Elecs Superbook Answer Key

Self-Sufficient Guide to ECE by JASON AMPOLOQUIO
6-1
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Answer Key

Section 0
Introduction to Unit Systems
Quiz 1
1. A. coulomb (C)
2. D. volt (V)
3. C. maxwell/gilbert
4. A. gilbert/maxwell
5. A. joule/second
6. A. gauss/oersted
7. B. ampere (A)
8. C. gauss
9. B. weber
10. B. m
-2
kg
-1
s
4
A
2

11. A. coulomb/Volt
12. D. weber/m
2

13. B. volt-second
14. D. m
2
kgs
-2
A
-2

15. B. henry/meter
16. D. weber/ampere-turn
17. A. m
2
kgs
-3
A
-1

18. D. weber/ampere
19. B. weber
20. C. m
2
kgs
-3

21. B. gauss
22. D. m
-2
kg
-1
s
3
A
2

23. A. Weber/m
2

24. A. m
2
kgs
-2
A
-1

25. A. weber/m
2

26. D. oersted
27. B. m
2
kgs
-3
A
-2

28. C. ampere-turn/m
29. D. ampere-turn
30. C. joule (J)
31. A. kgs
-2
A
-1

32. A. maxwell
33. A. gilbert
34. B. ampere-turn/weber

Section 1
Electricity & Magnetism
Quiz 2
1. B. Amperes Law
2. C. J x =
3. B. remanence
4. B. Remanent induction
5. C. lodestone
6. B. Ampere's law
7. C. ferrites
8. B. flux
9. D. Valence
10. B. A force set up when current
flows through a conductor
11. B. Gilbert
12. B. Curie temperature
13. A. 0.01257
14. C. 50,000 G
15. B. diamagnetic
16. B. ampere
17. A. small and positive
18. B. Like poles repel, unlike poles
attract
19. A. soft magnetic materials
20. A. The magnetic north pole
21. C. ferromagnetism
22. B. newton per coulomb
23. C. 2,000 G
24. D. nickel, cobalt and steel
25. D. Core loss
26. B. 6.2410
18
elementary charges
27. B. Amperes Law
28. B. high permeability but low
coercivity
29. A. Copper
30. D. soft iron
31. C. magnetic field
32. D. magnetized
33. C. electromagnetic radiation
34. B. ideal inductance
36. D. triboelectric effect
37. B. magnetic induction
38. A. flux density
39. C. (a) Minimum
(b) minimum
40. C. North to South
41. D. ferrimagnetism
42. C. large and positive

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43. B. Lenzs law
44. D. Residual
45. A. linearity
46. C. In inverse proportion to the
square of the distance
47. C. 78.5% nickel and 21.5% iron
48. D. Bismuth
49. C. electric motor
50. A. in a direction determined by the
left hand rule
51. C. 180
52. C. Matter
53. B. (a) 90 (b) 270
54. C. magnetic flux
55. B. Conductance
56. A. 10,000 G
57. D. The conductivity of a material
for magnetic lines of force
58. C. attract each other
59. B. B
A
=
60. B. James Clerk Maxwell
61. B. Willard Boyle and George Smith
62. D. permanent magnets, memory
devices, and magnetic recording
63. A. 0
64. B. Chromium
65. B. Copper
66. B.
o
B
H

67. C. Keeper
68. C. magnetomotive force
69. B. current
70. B. weber
71. B.
o
K
1 +

72. A. Amperes law
73. D. Michael Faraday
74. A. magnetism
75. C. Buck Converter
76. C. Coercive force
77. C. large and positive
78. A. small and positive
79. B.
7 1
4 x 10 Hm

80. D. antiferromagnetism
81. D. A little greater than 1
82. C. slightly greater than 1
83. A. Flyback Transformer
84. D. Fringing Fields
85. B. compound
86. D. magnetization
87. A. paramagnetic
88. A. 7999
89. C. 1 C
90. D. Lorentz force law
91. A. Coercivity
92. C. retentivity
93. C. Ampere-turns per meter
94. D. tiny molecular magnets
95. B. Diamagnetic
96. A. Nel temperature
97. A. Gauss's law
98. B. flux
100. A. leakage flux

