presence of a bound GTP. Ans: A

9. Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of estrogens is FALSE? A. Androgens can be converted to estrogens in adipose tissue. B. NADPH and oxygen are required. C. The conversion of androgens to estrogens involves the aromatization of the "A" ring and the loss of two methyl groups. D. Testosterone can be a precursor of estrogens. E. The placenta can convert DHEA-sulfate into estrogens. Ans: C 10. In normal animals and an, the rate-limiting step in the biosynthesis of the catecholamine neurotransmitters dopamine and norepinephrine is A. the transport of L-tyrosine across the blood brain barrier. B. the decarboxylation of dihydroxyphenylalanine by DOPA decarboxylase. C. the 3-0-methylation of the catechol nucleus by catechol-0-methyl transferase. D. the hydroxylation of L-tyrosine by tyrosine hydroxylase. E. the action of monoamine oxidase on the beta-phenethylamine nucleus. Ans: D 11. The catabolism and excretion of steroid hormones A. occurs primarily as the bile salts. B. usually involves transmethylation reactions. C. requires reduction and cleavage of the steroid nucleus. D. may involve conjugation of a metabolite with sulfate or glucuronate. E. produces carbon dioxide. Ans: D

12. Thyroxine A. is synthesized by iodination of free tyrosine molecules in the thyroid gland B. is the only hormone synthesized by the thyroid gland C. binds to plasma membrane receptors and activates adenylate or guanylate cyclase D. is transported to its target tissue free in solution in the blood E. synthesis requires iodination of a cellular protein in the thyroid Ans: E 13. Which of the following occurs subsequent to administration of parathyroid hormone? A. hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia B. hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia C. hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia

D. hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia E. none of the above is correct Ans: C 14. As regards the insulin receptor, which of the following statements, if any, is/are true? A. The active receptor is made up of 1 alpha chain and 1 beta chain. B. The alpha chain spans the membrane while the beta chain binds the insulin molecule. c. In addition to activating the intrinsic tyrosine kinase of the receptor, insulin binding also activates a phospholipase c and induces production of the phosphatidylinositol second messengers. D. A and C only. E. None of the above. Ans: E 15. The thyroid hormone found in highest concentration in blood is A. thyroglobulin. B. monoiodotyrosine. C. diiodotyrosine. D. triiodothyronine. E. thyroxine. Ans: E 16. Specificity in the action of a peptide hormone is determined at the level of A. the receptor, cyclic AMP and the cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase. B. the receptor, cyclic AMP and the substrates to be phosphorylated. C. the receptor and the substrates to be phosphorylated. D. the cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase and the substrates to be phosphorylated. E. none of these. Ans: C 17. The signaling mechanism whereby glucagon results in an increased breakdown of triacylglycerol in adipose tissue involves all of the following EXCEPT A. protein kinase A. B. adenylate cyclase. C. phospholipase A2. D. a transmembrane receptor. E. a trimeric Gs protein. Ans: C 18. Which vitamin is a secosteroid and acts through a steroid receptor?

A. B. C. D. E.

Vitamin A Vitamin C vitamin D Vitamin E Vitamin K

Ans: C 19. Which of the following enzymes is involved in the metabolism (breakdown) of epinephrine? A. Phenylethanol amine-N-methyl transferase B. Catechol-o-methyl transferase C. Dopamine-beta-hydroxylase D. Aromatic decarboxylase E. Cyclic AMP phosphodiesterase Ans: B 20. Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which steroid hormones increase the relative abundance of specific proteins? A. steroids increase the half-life of specific proteins. B. steroids increase the half-life of the mRNAs that encode specific proteins. C. steroids increase the rate of synthesis of specific mRNAs. D. steroids increase the translatability of specific mRNAs. E. steroids increase RNA polymerase II activity. Ans: C 21. Which one of the following statements does not describe a characteristic of hormones? A. synthesized in endocrine glands B. have specific metabolic effects C. are considered to be secondary messengers D. act on one or more target tissues E. bind either to cell surface or to intracellular receptors Ans: C 22. The following are TRUE statements concerning catecholamines EXCEPT A. dopamine cannot pass the blood brain barrier and is provided to patients with Parkinson's disease in the form of DOPA B. the synthesis of epinephrine requires tetrahydrobiopterin, pyridoxal phosphate and SAM as cofactors C. synthesis of epinephrine and norepinephrine takes place in the adrenal medulla D. tyrosinase is one of the enzymes involved in catecholamine biosynthesis

E. catabolism of catecholamines involves oxidative removal of the amino groups by monoamino oxidase (MAO) and methylation of OH-groups by catechol-Omethyltransferase (cOMT) Ans: D

23. Which of the following is/are characteristic of the transmembrane domain of a typical tyrosine kinase receptor? A. It functions as an anchor for the receptor B. It contains a regulatory sequence which produces a low affinity ligand binding site. C. It controls negative feedback upon ligand binding. D. It has some intrinsic catalytic kinase activity. E. A and B only. Ans: A 24. Estrogen is thought be exert its metabolic effects by which one of the following? A. Decreasing the production of cyclic AMP. B. Increasing the permeability of cell membranes to molecules such as glucose and amino acids. C. Reaction with a specific receptor protein which in turn affects DNA metabolism. D. Alteration of the phosphorylation of histones. Ans: C 25. Specificity in the action of steroid hormones is determined at the level of A. non-histone proteins. B. DNA. C. histone proteins. D. RNA polymerase. E. the nuclear membrane. Ans: A 26. Thyroid hormone is produced in the thyroid gland A. in a process that involves the iodination of single tyrosine molecules prior to incorporation into thyroglobulin

B. after which T4 and T3 are stored as active hormones in the colloid of the thyroid follicles C. stored in the follicle, and released into the blood stream after proteolysis of thyroglobulin in phagolysosomes of the thyroid cell D. with a ratio of T3 to T4 of approximately 151 E. C and D Ans: C 27. Examples of hormones have been found which belong to each of the following chemical families EXCEPT which one? A. steroids B. Peptides C. Amines D. Purines E. Glycoproteins Ans: D 28. All of the following compounds could serve as androgen precursors EXCEPT which one? A. cortisol B. 11-desoxycortisol C. 17 alpha-hydroxy progesterone D. 17 alpha-hydroxy pregnenolone E. pregnenolone Ans: E 29. Which of the following hormone combinations is NOT regulated by a negative feedback loop? A. LH - androgen B. TSH - thyroid hormone C. ACTH - glucocorticoid D. prolactin - estrogen E. FSH - inhibin Ans: D 30. Parathyroid hormone A. produces, in intestinal epithelial cells, new mRNA which codes for calcium ion transport protein B. lowers the concentration of free calcium ion in blood C. stimulates reabsorption of phosphate by the kidney D. stimulates osteoclasts to break down bone mineral E. counteracts the effect of the active metabolite of vitamin D on the kidney

Ans: D 31. Insulin A. stimulates the phosphodiesterase enzyme which breaks down cAMP. B. decreases the concentration of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate in liver. C. inhibits hepatic glycolysis. D. stimulates glucose transport into the liver. E. has the same effect on glycolysis in the liver as glucagon. Ans: A 32. Biological conversion of testosterone A. never results in the formation of estrogens. B. leads only to the production of 17-ketosteroids. C. does not take place. D. may lead to even more active androgens being formed. E. does not occur in androgen target tissues. Ans: D 33. Which statement BEST describes the regulatory action of steroid hormones on cellular metabolic events? A. steroid hormones serve as signals to alter cellular metabolism in response to environmental changes. B. steroid hormones are capable of specific interactions with the genomes of their target cells. C. steroid hormones act as an independent regulatory system relative to cyclic nucleotide systems. D. steroid hormone action involves specificity at the levels of both cytosolic receptor and chromatin sites. E. All of the other s are correct. Ans: E 34. The estradiol receptor Erb can inhibit the activity of ERA. What is the mechanism of this inhibition? A. Blockage of transport of ERa into the nucleus B. Dissociation of the ligand from ERa C. ERb binds the ERa ligand D. Formation of heterodimers of the two receptors E. Inhibition of synthesis of ERa Ans: D 35. Which of the following statements is false?

A. Hormones exert their effects by interacting/binding to specific receptors which may be in the cell membrane or intracellular. B. Phosphorylation plays an important role in many hormonal effects. C. In humans, there exists known protein kinases that phosphorylate proteins on serine. D. In humans, there exists known protein kinases that phosphorylate proteins on methionine. E. In humans, there exists known protein kinases that phosphorylate proteins on tyrosine. Ans: D 36. Aldosterone is only produced in which portion(s) of the adrenal gland? A. Zona glomerulosa of the cortex B. Corticosterone C. Aldosterone D. Dehydroepiandrosterone E. Testosterone Ans: A 37. Aldosterone A. would circulate in the blood primarily as the free hormone. B. binds to a cytoplasmic protein receptor and is transported to the nucleus of its target cell. C. is released from the adrenal cortex by ACTH. D. results in the activation of certain enzymes by stimulating their phosphorylation. E. results in increased glucose in the blood. Ans: B 38. The glucocorticoid hormones act A. at the cell surface by binding to specific membrane-bound receptors. B. by directly activating a protein kinase. C. by blocking expression from target genes. D. through an intracellular receptor that binds to DNA. E. by directly binding to glucocorticoid responsive elements (GREs) near the ' end of target genes. Ans: D 39. Which one of the following is a pro-vitamin D? A. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol B. 7-hydroxycholesterol C. 7-dehydrocholesterol D. ergocalciferol E. cholestanone

Ans: C 40. Vasopressin (ADH) A. acts on uterine smooth muscle. B. acts on the distal part of the nephron. C. is secreted in response to elevated blood pressure. D. is secreted in response to decreased plasma osmolality. Ans: B

41. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the rate controlling step in cortisol biosynthesis? A. HMG-CoA reductase. B. the one converting cholesterol to 7-dehydrocholesterol. C. the one converting cholesterol to delta-5-pregnenolone. D. 11-hydroxylase. E. 18-hydroxylase. Ans: A 42. All of the following would be caused by or would be the result of increased levels of epinephrine in the circulatory system EXCEPT A. production of cyclic-AMP. B. activation of a protein kinase. C. phosphorylation in liver cells of sidechains of specific serine units of certain proteins. D. stimulation of a phosphoprotein phosphatase. E. increased breakdown of liver glycogen. Ans: D 43. The identification of zinc finger domains in the structure of a hormone receptor would predict A. binding of the receptor to double-stranded DNA. B. interaction of the receptor with a heterotrimeric G protein. C. migration of the receptor from vesicles to the plasma membrane. D. regulation of the receptor by protein kinase C. E. transduction of a signal by intrinsic tyrosine phosphorylation. Ans: A 44. Which of the following statements is false? A. insulin is made by the pancreatic beta cells and stimulates liver glycogen, fat and albumin synthesis and simulates lipogenesis in adipocytes.

B. Glucagon is made by the pancreatic alpha cells and stimulates liver glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis and ketogenesis and stimulates lipolysis in adipocytes. C. The rate controlling step/enzyme in the synthesis of epinephrine by the adrenal medulla is the formation of dopamine from DOPA via DOPA decarboxylase. D. In the adrenal medulla, DOPA decarboxylase requires pyridoxal phosphate as a cofactor. E. In the adrenal medulla, epinephrine is broken down by two enzymes, monoamine oxidase and catechol O-methyl transferase. Ans: C 45. Which of the following steroids serves as the immediate precursor for the synthesis of estradiol? A. Cortisol B. Testosterone C. Progesterone D. Dehydroepiandrosterone E. Pregnenolone Ans: B

46. Aldosterone A. contains 20 carbons. B. is the major regulator of sodium ion retention in the kidney in man. C. is regulated by ACTH. D. is produced primarily in the adrenal medulla. E. is a 19-nor compound. Ans: B 47. Triiodothyronine (T3) A. is less potent in vivo than T4. B. is the predominant thyroid hormone produced by thyroid gland. C. is converted in peripheral tissues directly to reverse T3 (3,3'5' triiodothyronine). D. decreases basal metabolic rates of most tissues. E. binds to a nuclear receptor. Ans: E 48. The major actions of parathyroid hormone are

A. B. C. D. E.

enhancement of calcium excretion by direct effect on the kidney tubules direct promotion of bone resorption with increased osteoclastic activity enhancement of renal clearance of phosphate A and C above B and C above

Ans: E 49. The insulin receptor A. is a transmembrane protein composed of alpha and beta subunits B. transports glucose into the cell after insulin binding C. initiates tyrosine kinase activity after insulin binds to the beta-subunit D. all of the above E. A & C only Ans: A 50. Which of the following is a major mineralocorticoid in man? A. cortisol B. corticosterone C. aldosterone D. androsterone E. vasopressin Ans: C 51. Thyroid hormone receptors A. are histone proteins localized in the chromatin of target cells. B. are intrinsic non-histone chromosomal proteins. C. initially bind triiodothyronine in the cytoplasm and after undergoing a conformational change translocate to the nucleus. D. are enzymes that deiodinate thyroxine to triiodothyronine. E. have higher affinity for thyroxine than triiodothyronine. Ans: B 52. The insulin receptor is regulated by (auto) phosphorylation of one or more _______________ residues. A. cysteine B. histidine C. serine D. threonine E. tyrosine Ans: E

53. Which of the following statements is/are true? A. Parathyroid hormone is produced by the parathyroid glands located within the thyroid gland and calcitonin is produced by the clear cells within the thyroid gland. B. The main targets for Parathyroid hormone are the kidney and bone while the main target for calcitonin is the bone osteoclasts. C. The main actions of parathyroid hormone are to raise plasma calcium and lower plasma phosphate levels while the main action of calcitonin is to lower the plasma calcium level. D. A and B only. E. A, B and C. Ans: E 54. In eukaryotic cells, adrenal corticosteroids regulate gene expression by binding to A. allosteric effector sites on an inactive enzyme. B. a receptor that, in turn, interacts with DNA and activates transcription. C. a receptor that, in turn, migrates to the nuclear matrix and blocks RNA degradation. D. ribosomes and stimulating translation. Ans: B 55. Down-regulation of insulin receptors is due to A. irreversible binding of insulin to its receptor. B. negative cooperativity of insulin binding. C. insulin-stimulated pinocytosis of the insulin-receptor complex. D. insulin-stimulated proteolysis of its receptor. E. insulin-stimulated release of inhibitory prostaglandins. Ans: C 56. Hypothalamic hormones which regulate the synthesis and secretion of anterior pituitary hormones include all of the following EXCEPT A. TRH (thyrotropin releasing hormone) B. GnRH (gonadotropin releasing hormone) C. somatomedin c D. somatostatin E. CRH (corticotrophin releasing hormone) Ans: C

57. All of the following biologically active peptides are potentially derivable from the pituitary K dalton glyco-protein proopiomelanocortin EXCEPT A. CLIP (corticotropin-like intermediate lobe peptide) B. alpha-MSH (alpha-melanocyte stimulating hormone) C. beta-endorphin D. angiotensin II E. beta-MSH Ans: D 58. Regulation of FSH and LH secretion by the anterior pituitary is effected by A. testosterone and inhibin respectively B. inhibin and testosterone respectively C. estrogen and inhibin respectively D. cortisol and testosterone respectively E. inhibin and activin respectively Ans: B 59. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? A. Catabolism of steroids involves reduction, conjugations and a final breakdown of the steroid nucleus to acetoacetate. B. The main organ of steroid catabolism is the adrenal gland. C. The major precursor of urinary 17-ketosteroids is cortisol. D. All of the above. E. None of the above. Ans: E 60. O-Hydroxylation of progesterone gives rise to A. deoxycorticosterone. B. corticosterone. C. cortisol. D. deoxycortisol. E. dehydroisoandrosterone. Ans: A 61. Regarding the endocrine system and hormone feedback, which of the following statements is false? A. The feedback of thyroid hormone is an example of a short-loop feedback system. B. The feedback of insulin is an example of a long-loop feedback system. C. For the most part, the hormones of the endocrine system utilize positive feedback.

D. Tight control of hormone levels and their actions is important in normal human homeostasis. E. Many hormones exert their feedback either directly on the gland that produces them, on a gland that controls their synthesis/secretion or some combination of these. Ans: C 62. Which of the following is a precursor of both adrenocortical and gonadal steroid hormones? A. corticosterone B. dihydroxycholecalciferol C. estradiol D. pregnenolone E. testosterone Ans: D 63. All of the following are potential actions of hormones EXCEPT which one? A. Control of differentiation B. Control of growth C. Control of metabolism D. Control of extracellular fluid volume and composition E. None of the above; all are potential mechanisms. Ans: D 64. ACTH has all of the following effects on the adrenal cortex EXCEPT which one? A. increased blood flow B. depletion of cholesterol esters C. development of adrenal hypertrophy D. increased activity of the desmolase complex E. preferential synthesis of progesterone Ans: E 65. Which one of the following would be ost useful in determining whether ovulation has occurred? A. urinary 17-ketosteriod level B. urinary gonadotrophin level C. serum estradiol level D. serum testosterone level E. serum prolactin level Ans: B 66. A peptide hormone which is located both in the hypothalamus and in the pancreas is A. cholecystokinin

B. C. D. E.

proinsulin somatostatin neurophysin none of the above

Ans: C 67. Each of the following is derived by the proteolytic processing of a larger protein molecule EXCEPT A. melanocyte stimulating hormone. B. glucagon. C. growth hormone. D. parathyroid hormone. E. adrenocorticotrophic hormone. Ans: C 68. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? A. The pituitary hormone ACTH controls to a large part the biosynthesis of cortisol. B. The adrenal secretion of cortisol and the pituitary secretion of ACTH both depend on the secretion of corticotropin releasing factors by the hypothalamus. C. Increased plasma cortisol levels inhibit the release of corticotropin releasing factors. D. All of the above. E. None of the above. Ans: D 69. The feature of target cells for steroid hormones which gives tissue specificity for steroid hormone action is A. plasma-membrane associated receptor-adenylate cyclase complex. B. cholesterol to phospholipid ratio of the plasma membrane. C. ability to carry out reverse pinocytosis. D. a soluble cytoplasmic polypeptide receptor for the steroid. E. a steroid transport system coupled to a specific steroid hydroxylase. Ans: D 70. Signal transduction initiated by insulin leads to all of the following EXCEPT A. activation of a G protein-coupled receptor. B. guanine nucleotide exchange. C. multiple protein-protein interactions. D. phosphorylation of one or more proteins. E. increased secretory vesicle trafficking. Ans: A

71. Which of the following statements concerning steroid hormone synthesis is correct A. although cells in the adrenal cortex can synthesize cholesterol, most of the cholesterol used for steroid hormone synthesis comes from the plasma B. the enzymes for 17-alpha-hydroxylase and 17,20-desmolase are segregated to different compartments in the cell C. the side chain cleavage complex that Catalyzes the conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone requires NADPH, a flavoprotein, a P450, and molecular oxygen D. A, B and C E. A and C Ans: E 72. All of the following statements regarding the second messenger concept of hormone action are true EXCEPT which one? A. The hormone itself is the first messenger. B. Hormones act through receptors to stimulate the production of the second messenger. C. Cyclic AMP is a leading candidate for the second messenger of lipid-soluble hormones such as steroids. D. None of the above are exceptions; all statements are true. Ans: C 73. Human growth hormone (HGH), in vivo, in specific tissues A. Causes an increase in the size of cells. B. Causes a decrease in the size of cells. C. increases the rate of cell proliferation. D. decreases the rate of cell proliferation. E. Can be replaced therapeutically by other mammalian growth hormones. Ans: C

74. Angiotensin converting enzyme catalyzes conversion of A. angiotensinogen to angiotensin I B. angiotensin I to angiotensin II C. angiotensin II to angiotensin III D. bradykinin to an inactive form E. renin to its active form Ans: B

75. Which of these statements concerning parathyroid hormone (PTH) is CORRECT? A. its secretion is inhibited by high levels of plasma calcium B. it lowers calcium and phosphorus levels in plasma C. it lowers serum calcium levels and raises serum phosphate levels D. it causes (or enhances) precipitation of calcium salts in bone E. it stimulates reabsorption of phosphate from the kidney Ans: A 76. The most prominent second messenger involved in the actions of LH, FSH and ACTH is A. Ca2+ B. cGMP C. inositol triphosphate (IP3) D. steroid receptor protein E. cAMP Ans: E 77. In target sites such as prostate, testosterone appears to act via one of its metabolites which is A. a 17-ketosteroid. B. delta 4-androstenedione. C. 17 beta-estradiol. D. dehydroepiandrosterone. E. 5 alpha-dihydrotestosterone. Ans: E 78. The mechanism of action of steroid hormones differs from that of polypeptide hormones in that A. steroid hormones enter target cells, whereas polypeptide hormones do not. B. polypeptide hormones interact with receptors, whereas steroid hormones do not. C. polypeptide hormones cause a specific physiological response in target cells whereas steroid hormones simply stimulate target cells to divide. D. A and B. E. A, and B and C. Ans: A 79. The biochemical mechanism by which parathyroid hormone exerts its effect on sensitive tissues is by activation of a(n) A. adenylyl cyclase. B. phosphodiesterase. C. nuclear hormone receptor.

D. tyrosine kinase. E. voltage-gated Ca2+ channel. Ans: A 80. Which of the following statements concerning steroid hormones is correct A. a 17-ketosteroid (e.g. androstenedione) has exactly 17 carbons B. the difference between pregnenolone and progesterone is the presence of a hydroxyl group on C17 C. removal of the C18 Carbon of corticosterone is an important step in the synthesis of aldosterone D. aromatization of androstenedione produces beta-estradiol E. none of the above Ans: E 81. Endocrine, paracrine, neuronal, and contact-dependent are all forms of A. Extracellular signaling. B. Intracellular signaling. C. Nerve impulse transmission. D. Hormone signaling. Ans: A 82. The receptor protein for steroid hormones occurs principally in the A. cytoplasm. B. mitochondria. C. plasma membrane. D. nuclear membrane. E. Golgi membrane. Ans: A 83. Beta-endorphin is derived fro A. ACTH B. enkephalin C. beta-lipotropin D. beta-MSH E. gamma-endorphin Ans: C 84. All of the following biologically active peptides are potentially derivable fro betalipotropin (beta-LPH) EXCEPT A. methionine enkephalin B. alpha-endorphin

C. beta melanocyte stimulating hormone (beta-MSH) D. beta-endorphin E. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Ans: E 85. The phosphorylation of tyrosine residues on a growth factor receptor A. generates interaction sites for SH2 domains on target proteins. B. is a means of desensitizing the receptor. C. leads to the covalent attachment of the growth factor to its receptor. D. permits the processing of the growth factor to its active secreted form. Ans: A

86. Chemically, the estrogens are characterized by A. the 21 carbon steroid skeleton. B. the lack of a methyl group at C-10. C. the aromatic character of the A ring. D. the lack of a hydroxyl function at C-17. E. all of these. Ans: C 87. Which group of steroids in the male has a pronounced general anabolic effect? A. Estrogens B. Mineralocorticoids C. Glucocorticoids D. Adrenal androgens E. Testicular androgens Ans: E 88. Most water-soluble hormones (e.g., polypeptides, amines) A. bind to heterotrimeric G proteins in the cell's plasma membrane. B. diffuse to the nucleus and activate transcription factors. C. form an irreversible complex with lipid-anchored peripheral membrane proteins. D. interact transiently with integral membrane proteins. Ans: D 89. What molecule induces synthesis of progesterone receptors/ A. Estradiol B. Gonadotropin releasing hormone

C. Luteinizing hormone D. Norepinephrine E. Progesterone Ans: A 90. Following the binding of insulin to its receptor, the next step in this signal transduction pathway is A. activation of a phospholipase C isoform. B. decreased synthesis of cAMP (3', 5'-AMP). C. hydrolysis of cGMP (3', 5'-GMP). D. phosphorylation of one or more proteins. E. release of Ca2+ from the endoplasmic reticulum. Ans: D 91. All of the following are true of estrogen receptors EXCEPT which one? A. They are found only in target tissues. B. They may enter the nucleus only when bound to steroid hormone. C. They may interact with sites on the chromatin to cause the expression of specific genes. D. They are never found in malignant cells. Ans: D

92. How would inhibitors of protein synthesis be expected to affect the actions of a steroid hormone on its target cells? A. increase B. decrease C. no effect D. B Ans: B 93. Tissue specificity in the action of steroid hormones is determined at the level of A. non-histone (acidic) protein. B. DNA. C. histone proteins. D. RNA polymerase. E. the nuclear membrane. Ans: A

94. Zinc finger domains are characteristic of hormone receptors that A. bind steroids. B. have seven transmembrane domains. C. interact with heterotrimeric guanine nucleotide-binding proteins. D. possess intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity. E. regulate the flux of Ca2+ into the cytoplasm. Ans: A 95. Each of the following statements about adrenal cortical steroid hormones is correct EXCEPT which one? A. The formation of pregnenolone from cholesterol is a rate controlling step in adrenal steroid hormone synthesis. B. The reactions which lead to the formation of pregnenolone from cholesterol take place in mitochondria. C. Progesterone is formed from pregnenolone through a series of hydroxylation reactions which require NADPH. D. Progesterone is a precursor for aldosterone. E. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulates the conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone through mechanisms involving cyclic AMP. Ans: C 96. Estriol is found in the urine conjugated with A. glycine. B. taurine. C. benzoic acid. D. protein. E. glucuronic acid. Ans: E

97. Progesterone receptor A. can bind to DNA in the absence of progesterone B. can be activated in the absence of progesterone by phosphorylation C. binds to heat shock proteins in the cytoplasm D. contains a nuclear localization signal E. all of the above

Ans: E 98. What molecule keeps the corpus luteum viable for several weeks after fertilization? A. Chorionic Gonadotropin B. Follicle Stimulating Hormone C. Inhibin A D. Luteinizing Hormone E. Oxytocin Ans: A 99. Heterotrimeric guanine nucleotide-binding proteins (G proteins) usually function in signal transduction cascades by modulating the concentration of intracellular messengers. Intracellular messengers include all of the following EXCEPT A. 3',5'-adenosine monophosphate. B. calcium ion. C. epinephrine. D. 1,2-diacylglycerol. E. inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate. Ans: C 100. The following statements are related to the endocrinology of reproduction (1) LHRH is synthesized in the hypothalamus (2),LH stimulates progesterone synthesis (3) FSH stimulates estradiol synthesis (4) steroid hormones fro the gonads feed back on the hypothalamus and pituitary Which of the statements are true? A. all B. none C. only 1 and 4 D. only 2 and 3 E. only 1 and 2 Ans: A 101. Which statement about insulin is not true? A. It is synthesized as a precursor. B. It probably exists in a tightly folded conformation at physiological concentrations in plasma. C. It is composed of two peptide chains linked by disulfide bonds. When separated, these two chains will readily recombine to form active insulin in high yield. D. It promotes glucose and amino acid uptake by muscle. E. It is stored in the secretory granules of the beta cell of pancreatic islets as Zn-insulin along with an equimolar amount of C-peptide. Ans: C

102. Thyrotropin Releasing Hormone (TRH) A. is a tripeptide with blocked N- and C-terminal amino acids B. stimulates the release of TSH from the thyroid C. is produced by the anterior pituitary gland to stimulate thyroid hormone release from the thyroid gland D. is derived form big ACTH biosynthetically E. is found in highest concentration in the thyroid gland Ans: A 103. The secretion of LH and FSH from the anterior pituitary is under the control of A. CRF B. TRH C. GnRH D. ACTH E. norepinephrine Ans: C 104. Aldosterone is A. a glucocorticoid. B. a mineralocorticoid. C. an androgen. D. a progestagen. Ans: B 105. Urinary end-products of glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid metabolism consist largely of A. glucuronides of the steroid compounds originally secreted by the adrenal gland. B. glucuronides of tetrahydro-derivatives involving ring A of the steroids originally secreted by the adrenal gland. C. pregnanediol. D. unrecognizable small metabolic fragments of the original steroids which are produced by the liver. E. glucuronide and sulfate conjugates of estrogens. Ans: B 106. Proopiomelanocortin is a hormone precursor for hormones. Why are all not expressed simultaneously? A. There are tissue-specific degradative enzymes

B. C. D. E.

There are tissue-specific enhancers There are tissue-specific promoters There are tissue-specific processing proteases There are tissue-specific transcription factors

Ans: D 107. What shape are the surfaces of a clathrin-coated vesicle? A. Hexagons and pentagons B. Hexagons and squares C. Pentagons and rectangles D. Squares and triangles E. Triangles and pentagons Ans: A 108. After the -adrenergic receptor is desensitized by phosphorylation, what binds to the receptor to block its interaction with Gs? A. -arrestin B. Gg C. Inhibin B D. Isoproterenol E. Receptor -subunit Ans: A 109. Vitamin D may well be considered a hormone because it A. operates via the second messenger route. B. is strictly steroid in nature. C. is formed de novo in the body, albeit with the aid of light. D. is soluble in lipid solvents. E. requires modification in order to express physiological activity. Ans: C 110. Which statement below regarding the biological action of insulin is incorrect? A. Insulin exerts its biological effects by interaction with a specific receptor on the plasma membrane of cells. B. The biological action of insulin requires that the molecule be transported to the cell interior. C. The effects of insulin upon cellular metabolism are directly related to the amount of insulin bound to receptors. D. The number of insulin receptors on a cell is regulated by the amount of insulin in the medium surrounding the cell. Ans: B

111. Catecholamines are synthesized in the brain fro A. phenylalanine. B. tryptophan. C. glutamate. D. tyrosine. E. acetyl-CoA. Ans: D 112. All of the following statements concerning the synthesis of epinephrine are correct EXCEPT A. it occurs in the adrenal medulla B. it involves transamination C. it requires tetrahydrobiopterin D. tyrosine hydroxylase catalyzes the rate-limiting step E. it involves S-adenosylmethionine (SAM) Ans: B 113. The identification of zinc finger domains in the structure of a hormone receptor would predict A. binding of the receptor to double-stranded DNA. B. interaction of the receptor with a heterotrimeric G protein. C. regulation of the receptor by receptor-mediated endocytosis. D. transduction of a signal by intrinsic tyrosine phosphorylation. Ans: A 114. All of the following effects Can be produced by elevated levels of glucocorticoids EXCEPT A. a decrease of muscle protein. B. elevated tyrosine transaminase. C. elevated transport of amino acids into the liver. D. increased activities of enzymes of the urea cycle. E. increased net conversion of glucose to amino acids. Ans: E 115. Aldosterone acts primarily in the regulation of A. carbohydrate metabolism. B. protein breakdown. C. amino acid adsorption. D. sodium balance. E. water intake.

Ans: D 116. What hormone is excreted from the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla? A. ACTH B. Cortisol C. Epinephrine D. Oxytocin E. Thyroid hormone Ans: C 117. As regards the synthesis of ACTH, which of the following statements, if any, is false? A. It is initially synthesized as proopiomelanocortin (POMC). B. Glycosylated POMC is proteolytic ally cleaved into two proteins, Pro-ACTH and Beta-LPH. C. Beta-LPH is proteolytic ally cleaved with one of the products being the endorphins. D. Pro-ACTH is proteolytically cleaved into ACTH and another protein of unknown function. E. None of the above. Ans: E 118. Vitamin D, (cholecalciferol) is converted into A. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol in the kidney. B. 1-hydroxycholecalciferol in the liver. C. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in the kidney. D. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol in the liver. E. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in the liver. Ans: E 119. The major glucocorticoid in an is A. corticosterone. B. 11-desoxycortisol. C. cortisol. D. aldosterone. Ans: C

120. Hormones affect the rates of metabolic pathways by all of the following EXCEPT A. forming covalent bonds with intermediates in metabolic pathways B. stimulating uptake of metabolites by cells

C. stimulating the genome to produce specific transcripts D. activating protein kinases E. binding to specific receptors Ans: A 121. High levels of insulin and LDL have identical regulatory effects on the number of their respective cell surface receptors expressed by a cell. For both of these ligandreceptor systems this phenomenon is classified as A. homologous up-regulation. B. homologous down-regulation. C. heterologous up-regulation. D. heterologous down-regulation. E. none of the above. Ans: B 122. The steroid hormone receptors A. are membrane bound receptors for steroid hormones that signal ligand binding through a complex G-protein pathway. B. simultaneously bind hormones, DNA, and proteins. C. contain zinc finger DNA binding domains with Zn atoms coordinated by 2 cysteines and 2 histidine residues. D. all recognize the same DNA response element. Ans: B 123. Aldosterone is normally associated with partial regulation of what process? A. putrefaction B. sodium balance C. gluconeogenesis D. lipid digestion E. carbohydrate metabolism Ans: B 124. Steroid hormones are thought to function primarily A. by regulating transcription at the chromosomes. B. by allosteric activation of protein kinases. C. via the adenylate cyclase mechanism. D. through chemical modification of ribosomes. E. by binding to a receptor-enzyme complex in the nuclear membrane. Ans: A

125. What is the mechanism by which atrial natriuretic factor promotes phosphorylation of intracellular proteins? A. cAMP B. cGMP C. Diacylglycerol D. inositol phosphate E. Tyrosine autophosphorylation Ans: B 126. Concerning the anterior pituitary hormones, which one of the following statements is false? A. The anterior pituitary makes six hormones, thyrotropin, follitropin, lutropin, somatotropin, prolactin and adrenocorticotropin. B. Production of the anterior pituitary hormones are all stimulated by releasing factors made by the hypothalamus and which are carried from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary via the blood. C. Overproduction of lutropin/follitropin is seen in Kallman's Syndrome which is characterized by failure to sexually mature and grow. D. Thyrotropin stimulates the thyroid gland and is made up of an alpha subunit and a beta subunit but the beta subunit is the only one of the two subunits that is specific for thyrotropin. E. Somatotropin's main function of growth promotion is indirect via raising the levels of somatomedin c (insulin-like Growth Factor I). Ans: C 127. Two vitamins which can be considered to function in part as hormones are A. Vitamin E and niacin B. Vitamin D and Vitamin A C. Vitamin K and Vitamin E D. Vitamin A and Vitamin E E. None of the above Ans: B 128. steroid hormones are removed fro the circulation mainly by A. secretion in the urine as steroid glucuronides and sulfates. B. degradation in liver into acetate. C. excretion in urine as free steroids.

D. conversion into bile acids. Ans: A 129. In eukaryotic cells, glucocorticoids regulate gene expression by A. binding to and activating a previously synthesized but inactive enzyme. B. binding first to a specific steroid receptor which then binds to an inactive enzyme and causes activation. C. binding to the sigma subunit of RNA polymerase and stimulating transcription. D. binding first to a specific steroid receptor which then binds to a specific hormonal control site on the DNA and activates transcription. E. binding first to a specific steroid receptor which then binds to the nuclear matrix and blocks mRNA degradation. Ans: D

130. One of the main functions of mineralocorticoids is to regulate while one of the main functions of the glucocorticoids is to regulate . A. response to stress, blood pressure B. urine output, renin activity C. carbohydrate metabolism, salt balance D. blood pressure, salt balance E. salt balance, carbohydrate metabolism Ans: E 131. Which one of the following statements concerning the metabolism of testosterone is FALSE? A. The rate of testosterone formation in the stroma of the ovary is regulated by the activity of side chain cleavage enzyme. B. After removal of the testes (castration) the granulosa cells of the adrenal Can compensate by the conversion of cholesterol to testosterone. C. Testosterone is converted to the more active 5-alpha-dihydro- testosterone in peripheral target tissues of the adult. D. Testosterone is a member of the C-l9 androgen class of steroids. E. Testosterone affects the rate of bone maturation. Ans: B 132. Which group of adrenocortical steroids has a GENERAL catabolic effect (mainly protein depletion)? A. estrogens B. mineralocorticoids

C. glucocorticoids D. adrenal androgens E. testicular androgens Ans: C 133. All of the following are true with respect to the formation and function of insulin EXCEPT A. Proinsulin is mostly cleaved to form insulin in the beta cells of the pancreas. B. insulin stimulates uptake of glucose into muscle and adipose cells. C. insulin stimulates liver adenylate cyclase activity. D. insulin stimulates triglyceride synthesis in adipose cells. E. The effect of insulin on blood glucose levels is opposite that of epinephrine. Ans: C 134. What is unusual about the DNA coding of enkephalins? A. Another non-enkephalin gene is transcribed as part of its transcript B. It shows tissue-specific cleavage C. Leu-enkephalin gene is included in multiple repeats of met-enkephalin gene D. Multiple genes on different chromosomes E. One gene with multiple copies of leu-enkephalin Ans: C

Chapter 16 Carbohydrate Metabolism II: Special Pathways and Glycoconjugates 1. Which mucopolysaccharide contains alpha 1->4 glycosidic bonds? A. chondroitin sulfate A B. chondroitin sulfate B C. heparin D. hyaluronic acid E. dermatan sulfate 2. Hyaluronic acid consists of repeating units of A. glucose and fructose. B. glucuronic acid and N-acetylglucosamine. C. galactose and N-acetylgalactosamine. D. glucuronic acid and N-acetylgalactosamine. E. glucuronic acid and N-acetylgalactosamine-4-sulfate. 3. HMP shunt occurs in A. nucleus. B. nucleus and microsomes. C. cytosol. D. mitochondria. 4. Proteoglycan monomers contain A. glycosaminoglycans. B. derivatives of mannosamine. C. either mannuronic acid or iduronic acid. D. repeating trisaccharide units. 5. The asparagine-linked oligosaccharides of mammalian glycoproteins, when processed to the mature form, may contain residues of each of the following EXCEPT A. glucose. B. fucose. C. N-acetyl glucosamine. D. mannose. E. sialic acid. 6. Which statement about proteoglycans is FALSE? A. They contain long chains of repeating disaccharides. B. They are polyanions. C. They contain roughly equal amounts by weight of protein and carbohydrate. D. Carbohydrate residues frequently are esterified with sulfate. E. They generally form viscous solutions in water. 7. All of the following occur in the hexose monophosphate pathway for glucose metabolism EXCEPT A. reduction of NAD. B. formation of C-7 sugar phosphates.

C. formation of C-5 sugar phosphate precursor of nucleotides. D. release of C-1 of glucose as carbon dioxide. E. reduction of NADP. 8. A nine carbon acid found in a terminal position in the oligosaccharide portion of many glycoproteins is A. hyaluronic acid. B. sialic acid. C. iduronic acid. D. glucuronic acid. E. gluconic acid. 9. The principal regulatory factor governing the rate of the pentose phosphate pathway is the level of A. ATP B. ADP C. AMP D. NAD+ E. NADP+ 10. What makes hyaluronic acid different from the other 5 classes of proteoglycans? A. It is limited to animal tissue B. It is not a lubricant C. It is not acetylated D. It is not charged E. It is not sulfated 11. The bond linking chondroitin sulfate to protein in bovine cartilage involves a residue of A. galactose. B. N-acetylglucosamine. C. glucuronic acid. D. xylose. E. mannose. 12. Phosphoadenosine phosphosulfate (PAPS) participates in the A. biosynthesis of heparan. B. synthesis of glutathione. C. synthesis of cysteine from methionine. D. conversion of cysteine to taurine. E. conversion to sulfite to sulfate. 13. Erythrose 4-phosphate + fructose 6-phosphate <--> sedoheptulose 7-phosphate + glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate This reaction is catalyzed by A. transaminase. B. transhydrogenase.

C. transketolase. D. transamidinase. E. transaldolase. 14. All of the following are accomplished by the hexose monophosphate shunt EXCEPT A. hexose may be converted to pentose. B. glucose-6-phosphate may be synthesized from pentose phosphates. C. a major source of energy is supplied to the body via oxidation of NADPH by the electron transport chain. D. pentoses may be converted into glycolytic intermediates and then to pyruvate. 15. What is the minimum number of carbohydrate residues that defines a protein as a glycoprotein? A. 1 B. 5 C. 50 D. 100 E. 500 16. All of the following are glycosaminoglycans EXCEPT A. hyaluronate. B. heparin. C. chondroitin sulfate. D. keratan sulfate. E. glucuronate. 17. The hexose monophosphate shunt pathway is utilized for all of the following EXCEPT A. formation of ATP. B. generation of NADPH. C. ribose 5-phosphate synthesis. D. ribose 5-phosphate degradation. E. synthesis of pentoses. 18. The carbohydrate used in the synthesis of nucleic acids in animals is produced in A. the urea cycle. B. glycolysis. C. the citric acid cycle. D. electron transport. E. the hexose monophosphate pathway. 19. Which of the following generates NADPH? A. Glycolysis B. hexose monophosphate shunt C. Krebs cycle D. Gluconeogenesis

E. Glycogenolysis 20. What percentage of carbohydrate determines that a molecule is a proteoglycan and not a glycoprotein? A. 5 B. 25 C. 55 D. 75 E. 95 21. The non-oxidative portion of the hexose monophosphate shunt A. forms CO2 as glucose 6-phosphate is converted to pentose phosphates. B. requires ATP. C. converts lactate to pyruvate. D. does not function in mature erythrocytes. E. can lead to synthesis of hexose phosphates from pentose phosphates. 22. Thiamine pyrophosphate participates in the reaction catalyzed by A. transketolase. B. transaldolase. C. pyruvate carboxylase. D. isocitrate dehydrogenase. E. aspartate aminotransferase (GOT). 23. The immediate products of oxidation of one mole of glucose 6-phosphate through the oxidative portion of the pentose phosphate pathway are A. one mole of ribulose 5-phosphate, one mole of carbon dioxide and reduction of two moles of NAD. B. one mole of ribulose 5-phosphate, one mole of carbon dioxide and oxidation of two moles of NADPH. C. one mole of xylulose 5-phosphate, one mole of carbon dioxide and reduction of two moles of NADPH. D. one mole of ribose 5-phosphate, one mole of carbon dioxide and reduction of two moles of NADPH. E. one mole of fructose 6-phosphate and reduction of two moles of NADP. 24. The nitrogen donor for amino sugars is A. glutamate. B. glucosamine. C. ammonia. D. glutamine. E. none of the above 25. What is the major difference in the synthesis of N- and O-linked carbohydrate residues on glycoproteins? A. N-linked has branches

B. C. D. E.

N-linked has mannose O-linked is assembled on a dolichol intermediate O-linked is assembled on the protein Synthesis of O-linked requires energy

26. Which group of compounds are all intermediates in the hexose monophosphate shunt? A. sedoheptulose 7-phosphate, glucose 6-phosphate, xylulose 5-phosphate B. erythrose 4-phosphate, glucose 1-phosphate, glycerol 3-phosphate C. fructose 6-phosphate, fructose 1-phosphate, fructose 1,6-phosphate D. glucose 1-phosphate, erythrose 4-phosphate, carbon dioxide E. ribulose 5-phosphate, ribose 1-phosphate, glucose 6-phosphate 27. The hexose monophosphate shunt is least active in A. liver B. adipose tissue C. red blood cells D. skeletal muscle E. gonads and adrenal tissue 28. The first intermediate formed from glucose in the pentose phosphate pathway is A. 6-phosphogluconolactone. B. 6-phosphogluconate. C. fructose 6-phosphate. D. ribulose 5-phosphate. E. glucose 1-phosphate. 29. All of the following molecules are formed in the pentose phosphate pathway EXCEPT A. carbon dioxide B. pentose 5-phosphate C. NADPH D. NADH E. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate 30. Proteoglycan monomers contain A. glycosaminoglycans. B. derivatives of mannosamine. C. either mannuronic acid or iduronic acid. D. repeating trisaccharide units.