Section 1
Quiz 3
1. D. Coercivity
2. C. high remanence and high
coercivity
3. B. soft magnetic materials
4. D. air cooled
5. A. amorphous
6. B. Magnetic induction
7. D. low permeability
8. D.
N
I

9. A. hysteresis
10. B. coefficient of coupling for
tightly coupled is zero
11. A. magnetic line of force
12. A. Remanence
13. C. 8.854 10
-11
F/m
14. A. magnetic field intensity
15. B. diamagnetism
16. B. small and negative
17. D. Zero
18. B. Coulombs first law
19. A. Faradays law
20. D. ferromagnetic
21. B. current magnetic field and
direction of force on a
conductor
22. B. induced
23. C. field flux
24. B. Motor action
25. B. current induced into the
armature
26. B. Coulombs second law
27. B. It is perpendicular to and equal
along all parts of the conductor
28. A. Energy

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Powerful Review Center 1
st
batch performance

The Author

Engr. Jason M. Ampoloquio
Youngest Professional Electronics Engineer (PECE)
President, Powerful Review Center
Design Consultant
MSECE Major in DSP-De La Salle University (units earned)
BSECE-Central Colleges of the Philippines, 2000
HR Reyes Scholar
Coach, IECEP Quizzers
Champion: 1. ECE Quiz Show (1999)
2. 1
st
Brain Encounter (1998)
3. Physics Quiz Show (1996)
4. Mathematics Wizard (1996)
5. Inter Engineering Quiz Show (1995)
Battle of the Brain School Representative (RPN-9)
Quizzer-19
th
and 20
th
IECEP Quiz Show
Author:
1. Electronics Engineering SUPERBook
2. EST SUPERBook
EST Review Director
Resource Speaker, Various Topics in Communications
In-house reviewer, Various Colleges and Universities
Sought after reviewer in Communications Engineering

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29. D. All of the above
30. B. 4.9 N
31. A. current flow
32. D. Hysteresis loss
33. A. copper, manganese and nickel
34. A. (a) Concentric circles
(b) Perpendicular
35. C. core
36. D. Because separate lines of
magnetic force link and
combine their effects
37. B. Magnetic induction
38. D. direction of force on conductor
39. B. 1,600 At
40. B. mutual inductance and self
inductance of the two coils
41. D. flux and current flow
42. D. A force set up when current
flow through a conductor
43. A. it does not affect the constant
direct current
44. C. Travels from north to south
through the surrounding
medium of a bar magnet
45. C. it always opposes the cause
producing it
46. D. all of these
47. A. The flux density, which exist in
the iron core when the magnetic
field intensity is reduced to zero
48. D. ferromagnetic
49. C. core saturation
50. B. Weber theory
51. D. demagnetizing metallic part
52. B. Lenz's
54. C. 63% of its final steady state value
55. C. Keeper
56. A.
d
N
dt

57. B. 4,000
58. B. touching each other
59. B. residual magnetism
60. B. lodestone
61. B. reluctance
62. D. all of these
63. A. (a) 16 (b) 8
64. A. (a) Magnetic flux, north to south,
(b) Current
65. D.
1
2
L
L

66. C. weber
67. B. hysteresis loss
68. A. is one of attraction for the same
direction of current flow
69. B. 10 Gb/cm
70. B. reluctance
71. D. amount of current
72. A. paramagnetic materials
73. C. 3300 coulombs
74. C. Neutron
75. B. potential field
76. B. Light energy is emitted
77. C.
1 2
M L L
78. C. residual magnetism
79. C. low permeability
80. C. reluctance
81. C.
L
R

82. C.
1.6
B
83. C. left-hand rule
84. A.
3
J / m / s
85. D. 500 G
86. C. using grain-oriented silicon
steel
87. B. diamagnetic
88. C. superconductivity
89. D. electron
90. A. decrease by a factor of four
91. D. Retentivity
92. C. Photons
93. C. in specific shells or orbits
94. D. Eulectic alloy
95. D. Any of the above
96. D. centrifugal
97. B. carbon
98. B. hysteresis
99. D. The electron will jump to an
orbit further from the nucleus
100. C. Seebeck