31. Which enzyme catalyzes a decarboxylation? A. 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase B. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase

C. pyruvate kinase D. beta-hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase E. citrate lyase 32. The enzyme transaldolase is a component of A. the TCA cycle B. the hexose monophosphate shunt C. fatty acid synthase D. the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex E. none of the above 33. In glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, the associated hemolytic anemia is ultimately due to what changes from normal in red cells? A. decreased formation of ATP by mitochondria. B. decreased ability to carry out glycolysis. C. increased leakage of potassium into the cells. D. an intrinsic defect in membrane structure. E. decreased concentrations of NADPH. 34. All of the following are intermediates in the conversion of glucose to ribose EXCEPT A. 6-phosphogluconate. B. D-ribulose 5-phosphate. C. ribose 5-phosphate. D. glucose 1-phosphate. E. glucose 6-phosphate. 35. Hyaluronic acid is characterized by A. several polysaccharide chains attached to protein. B. repeating trisaccharide units. C. sulfated N-acetylglucosamine residues. D. beta-glycosidic bonds. 36. Comparing keratan sulfate dermatan sulfate, chondroitin sulfate and hyaluronate, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT which ones? A. they all contain a uronic acid. B. all have 1 --> 4 linkages in them C. all contain N-acetylgalactosamine D. all contain acetyl groups E. all contain beta-glycosidic bonds 37. The products of the pentose phosphate pathway include A. NAD+ and pyruvate. B. NADH and pentose phosphate. C. NADPH and carbon dioxide.

D. ATP, pentose phosphate and carbon dioxide. 38. All of the following are reactants or products of the pentose phosphate pathway for glucose oxidation EXCEPT A. certain triose phosphates. B. FADH2. C. glucose 6-phosphate. D. CO2. E. a certain 7 carbon sugar. 39. The enzyme transketolase is a component of A. the TCA cycle. B. the HMP shunt. C. fatty acid synthase. D. the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex. E. none of the above 40. Which of the following is NOT found as an intermediate or product of the pentose phosphate pathway? A. NADPH B. ribulose 5-phosphate C. xylulose 5-phosphate D. ribose 5-phosphate E. NADH 41. The oligosaccharide moiety of glycoproteins is synthesized and processed in or on A. cytosol. B. lysosomes. C. endoplasmic reticulum. D. nucleus. E. mitochondria. 42. Proteoglycans A. contain repeating trisaccharide units. B. contain N-acetyl mannosamine. C. usually contain either glucuronic acid or iduronic acid. D. are composed of glycosaminoglycans covalently attached to a protein core through a N-glycosidic linkage to asparagine 43. All of the following statements about the phosphogluconate (pentose phosphate) pathway are correct EXCEPT which one? A. A carbohydrate containing 7 carbon atoms can be produced by this pathway. B. containing 5 carbon atoms are absent from this pathway. C. A major product of the pathway is NADPH. D. The pathway is important in red blood cells because a product of the pathway is required for maintaining the proper oxidation-reduction state.

E. A key enzyme in the pathway is glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase. 44. The precursors for the biosynthesis of N-acetylneuraminic acid include which two of the following? 1. phosphoenolpyruvate 2. N-acetylmannosamine 3. CMP 4. Nacetylgalactosamine 5. glucuronic acid A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 4 and 5 E. 1 and 5 45. Which of the following heteropolysaccharides is frequently used clinically as an anticoagulant? A. hyaluronic acid B. keratin sulfate C. heparin D. dermatin sulfate E. chondroitin sulfate 46. All of the following substances are intermediates in the formation of glucuronic acid from glucose EXCEPT A. UDP-glucose. B. UDP-galactose. C. UDP-glucuronic acid. D. glucose 6-phosphate. E. glucose 1-phosphate. 47. Proteoglycan aggregates contain all of the following EXCEPT which one? A. Protein chain B. Keratin sulfate C. Dermatan sulfate D. chondroitin sulfate E. Hyaluronic acid 48. The oxidative branch of the pentose phosphate pathway predominates over the nonoxidative branch when A. more ribose 5-phosphate than NADPH is required. B. the needs for NADPH and ribose 5-phosphate are balanced. C. more NADPH than ribose 5-phosphate is required. D. more sedoheptulose 7-phosphate than NADPH is required. 49. All of the following are products or intermediates of the hexose monophosphate pathway EXCEPT A. carbon dioxide. B. 6-phosphogluconate. C. ribulose 5-phosphate.

D. a 4-carbon sugar phosphate. E. NADH. 50. All of the following are directly associated with the pentose phosphate pathway EXCEPT A. fructose 6-phosphate. B. production of pentose phosphates. C. synthesis of NADPH. D. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate. E. glycerol 3-phosphate. 51. The core sugars of N-linked oligosaccharides are preassembled as a derivative of ______ prior to their transfer to a newly synthesized polypeptide. A. adenosine diphosphate B. coenzyme A C. dolichol phosphate D. thiamine pyrophosphate E. phosphoenolpyruvate 52. All of the following glycosaminoglycans contains sulfate attached to a carbohydrate molecule except one. What is the exception? A. Hyaluronic acid B. chondroitin-4-sulfate C. Dermatan sulfate D. Keratan E. Heparin 53. The nonoxidative branch of the pentose phosphate pathway predominates over the oxidative branch when A. more ribose 5-phosphate than NADPH is required. B. the needs for NADPH and ribose 5-phosphate are balanced. C. more NADPH than ribose 5-phosphate is required. D. more NADPH than sedoheptulose 7-phosphate is required. 54. All of the following are products or intermediates of the hexose monophosphate shunt (pentose phosphate pathway) EXCEPT A. glucuronic acid 1-phosphate. B. carbon dioxide. C. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate. D. NADPH. E. ribose 5-phosphate. 55. In nature most mucopolysaccharides or glycosaminoglycans are found covalently linked to protein cores. Which is not? A. hyaluronic acid B. chondroitin sulfate

C. heparin (mast cell) D. dermatan sulfate E. heparan sulfate 56. The inner core of N-linked glycoproteins contains which of the following sugar residues? A. galactose and N-acetyl galactosamine B. mannose and N-acetyl glucosamine C. mannose and galactose D. fucose and N-acetyl glucosamine E. mannose and N-acetyl neuraminic acid 57. Which statement is correct? A. Cytidine nucleotides are key intermediates in the synthesis of glycogen. B. GTP reacts with mannose 1-phosphate in the same way as UTP reacts with glucose 1-phosphate. C. NAD is a prominent acyl group transfer coenzyme. D. The isoalloxazine ring structure is found in coenzyme A. E. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotides accept electrons from flavin adenine dinucleotides. 58. In the reaction below, catalyzed by transketolase, what is compound Z? Z + ribose5-P <--> glyceraldehyde-3-P + sedoheptulose-7-P A. erythrose 4-phosphate B. fructose 6-phsophate C. 6-phosphogluconate D. ribulose E. xylulose 5-phosphate 59. Which of the following best indicates the products of the hexose monophosphate hunt? A. NAD and pyruvate B. the oxidized form of NADPH C. carbon dioxide and NADPH D. NADH and pentoses E. ATP, pentoses and carbon dioxide 60. Sulfation of heparin occurs by means of sulfate transfer from by the action of a sulfotransferase. A. heparin sulfate B. 3'-phosphoadenosine-5'-phosphosulfate C. 3'-phosphoadenosine-5'-phosphate D. cysteine E. both A and D 61. The active glucosyl donor in biosynthesis

A. B. C. D. E.

glucose-l-phosphate 3'-glucosyl-ATP UDP-glucose UDP-maltose UDP-glucose-6-diphosphate

62. In the biosynthesis of the N-linked oligosaccharides in glycoproteins, activated sugars are initially transferred to and assembled on A. glycogenin. B. asparagine. C. N-acetyl glucosamine. D. coenzyme A. E. dolichol phosphate. 63. Which of the glycosaminoglycans found in proteoglycan aggregates is devoid of uronic acid units? A. dermatan sulfate B. keratan sulfate C. heparan sulfate D. chondroitin-4-sulfate E. chondroitin-6-sulfate 64. All of the following occur in the pentose phosphate pathway EXCEPT A. Reduction of NADP. B. Formation of C-7 monosaccharide phosphates. C. Formation of C-5 monosaccharide phosphate precursors of nucleotides. D. Release of C-6 of glucose as carbon dioxide. E. Formation of 6-phosphogluconolactone. 65. Which of the following is the first enzyme unique to the pentose phosphate pathway? A. lactonase B. 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase C. transaldolase D. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase E. phosphoglucoisomerase 66. Which of the following participates in N-acetyl neuraminic acid transfer reactions in man? A. UDP-beta-D-N-acetyl neuraminic acid B. GDP-alpha-D-N-acetyl neuraminic acid C. CMP-N-acetyl neuraminic acid D. UDP-alpha-D-N-acetyl neuraminic acid E. GDP-beta-D-N-acetyl neuraminic acid

67. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase catalyzes the first step in which of the following pathways? A. glycolysis B. pentose phosphate pathway C. gluconeogenesis D. tricarboxylic acid cycle E. glycogen synthesis 68. The activated form of glucose involved in the biosynthesis of glycoproteins, galactose and glucuronic acid is a derivative of A. CoA. B. ADP. C. pantothenic acid. D. UDP. E. ascorbic acid. 69. In liver, the hexose monophosphate shunt is the principal source of A. carbon dioxide. B. glucose 6-phosphate. C. the reduction of NAD. D. fructose 6-phosphate. E. ribose 5-phosphate. 70. The repeating disaccharide units of glycosaminoglycans (mucopolysaccharides) are composed of a hexosamine residue and a uronic acid residue. Which is the correct disaccharide unit for chondroitin-6-sulfate, the major component of cartilage proteoglycans? A. N-acetyl-glucosamine-6-sulfate - glucuronic acid B. N-acetyl-galactosamine-6-sulfate - glucuronic acid C. N-acetyl-galactosamine-6-sulfate - iduronic acid D. N-acetyl-glucosamine-6-sulfate - galacturonic acid E. N-acetyl-mannosamine-6-sulfate - glucuronic acid 71. HMP shunt requires A. vitamin C. B. biotin. C. Thiamin-pyrophosphate. D. magnesium ions. E. both c and d. 72. Which of the following is not a function of the pentose phosphate pathway? A. provide NAD+ for the oxidation of fatty acids B. provide NADPH for the synthesis of fatty acids and cholesterol C. provide ribose-5-phosphate for the synthesis of nucleotides D. provide NADPH for ribonucleotide reductase for the synthesis of deoxy ribonucleotides

E. All of the above are functions of the pentose phosphate pathway. 73. Which of the following statements about N-glycosylation of proteins is FALSE A. The oligosaccharide contains both mannose (Man) and N-acetyl- glucosamine (GlcNAc) residues. B. The oligosaccharide is built up on the protein beginning with attachments of GlcNAc to asparagine and subsequent additions of either GlcNAc or Man residues from the corresponding UDP sugars. C. The transfer is made from a lipid intermediate called dolichol. D. transfer occurs within the endoplasmic reticulum. E. The biosynthesis of dolichol-PP-oligosaccharide is inhibited by tunicamycin. 74. Which statement is FALSE? A. Hyaluronic acid is a glycosaminoglycan (GAG) but not a proteoglycan. B. In proteoglycans, the GAGs are linked to serine residues in the core protein. C. The major sugar components of proteoglycans are pentoses, such as xylose, and Nacetylamino sugars. D. proteoglycans typically carry many negative charges. E. Hurler's disease results from deficient activity of an enzyme normally involved in the degradation of GAGs. 75. What is a major function of the hexose monophosphate shunt? A. produces pentoses B. produces ADP C. produces NADH D. pathway for glucuronic acid synthesis E. None of the above is correct. 76. Carbon number 1 of glucose in the hexose monophosphate shunt is converted to A. ribose. B. deoxyribose. C. carbon dioxide. D. fatty acid. 77. The products of the pentose phosphate pathway include A. NAD+ and pyruvate. B. NADH and pentose phosphate. C. NADPH and carbon dioxide. D. ATP, pentose phosphate and carbon dioxide. 78. Which class of proteoglycans is most abundant in the body? A. chondroitin sulfate B. Dermatan sulfate C. Heparin D. Heparan sulfate E. Keratan sulfate

Chapter 17 Lipid Metabolism I: Synthesis, Storage, and Utilization of Fatty acids and Triacylglycerols 1. The fatty acid synthase complex contains all the following EXCEPT A. a reductase. B. a dehydratase. C. a carboxylase. D. a condensing enzyme. E. a transacylase. 2. Complete hydrogenation of linoleate produces A. stearate. B. palmitate. C. oleate. D. palmitoleate. E. none of the above. 3. Which of the following compounds will generate, upon oxidation, the highest yield of ATP on a mole per mole basis? A. myristate (14:0) B. myristoyl-CoA C. 1,2-dimyristoylphosphatidylserine D. 1,2,3-trimyristoylglycerol 4. Fatty acid oxidation is a major source of energy in all of the following tissues EXCEPT A. liver. B. kidneys. C. brain. D. heart muscle. E. resting skeletal muscle. 5. Which of the following is true about polyunsaturated fatty acids found in man? A. The first double bond is between carbons 2 and 3. B. The double bonds are generally TRANS. C. The double bonds are in a very stable conjugated system. D. Generally, the double bonds are separated by one methylene group. 6. The reductive steps in fatty acids synthesis are carried out by A. FADH2 and NADH B. NADH C. NADH and NADPH D. NADPH 7. During the biosynthesis of saturated fatty acids, the addition of every two-carbon unit requires A. 2 NADH + 2 H+ + 1 ATP

B. C. D. E.

2 NADPH + 2 H+ + 1 ATP 1 NADPH + H+ + 1 ATP 1 NADH + H+ + 1 FADH2 + 1 ATP 1 NADPH + H+ + 1 FADH2 + 1 ATP

8. The enzyme primarily responsible for generating acetyl-CoA in the cytoplasm is A. ATP-citrate synthase. B. malic enzyme. C. malate dehydrogenase. D. ATP-citrate lyase. E. acetyl-CoA carnitine transferase. 9. Mobilization of fat from adipose tissue requires the enzymatic activity of A. lipoprotein lipase. B. hormone-sensitive lipase. C. phospholipase A2. D. pancreatic lipase. E. glycerol kinase. 10. In contrast to fatty acids, which of the following is characteristic of ketone bodies? A. carried by albumin in blood B. soluble in water C. require carnitine for transport into mitochondria D. contain an average of 18 carbon atoms E. may be saturated or unsaturated 11. The major site of the formation and release of acetoacetate is A. adipose tissue. B. brain. C. liver. D. muscle. E. small intestine. 12. True statements about de novo fatty acid synthesis include A. It utilizes acetyl CoA from carbohydrates and occurs in the liver and adipocyte inner mitochondrial matrix. B. The rate limiting step involves a reaction in which acetyl CoA accepts a one carbon group from another acetyl CoA to form malonyl CoA. C. Acetyl CoA carboxylase is active only in its multimeric form which contains biotin in a N-carboxybiotin-enzyme complex. D. Fatty acid synthase is a complex enzyme in humans which is active as a homodimer. Each round of synthesis adds two carbons from malonyl-CoA to the methyl end of the fatty acid chain. The final product contains the original two carbons E. The acyl carrier protein (ACP) in the fatty acid synthase enzyme contains a biotin moiety esterified to a hydroxyl group of serine to provide the sulfhydryl group onto which the growing fatty acid chain is always attached.

13. The theoretical P/O ratio for the oxidation of a fatty acid to acetyl-CoA is A. 3.0 B. 2.5 C. 2.0 D. 0.25 E. 0 14. All of the following are directly involved in the conversion of fatty acids and glycerol to triglycerides EXCEPT A. ATP. B. A specific phosphatase. C. NAD. D. Phosphatidic acid. E. Acyl-CoA's. 15. The beta-oxidation of fatty acids A. occurs in the mitochondrial matrix. B. occurs in the cytosol. C. produces only acetyl-CoA. D. requires NADP in one of the steps. E. occurs only in skeletal and heart muscle. 16. Which of the following molecules possesses a phosphopantetheine group? A. Acetyl CoA B. Acyl carrier protein C. Both D. Neither 17. A reaction for the synthesis of triacylglycerol believed to be unique in the intestine is A. phosphatidic acid ---> diacylglycerol + Pi. B. fatty acid + ATP + CoA ---> fatty acid-CoA + AMP + PPi. C. diacylglycerol + fatty acyl-CoA ---> triacylglycerol + CoA. D. monoacylglycerol + fatty acyl-CoA ---> diacylglycerol + CoA. E. phosphatidylcholine + diacylglycerol ---> triacylglycerol + lysophosphatidylcholine. 18. The beta-oxidation of oleic acid (delta-9) as opposed to palmitic acid requires the addition of which of the following enzymes? A. enoyl-CoA hydratase B. L-beta-ketoacyl-CoA thiolase C. enoyl-CoA isomerase D. acyl-CoA dehydrogenase E. L-beta hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase 19. The predominant fatty acyl group in stored triglycerides is A. arachidonate. B. linoleate.

C. palmitate. D. oleate. E. stearate 20. A condition which favors increased ketone body synthesis is A. increased glycogenolysis in skeletal muscle. B. increased fatty acid synthesis in liver. C. increased lipolysis in adipose tissue. D. decreased gluconeogenesis in liver. 21. Glucose metabolism is necessary in adipose tissue to supply which of the following for the formation of triglycerides? A. ribose 5-phosphate B. succinyl-CoA C. alpha-glycerol phosphate D. phosphoenolpyruvate 22. Acetyl-CoA for de novo fatty acid biosynthesis is formed by the energy-dependent cleavage of A. pyruvate B. oxaloacetate C. citrate D. alpha-ketoglutarate E. acetoacetate 23. The function of fatty acyl-CoA dehydrogenase of beta-oxidation is most analogous to that of A. beta-hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase. B. alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase. C. glutamate dehydrogenase. D. succinate dehydrogenase. E. NADH dehydrogenase. 24. How may of the carbon atoms from stearic acid may contribute, through cellular metabolism, to the net synthesis of glucose? A. 18 B. 17 C. 6 D. 3 E. 0 25. Each of the following processes occurs predominantly in mitochondria EXCEPT A. cholesterol side-chain cleavage. B. ketone body formation. C. tricarboxylic acid cycle reactions. D. fatty acid biosynthesis.

E. oxidative phosphorylation. 26. Enzymes for the synthesis of oleic acid from palmitic acid are located in the A. cytosol. B. endoplasmic reticulum. C. mitochondria. D. lysosomes. E. Golgi apparatus. 27. Oxidation of acetoacetic acid to carbon dioxide and water A. by the liver mitochondria follows its direct reaction with CoA-SH. B. requires an investment of two equivalents of ATP. C. requires transfer to the CoA residue of succinyl-CoA. D. takes place preferentially in the brain. E. yields 38 equivalents of ATP. 28. The synthesis of fatty acids by the de novo pathway from acetyl-CoA A. proceeds by the reversal of beta-oxidation. B. occurs primarily in mitochondria. C. requires NADPH, ATP and bicarbonate. D. is increased during fasting. E. utilizes acetoacetyl-CoA as substrate for beta-ketoacyl reductase. 29. De novo fatty acid biosynthesis occurs in the A. mitochondria. B. endoplasmic reticulum (microsomal fraction). C. lysosomes. D. cytosol. E. nucleus. 30. Lipids are the most efficient forms of biologically stored energy because they are A. highly insoluble. B. highly soluble. C. highly oxidized. D. highly reduced. E. converted directly to ATP. 31. All of the following enzymes are involved in the beta-oxidation of palmitic acid EXCEPT A. Enoyl-CoA hydratase B. Acyl-CoA thiolase C. 3 cis --> 2 trans enoyl-CoA isomerase D. Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase E. L-beta-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase

32. All of the following compounds are normally involved as a substrates or cofactors in the conversion of extramitochondrial palmitic acid to oleic acid EXCEPT which one? A. oxygen. B. malonyl-CoA. C. Coenzyme A. D. carnitine. E. NADPH. 33. The primary action of leptin is the A. activation of triacylglycerol synthesis in adipose. B. inhibition of insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells. C. modulation of polypeptide secretion from hypothalamus. D. promotion of increase in skeletal muscle mass. E. stimulation of ketone body utilization by brain. 34. All of the following molecules are either substrates, cofactors or intermediates in the synthesis of triglyceride EXCEPT which one? A. Glycerol 3-phosphate B. Fatty acyl-CoA C. Phosphatidic acid D. CDP-diglyceride E. water 35. Carnitine is involved in all of the following processes EXCEPT A. the transport of fatty acyl groups across the inner mitochondrial membrane. B. formation of an ester bond with fatty acids. C. maintenance of separate pools of coenzyme A in the mitochondrial matrix and the cytosol. D. transport of citrate from mitochondria for synthesis of malonyl-CoA in the cytosol. E. use of fatty acids released from adipose tissue for generation of energy in other tissues. 36. The most immediate impact of malonyl CoA inhibition of carnitine: fatty acyl CoA transferase is to A. stimulate the synthesis of ketone bodies. B. stimulate fatty acid oxidation leading to a decreased rate of gluconeogenesis. C. stimulate fatty acid oxidation leading to a decreased rate of gluconeogenesis. D. turn back fatty acids heading for the mitochondrion while stimulating fatty acid elongation in the endoplasmic reticulum. E. increase the concentration of mitochondrial acetyl CoA available for combustion through the TCA cycle. 37. Citrate regulates fatty acid metabolism by A. inhibiting delta9-desaturase. B. inhibiting acyl-CoA synthetase. C. inhibiting carnitine acyltransferase.

D. stimulating acetyl-CoA carboxylase. E. stimulating fatty acid synthase. 38. All of the compounds listed below are ketone bodies EXCEPT which one? A. acetoacetate. B. beta-hydroxybutyrate. C. alpha-ketoglutarate. D. acetone. E. All of the above are ketone bodies. 39. All of the following are intermediates or enzymes in the production of triglycerides in a cell of fatty tissue from a lipoprotein of blood plasma EXCEPT which one? A. Hormone sensitive lipase B. Free fatty acids C. Phosphatidic acid D. A diglyceride E. Fatty acyl-CoA transferase 40. An intermediate produced during the oxidation of palmitic acid to carbon dioxide and water in skeletal muscle mitochondria is A. pyruvic acid. B. malonyl-CoA. C. hydroxymethyl-glutaryl-CoA D. acetoacetyl-CoA. E. propionyl-CoA. 41. The -oxidation of a 16 carbon fatty acyl CoA to 8 acetyl CoAs would generate: A. 7 FADH2 and 7 NADH B. 8 FADH2 and 8 NADH C. 14 NADPH D. 16 NADPH E. 7 NADPH 42. All of the following are involved in processes related to fatty acid synthesis EXCEPT which one? A. biotin B. ATP C. NADH D. Pantothenate E. Carbon Dioxide 43. With respect to the complete oxidation of fatty acids, as the degree of unsaturation increases the yield of ATP A. is constant. B. slightly decreases. C. slightly increases.

D. reaches a maximum with three double bonds. E. depends upon the tissue. 44. In man the synthesis of fatty acids from glucose proceeds primarily in the A. adipose tissue. B. intestines. C. kidney. D. liver. E. skeletal muscles 45. Which one of the following is an example of precursor (feedforward) activation? The effect of A. palmityl CoA on acetyl CoA carboxylase. B. citrate on acetyl CoA carboxylase. C. insulin on hormone-sensitive lipase. D. malonyl CoA on carnitine acyl transferase I. 46. Which of the following provides reducing equivalents for the formation of NADPH in the cytoplasm? A. malonyl-CoA B. succinyl-CoA C. phosphatidic acid D. acetoacetic acid E. malic acid 47. Which of the following is a property of the triacylglycerols? A. Their specific gravity is higher than that of water. B. They are resistant to attack by alkali. C. Those occurring naturally with an asymmetric carbon atom are by convention named as if they derive from L-glyceraldehyde. D. They are solid at body temperature. 48. The coenzyme involved in the synthesis of malonyl-CoA from acetyl-CoA is A. thiamine. B. biotin. C. nicotinamide. D. riboflavin. E. folic acid. 49. The sequence of reactions for the beta-oxidation of fatty acids is A. activation, dehydrogenation, hydration, dehydrogenation and cleavage. B. activation, hydrogenation, dehydrogenation and cleavage. C. activation, oxidation, dehydrogenation, hydration and cleavage. D. activation, dehydrogenation, hydration and cleavage. E. activation, hydrogenation, hydration, hydrogenation and cleavage.

50. Export of acetyl-CoA from mitochondria to cytosol to participate in fatty acid or steroid biosynthesis involves A. a specific carrier for acetyl-CoA in the mitochondrial membrane. B. transport of citrate from mitochondria. C. synthesis of acetoacetate from acetyl-CoA in mitochondria. D. transport of oxaloacetate from mitochondria. E. formation of acetyl-carnitine. 51. Which of the following is the most active positive effector of acetyl-CoA carboxylase? A. citrate B. oxaloacetate C. malonyl-CoA D. ADP E. pyruvate 52. The correct structure for palmitic acid is A. CH3(CH2)12 COOH B. CH3(CH2)14 COOH C. CH3(CH2)16 COOH D. CH3(CH2)18 COOH E. None of the other answers is correct. 53. A. B. C. D. E. Elongation of an acyl-CoA derivative in mitochondria requires NADH + H+ and acetyl-CoA. NADH + H+ and malonyl-CoA. NADPH + H+ and acetyl-CoA. NADPH + H+ and malonyl-CoA. NADPH + H+, malonyl-CoA and ATP.

54. Fatty acid synthesis A. uses NADH as the source of reducing equivalents. B. occurs in the mitochondria of the cell. C. requires the intermediate synthesis of HMG-CoA to begin the process. D. requires that the growing hydrocarbon chain be attached to acyl carrier protein. E. is the main use of energy and reducing equivalents provided by glycolysis in red blood cells. 55. Among the differences between fatty acid synthesis and fatty acid oxidation is the fact that A. synthesis occurs in the mitochondria and oxidation in cytosol. B. synthesis uses NADH and oxidation uses FAD. C. synthesis is accelerated and oxidation depressed in diabetes. D. malonyl-CoA is an intermediate in oxidation, but not in synthesis. E. the acyl groups form different thioesters in synthesis and oxidation.

56. All of the following fatty acids are synthesized in man EXCEPT A. oleic acid. B. linoleic acid. C. palmitoleic acid. D. stearic acid. E. palmitic acid. 57. Carnitine acyltransferase catalyzes the A. transfer of a fatty acyl group from the sulfhydryl group of fatty acyl-CoA to the carboxyl group of carnitine. B. energy-dependent carboxylation of carnityl-CoA. C. transfer of a fatty acyl group from the sulfhydryl group of fatty acyl-CoA to the secondary hydroxyl group of carnitine. D. energy dependent formation of a thioester bond between the carboxyl group of a fatty acid and the sulfhydryl group of acyl carrier protein. E. transfer of a fatty acyl group from the sulfhydryl group of fatty acyl-CoA to the sulfhydryl group of carnitine. 58. Functional mammalian fatty acid synthase is composed of: A. A dimer of identical subunits, with each subunit catalytically functioning independently B. A dimer of identical subunits, with the subunits forming two catalytically active sites in the region where the subunits interface. C. Both D. Neither 59. Which of the following statements regarding the fatty acid elongation system located in the endoplasmic reticulum is CORRECT? A. This system utilizes only NADH as a source of reducing equivalents. B. This system utilizes both NADH and NADPH as sources of reducing equivalents. C. This system utilizes only NADPH as a source of reducing equivalents. D. This system only elongates saturated long chain fatty acyl-CoA derivatives. E. Acetyl-CoA is the source of the two-carbon unit that is added to the carboxyl end of the fatty acid being elongated. 60. ATP is required for fatty acid oxidation for the reaction catalyzed by A. acyl-CoA dehydrogenase. B. acyl-CoA synthetase. C. thiolytic cleavage. D. carnitine acyltransferase. 61. Which of the following is the best positive effector of acetyl coenzyme A carboxylase? A. citrate B. oxaloacetate C. malonyl coenzyme A

D. ADP E. pyruvate 62. A deficiency in carnitine will result in A. a decreased synthesis of phospholipids in the endoplasmic reticulum. B. a decreased level of fatty acyl CoA in the cytoplasm. C. a decreased synthesis of fatty acyl adenylate in the mitochondria. D. an increased level of fatty acid in the cytoplasm. E. an increased level of fatty acyl pantetheine in the mitochondria. 63. In mitochondria, the electron donor for the last reductive step in the elongation of the carbon chain of a fatty acid is A. NADH. B. FADH2. C. FMNH2. D. NADPH. E. coenzyme Q-2H. 64. The oxidation and degradation of fatty acids in the cell A. begins with the fatty acid thioester of CoA. B. does not produce useful energy for the cell. C. is inhibited by carnitine. D. occurs primarily in the nucleus. E. proceeds through successive shortening of the fatty acids by three-carbon units. 65. What is the rate limiting step in the conversion of triglyceride to free fatty acids in adipose tissue? A. The formation of Cyclic AMP. B. The diffusion of glycerol into the blood. C. Hydrolysis by the hormone stimulated lipase. D. Stimulation of lipoprotein lipase. E. None of the above. 66. Fatty acids with an odd number of carbon atoms and certain branched-chain fatty acids can support the net synthesis of glucose because they A. increase the NAD/NADH ratio. B. can produce methylmalonyl-CoA which is converted to succinyl-CoA. C. are converted to malonyl-CoA. D. yield NADPH on oxidation. E. are converted to acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate. 67. When fatty acid biosynthesis is stimulated, beta-oxidation of fatty acids is inhibited. This inhibition occurs mainly because A. the pool of acetyl-CoA is depleted by the TCA cycle and fatty acid biosynthesis. B. malonyl-CoA inhibits carnitine acyltransferase I. C. high levels of ATP inhibit phosphofructokinase.

D. high levels of citrate stimulate acetyl-CoA synthase. E. none of the above. 68. Which of the following is an 18 carbon fatty acid with 3 double bonds? A. palmitic acid B. oleic acid C. linoleic acid D. linolenic acid E. arachidonic acid 69. How may of the carbon atoms from stearic acid may contribute, through cellular metabolism, to the net synthesis of glucose? A. 18 B. 17 C. 6 D. 3 E. 0 70. What is the main function of beta-oxidation? A. production of carbon dioxide. B. provides NADPH. C. degradation of fatty acids. D. the main source of odd chain fatty acids. E. important in membrane structure. Ans: C 71. A deficiency of carnitine would be expected to interfere with which of the following? A. Beta oxidation of long chain fatty acids. B. Transport of fatty acids into adipose cells. C. The synthesis of palmitate. D. Mobilization of stored triacylglycerols from adipose tissue. E. oxidation of ethanol to acetic acid. 72. Two vitamins important in beta-oxidation are A. riboflavin and niacin. B. pantothenic acid and cholecalciferol. C. coenzyme A and thiamine. D. riboflavin and ascorbic acid. 73. The rate-limiting step of fatty acid synthesis is catalyzed by A. pyruvate dehydrogenase. B. citrate-cleavage enzyme. C. malic enzyme. D. acetyl-CoA carboxylase. E. thiolase

74. The committed step in fatty acid biosynthesis is catalyzed by A. fatty acid synthase. B. apoprotein B. C. HMG-CoA reductase. D. propionyl-CoA carboxylase. E. acetyl-CoA carboxylase (malonyl-CoA synthase). 75. The biosynthesis of triacylglycerols in adipose requires A. decreased activation of long-chain fatty acids. B. decreased levels of plasma leptin. C. increased glycerol secretion from adipose. D. increased glucose uptake by adipose. E. increased levels of plasma glucagon. 76. In liver, acetoacetate may be preferentially A. reduced to beta-hydroxybutyrate. B. esterified to coenzyme A. C. oxidized to 2 moles of acetate. D. none of the above. 77. Fatty acyl coenzyme A may be used for triglyceride biosynthesis or fatty acid oxidation. A metabolite which helps regulate which process will predominate is A. citrate. B. fatty acyl coenzyme A. C. acetyl-CoA. D. fatty acyl carnitine. E. malonyl coenzyme A. 78. In order for acetoacetate to be utilized by extrahepatic tissues, which of the following reactions must occur? A. decarboxylation of acetoacetate to form acetone B. carboxylation of acetoacetate C. reduction to beta-hydroxybutyrate D. transfer of a coenzyme A from succinyl CoA to form acetoacetyl CoA E. condensation with acetyl CoA to form HMG CoA 79. Lipolysis: A. is stimulated by insulin. B. is inhibited by glucagon. C. requires the action of hormone-sensitive lipase. D. requires an apolipoprotein. E. results in an increase in blood concentrations of esterified fatty acids. 80. What is the maximum percentage of carbon atoms of glucose that can be used for synthesis of palmitic acid? A. 100%

B. C. D. E.

75% 66-2/3% 50% 33-1/3%

81. All of the following would be directly involved in oxidizing a long chain saturated fatty acid to carbon dioxide and water EXCEPT A. NAD. B. Coenzyme A. C. FAD. D. water. E. NADP. 82. The formation of acetoacetic acid from acetyl-CoA involves which of the following compounds as an intermediate? A. malonic acid B. mevalonic acid C. 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA D. 3-hydroxybutyryl-CoA E. succinyl-CoA 83. The steps of beta-oxidation parallel portions of: A. Gluconeogenesis B. Glycolysis C. Krebs cycle D. Oxidative phosphorylation E. Pentose phosphate shunt 84. Position number one in the triglycerides of man is filled by a fatty acid residue that is A. always saturated. B. usually saturated. C. always unsaturated. D. usually unsaturated. E. equally likely to be saturated or unsaturated. 85. Metabolic cleavage of acetoacetyl-CoA to two molecules of acetyl-CoA is catalyzed by a A. dehydrogenase. B. hydratase. C. synthetase. D. thiolase. E. racemase. 86. The most prevalent saturated fatty acid in animal fat is A. caprylic. B. lauric.

C. myristic. D. palmitic. E. stearic. 87. The elongation of fatty acids occurs A. only in the cytosol. B. only in microsomes. C. in both mitochondria and microsomes. D. only in mitochondria. E. only in the brain. 88. Which of the following is an intermediate in fatty acid synthesis in the cytoplasm? A. malonyl-CoA B. succinyl-CoA C. phosphatidic acid D. acetoacetic acid E. malic acid 89. Triglycerides A. represent the main component of storage lipids. B. are composed of three fatty acids in ester linkage to a glycerol molecule. C. are the most abundant members of the acyl glycerols, or neutral fats. D. All of the other answers are correct. 90. The maximal velocity (Vmax) of the acetyl-CoA carboxylase reaction would be obtained when A. acetyl-CoA carboxylase is present in excess of acetyl-CoA. B. the acetyl-CoA, carbon dioxide, and ATP concentrations are all saturating. C. the concentration of enzyme-bound biotin equals the carbon dioxide concentration. D. the reaction is first-order with respect to acetyl-CoA. E. initial rates are measured at any acetyl-CoA concentration, since Vmax, but not Km, is independent of substrate concentration. 91. Propionyl carboxylase is an enzyme required for the oxidation of A. unsaturated fatty acids B. saturated fatty acids C. fatty acids with an odd number of carbon atoms D. malonyl-CoA E. methyl malonyl-CoA 92. Medium-chain triacylglycerols may be an appropriate dietary supplement for an individual with a deficiency of A. albumin in blood. B. carnitine in skeletal muscle. C. fatty acid oxidation in cardiac muscle. D. hormone-sensitive lipase in adipose.

E. low density lipoprotein in blood. 93. Oxidation of an odd-numbered chain fatty acid can be expected to yield proportionately less ATP than that of an even-numbered chain fatty acid because A. propionyl-CoA cannot be metabolized. B. propionyl-CoA is not completely oxidized to carbon dioxide and water. C. oxidation of propionyl-CoA requires energy input from ATP at a carboxylation step D. intermediates of propionyl-CoA metabolism uncouple oxidative phosphorylation. 94. The conversion of n moles of acetyl-CoA to 1 mole of palmitoyl-CoA (C16:0) requires A. 0 moles of ATP. B. 5 moles of ATP. C. 7 moles of ATP. D. 8 moles of ATP. 95. Which enzyme or process requires the presence of acetyl-CoA in the cytosol? A. pyruvate dehydrogenase B. PEP (phosphoenolpyruvate) carboxykinase C. synthesis of ketone bodies D. reversal of the citrate synthase reaction E. ATP: citrate lyase 96. Acetoacetate is NOT oxidized to C02 in A. brain. B. skeletal muscle. C. heart. D. liver. E. nervous tissue. 97. The mobilization of triglyceride fatty acids from adipose tissue and their subsequent oxidation by muscle mitochondria involves all of the following EXCEPT A. serum albumin. B. carnitine. C. acyl carrier protein. D. hormone sensitive lipase. E. acyl-CoA synthetase. 98. Considering the principal pathways involved, how many of the carbon atoms of glucose could maximally contribute to the net synthesis of fatty acid? A. 3 B. 4 C. All D. None 99. For transport across the inner mitochondrial membrane, long chain fatty acids are attached to

A. B. C. D. E.

coenzyme A. acyl transacylase. phosphatidylethanolamine. acyl transferase. carnitine.

100. A portion of the NADPH necessary for fatty acid biosynthesis is provided by: A. The oxidative decarboxylation of malate by the malic enzyme B. The pentose phosphate pathway C. Both D. Neither 101. Which of the following statements about triacylglycerols is not true? A. Triacylglycerols are the major storage form of fatty acids. B. Triacylglycerols are transported in the blood bound to albumin. C. Triacylglycerols can be hydrolyzed to provide a gluconeogenic substrate. D. Triacylglycerols contain 3 fatty acids esterified to a glycerol backbone. E. Triacylglycerols are an efficient storage form of energy. 102. All of the following conditions or factors would promote de novo fatty acid synthesis EXCEPT A. a hypercaloric-high protein diet. B. low plasma levels of free fatty acids. C. a high glucagon/insulin ratio. D. high intracellular levels of citrate. E. a hypercaloric-high carbohydrate diet. 103. The process of long chain fatty acid oxidation in liver is regulated in part by the interaction of A. acetyl-CoA with acyl-CoA dehydrogenase. B. acetyl-CoA with carnitine acyl transferase I. C. acetyl-CoA with carnitine acyl transferase II. D. malonyl-CoA with carnitine acyl transferase I. E. malonyl-CoA with carnitine acyl transferase II. 104. Which of the following participates with human palmitate synthase as part of the same polypeptide chain? A. citrate lyase B. propionyl CoA carboxylase C. citrate synthase D. acetyl CoA carboxylase E. acyl carrier protein 105. An increased synthesis of acetoacetate and 3-hydroxybutyrate by the liver A. depends upon increased glycogenolysis in the liver. B. occurs in response to increased dietary absorption in the small intestine.

C. provides erythrocytes with an alternative metabolic fuel. D. reflects decreased energy demand by skeletal muscle during exercise. E. is sustained by increased triacylglycerol hydrolysis in adipose tissue. 106. The enzyme that catalyzes the reaction: Acetoacetate + Succinyl-CoA <----> Acetoacetyl-CoA + Succinate is essentially absent in the A. liver. B. cardiac muscle. C. striated muscle. D. brain. E. kidney 107. All of the following processes or reactions are involved in the conversion of acetylCoA to oleic acid EXCEPT A. carboxylation B. phosphorylation C. desaturation D. elongation E. dehydration 108. Plasma triglycerides can be hydrolyzed to fatty acids by the enzyme A. lipoprotein lipase. B. triglyceride lipase. C. heparin. D. pancreatic lipase. E. adenylate cyclase. 109. Physiological conditions which promote the synthesis of ketone bodies would also promote the A. oxidation of fatty acids in erythrocytes. B. oxidation of glucose in adipose tissue. C. synthesis of amino acids in liver. D. synthesis of fatty acids in liver. E. synthesis of glucose in liver. 110. Which of the groups below contains two compounds that are parts of coenzymes involved in the beta-oxidation of fatty acids? A. Vitamin D and pantothenic acid B. biotin and folic acid C. Niacin and riboflavin D. Pyridoxine and thiamine E. Choline and carnitine 111. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase is primarily located in the A. endoplasmic reticulum. B. cytosol.

C. mitochondria. D. plasma membrane. E. lysosomes. 112. A fatty acid 10 carbons long can theoretically form how many moles of acetoacetate from the 2 carbon units directly generated during its breakdown? A. 1.5 B. 2.0 C. 2.5 D. 3.0 E. 3.5 113. In mitochondrial oxidation of arachidonate to two carbon units all the following enzymes are used EXCEPT A. enoyl hydratase. B. acyl CoA dehydrogenase. C. enoyl CoA isomerase. D. lipoxygenase E. B-hydroxy acyl CoA dehydrogenase. 114. Fatty acid synthase A. produces oleic acid by skipping a reductive step. B. can produce fatty acid with an odd number of carbon atoms. C. produces mainly palmitate as the product. D. is found in the mitochondria of cells. E. is found in the adipose tissue but not in the liver. 115. The order of reactions in fatty acid biosynthesis is A. malonyl transferase, beta-ketoacyl synthase, beta-ketoacyl-ACP reductase, enoylACP reductase, enoyl-ACP hydratase. B. enoyl-ACP hydratase, beta-ketoacyl synthase, beta-ketoacyl reductase, enoyl-ACP hydratase, enoyl-ACP reductase. C. malonyl transferase, beta-ketoacyl reductase, beta-ketoacyl synthase, enoyl-ACP hydratase, enoyl-ACP reductase. D. malonyl transferase, beta-ketoacyl synthase, beta-ketoacyl reductase, enoyl-ACP hydratase, enoyl-ACP reductase. E. malonyl transferase, enoyl-ACP reductase, beta-ketoacyl synthase, enoyl-ACP hydratase, beta-ketoacyl reductase. 116. The carbon chains of fatty acids, as CoA derivatives, are shortened by two carbon atoms at a time. This involves successive reactions catalyzed by four enzymes. These act in which order? A. acyl dehydrogenase, 3-hydroxyacyl dehydrogenase, enoyl hydrase, thiolase. B. acyl dehydrogenase, enoyl hydrase, 3-hydroxyacyl dehydrogenase, thiolase. C. acyl dehydrogenase, thiolase, enoyl hydrase, 3-hydroxyacyl dehydrogenase. D. enoyl hydrase, 3-hydroxyacyl dehydrogenase, acyl dehydrogenase, thiolase.