Section 1
Quiz 4
1. D. electricity
2. C. Electromagnetic induction
3. D. magnetic susceptibility
4. A. Flux
5. D. matter
7. C. Amperes law
8. A. magnetic pole

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9. C. Residual induction
10. A. 5000
11. D. diamagnetic
12. A. supermalloy
13. A. Gaussmeter
14. C. magnetism
15. B. semi-conductor
16. B. Lenzs law
17. B. Boost Converter
18. D. 210
7
N/m
19. A. oersteds
20. D. A and B
21. C. The phenomenon where RF
current flows in a thinner layer
of the conductor close to the
surface, as frequency increases
22. B. Air gap
23. C. near to one end of a magnet
24. B. ferrites
25. C. flux density
26. C. increasing the resistance of
magnetic medium
27. A. Aluminum
28. B. Coercivity
29. A. paramagnetism
30. A. dynamic electricity
31. A. 0.5 Gauss
32. A. volt ampere
33. C. Photons
34. D. neutron
35. D. photons
36. D. Lenz law
37. C. At/Wb
38. D. repelled
39. D. transformer action
40. B. coulombs
41. D. hall effect
42. A. iron
43. D. carbon
44. A. flux lines
45. C. magnetic flux
46. C. reluctance
47. D. all of these
48. D. element
49. D. all of these
50. D. tesla
51. D. all of these
52. C. mixture
53. A. diamagnetic
54. A. increases
55. C. domain
56. C. thrust
57. B. 200 At
59. C. directly proportional
60. B. magnetic lines of force
61. A. can aid or oppose each other
62. D. 166 joules
64. B. 100 watts
65. C. the reciprocal of the resistance
66. B. cannot enter
67. D. paramagnetic
68. D. element
69. C. hysteresis
70. C. compound
71. D. element
72. D. degaussing
73. B. Electron
74. A. atom
75. D. Proton
76. C. Hall Effect Transducer
77. D. it has an intrinsic coercivity
greater than or equal to about
300 oersteds
78. B. Ionized
79. D. permeability
80. C. The number of free electrons
81. D. Intensity of magnetization
82. B. Negative
83. D. an atom with unbalanced
charges
84. C. Friction between two insulators
85. C. 2 A
86. B. field intensity
87. A. Positive
88. A. hydrogen
89. A. Unlike charges attract each
other, like charges repel each
other
90. A. one
91. D. Each of the above
92. D. moving either the magnet or
the coil
93. C. electrophoresis
94. A. magnetomotive force
95. A. Entering negative charge,
leaving positive charge
96. B. atoms
97. A. High-fidelity speakers
98. A. Reluctance
99. D. Both A and B above
100. C. magnetic field


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Section 2
Resistor & Resistance Basic
Quiz 5
1. A. 1.59 x 10
-8

2. D.
5
R
6

3. C. temperature
4. D. 3.6 ohms +/-10%
5. A.
1 2 3
G G G + +
6. A. R
1

7. D. conductance
8. B. The resistance value changes
with age
9. B. is the inverse of the total circuit
conductance
10. C. heating, magnetic, and electric
shock
11. D. force field
12. C. is equally applied to all branch
conductances
13. B. The nature of the material of
the conductor only
14. D. 4700 ohms + 5%
15. B. 2.24 x 10
-8

16. C. Typical power rating of a
carbon-composition resistor
ranged from 0.125 W to 2 W
17. C. Potentiometer
18. A. first digit
19. D. its length increases
20. D. all of these
21. B. bleeder resistor
22. B. 1%
23. B. 3.4 ohms +/-2%
24. B. (a) Two (b) three
25. A. The resistance of the conductor is
the hindrance by which the
conductor opposes the flow of
current
26. B. 20%
27. B. temperature coefficient
28. D. Tolerance
29. C. Resistance of a conductor which
has a length of 1 m and
cross-section of 1 m
2

at 25C *
30. A. red, red, red
31. D. 0.001 inch
32. C. Yellow
33. D. The effective resistance is
increased
34. C. increases
35. D. The square of current
36. C. A reciprocal relationship