E. thiolase, enoyl hydrase, 3-hydroxyacyl dehydrogenase, acyl dehydrogenase. 117. The mitochondrial system of chain elongation for fatty acids A. adds two carbons at a time to the methyl end of a fatty acid. B. utilizes NAD. C. utilizes acetyl-CoA. D. requires acyl carrier protein. E. requires malonyl-CoA. 118. In mammalian fatty acid synthase, malonyl CoA provides a malonyl group which: A. Covalently attaches to a serine hydroxyl group at a site on one subunit of the enzyme and is then transferred to the -SH of a phosphopantetheinyl group of the acyl carrier protein on the second subunit of the enzyme. B. Covalently attaches to a serine hydroxyl group at a site on one subunit of the enzyme and is then transferred to the -SH of a cysteine group of the condensing enzyme domain on the same subunit of the enzyme. C. Both D. Neither 119. Which one of the following factors is considered to be rate limiting in the oxidation of palmitic acid in liver? A. Rate of formation of palmitoyl-CoA. B. The concentration of cytosolic carnitine. C. The activity of carnitine-palmitoyl-acyl transferase-I. D. The activity of palmitoyl-CoA dehydrogenase. E. The concentration of acetoacetyl-CoA. 120. Fatty acid synthesis is primarily controlled by regulation of A. citrate synthase. B. pyruvate carboxylase. C. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase. D. beta-keto fatty acyl ACP reductase. E. acetyl-CoA carboxylase. 121. The fatty acids carried in the blood by serum albumin under fasting conditions are most likely derived from the action of A. fatty acid synthase. B. hormone sensitive lipase. C. pancreatic lipase. D. lipoprotein lipase. E. cholesterol esterase. 122. In humans, fatty acids A. can be synthesized from excess dietary carbohydrates or protein. B. are not required at all in the diet. C. containing double bonds cannot be synthesized.

D. must be supplied entirely in the diet. E. other than palmitate, must be supplied in the diet. 123. In the absence of glucose uptake in adipose tissue there is A. net synthesis of triglycerides because glycerol accumulates. B. net synthesis of triglycerides because fatty acids accumulate. C. release of fatty acids because fatty acid oxidation is inhibited. D. a decrease in triglyceride synthesis because there is a deficiency of glycerol phosphate. E. None of the other answers is correct. 124. All of the following are involved in the conversion of pyruvate to a long chain saturated fatty acid EXCEPT A. malonyl-CoA. B. NADPH. C. carbon dioxide. D. acyl carrier protein. E. cyclic AMP. 125. Glycerol 3-phosphate in adipose tissue arises primarily from A. reduction of dihydroxyacetone phosphate. B. hydrolysis of phosphatidic acid. C. phosphorylation of glycerol by glycerokinase. D. selective uptake from blood. E. reduction of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate. 126. Regarding triacylglycerol (TG) breakdown/hydrolysis, which one of the statements is false? A. Pancreatic lipase hydrolyzes TG in the intestinal lumen to 2-monoacylglycerols plus two fatty acids and its activity is enhanced by colipase. B. There is a hormone sensitive lipase in adipocytes whose function is fatty acid mobilization. C. Fatty acid mobilization via this enzyme can be altered as the diet is changed. D. Glucagon stimulates this hormone sensitive lipase by inhibiting adenylate cyclase and lowering cAMP allowing the enzyme to become dephosphorylated which, is its active form. E. Of the fatty acids eventually released from total hydrolysis of TG in the adipocyte, some enter the blood as free fatty acids where they bind albumin and are carried to other tissues such as muscle. 127. The reduction of which intermediate in glycolysis leads directly to a compound involved in the biosynthesis of fats? A. Fructose 1,6-diphosphate B. Glucose 6-phosphate C. Pyruvic acid D. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate

Chapter 22--Gluconeogenesis, Glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose Phosphate Pathway Key
1. Gluconeogenesis is the synthesis of: A. glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors. B. glycogen from glucose. C. pyruvate from glucose. D. fatty acids from glucose. E. glucose from fatty acids. 2. The pentose phosphate pathway is an important source of ____, and for ____, an essential precursor for ATP, NAD+, FAD, CoA, DNA and RNA. A. ATP; NADH B. NADH; NADPH C. NADPH; ribose-5-phosphate D. ribose-5-phosphate; ATP E. all are true 3. All are substrates for gluconeogenesis EXCEPT: A. glycerol. B. lactate. C. acetate. D. pyruvate. E. most amino acids. 4. The major tissues carrying out gluconeogenesis are the ____ and ____. A. brain; muscles B. muscles; kidneys C. liver; kidneys D. liver; red blood cells E. red blood cells; brain 5. Glucose monitoring devices use the reaction, Glucose + O2 + H2O gluconate + 2 ____, which is catalyzed by the enzyme ____. A. H2O; glucose hydrolase B. H2O; glucose oxidase C. H2O2; peroxidase D. H2O2; glucose oxidase E. H2O; gluconate synthase

6. In the gluconeogenic pathway, the three regulated reactions of glycolysis catalyzed by ____, ____ and ____ are replaced by alternative reactions. A. glucokinase; PFK-1; pyruvate kinase B. phosphoglucoisomerase; PFK-1; pyruvate kinase C. PFK-1; triose phosphate isomerase; pyruvate kinase D. glucokinase; PFK-1; glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase E. glucokinase; PFK-1; pyruvate carboxylase 7. All of the following enzymes are unique to gluconeogenesis EXCEPT: A. phosphoglucoisomerase B. glucose-6-phosphatase C. pyruvate carboxylase D. fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase E. PEP carboxykinase 8. All are required for pyruvate carboxylase EXCEPT: A. biotin covalently linked to the enzyme. B. thiamin pyrophosphate (TPP). C. ATP. D. acetyl-CoA as an allosteric activator. E. tetrameric enzyme in the mitochondria. 9. In the pyruvate carboxylase catalyzed reaction, bicarbonate is "activated" by attachment to the ____ of ATP to form ____. A. b-phosphate; carbonyl ADP B. a-phosphate; carbonyl AMP C. a-phosphate; carbonylphosphate D. g-phosphate; carbonylphosphate E. g-phosphate; carbonyl AMP 10. The reaction sequence for the pyruvate carboxylase catalyzed reaction is:
A. B. C. D. E. formation of N-carbonyl biotin attack of HCO3- on ATP liberation of Pi formation of carbonylphosphate C-3 carbanion of pyruvate attack on N-carbonyl biotin

A. B, D, A, E, C B. B, D, A, C, E C. D, C, B, E, A D. D, B, C, A, E E. E, C, B, A, D 11. If levels of ____ and/or ____ are low, pyruvate is directed primarily into ____; but if they are high, pyruvate is converted into ____ for gluconeogenesis. A. NADH; ATP; glycolysis; OAA B. ATP; NADPH; glycolysis; acetyl CoA C. ATP; acetyl CoA; TCA cycle; OAA D. NAD+; acetyl CoA; TCA cycle; acetyl CoA E. ATP; acetyl CoA; glycolysis; malate

12. All of the enzymes of gluconeogenesis may be found in the cytosol EXCEPT ____ which is only found in the mitochondria. A. PEP carboxykinase B. pyruvate carboxylase C. fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase D. glucose-6-phosphatase E. all are only in cytosol 13. Pyruvate carboxylase consumes a(n) ____ to drive a carboxylation so that ____ could use the energy from decarboxylation to facilitate formation of PEP. A. NADH; pyruvate dehydrogenase B. NADH; lactate dehydrogenase C. ATP; pyruvate kinase D. ATP; PEP carboxykinase E. GTP; nucleotide diphosphate kinase 14. The primary regulatory point of gluconeogenesis is ____. A. glucose-6-phosphatase B. fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase C. fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase D. pyruvate carboxylase E. PEP carboxykinase 15. Which of the following reactions represents the gluconeogenic reversal of PFK-1 in glycolysis? A. fructose-6-P + ADP fructose + ATP B. fructose-6-P + H2O fructose + Pi C. fructose-1,6-bisphosphate + ADP fructose-6-P + ATP D. fructose-1,6-bisphosphate + H2O fructose-6-P + Pi E. none of the above 16. The endoplasmic reticulum bound enzyme that hydrolyzes glucose-6-phosphate to glucose in liver is: A. glucokinase. B. glucose oxidase. C. hexokinase. D. phosphoglucomutase. E. glucose-6-phosphatase. 17. Glucose-6-phosphatase is located in the ____ and produces ____ in vesicles that diffuse to the ____ releasing their contents into the blood stream. A. mitochondria; lactate; cytosol B. cytosol; glucose; plasma membrane C. endoplasmic reticulum; glucose-6-phosphate; cytosol D. endoplasmic reticulum; glucose; plasma membrane E. cytosol; glucose-6-phosphate; endoplasmic reticulum 18. Gluconeogenesis is not simply reversal of glycolysis since 2 pyruvate glucose requires ____ of combined ATP and GTP. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6

19. In the Cori cycle, the liver ____ because it has a typically high ____. A. shares the load of exercising muscle; acetate level B. converts lactate to lactose; galactose C. shares the load of exercising muscle; NAD+/NADH ratio D. burns fat; ATP E. converts glucose to lactate; NAD+/NADH ratio 20. Which of the following is absolutely essential for the activation of pyruvate carboxylase? A. high concentrations of acetyl-CoA B. low levels of ATP C. high levels of oxaloacetate D. high levels of TCA cycle intermediates E. high levels of citrate 21. Cellular levels of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate (F-2,6-BP) are controlled by the tandem enzyme ____ and ____. A. fructokinase; F-2,6-BPase B. F-2,6-BPase; PFK-2 C. PFK-2; PFK-1 D. PFK-1; F-2,6-BPase E. PFK-2; fructokinase 22. ____ phosphorylates and thus ____ the enzyme PFK-2 which simultaneously ____ F-2,6-BPase. A. adenylate cyclase; activates; inhibits B. adenylate cyclase; inhibits; activates C. cAMP-dependent protein kinase; activates; inhibits D. cAMP-dependent protein kinase; inhibits; activates E. cAMP-dependent protein kinase; activates; activates 23. All are true for a-amylase EXCEPT: A. catalyzes hydrolysis of a (14) linkages in starch. B. is an important component of saliva and pancreatic juice. C. catalyzes hydrolysis of a (16) linkages in amylopectin. D. catalyzes hydrolysis of a (14) linkages in glycogen. E. activity is reduced in highly branched regions of polysaccharides and stops four residues from any branch point. 24. Limit dextrins are degraded by the action of ____ which has two distinct enzymatic activities known as ____ and ____. A. a-amylase; b-amylase; a(16)glucosidase B. debranching enzyme; oligo(a1,4 a1,4)glucanotransferase; a(16)glucosidase C. debranching enzyme; oligo(a1,4 a1,4)glucanotransferase; a(16)glucosidase D. a-amylase; oligo(a1,4 a1,6)glucanotransferase; a(16)glucosidase E. a-amylase; b-amylase; oligo(a1,4 a1,4)glucanotransferase 25. The energy input for the synthesis of glycogen occurs during which of the following enzyme catalyzed steps? A. phosphoglucomutase B. UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase C. glycogen synthase D. amylo-(1,41,6)-transglycosylase E. none of the above require energy input

26. The initiation of glycogen synthesis occurs by transfer of glucose from UDP-glucose to the: A. 4-position of free glucose. B. 2-position of fructose. C. non-reducing end of maltose. D. serine-OH group of glycogen synthase. E. tyrosine-OH group of glycogenin. 27. All are characteristics of AGEs EXCEPT: A. AGEs mean advanced glycation end-products. B. Glycated hemoglobin in a patient is an indication of blood glucose levels over the past few months. C. AGEs generated by elevated blood glucose contribute to circulation, joint and vision problems of diabetics. D. AGEs form by enzyme catalyzed Schiff base formation between sugars and proteins. E. AGEs alter the function of the protein to which they are attached. 28. A blood test for "Glycated hemoglobin" can determine the: A. present blood glucose concentration. B. average glucose concentration in the blood over the past several months. C. level of AGEs in the blood stream. D. blood glucose concentration over this last month. E. none are true. 29. Glycogen synthesis and degradation must be carefully controlled at ____ and ____ to properly serve the metabolic needs for the organism. A. glucokinase; hexokinase B. hexokinase; glycogen synthase C. glycogen synthase; glucokinase D. glycogen phosphorylase; glycogen synthase E. glycogen phosphorylase; hexokinase 30. Which of the following effectors is required for glycogen synthase activity when the enzyme is phosphorylated? A. glucose-1-phosphate B. glucose-6-phosphate C. fructose-1,6-bisphosphate D. fructose-2,6-bisphosphate E. UDP-glucose 31. Insulin in the bloodstream is a response to increased blood glucose, and: A. stimulates gluconeogenesis. B. inhibits glycolysis. C. stimulates glycogen synthesis in muscle and liver. D. stimulates glycogen breakdown in liver. E. inhibits phosphoprotein phosphatase-1. 32. Physiological effects of insulin include all EXCEPT: A. stimulates glycogen synthesis B. induces synthesis of glucokinase, PFK-1 and pyruvate kinase C. stimulates active transport of glucose and amino acids into muscle and adipose tissues D. stimulates fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase E. inhibits glycogen phosphorylase

33. An individual with von Gierke's disease lacks the enzyme ____ which is a liver enzyme used to maintain ____. As a result, the patient is ____. A. glycogen synthase; liver glycogen; fat B. glycogen synthase; ATP levels; weak C. phosphoprotein phosphatase-1; blood glucose; hypoglycemic D. glucose-6-phosphatase; blood glucose; hypoglycemic E. glucose-6-phosphatase; muscle glycogen; weak 34. Among the many physiological changes elicited by epinephrine, the initiation of the adenylyl cyclase cascade includes all EXCEPT: A. activation of glycogenolysis in liver. B. inhibition of glycogen synthase. C. stimulation of glycolysis by 2000 fold. D. activation of glycogenolysis in muscles. E. all are true 35. All are physiological changes initiated by glucagon EXCEPT: A. activation of glycogenolysis in liver. B. stimulation of liver gluconeogenesis. C. long-term maintenance of steady-state levels of glucose in the blood stream. D. activation of glycogenolysis in muscles. E. all are true. 36. Which of the following occurs in the muscle as a result of cortisol? A. activation of gluconeogenesis B. increased glycogen synthesis C. activation of the urea cycle D. increased degradation of muscle protein E. all of the above 37. Characteristics of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase include all EXCEPT: A. located in the mitochondria. B. strongly inhibited by [NADPH]. C. inhibited by fatty acid-CoA. D. uses NADP+ as a coenzyme. E. forms a cyclic ester (lactone) of 6-phosphogluconate. 38. The ratio of NADP+/NADPH in liver runs about 1/67 which means that: A. it is similar to the ratio of NAD+/NADH. B. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase will be turned on most of the time. C. glucose-6-phosphate is rate limiting for pentose phosphate pathway. D. glucose-6-phosphate preferentially goes to the pentose phosphate pathway. E. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase activity is dependent upon use of some of the NADPH before activity increases. 39. The 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase reaction is an example of ____ and results in the production of ____. A. substrate-level phosphorylation; ATP B. oxidative-decarboxylation; NADPH C. TPP-assisted decarboxylation; NADH D. phosphate addition; ADP E. none of the above

40. Phosphopentose isomerase is quite similar to the reaction and mechanism of the ____ catalyzed reaction. A. UDP-glucose epimerase B. phosphoglycerate isomerase C. phosphopentose epimerase D. phosphoglucoisomerase E. all are similar 41. The polyol pathway is a suspected pathway for diabetic induced cataract formation and involves the enzyme: A. aldose reductase. B. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase. C. phosphopentose isomerase. D. phosphopentose epimerase. E. transaldolase. 42. Transketolase is an enzyme that catalyzes: A. transfers of three-carbon units from a ketose to an aldose. B. transfer of ketoses into aldoses. C. transfer of xylulose-5-phosphate into ribulose-5-phosphate. D. TPP-dependent transfer of 2-carbon units to the recipient aldose. E. transfer of keto groups from C-2 to C-3. 43. Transketolase belongs to what class of enzymes? A. oxidoreductases B. isomerases C. hydrolases D. transferases E. ligases 44. Which of the following reactions is catalyzed by a transketolase in the pentose phosphate pathway?

I. II. III.

fructose-6-P + glyceraldehyde-3-P xylulose-5-P + erythrose-4-P erythrose-4-P + fructose-6-P sedoheptulose-7-P + glyceraldehyde-3-P sedoheptulose-7-P + glyceraldehyde-3-P ribose-5-P + xyulose-5-P

A. I only B. II and III C. II only D. I and III E. I and II 45. The transaldolase catalyzed activity is similar to what glycolytic enzyme? A. phosphoglucomutase B. enolase C. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase D. PFK-1 E. aldolase

46. The appropriate sequence for the transketolase catalyzed reaction would be:
A. B. C. D. E. reactive enamine attack on the aldehyde group of an aldose b-cleavage of Schiff base intermediate to release an aldose formation of Schiff base intermediate of a new ketose active site lysine forms Schiff base with keto-carbonyl group Schiff base hydrated to ketose and enzyme

A. C, A, B, D, E B. D, B, A, C, E, C. D, A, B, E, C D. A, D, B, C, E E. E, D, C, B, A 47. When a cell with the pentose phosphate pathway has need for more pentose phosphates , but no additional NADPH: A. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is activated. B. the oxidative and non-oxidative enzymes of the pentose phosphate pathway are active. C. the non-oxidative enzymes produce pentose phosphates from fructose-6-phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate. D. all enzymes of glycolysis and pentose phosphate pathway are active. E. none are true. 48. Which of the following can be used as a substrate for gluconeogenesis in the liver? A. alanine B. glutamic acid C. glycerol D. succinate E. all of the above 49. Which of the following results when glucagon binds to its receptor? A. glycolysis is activated B. protein synthesis is activated C. the citric acid cycle is inhibited D. glycogen synthesis is inhibited E. gluconeogenesis is inhibited 50. If NADPH is needed for biosynthetic reactions but ribose-5-P is not needed, which of the following best represents the net reaction of the pentose phosphate pathway? A. 4 Fruc-6-P + 2 glyceraldehyde-3-P 6 ribose-5-P B. 3 Gluc-6-P + 6 NADP+ 6 NADPH + 3 CO2 + 2 Fruc-6-P + 1 glyceraldehyde-3-P C. Gluc-6-P + 2 NADP+ 2 NADPH + CO2 + ribose-5-P D. both b and c will occur E. None of the above

Chapter 20--Electron Transport and Oxidative Phosphorylation Key

1. ATP made in glycolysis and the TCA cycle is the result of ____ phosphorylation, and NADH-dependent ATP synthesis is the result of ____ phosphorylation. A. oxidative; substrate-level B. oxidative; electron C. substrate-level; electron D. substrate-level; oxidative E. proton-gradient; oxidative 2. Reduction involves the ____ of electron(s), and reactions for which the standard cell potential is ____ are spontaneous under standard conditions. A. loss; negative B. loss; positive C. gain; negative D. gain; positive E. none of the above 3. Spontaneity of a redox reaction depends upon each of the following EXCEPT: A. standard cell potential B. concentration of the species being oxidized C. concentration of the species being reduced D. a and b only E. a, b, and c 4. Where does the energy that drives ATP synthesis come from? A. The proton gradient. B. NAD+ and FAD. C. The electron gradient. D. The oxidation states of the complexes. E. Molecular oxygen. 5. All of the following are in the mitochondria EXCEPT: A. enzymes for fatty acid oxidation. B. adenylate kinase. C. creatine kinase. D. the electron transport complexes. E. pentose phosphate pathway.

6. All are characteristics of inner mitochondrial membranes EXCEPT: A. contains specific transport proteins. B. membrane lipids have mostly unsaturated fatty acids. C. folds into cristae. D. contains porin in high concentration. E. all are correct. 7. Each of the following is a true statement EXCEPT: A. standard free energy change for a redox reaction is related to the standard cell potential B. standard free energy change for a redox reaction is related to the number of electrons transferred C. for redox reactions with negative standard cell potentials, standard free energy change is negative D. redox reactions must occur in pairs, where the total number of electrons involved in the oxidation equals the total number involved in the reduction E. all are true statements 8. Each of the following regarding redox couples is true EXCEPT: A. standard reduction potentials are measured relative to a standard hydrogen cell (H +/H2) B. for cells in which electrons flow toward the sample half-cell, the reduction potential is positive C. a redox couple consists of a substance being oxidized, and the substance oxidizing it D. a half-reaction involving the loss of electrons is an oxidation reaction E. all are true statements. 9. Compounds with a large ____ reduction potential have a strong tendency to undergo oxidation, and as such, NADH is a strong ____ agent. A. positive; oxidizing B. negative; reducing C. negative; oxidizing D. positive; reducing E. can't be determined from information given 10. All of the following are membrane bound EXCEPT: A. cytochrome a/a3. B. Fe-S centers. C. cytochrome c. D. cytochrome c1. E. coenzyme Q. 11. All are linked to the electron-transport chain through Complex I accepting electrons from NADH EXCEPT: A. gluconeogenesis. B. glycolysis. C. TCA cycle. D. fatty acid oxidation. E. all are true. 12. Complex I and Complex II produce a common product which is: A. NAD+. B. FAD. C. reduced coenzyme Q. D. reduced cyt c. E. reduced O2.

13. All are flavoproteins EXCEPT: A. NADH-CoQ reductase (complex I). B. succinate dehydrogenase (complex II). C. coenzyme Q-cytochrome c oxidoreductase (complex III). D. sn-glycerolphosphate dehydrogenase. E. fatty acyl-CoA dehydrogenase-transferring protein. 14. Which complex reduces molecular oxygen? A. complex I B. complex II C. complex III D. UQH/UQH2 pool E. complex IV 15. Complex I contains all of these components EXCEPT: A. [FMN]. B. 2Fe-2S clusters. C. 4Fe-4S clusters. D. cytochrome c. E. "proton pump." 16. Which of the following is a two-electron donor? A. FAD B. Fe-S C. NADH D. NAD+ E. cyt c 17. All of the following are properties of coenzyme Q EXCEPT: A. hydrophobic. B. can easily diffuse in the membrane. C. shuttle from complex I and complex II to complex IV. D. isoprenoid tail. E. three oxidation states. 18. In the first phase of the Q cycle, UQH2 transfers one electron to ____ and then to ____, releasing ____ H+ to the intermembrane space leaving ____ that transfers a second electron to ____. A. cyt c; Rieske protein; one; UQ; cyt bH B. cyt bL; cyt bH; two; UQ; cyt c1 C. cyt c1; Rieske protein; one; UQ.-; cyt bH D. Rieske protein; cyt c1; two; UQ.-; cyt bL E. Rieske protein; cyt bL; one; UQ.-; cyt c1

19. All of the following take place in the Q cycle EXCEPT: A. transfer of electrons from bL to bH. B. an electron is passed from bL to UQ. C. an electron is passed from bH to UQ. D. one UQH2 is returned to the pool. E. two protons are pumped into the matrix. 20. Which of the following is/are mobile electron carrier(s)?

A. B. C.

UQ Cyt c Complex III

A. A only B. B only C. C only D. B & C E. A & B 21. Complex III takes up ____ proton(s) on the matrix side of the ____ membrane and releases ____ protons on the intermembrane side for each pair of ____ passed through the Q cycle. A. two; inner; four; electrons B. one; inner; two; protons C. two; inner; four; protons D. one; outer; two; electrons E. none are true 22. All are single-electron carriers EXCEPT: A. UQH2. B. Cyt bL. C. Cyt bH. D. Rieske protein Fe-S clusters. E. Cyt c1. 23. The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is: A. molecular oxygen. B. H2O. C. cytochrome c. D. UQ. E. NAD+. 24. All are characteristics of cyt c EXCEPT: A. accepts electrons from cyt c1. B. water soluble. C. globular with planar heme group near the center of the protein. D. heme iron coordinated with histidine nitrogen and methionine sulfur atoms. E. all are true.

25. All are components of cytochrome c oxidase (complex IV) EXCEPT: A. CuA. B. CuB. C. Cyt c1. D. Cyt a3. E. Cyt a. 26. The complete reduction of one molecule of oxygen gas requires how many electrons? A. two B. three C. four D. eight E. six 27. Another name for complex II (succinate dehydrogenase) in the electron transport chain is: A. cytochrome c oxidase. B. NADH-CoQ reductase. C. succinate-CoQ reductase. D. cytochrome c reductase. E. cytochrome bc1 complex. 28. What molecule is the electron donor to complex III? A. cytochrome c B. UQH2 C. NADH D. H2O E. FADH2 29. All of the following transfer electrons to the UQ/UQH2 pool EXCEPT: A. fatty acyl-CoA dehydrogenase. B. sn-glycerolphosphate dehydrogenase. C. Complex I. D. Complex II. E. Complex IV. 30. Which of the following complex(es) translocate protons in the inner mitochondrial membrane?

1. 2. 3. 4.

Complex I Complex II Complex III Complex IV

A. 1, 3 & 4 B. 1 & 2 C. 1, 2 & 4 D. 4 only E. all of the above

31. All are characteristics of the binuclear center of complex IV EXCEPT: A. water is released here. B. CuB is a component. C. Cyt a3 is a component. D. Two electrons are transferred to bound O2. E. Fe-S is a component. 32. The model of electron transport includes all EXCEPT: A. mobile coenzyme Q collecting electrons. B. four independent mobile complexes. C. cyt c moving in the intermembrane space. D. protons driven into the matrix. E. proton gradient generated to produce ATP. 33. All of the following are properties of ATP synthase EXCEPT: A. the F1 subunit is attached to the integral membrane protein F0. B. the F0 subunit is hydrophilic. C. transmembrane channel for protons. D. beta-subunits have the catalytic site for ATP synthesis. E. the ring of c subunits form a rotor with respect to the alpha subunits. 34. All are true for F1 unit of ATP synthase EXCEPT: A. consists of five different kinds of subunits. B. catalyzes ATP hydrolysis as well as ATP synthesis. C. b-subunits have catalytic sites for ATP synthesis. D. a- and b-subunits are homologous. E. all are true. 35. In ATP synthase, it is proposed that ____-subunits form a rotor that turns with respect to ____-subunits and the ____-subunit is anchored to the rotor. A. a; b; g B. c; b; a C. c; g; b D. c; a; g E. b; a; g 36. All are characteristics of the binding charge mechanism EXCEPT: A. one site is empty (O-sites). B. one site contains ADP and Pi (L-sites). C. T-sites become O-sites. D. energy-driven conformational changes convert O-sites to L-sites. E. T-sites bind ATP.

37. Characteristics of proton gradient driven enzyme conformational change in ATP synthase include all EXCEPT: A. binding of substrates. B. ATP synthesis. C. catalytic cooperativity between subunits. D. conformational change in the b-subunits releasing ATP. E. (ab)3 complex rotates relative to a fixed b-subunit. 38. The hypothesis for proton driven ATP synthesis depends on ____ neutralization of the negative charge on c-subunit ____ residues as the rotor turns causing the ____-subunit to turn relative to the three ____-subunit ____ binding sites of F1, changing the conformation of each in sequence. A. electron; Ser; c; g; nucleotide B. proton; Ser; b; b; proton C. proton; Asp; b; g; nucleotide D. electron; Arg; c; g; proton E. proton; Asp; g; b; nucleotide 39. Which complex will be affected if rotenone is added? A. complex I B. complex II C. complex III D. complex IV E. none, it is an uncoupler 40. Does electron transport stop if rotenone is added? Why? A. Yes, there is not an electron source. B. No, rotenone is not strong enough to inhibit all of the electron transport chain. C. No, there is still a source of electrons from Complex II. D. Yes, rotenone inhibits complex III, therefore, electrons can not be passed on. E. Can not be determined from the information given. 41. Which of the following is an inhibitor of Complex IV? A. rotenone B. oligomycin C. antimycin D. cyanide E. all of the above 42. Cyanide and azide bind tightly to the ferric form of ____, and carbon monoxide toxicity arises from its affinity for the iron of ____. A. cyt c; cyt a3 B. cyt a3; hemoglobin C. hemoglobin; hemoglobin D. myoglobin; hemoglobin E. cyt a; cyt a3

43. What is the effect of adding oligomycin and then 2,4-dinitrophenol to respiring mitochondria? A. Electron transport speeds up and ATP synthesis stops. B. Electron transport continues and ATP synthesis continues. C. Electron transport stops and ATP synthesis stops. D. Nothing, the uncoupler and inhibitor cancel each other out. E. Electron transport stops and ATP synthesis continues. 44. All are properties of uncouplers EXCEPT: A. They dissipate the proton gradient. B. ATP/ADP ratio increases. C. Electron transport continues. D. They were briefly used as weight-loss drugs. E. Heat is produced. 45. ____ creates a passive proton channel through which protons flow from the cytosol to the mitochondrial matrix in ____. A. Oligomycin; microorganisms B. Thermogenin (UCP1); brown adipose tissue C. Demerol; nerve tissue D. Obesin; adipocytes E. none of the above 46. P/O ratio is defined as: A. Pi uptake per oxygen atom by mitochondria. B. molecules of phosphate released from ATP per oxygen utilized by muscle tissue. C. ratio of atoms of phosphorous to oxygen in phosphate (P i). D. molecules of ATP formed per two electrons flowing through electron transport chain. E. none of the above. 47. What percentage of the proton gradient energy to synthesize and transport ATP to the cytosol is involved in the ATP-ADP transport? A. 10% B. 15% C. 25% D. 50% E. none of the above 48. All of the following are part of apoptosis EXCEPT: A. cytochrome c is released. B. caspases are activated. C. a series of proteolytic reactions. D. the mitochondrial outer membrane protein-permeable pores close. E. mitochondrial membrane permeabilization (MMP).

49. Which of the following molecules is LEAST LIKELY to be transported across the inner mitochondrial membrane? A. citrate B. NADH C. pyruvate D. phosphate E. malate 50. A characteristic of the glycerophosphate shuttle is: A. It shuttles NADH across the mitochondrial membrane to yield 2.5 ATP/ADH. B. It shuttles "NADH electron equivalents" across the mitochondrial membrane to yield 1.5 ATP/NADH. C. It only operates efficiently when the [NADH] in the cytoplasm is higher than in the matrix. D. Malate is a key component in the shuttle process. E. Aspartate is a key component in the shuttle process. 51. The reaction, dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) + NADH NAD+ + glycerol-3-phosphate, is catalyzed by: A. triose phosphate isomerase. B. glycerol kinase. C. DHAP dehydrogenase. D. glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase. E. glycerol-3-phosphate reductase. 52. All are properties of glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenases EXCEPT: A. one is located in the cytosol. B. works to carry electrons into mitochondria. C. one is located in the inner mitochondrial membrane. D. mitochondrial enzyme has bound coenzyme Q. E. FAD-dependent mitochondrial enzyme. 53. All are correct about the glycerophosphate shuttle EXCEPT: A. there are two distinct forms of glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase in cells with this shuttle. B. it results in the net transfer of electrons to the electron transport chain from NADH in the cytosol. C. glycerol-3-phosphate is translocated across the inner mitochondrial membrane into the matrix. D. electrons derived from this shuttle enter the electron transport chain at UQ. E. one form of glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase is a flavoprotein. 54. The appropriate sequence for the malate-aspartate shuttle is:
A. B. C. D. E. F. OAA transaminated to aspartate OAA reduced to malate Malate oxidized to OAA Malate translocated to matrix Aspartate translocated to cytosol Aspartate transaminated to QAA

A. A, F, C, B, D, E B. B, A, D, F, C, E C. B, E, D, C, F, A D. C, D, F, E, A, B E. B, D, C, A, E, F

55. All are characteristics of the malate-aspartate shuttle EXCEPT: A. OAA translocates inner mitochondrial membrane. B. electrons of cytosolic NADH are translocated to mitochondrial NADH. C. two malate dehydrogenase enzymes. D. reactions are reversible. E. all are true. 56. Bacteria and other prokaryotic cells have the capacity to get more ATP/glucose oxidized than eukaryotic cells because ____, so they are more efficient. A. they are simpler and have less going on B. they don't have to use shuttles to reoxidize reduced nucleotides C. they do not have to translocate ATP-ADP across the mitochondrial membranes D. they use an electron transport chain that translocates more protons E. none of the above

Chapter 23--Fatty Acid Catabolism Key

1. The primary storage form of lipid is ____ and it is normally stored in the ____. A. phospholipid; liver B. cholesterol; muscles C. monoacylglycerol; adipocytes D. triacylglycerols; adipocytes E. triacylglycerols; liver 2. The sequence for activation of the release of fatty acids from adipose cells is:
A. B. C. D. E. F. protein kinase activation cAMP production triacylglycerol lipase activation hormone binding receptor adenylyl cyclase activation diacylglycerol lipase and monoacylglycerol lipase activity

A. D, E, B, A, C, F B. D, B, A, E, F, C C. D, B, C, F, A, E D. D, B, F, A, C, E E. B, F, A, D, E, C 3. Fatty acids are mobilized from adipose cells in response to all of the hormones EXCEPT: A. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone). B. glucagon. C. insulin. D. epinephrine (adrenaline). E. all are true. 4. Bile salts are important in the initial digestion of triacylglycerols in the intestine because they: A. are coenzymes for pancreatic lipase. B. convert the inactive lipase into the active form. C. emulsify the triacylglycerol globules to produce greater surface area which will increase the activity of the lipase. D. activate the cleavage at the C-2 position. E. permit greater permeability of the triacylglycerols through the intestinal membrane. 5. The majority of lipid digestion occurs in the duodenum by the enzyme ____ that produces ____ and ____ for absorption. A. acid lipase; diacylglycerols; fatty acids B. triacylglycerol lipase; fatty acids; glycerol C. triacylglycerol lipase; fatty acids; glycerol D. pancreatic lipase; monoacylglycerols; fatty acids E. pancreatic lipase; glycerol; fatty acids

6. Absorbed lipids are condensed with glycerol in the epithelial cells into ____ and re-packaged into ____ that are initially transported by the ____ system. A. phospholipids; VLDL; lymphatic B. triacylglycerols; VLDL; portal C. triacylglycerols; LDL; portal D. triacylglycerols; chylomicron; lymphatic E. triacylglycerols; VLDL; lymphatic 7. Chylomicrons: A. are formed in adipose tissue. B. are primary energy sources for the brain. C. transport dietary triacylglycerols through the bloodstream. D. are formed in and secreted by the liver. E. contain more phospholipid than triacylglycerol molecules. 8. Where in the cell are fatty acids condensed with coenzyme A to form acyl-CoA for b-oxidation? A. mitochondrial matrix B. cytoplasm C. outer mitochondrial membrane D. inner mitochondrial membrane E. none of the above 9. All are correct concerning the activation of a fatty acid to an acyl-CoA EXCEPT: A. it involves the formation of a high energy thioester linkage. B. activation is accompanied by the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and P i. C. an acyl-adenylate intermediate is formed. D. hydrolysis of ATP produces AMP and PPi, with further hydrolysis of PPi to drive the reaction. E. all are correct. 10. ____ carries long-chain fatty acyl groups across the ____ membrane. A. Biotin; intestinal B. Carnitine; plasma C. CoA-SH; plasma D. Carnitine; inner mitochondrial E. TPP; outer mitochondrial 11. The correct sequence for transport of fatty acyl groups from the cytosol to the matrix is:
A. B. C. D. E. F. carnitine acyltransferase I tranaslocase of carnitine and O-acylcarnitine carnitine acyltransferase II fatty acyl-CoA synthesis O-acylcarnitine fatty acyl-CoA in matrix

A. C, B, D, A, F, E B. D, B, F, E, A, C C. D, E, A, C, B, F D. D, A, E, B, C, F E. A, D, E, B, C, F

12. The first three reactions of b-oxidation of saturated fatty acids are analogous to which sequence of metabolic reactions already discussed? A. succinate fumarate malate oxaloacetate B. isocitrate a-ketoglutarate succinate fumarate C. oxaloacetate citrate isocitrate a-ketoglutarate D. phosphoenolpyruvate pyruvate acetyl-CoA citrate E. a-ketoglutarate succinyl-CoA succinate fumarate 13. The first oxidation in the b-oxidation of saturated fatty acids is catalyzed by ____ and is the conversion of ____. A. b-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase; a primary alcohol to an aldehyde. B. acyl-CoA dehydrogenase; a carbon-carbon single bond to a carbon-carbon double bond. C. acyl-CoA dehydrogenase; a secondary alcohol to a ketone. D. b-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase; an aldehyde to a carboxylic acid. E. acyl-CoA dehydrogenase; an aldehyde to a ketone. 14. All are characteristics of acyl-CoA dehydrogenase EXCEPT: A. oxidation of the Ca-Cb bond. B. comes in at least three isozymes each specific for fatty acids of differing chain lengths. C. uses tightly bound FAD. D. electrons are transferred to electron transfer flavoprotein (ETF) and on to Q of the electron transport system. E. all are correct. 15. Enoyl-CoA hydratase belongs to what class of enzymes? A. oxidoreductases B. hydrolases C. lyases D. ligases E. transferases 16. L-Hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase is analogous in catalytic activity to what enzyme of the citric acid cycle? A. aconitase B. citrate synthase C. isocitrate dehydrogenase D. a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase E. malate dehydrogenase 17. The product of b-oxidation, acetyl-CoA, can be used for all EXCEPT: A. synthesis of ketone bodies. B. synthesis of amino acids. C. catabolism in the TCA cycle. D. synthesis of glucose. E. none of the above. 18. For the complete oxidation of a saturated fatty acid with 16 carbons, how many times must the b-oxidation cycle be repeated? A. 4 B. 7 C. 8 D. 6 E. 16

19. How many NAD+ are reduced in the b-oxidation of stearoyl-CoA to form nine molecules of acetyl-CoA? A. 18 B. 16 C. 12 D. 9 E. 8 20. How many NADH are generated from the complete oxidation of palmitoyl-CoA to CO2? A. 24 by TCA plus 7 by b-oxidation B. 32 by TCA plus 8 by b-oxidation C. 21 by TCA plus 7 by b-oxidation D. 28 by TCA plus 7 by b-oxidation E. 24 by TCA plus 8 by b-oxidation 21. Propionyl-CoA is a product of b-oxidation of ____ and is ultimately converted to the TCA cycle intermediate, ____. A. odd-chain fatty acids; citrate B. even-chain fatty acids; isocitrate C. odd-chain fatty acids; succinyl-CoA D. even-chain fatty acids; succinate E. none are true 22. All are true for methylmalonyl-CoA mutase EXCEPT: A. does hemolytic cleavage of Co3+ -C bond. B. vitamin B12-dependent. C. classic B12-enzyme catalyzed rearrangement. D. produces succinyl-CoA. E. all are true. 23. During b-oxidation of certain unsaturated fatty acids, cis-D3-fatty acyl-CoAs are formed that must be converted to ____-fatty acyl-CoAs by the enzyme ____. A. cis-D2; acyl-CoA dehydrogenase B. trans-D2; acyl-CoA dehydrogenase C. trans-D2; enoyl-CoA dehydrogenase D. trans-D3; enoyl-CoA dehydrogenase E. trans-D2; acyl-CoA isomerase 24. All are true for 2,4-dienoyl-CoA reductase EXCEPT: A. reduces trans-D2, cis-D4 double bonds to trans-D3. B. uses NADPH. C. involved in saturated fatty acid catabolism. D. cooperates with b-oxidation in fatty acid oxidation. E. all are true. 25. What are the b-oxidation products of oleic acid (18:1D9) and how many ATP equivalents are required for activation? A. 8 acetyl CoA, 8 NADH, 7 FADH2, 1 ATP equivalents B. 9 acetyl CoA, 8 NADH, 7 FADH2, 2 ATP equivalents C. 8 acetyl CoA, 7 NADH, 7 FADH2, 1 ATP equivalents D. 8 acetyl CoA, 7 NADH, 6 FADH2, 2 ATP equivalents E. 9 acetyl CoA, 9 NADH, 8 FADH2, 1 ATP equivalents

26. Which of the following correctly describes the conversion of a fatty acid to CO 2? A. carnitine shuttle, activation to acyl CoA, b-oxidation, CAC B. activation to acyl CoA, b-oxidation, carnitine shuttle, CAC C. activation to acyl CoA, carnitine shuttle, b-oxidation, CAC D. CAC, activation to acyl CoA, b-oxidation, carnitine shuttle E. none of the above are correct 27. What are the three most common ketone bodies? A. acetone, butyrate and acetyl-CoA B. acetoacetate, hydroxyacetone phosphate and butyrate C. acetone, b-hydroxybutyrate and acetoacetate D. acetoacetate, acetyl-CoA and acetone E. butyrate, acetoacetate and acetone 28. Ketone bodies are synthesized in the: A. cytosol of muscle. B. mitochondria of liver. C. endoplasmic reticulum of heart. D. plasma membrane of brain. E. none of the above. 29. The brain normally uses ____ as its source of metabolic energy, but during starvation ____ may be the major source of energy. A. glucose; ketone bodies B. ketone bodies; fatty acids C. fatty acids; amino acids D. amino acids; glucose E. all are true 30. Ketone bodies are transported to the tissues of utilization: A. complexed to serum albumin. B. incorporated into VLDLs. C. complexed to fatty acid binding protein. D. freely dissolved in serum. E. but require insulin to enter target tissues. 31. Ketone body carbons enter the major metabolic pathways of the cells by conversion to: A. acetyl-CoA. B. butyrate. C. citrate. D. pyruvate. E. glucose-6-phosphate. 32. In ketone body biosynthesis, the HMG-CoA lyase is mechanistically the reverse of the first half of the reaction catalyzed by: A. aconitase. B. b-hydroxybutyrate dehydrogenase. C. citrate synthase. D. pyruvate dehydrogenase. E. succinyl-CoA synthase.

Chapter 24--Lipid Biosynthesis Key

1. Fatty acid synthase (FAS) differs from b-oxidation in all of the following ways EXCEPT: A. occurs in cytosol. B. uses NADPH for oxidoreductase reactions. C. acyl carrier protein linked intermediates. D. all of the enzymes are on one polypeptide. E. all are true. 2. What type of linkage occurs between ACP and the intermediates in fatty acid biosynthesis? A. an ester B. a thioester C. an amide D. an ether E. an acetal 3. There is no transporter for acetyl-CoA to exit the mitochondria, so the carbons must be converted to ____ for transport to the cytosol. A. acetone B. butyrate C. citrate D. pyruvate E. malonate 4. The main source(s) of NADPH for fatty acid biosynthesis is (are): A. TCA cycle. B. oxidative phosphorylation. C. malic enzyme and the pentose phosphate pathway. D. the conversion of OAA to malate by malate dehydrogenase. E. glycolysis. 5. The reaction catalyzed by ____ is: Citrate + ATP +CoA acetyl-CoA + ____ + ____. A. citrate synthase; malate; AMP + Pi B. citrate synthase; OAA; AMP + PPi C. ATP-citrate lyase; OAA; AMP + PPi D. ATP-citrate lyase; OAA; ADP + Pi E. citrate synthase; OAA; ADP + Pi 6. Reducing equivalents derived from glycolysis in the form of NADH can be transformed into ____ for fatty acid biosynthesis by the combined actions of ____ and ____. A. NADPH; malate dehydrogenase; malic enzyme B. NADPH; malate dehydrogenase; malic enzyme C. ATP; malate dehydrogenase; malic enzyme D. NADH; glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase; malate dehydrogenase E. NADPH; glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase; malate dehydrogenase

7. The committed step in fatty acid biosynthesis, formation of malonyl-CoA, is catalyzed by: A. fatty acid synthase. B. pyruvate carboxylase. C. propionate carboxylase. D. acetyl-CoA carboxylase. E. ATP-citrate lyase. 8. All are characteristic of acetyl-CoA carboxylase EXCEPT: A. allosteric inhibition by palmitoyl-CoA. B. biotin carboxylase and transcarboxylase subunits. C. biotin carboxyl carrier protein subunits. D. citrate shifts the enzyme toward the active polymer. E. all are correct. 9. The coenzymes of acetyl-CoA carboxylase are: A. biotin and ATP. B. pyridoxal phosphate and TPP. C. NADH and FAD. D. TPP and folic acid. E. FAD and Q. 10. Which of the following statements regarding phosphorylation of acetyl-CoA carboxylase is correct? A. phosphorylation causes activation only in the presence of palmitoyl-CoA B. phosphorylation is a result of glucagon binding to its receptor C. high [citrate] inhibits the phosphorylated form D. phosphorylation causes separation of the polymeric form of the enzyme to inactive protomers E. both b and d are true 11. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase in animals is regulated by all of the following EXCEPT: A. allosterically stimulated by citrate. B. phosphorylation by protein kinase A. C. allosterically inhibited by palmitoyl-CoA. D. allosterically stimulated by ATP. E. all are correct. 12. Phosphorylation of regulatory sites on acetyl-CoA carboxylase ____ the affinity for citrate and ____ the affinity for fatty acyl-CoAs requiring ____ levels of fatty acyl-CoAs for inhibition. A. increases; decreases; low B. decreases; increases; high C. decreases; increases; low D. increases; decreases; high E. none are correct 13. Acyl carrier protein has the same ____ group as the "business end" of ____. A. thiamin; TPP B. biotin; acetyl-CoA carboxylase

C. phosphoadenosine; cAMP D. pyridoxal phosphate; vitamin B6 E. phosphopantetheine; CoA 14. The formation of acetoacetyl-ACP is catalyzed by: A. b-ketoacyl-ACP synthase (KSase). B. acetyl-CoA carboxylase. C. acetyl transacylase. D. b-hydroxyacyl dehydratase. E. b-ketoacyl reductase. 15. In fatty acid synthase, the correct sequence of enzyme catalyzed reactions are:

A. B. C. D. E.

b-ketoacyl-ACP synthase b-ketoacyl reductase b-hydroxyacyl dehydratase enoyl reductase acetyl transferase

A. A, B, C, D, E B. C, B, D, E, A C. B, A, C, D, E D. A, C, B, E, D E. D, E, A, B, C 16. All are characteristic of fatty acid elongation EXCEPT: A. acetyl-CoA additions. B. uses both NADH and NADPH. C. requires ATP and biotin. D. occurs in cytosol and endoplasmic reticulum. E. uses CoA rather than ACP. 17. Stearoyl-CoA desaturase has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. NADH and O2 are required. B. produces a trans double bond. C. involves cytochrome b5 reductase. D. involves cytochrome b5. E. occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum. 18. In E. coli, b-hydroxydecanoyl-ACP is dehydrated by b-hydroxydecanoyl thioester dehydrase to form a double bond ____ to the thioester in the ____ configuration which is further elongated to form ____. A. a,b; cis; palmitoyl-ACP B. b,g; cis; palmitoleoyl-ACP C. b,g; trans; palmitoleoyl-ACP D. a,b; trans; palmitoleoyl-ACP E. b,g; cis; palmitoyl-ACP

19. E. coli does NOT have any ____ fatty acids, plants can introduce double bonds into fatty acids between D 9 and the ____-end of the chain, while mammals can only introduce double bonds between D 9 and the ____-end of the chain. A. saturated; carboxyl; methyl B. mono-unsaturated; carboxyl; methyl C. polyunsaturated; carboxyl; methyl D. polyunsaturated; methyl; carboxyl E. saturated; methyl; carboxyl 20. All of the following are characteristics of arachidonic acid EXCEPT: A. it contains five cis-double bonds. B. it is a precursor of leukotrienes and most prostaglandins. C. it is an omega-6 fatty acid. D. it can be synthesized from linoleic acid in mammals. E. all are correct. 21. Regulation of fatty acid synthesis in humans is affected by all of the following EXCEPT: A. malonyl-CoA binding to carnitine acyltransferase inhibits available substrate for b-oxidation. B. citrate stimulates acetyl-CoA carboxylase. C. acyl-CoAs are inhibitors of acetyl-CoA carboxylase. D. insulin receptor binding maintains acetyl-CoA carboxylase in the inactive form. E. glucagon promotes phosphorylation and inactivation of acetyl-CoA carboxylase. 22. Which of the following is correctly paired with its effect upon fatty acid synthesis? A. palmitoyl CoA: activates B. glucagon: activates C. insulin: inhibits D. citrate: activates E. NADPH: inhibits 23. Insulin promotes the ____ of acetyl-CoA carboxylase and ____ of triacylglycerol lipase by ____ the phosphodiesterases that converts cAMP to AMP. A. activation; inactivation; stimulating B. inactivation; activation; stimulating C. inactivation; activation; inhibiting D. activation; inactivation; inhibiting E. none are true 24. Both glycerol and dihydroxyacetone phosphate can serve as precursors for phosphatidic acid. Which enzyme is NOT USED to catalyze reactions in the synthesis of phosphatidic acid from these two precursors? A. glycerol kinase B. triose phosphate isomerase C. acyldihydroxyacetone-P reductase D. glycerol-3-phosphate acyltransferase E. 1-acylglycerol-3-phosphate acyltransferase 25. CDP-diacylglycerols are precursors for the synthesis of all EXCEPT: A. phosphatidylethanolamine. B. phosphatidyl glycerol. C. cardiolipins. D. phosphatidylinositol. E. all are true.

26. In eukaryotes, phosphatidic acid is converted directly either to ____ or to ____ from which all other ____ are derived. A. triacylglycerols; monoacylglycerols; acylglycerols B. acylglycerols; phospholipids; glycerophospholipids C. monoacylglycerols; phospholipids; glycerophospholipids D. diacylglycerols; CDP-diacylglycerols; glycerophospholipids E. diacylglycerols; CDP-diacylglycerols; acylglycerols 27. Components for plasmalogen biosynthesis include all EXCEPT: A. CDP-ethanolamine. B. fatty acyl-CoA. C. NADPH, NADH and O2. D. long-chain alcohol. E. glycerol. 28. Platelet-activating factor displays dramatic ability to ____ blood vessels and thus ____ blood pressure, and to aggregate platelets. A. dilate; reduce B. dilate; reduce C. constrict; increase D. constrict; increase 29. The carbons of sphinganine are derived from: A. palmitate and glycerol. B. arachidonate and glycine. C. fatty alcohol and dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP). D. palmitate and serine. E. none of the above. 30. Sphinganine is acylated in the ____-position. A. 3-OH B. 2-NH2 C. 1-OH D. 3-NH2 E. all are true 31. A lipid that does NOT have a sphingosine backbone is: A. ganglioside GM1. B. sphingomyelin. C. phosphatidylinositol. D. ceramide. E. cerebroside. 32. ____ are all derived from 20-carbon fatty acids that are acylated to membrane phospholipids and released by the enzyme ____. A. Arachadonates; triacylglycerol lipase B. Arachadonates; phospholipase A1 C. Eicosanoids; phospholipase A1 D. Eicosanoids; phospholipase A2 E. Arachadonates; phospholipase A2

33. All are characteristics of eicosanoids EXCEPT: A. derived from arachidonic acid. B. exert their effects at very low concentrations. C. usually act very near their site of synthesis. D. include prostaglandins, thromboxanes and leukotrienes. E. all are true. 34. An important mechanism of arachidonate release and eicosanoid synthesis involves ____ and ____. A. insulin release; high blood sugar B. glucagon release; low blood sugar C. tissue injury; low blood sugar D. inflammation; tissue injury E. all are true 35. All are true for aspirin EXCEPT: A. it does not affect the peroxidase activity of prostaglandin endoperoxide synthase (COX). B. it inhibits the activity of prostaglandin endoperoxide synthase (COX). C. it stimulates ring opening in prostaglandin synthesis. D. it acetylates the serine in the active site of the cyclooxygenase (COX). E. it is classed as a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). 36. All are characteristics of COX-2 inhibitors EXCEPT: A. selectively block inflammation mediated by COX-2. B. are NSAIDs. C. less potential for stomach lesions than aspirin. D. less renal toxicity than COX-1 inhibitors. E. all are correct. 37. The PRIMARY site, but not the only site, of cholesterol synthesis is: A. heart. B. intestine. C. muscle. D. liver. E. adipose. 38. The correct sequence for synthesis of mevalonate from acetyl-CoA is:
A. B. C. D. E. HMG-CoA synthase formation of 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA b-ketothiolase catalyzed condensation HMG-CoA reductase activity Formation of acetoacetyl-CoA

A. E, C, D, A, B B. C, D, A, B, E C. E, B, A, C, D D. E, A, B, D, C E. C, E, A, B, D 39. The committed step in cholesterol biosynthesis is catalyzed by: A. HMG-CoA synthase. B. mevalonate kinase. C. HMG-CoA reductase. D. squalene monooxygenase. E. HMG-CoA lyase.

40. All are regulatory mechanisms of HMG-CoA reductase EXCEPT: A. low [cholesterol] increases mRNA for HMG-CoA reductase. B. high [cholesterol] increases half-life for HMG-CoA reductase. C. high [cholesterol] results in lower mRNA for HMG-CoA reductase. D. phosphorylation by cAMP cascade inactivates HMG-CoA reductase. E. phosphatases activate HMG-CoA reductase. 41. The appropriate sequence of intermediates between mevalonate and squalene are:

A. B. C. D. E.

geranyl pyrophosphate isopentenyl pyrophosphate 5-phosphomevalonate farnesyl pyrophosphate dimethylallyl pyrophosphate

A. A, C, D, B, E B. C, B, E, A, D C. C, E, A, D, B D. E, C, B, D, A E. B, C, D, A, E 42. Characteristics of squalene monooxygenase include all EXCEPT: A. requires a soluble protein activator. B. bound to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). C. uses FAD and NADPH. D. requires O2. E. all are true. 43. The "statins" are a series of drugs used to: A. inhibit fatty acid synthesis in diet drugs. B. widely prescribed drugs used to inhibit squalene monooxygenase. C. derivatives or mimics of mevinolin used to inhibit HMG-CoA reductase. D. derivatives of cholesterol used to lower cholesterol levels. E. none are true.

44. Order the lipoproteins from lowest density to highest density.

A. B. C. D. E. chylomicrons HDL IDL VLDL LDL

A. D, A, E, B, C B. D, E, C, B, A C. A, E, B, D, C D. D, C, A, E, B E. A, D, C, E, B

45. Dietary lipids are "packaged" in the intestine into ____ for transport in the blood stream. A. chylomicrons B. HDL C. IDL D. VLDL E. LDL 46. Which of the following lipoproteins is INCORRECTLY defined? A. chylomicron: transport of dietary lipids to the liver B. HDL: scavenger of extra-hepatic cholesterol C. LDL: transport of cholesterol to extra-hepatic tissue D. VLDL: transport of triacylglycerols from the liver E. all of the above are correct 47. The major circulatory complex for cholesterol and cholesterol esters ("bad cholesterol") is the: A. chylomicrons. B. HDL. C. IDL. D. VLDL. E. LDL. 48. Lipoproteins consist of a core of ____ and ____ surrounded by a single layer of ____, into which is inserted ____ and ____. A. proteins; triacylglycerols; cholesterol esters; phospholipids; cholesterol B. triacylglycerols; cholesterol esters; phospholipids; proteins; cholesterol C. phospholipids; cholesterol esters; triacylglycerols; proteins; cholesterol D. cholesterol esters; proteins; cholesterol; phospholipids; triacylglycerols E. triacylglycerols; cholesterol; proteins; cholesterol esters; phospholipids 49. Lipoprotein lipase hydrolyzes ____ from VLDL particles to convert the VLDL into ____. A. cholesterol esters; HDL particles B. cholesterol esters; LDL particles C. triacylglycerols; LDL particles D. triacylglycerols; chylomicrons E. triacylglycerols; HDL particles 50. Characteristics of HDLs include all EXCEPT: A. high HDLs correlates with high risk of cardiovascular disease. B. life span of 5 to 6 days. C. newly formed is cholesterol ester free. D. returns cholesterol and cholesterol esters to liver. E. accumulates cholesterol esters via LCAT action. 51. The general genetic defect responsible for ____ is the absence or dysfunction of ____ in the body such that blood cholesterol levels are typically 300 to over 800 mg/dL. A. hypocholesterolemia; triacylglycerol lipase B. hypercholesterolemia; lipoprotein lipase C. LCAT; LDL receptors D. familial hypercholesterolemia; LDL receptors E. familial hypocholesterolemia; HDL receptors 52. All are correct for bile salts EXCEPT: A. made by the liver and utilized in the intestine. B. derived from cholesterol. C. conjugates of bile acids with glycine and taurine. D. highly effective as detergents. E. insert well into membranes because they are strictly nonpolar.

53. Characteristics of mixed-function oxidases include all EXCEPT: A. usually involve cytochrome P-450. B. often catalyze hydroxylation reactions on ring-systems such as sterols. C. use both NADPH and O2. D. one product is CO2. E. all are correct. 54. ____ is an intermediate on the biosynthetic pathway from cholesterol to both male and female hormones. A. Aldosterone B. Progesterone C. Cortisol D. Estradiol E. Testosterone 55. All are characteristics of desmolase EXCEPT: A. produces cholic acid. B. found in mitochondria of adrenal glands. C. has two hydroxylase activities. D. utilizes cytochrome P-450. E. its substrate is cholesterol. 56. Properties of progesterone include all EXCEPT: A. produced from pregnenolone in ER. B. synthesis in the adrenal cortex activated by ACTH. C. prepares the uterus for attachment of a fertilized ovum. D. secreted from corpus luteum in late menstrual cycle. E. all are true. 57. Male baldness, prostate hyperplasia and prostate cancer have been implicated in elevated levels of ____ and treatment involves inhibition of ____. A. glucocorticoids; gluconeogenesis B. stanozolol; lactate dehydrogenase C. dihydrotestosterone; steroid 5a-reductase D. cholesterol; mevinolin E. none of the above 58. All are true for the action of cortisol EXCEPT: A. stimulates gluconeogenesis and glycogen synthesis in liver. B. inhibits protein synthesis and stimulates protein degradation in muscle. C. inhibits allergic and inflammatory responses. D. exerts an immunosuppressive effect and an inhibition of wound healing. E. all are true. 59. Which of the following is correctly paired with its precursor? A. cholesterol palmitic acid B. arachidonic acid prostaglandins C. testosterone progesterone D. aldosterone cholic acid E. none of the above

Chapter 22 Metabolic Interrelationships

Multiple Choice

1. During heavy exercise, the Cori Cycle employs the gluconeogenic pathway in the liver and the glycolytic pathway in muscle. The major metabolites transported by blood to connect these pathways are A. glucose and pyruvate B. alanine and lactate C. glucose and alanine D. glucose and lactate E. palmitate and glycerol Ans: D 2. Long-chain fatty acids in heart A. are minor energy sources. B. are usually converted to triglycerides. C. are converted to ketones. D. are obtained by synthesis in mitochondria. E. provide the energy for most ATP synthesis. Ans: E 3. During anaerobic exercise, which reaction would be most active in the exercising muscle? A. oxidative decarboxylation of isocitrate to -ketoglutarate B. oxidative decarboxylation of a-ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA C. oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA D. conversion of succinate to fumarate E. conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid Ans: E 4. During a period of fasting, muscle will derive the most energy from the catabolism of A. tyrosine. B. cysteine. C. lysine. D. leucine. E. tryptophan. Ans: D

5. Which reaction does NOT occur in muscle? A. synthesis of glucose from alanine B. oxidation of beta-hydroxybutyric acid C. oxidation of lactic acid D. glycogenolysis E. formation of glutamine from glutamate Ans: A

6. Free glycerol A. is not a gluconeogenic substrate and is readily excreted in the urine. B. is potentially gluconeogenic, and its point of entry into the gluconeogenic pathway is as pyruvate. C. cannot support the net synthesis of glucose, because glycerol cannot be phosphorylated in vivo. D. is potentially gluconeogenic, and its point of entry into the gluconeogenic pathway is as triose phosphate. E. is ketogenic because it is derived from the catabolism of triacylglycerols. Ans: D 7. The major source of glutamine in blood during short term fasting is A. oxidation of leucine by adipose, heart, and skeletal muscle. B. oxidation of isoleucine and valine released from muscle protein. C. amino acid breakdown in brain and other tissues. D. amidation of glutamate released from muscle protein. E. amidation of glutamate from the blood by liver. Ans: B 8. What change from normal is likely to result from the ingestion of ethanol? A. increased reduction of pyruvate B. increased conversion of beta-hydroxybutyrate to acetoacetate C. decreased ketogenesis due to lack of acetyl-CoA D. increased production of oxaloacetate from malate E. increased production of dihydroxyacetone phosphate from glycerol phosphate Ans: A

9. Insulin induces the hepatic synthesis of A. pyruvate kinase, some of the transaminases, ATP-citrate lyase B. phosphofructokinase, glucose 6-phosphatase, isocitric dehydrogenase C. acetyl-CoA carboxylase, glucokinase, fatty acid synthase D. glucose 6-phosphatase, phosphorylase, PEP carboxykinase E. glycerol kinase, hormone sensitive lipase, pyruvate dehydrogenase Ans: C 10. Which of the following is most consistent with a defective malate-aspartate shuttle A. Abnormally large rise in glucose consumption when oxygen is admitted to an anaerobic incubation of tissue B. Diminished ability of mitochondria to oxidize isocitrate C. Large increase in the pyruvate:lactate ratio following exercise D. Abnormally large decrease in intracellular pH of muscle during exercise E. Partial uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation Ans: D

11. Direct precursors of lactose are A. UDP-glucose and fructose. B. UDP-glucose and galactose. C. glucose 1-phosphate + galactose 6-phosphate. D. UDP-galactose + fructose. E. UDP-galactose + glucose Ans: E 12. A normal adult is placed on a diet containing adequate amounts of all essential nutrients but no tyrosine. Which statement regarding this individual is true? A. The person would be in negative nitrogen balance. B. There would be a transient period of negative nitrogen balance followed by nitrogen equilibrium. C. Urea excretion would increase above that in the pre-diet period because protein synthesis could not continue. D. The person would be in nitrogen equilibrium. E. The rate of synthesis of phenylalanine would decrease compared to that in the prediet period. Ans: D

13. All of the following are true EXCEPT which one? A. Resting muscle produces negligible lactic acid. B. Resting liver only minimally oxidizes lactate. C. Monomers of a starchy meal, not followed by vigorous exercise end up as glycogen in liver, skeletal or heart muscle. D. Working muscle oxidizes fatty acids to lactate. E. The central control points in glycolysis are hexokinase, phosphofructokinase and pyruvate kinase. Ans: D 14. Initially insulin increases the A. uptake of glucose by the liver. B. uptake of glucose by erythrocytes. C. uptake of glucose by adipose tissue. D. level of cAMP in adipose tissue. E. rate of glycogen breakdown in the liver. Ans: C 15. Why do type II diabetics generally not develop ketoacidosis? A. It takes 2 days of starvation before ketone bodies are synthesized B. Ketone bodies are not needed for the brain in this case C. The decrease in lipoproteins prevents transport of ketone bodies D. There is enough residual insulin to suppress lipolysis E. There is not enough insulin to promote lipid synthesis Ans: D

16. When is hepatic glycogenolysis a primary source of blood glucose? A. Well-fed state, 2-3 hours postprandial B. Early fasted state, 3-12 hours postprandial C. Fasted state, 12-36 hours postprandial D. Early refed state, 0-2 hours after refeeding Ans: B 17. An amino acid which is ketogenic but not glucogenic A. can provide carbons for the net synthesis of glucose. B. can enter the Krebs cycle at the level of oxaloacetate. C. can provide carbons for the synthesis of fatty acids. D. cannot be oxidized through the Krebs cycle. E. None of the other answers is correct.

Ans: C 18. A 25 year old, healthy male has begun a treadmill exercise program. He has set the treadmill to a fast pace and has begun to run. As his physical activity continues for several minutes his heart rate would be expected to increase and the levels of _______________ would be expected to rise significantly in his blood. A. aspartic acid B. citric acid C. lactic acid D. pyruvic acid E. uric acid Ans: C 19. In starvation, the body makes a major adaptation to conserve its protein stores A. by synthesizing essential amino acids to meet the body demands. B. by neutralizing metabolic by-products such as urea, creatinine. C. by utilization of ketone bodies, i.e., non-protein derived energy sources, for the metabolic needs of the brain and nervous system. D. by the incomplete combustion of 2-carbon molecules derived from adipose stores. Ans: C 20. Blood glucose levels are A. decreased by cortisol B. decreased by glucagon C. increased by epinephrine D. increased by insulin E. decreased by testosterone Ans: C

21. In the lactating mammary gland, which are the immediate precursors for the formation of lactose? A. UDP-galactose and glucose B. galactose and glucose C. galactose 1-phosphate and glucose D. glucose 1-phosphate and galactose E. UDP-glucose and galactose

Ans: A 22. Glycogen breakdown in which of the following tissues can be used to support blood glucose levels during periods of fasting? A. skeletal muscle B. adipose tissue C. liver D. brain E. spleen Ans: C 23. During periods of prolonged fasting in a normal, healthy individual, blood glucose levels are maintained by gluconeogenesis. The carbons utilized for glucose synthesis under these circumstances are derived primarily from A. glycogen. B. fatty acids. C. heteropolysaccharides. D. nucleic acid. E. protein. Ans: E 24. Which of the following reactions gives the greatest yield of high energy phosphate? A. palmitoyl-CoA --> 8 acetyl-CoA B. 8 acetyl-CoA --> 16 carbon dioxide C. glucose --> 2 pyruvate D. 2 pyruvate --> 2 acetyl-CoA + 2 carbon dioxide E. 2 lactate --> 2 pyruvate Ans: B 25. In the liver, insulin affects each of the following EXCEPT which one? A. Lipogenesis from acetyl-CoA B. Rate of glycolysis C. Transport of glucose into cells D. Oxidation of fatty acids E. Gluconeogenesis Ans: C

26. In the transition from a well-fed to a fasting state, which enzyme in liver cells is most likely to decrease in amount? A. PEP carboxykinase B. acetyl-CoA carboxylase C. pyruvate carboxylase D. glucose-6-phosphate phosphatase E. glycogen phosphorylase Ans: B 27. The activity of each of the following enzymes or enzyme complexes is regulated by the concentration of the adenine nucleotides (AMP, ADP, or ATP) EXCEPT A. citrate synthase. B. phosphorylase b. C. phosphofructokinase. D. alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex. E. isocitrate dehydrogenase. Ans: D 28. Exercise intolerance would be MOST likely to accompany a deficiency of A. Phosphorylase B. Fructose-l ,6-bisphosphatase C. Glucokinase D. Erythrocyte pyruvate kinase E. Muscle glucose-6-phosphatase Ans: A 29. Which of the following is/are expected to occur during and immediately following the absorption of a meal? A. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase is inhibited by the presence of increased amounts of citrate in the cytosol. B. Mitochondrial concentrations of oxaloacetate are depressed. C. Lipoprotein lipase is decreased in amounts. D. Serum circulating ketone bodies are increased in amounts. E. Hormone-sensitive lipase is decreased in activity. Ans: E 30. All of the following statements concerning the fate of lactate produced by skeletal muscle during strenuous exercise are true EXCEPT which one? A. It diffuses out of the muscle cell into the surrounding interstitial fluid. B. It is converted to glucose in the liver. C. It is oxidized to carbon dioxide and water in skeletal muscles. D. It is utilized as an energy source by cardiac muscles.

Ans: C

31. Which amino acid is most important as a non-toxic form in which ammonia is transported in the bloodstream? A. asparagine B. glutamine C. aspartate D. ornithine E. glutamate Ans: B 32. The enzyme that is termed the glucose sensor of the liver is A. phosphofructokinase. B. glucose 6-phosphatase. C. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase. D. glycogen phosphorylase a Ans: D 33. A positive nitrogen balance would be expected in all of the following conditions EXCEPT A. growing children. B. pregnancy. C. consumption of a diet with increased protein. D. recovery from trauma or surgery. Ans: C 34. Adipose tissue contains little or none of which one of the following enzymes? A. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase B. hormone-sensitive lipase C. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase D. glycerol kinase E. glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase Ans: D 35. The Cori Cycle, glucose --> 2 lactate + 2ATP (Muscle) and 2 lactate + 6 ATP --> glucose (Liver), is important because A. there is a net destruction of ATP, restoring the energy balance between liver and muscle.

B. it results in the net generation of glucose in the liver and ATP in the muscles without the build up of high lactate levels. C. it enables muscle mass to be used for energy in conditions of extreme starvation. D. it serves to prevent lactate levels from dropping too low in the blood, which would impair brain function. E. it enables glucose 6-phosphate to be transported across the liver cell plasma membrane. Ans: B

36. Glucagon plays a homeostatic role by A. being released from the pancreas in response to elevated blood glucose levels and then activating the liver phosphorylase system. B. being released from the pancreas in response to lowered blood glucose levels and then activating the liver phosphorylase system. C. stimulating the release of glucose residues from muscle glycogen during periods of intense muscular activity. D. activating adenylate cyclase in skeletal muscle cells. E. facilitating glucose uptake into skeletal muscle. Ans: B 37. In skeletal muscle during strenuous exercise, the NADH produced in the reaction catalyzed by glyceraldehyde 3- phosphate dehydrogenase is reoxidized primarily by A. malate dehydrogenase. B. lactate dehydrogenase. C. pyruvate dehydrogenase. D. isocitrate dehydrogenase. E. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase. Ans: B 38. The most direct point of entry for alanine into the gluconeogenic pathway is as A. oxaloacetate. B. pyruvate. C. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate. D. dihydroxyacetone phosphate. E. 2-ketobutyrate. Ans: B 39. Oxidation of fatty acids in liver mitochondria may facilitate gluconeogenesis by

A. B. C. D. E.

supporting the phosphorylation of ADP. forming acetyl CoA which can contribute to the net synthesis of glucose. reducing FAD and NADP+. transporting carnitine into mitochondria. decreasing the dependence of phosphorylation of ADP on oxygen consumption.

Ans: A 40. How does a lack of oxygen most directly cause a decrease in the activity of the Krebs cycle? A. The synthesis of lactate from pyruvate is inhibited. B. High levels of malonyl CoA inhibit carnitine acyl transferase I. C. Electron transport is interrupted. D. Circulating levels of epinephrine are increased. E. The rate of glycogenolysis decreases. Ans: C

41. In untreated insulin-dependent diabetes, all these differences from the normal state are observed EXCEPT A. transport of glucose into adipose tissue is increased. B. gluconeogenesis is increased. C. glycogen breakdown in liver is increased. D. lipolysis in adipose tissue is increased. E. ketogenesis is increased. Ans: A 42. Why do tumors tend to use glycolysis as the source of most of their ATP? A. Angiogenesis delivers a large amount of glucose B. Lack of oxygen induces HIF-1a C. These cells have fewer mitochondria D. These cells do not have enzymes of electron transport E. These cells do not have TCA enzymes Ans: B 43. The mature erythrocyte A. uses fatty acids as the main source of energy. B. reduces NADP+ to NADPH largely through the hexose monophosphate shunt. C. produces bisphosphoglycerate (DPG) largely via the hexose monophosphate shunt. D. synthesizes proteins. E. contains relatively extensive endoplasmic reticulum.

Ans: B 44. Which of the following statements about catabolism of body proteins during starvation is correct? A. The breakdown of proteins occurs spontaneously, without the need for enzyme catalysis. B. The amino acids resulting from protein breakdown are either reused as such or are deaminated and their carbon skeletons used as a source of energy. C. The first amino acids to be catabolized are derived from the protein storage depot in liver. D. The amino acids derived are used primarily for synthesis of fatty acids. E. The initial steps in the process involve cleavage of the amino acid side chains from polypeptides. Ans: B 45. During exercise epinephrine and glucagon levels are elevated and insulin levels are depressed. Under these conditions, which enzyme should be activated? A. glycogen synthase B. fatty acid synthase C. hormone-sensitive lipase D. acetyl CoA carboxylase E. ATP-citrate lyase Ans: C 46. In the long term fasting state, a large proportion of the energy of the brain is derived from circulating A. acetoacetyl-CoA. B. acetone. C. beta-hydroxybutyrate. D. oxalacetate. E. malonic acid. Ans: C 47. What determines that the metabolism of amino acids in the liver is low during the well-fed state? A. Amino acids are not absorbed from the diet B. Amino acids are not removed from portal blood flow C. Endogenous inhibitors are synthesized D. The liver participates in the Cori Cycle E. The necessary catabolic enzymes have high Kms Ans: E 48. The substrate normally utilized as the major source of energy by the brain is

A. B. C. D. E.

triglycerides. fatty acids. ketone bodies. amino acids. glucose.

Ans: E 49. Certain amino acids can increase the concentration of blood glucose because A. they can be oxidized via the Krebs cycle. B. they are essential. C. their carbon chains can be converted to intermediates in the Krebs cycle. D. their carbon chains can be converted to acetyl-CoA. E. they can undergo transamination reactions. Ans: C 50. The enzyme in muscle which is most directly stimulated by epinephrine is A. glycogen synthase. B. phosphofructokinase. C. isocitrate dehydrogenase. D. glucose-6-phosphatase. E. adenylate cyclase. Ans: E 51. Which reaction in the liver should be stimulated most in a starving individual? A. serine dehydratase reaction B. pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction C. acetyl CoA carboxylase reaction D. citrate lyase reaction E. conversion of oxaloacetate to aspartate Ans: A 52. The major source of energy in the heart of a runner who has just won a 1, 000 meter race would be A. glycogen. B. phospholipids. C. plasma glucose. D. plasma amino acids. E. plasma fatty acids. Ans: E

53. Which amino acid is not taken up well by liver, and must be supplied by its essential amino acid precursor? A. Arginine B. Cysteine C. Glycine D. Serine E. Tyrosine Ans: B 54. The largest amount of glycogen in humans is stored in A. skeletal muscle. B. liver. C. brain. D. adipose tissue. E. heart muscle. Ans: A 55. The principal source of NH4+ for glutamine synthesis in muscle is A. glutamate. B. adenosine. C. inosine. D. urea. E. carbamoyl phosphate. Ans: B 56. Nitrogen is carried from skeletal muscle to the liver in the post-absorptive state primarily in the form of 1. arginine 2. glutamine 3. alanine 4 . Serine 5 . histidine A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1 and 4 D. 2 and 3 E. 3 and 4 Ans: D 57. The brain utilizes ketone bodies rather than fatty acids because A. ketone bodies are a more efficient fuel. B. brain tissue cannot metabolize fatty acids to any significant degree. C. ketone bodies can be converted into glucose. D. none of the above. Ans: B

58. The liver normally uses which one of the following for its own energy needs in the fed state? A. Free fatty acids B. Amino acids C. glucose D. Glycerol Ans: B

59. Lactate production during muscular contraction is ascribed in part to A. an overproduction of acetyl-CoA not metabolized in the Krebs cycle. B. an underproduction of acetyl-CoA for utilization in the Krebs cycle. C. temporary anaerobic state in muscle. D. overabundance of ATP produced by metabolism through the Krebs cycle. Ans: C 60. The principal store of metabolic energy available during long term fasting or starvation is A. muscle glycogen. B. liver glycogen. C. muscle protein. D. adipose tissue triacylglycerol. Ans: D 61. Physiological conditions that promote the synthesis of ketone bodies also promote the A. oxidation of fatty acids in erythrocytes. B. oxidation of glucose in adipose tissue. C. synthesis of amino acids in skeletal muscle. D. synthesis of fatty acids in cardiac muscle. E. synthesis of glucose in liver. Ans: E 62. What is the main source of carbon atoms for ketone bodies in a diabetic? A. heart B. liver C. brain D. adipose E. skeletal muscle

Ans: D 63. Compared to metabolic activity during the daytime, when three meals are eaten, an overnight fast should cause all of the following EXCEPT A. an increased rate of glycogenolysis. B. increased activity of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase. C. increased rates of protein synthesis. D. decreased activity of acetyl-CoA carboxylase. E. increased activity of pyruvate carboxylase. Ans: C 64. Which of the following tissues would have the highest levels of gluconeogenesis during starvation? A. brain B. red blood cells C. adipose tissue D. liver E. muscle Ans: D

65. In an uncontrolled diabetic which of the following amino acids would yield both glucose and ketone bodies? A. Alanine B. Tyrosine C. Proline D. Glycine E. Leucine Ans: B 66. Which of the following would you expect to see in a fasting patient who was deficient in glucose -6-phosphatase? A. hyperglycemia (high blood glucose) B. normal blood sugar levels C. increased release of glucose by the liver D. hypoglycemia (low blood glucose) E. increased gluconeogenesis Ans: D 67. Increased levels of ATP in the fed state helps to channel acetyl CoA into fat synthesis by inhibiting

A. B. C. D. E.

citrate synthase. isocitrate dehydrogenase. citrate lyase. acetyl CoA carboxylase. palmitate thiokinase (CoA synthase).

Ans: B 68. During contraction, phosphocreatine is used A. to phosphorylate ADP. B. to phosphorylate glycogen. C. directly in contraction. D. to activate phosphofructokinase. E. to phosphorylate fructose 6-phosphate. Ans: A 69. What change from normal will accompany the ingestion of sufficient ethanol to make an individual drunk? A. activation of pyruvate dehydrogenase B. increased rate of gluconeogenesis from pyruvate C. increased concentration of lactate in plasma D. decreased ratio of NADH/NAD+ in liver E. increased activity of alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase Ans: C 70. An increased concentration of intracellular AMP in skeletal muscle would cause A. an increase in glycogen synthesis. B. rapid glycolysis. C. rapid gluconeogenesis. D. a shut down of the TCA cycle. E. an inhibition of phosphofructokinase. Ans: B 71. ypoglycemia associated with ethanol intoxication is accompanied by: A. Decreased lactate/pyruvate ratio B. Elevated blood pyruvate C. Elevated NADH/NAD+ ratio D. Increased activity of PEP carboxykinase E. Increased activity of pyruvate carboxylase Ans: C 72. ketosis may develop as a result of which of the circumstances below? A. glucose synthesis from fatty acids during glucose deprivation

B. C. D. E.

acute attack of gout carnitine transferase I deficiency hyperglycemia fat mobilization to support gluconeogenesis

Ans: E 73. Which statement regarding citrate in mammalian metabolism is FALSE? A. It activates fatty acid synthesis. B. It activates the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex. C. It inhibits glycolysis at the step catalyzed by phosphofructokinase. D. It is a source of acetyl-CoA for fatty acid synthesis. E. It may be used in the Krebs cycle for production of energy. Ans: B 74. The glucose-alanine cycle functions chiefly in the exchange of carbon and nitrogen between A. kidney and liver. B. muscle and brain. C. gut and liver. D. liver and muscle. E. muscle and kidney. Ans: D 75. A high insulin to glucagon ratio indicates A. starvation or low carbohydrate diet. B. nutrient storage and protein anabolism. C. mobilization of nutrients and protein catabolism. D. the effects of severe infection. Ans: B 76. Acetyl-CoA has been found to undergo all of the following reactions EXCEPT which one? A. Condensation with acetoacetyl-CoA to form beta-hydroxy-beta-methyl glutaryl-CoA. B. The ATP dependent fixation of carbon dioxide to form malonyl-CoA. C. The NAD dependent fixation of carbon dioxide to form pyruvate and free CoA. D. The reversible transfer of the acetyl group to acyl carrier protein (ACP) to form acetyl-ACP. E. Condensation with glyoxylate to form malate and free CoA in plants. Ans: C

77. Blood glucose levels can not be increased by muscle glycogen degradation because muscle lacks A. phosphorylase. B. phosphoglucomutase. C. hexokinase. D. aldolase. E. glucose 6-phosphatase. Ans: E 78. Which statement about the Cori cycle is TRUE? A. All of the component reactions occur in the liver. B. Lactate from muscle is used in the liver as a gluconeogenic substrate. C. Free glucose, produced from glycogen in skeletal muscle, is utilized for the synthesis of glycogen in the liver. D. It is the cycle in the liver by which glycogen is synthesized from and degraded to glucose 1-phosphate. E. All of the component reactions occur in skeletal muscle. Ans: B 79. The major pathway by which mature adult red cells generate ATP is A. aerobic metabolism. B. anaerobic glycolysis. C. hexose monophosphate shunt activity. D. generation of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate. E. lipid peroxidation. Ans: B 80. In the metabolism of adipose triacylglycerols, insulin stimulates the activity of each of the following proteins EXCEPT A. 3',5'-AMP phosphodiesterase. B. fatty acid synthase. C. glucose transporter 4. D. hormone-sensitive lipase. E. lipoprotein lipase. Ans: D 81. Which of the following is the major substrate used for energy by resting muscle? A. fructose B. nonesterified fatty acids C. glycerol

D. beta-hydroxybutyrate E. lactate Ans: B 82. During periods of strenuous exercise the major energy source for cardiac muscle is A. glucose B. Free fatty acids C. Ketone bodies D. Lactate Ans: A 83. If glucose-6-phosphatase were deficient in liver, what would best characterize the expected change in metabolism relative to the normal state? A. decreased energy supply to the liver and hepatic cell death B. hyperglycemia after a normal meal C. decreased rate of ketogenesis D. depletion of glycogen stores in liver E. hypoglycemia one or two hours after a meal Ans: E 84. The blood glucose level in an individual who is fasting is maintained at a relativel y constant level by the liver. The liver accomplishes this by a process called A. lipolysis. B. glycogenesis. C. glycogenolysis. D. gluconeogenesis. E. glycolysis. Ans: D 85. The largest reserve of potential metabolic energy in humans is found in the form of A. protein. B. free glucose. C. liver glycogen. D. triacylglycerol. E. muscle glycogen. Ans: D 86. Ketone bodies are synthesized in A. muscle for utilization in brain and liver. B. brain for utilization in liver. C. liver for utilization in muscle.

D. liver for utilization in liver. E. brain for utilization in brain. Ans: C 87. The increase in blood sugar level resulting from epinephrine injection can best be explained by which one of the following? A. Synthesis of carbohydrate from fat B. Absorption of carbohydrate from the digestive tract C. Liver glycogenesis D. Liver glycogenolysis E. Gluconeogenesis Ans: D 88. The effects of insulin on glucose uptake by muscle tissue are most directly opposed by A. cortisol. B. glucagon. C. epinephrine. D. somatomedin A. E. thyroid hormones. Ans: B 89. The following compounds are potential substrates (carbon sources) for the gluconeogenic pathway EXCEPT which one? A. glutamic acid B. aspartic acid C. oleic acid D. succinic acid E. citrate Ans: C 90. Integration of metabolism between organs occurs primarily through: A. Allosteric effectors B. Hormones C. Induction/repression D. Covalent modification E. Substrate supply Ans: B 91. Which one of the following would you not expect in liver during an overnight fast? A. increasing rate of glycogenolysis

B. C. D. E.

increasing rates of protein synthesis increasing activity of pyruvate carboxylase decreasing activity of acetyl CoA carboxylase increasing activity of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase

Ans: B 92. The enzyme activity that changes LEAST when a well-fed animal undergoes a two day fast is A. phosphofructokinase. B. aldolase. C. hormone-sensitive lipase. D. acetyl CoA carboxylase. E. pyruvate carboxylase. Ans: B 93. All of the following compounds are essential in the diet EXCEPT A. valine B. linoleic acid. C. stearic acid. D. potassium. E. nicotinic acid. Ans: C 94. In the brain, the reaction ATP + glucose ----> glucose-6-phosphate is catalyzed by A. phosphohexose isomerase B. glucokinase C. hexokinase D. phosphoglucomutase E. phosphofructokinase Ans: C 95. During starvation, which of the following amino acids can be transaminated to directly provide pyruvate for gluconeogenesis? A. glycine B. alanine C. glutamate D. ornithine E. aspartic acid Ans: B

96. The mobilization of fatty acids from adipose tissue during stress would require the involvement of all but which of the following? A. hormone-sensitive lipase B. plasma albumin C. epinephrine D. apolipoprotein C II E. cAMP Ans: D 97. Which enzyme does NOT catalyze a committed step in the indicated metabolic pathway? A. pyruvate carboxylase - gluconeogenesis B. isocitrate dehydrogenase - Krebs cycle C. phosphofructokinase - glycolysis D. tyrosine aminotransferase - catabolism of tyrosine E. acetyl CoA carboxylase - fatty acid biosynthesis Ans: A 98. During exercise, the levels of epinephrine and glucagon rise and the level of insulin falls, leading to activation of A. glycogen synthase. B. lipoprotein lipase. C. phosphorylase. D. acetyl CoA carboxylase. E. citrate lyase. Ans: C 99. What process does line IV in the diagram above depict in glucose homeostasis? A. Amino acid synthesis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Glycogenolysis D. Ketone body formation E. Lipolysis Ans: B 100. During vigorous exercise, muscles will increase secretion of A. pyruvate. B. lactate. C. ethanol and carbon dioxide. D. citrate. E. glucose.

Ans: B