37. D. 1.68 x 10
-8

38. D. By the wattage rating
39. C. 22,000 ohms + 10%
40. C. 3 V
41. A. Directly to the conductive paths
of a circuit board
42. A. is always constant
43. A. 1:4
44. B. Rheostat
45. C. 4.2 Joules per calories
46. B. The temperature should remain
constant
47. C. positive, negative
48. D. Transistors
49. C. 20%
50. C. product of their R values
divided by the sum of the two
resistors
51. C. the multipliers
52. C. increase in resistance per ohm
per degree centigrade
53. D. Surface mount resistors
54. D. Rheostat
55. B. high in both directions until a
voltage threshold level is
reached, then resistance is
low in both directions
56. D. R
4

57. C. decreases
58. D. Carbon
59. B. Potentiometer
60. C. of interatomic collision
61. A. linear
62. A. Cross-sectional area is
decreased, length is increased
63. C. 4
64. D. 19 kohms + 20%
65. A. 0.1 W
66. D. either A or B
67. A. Zero
68. A. 25%
69. C. 3:1
70. C. 6
71. A. 3
72. C. multiturn variable
73. D. Negative
74. B. A voltage source and a
conductor
75. D. Carbon composition resistor
76. A. 2

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77. C. 12 V
78. B. 2.65 x 10
-8

79. A. the resistance of the heater coil
is more than that of the supply
wires
80. C. Red, black, gold
81. D. wire-wound resistors
82. C. 88 k
83. D. Current increases
84. D. Aluminum
85. A. Varistor
86. A. a column of mercury
87. B. thermistor
88. A. Copper
89. A. 4800 ohms 10%
90. C. 10.6 x 10
-8

91. B. the temperature should remain
constant
92. D. semiconductor
93. C. effect produced
94. C. Wirewound resistor
95. B. Second digit of the value
96. C. voltage
97. B. resistances
98. C. Voltage dividers
99. A. individual, combinations of
100. D. Short

Section 3
Inductor & Inductance Basic
Quiz 6
1. B. the flow of current
2. B. 0.0133 seconds
3. C. 63% of its final steady state value
4. C. High permeability and low
reluctance
5. A. an open circuit
6. D. is unchanged at t = 0
+

7. D. 4.2 H
8. B. 12.5 H
9. C.
L
R

10. A. Increases inductance
11. B. mutual inductance and self
inductance of the two coils
12. D. By core type
13. B. current
14. A. soft iron
15. A. increases inductance
16. D. direction of force on conductor
17. C. 12 ohms
18. A.
d
N
dt

19. C. 0.25 second
20. B. touching each other
21. D. all of these
22. D. all of these
23. A. Lenz's law
24. D. Changes in current
25. C. connected with many individual
current paths
26. B. coefficient of coupling for
tightly coupled coil is zero
27. C. Magnetic flux
28. C. flux linkage
29. D. the time constant
30. D. all of these
31. B. The magnetic flux ratio linking
the coils
32. C. using grain-oriented silicon
steel
33. B. 0.1 microseconds
34. A. Because all inductors have
resistance which dissipates
power
35. D. 13.5%
36. D. Resonant frequency
37. D. Conductor tensility
38. B. 4
39. A. solenoid
40. C. conductivity
41. D. 314 ohms
42. D. Lenz law
43. C. it always opposes the cause
producing it
44. A. An ac circuit
45. C. 4.48 H
46. D. tends to oppose changes in
current
47. D. all of these
48. A. magnetic flux density
49. D. Hysteresis loss
50. C. core saturation
51. D. Whenever the flux of one
inductor causes an emf to be
induced in another inductor
52. C. exponential law
53. B. 1990 kHz, 2010 kHz
54. C. Flux linkage
55. D. 63.2%
56. A. Faradays law
57. B. current, magnetic field and
direction of force on a
conductor

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58. B. 5
59. C. 33.333 mH
60. B. 90 degrees
61. A. be doubled
62. C.
2
1
LI
2

64. B. tends to oppose the decay of
coil current
65. A. Counter electromotive force
66. D. Zero
67. B. 109 ohms
68. D. flux and current flow
69. C. Increases inductance
70. A. it does not affect the constant
direct current
71. B. 300 mH
72. D. maximum
73. D. Opposes change in current
75. D. five time constants must have
elapsed
76. A. 2.0 henries
77. B. Inertia
78. D. 94 ohms
79. B. Electromotive
80. A. zero
81. A. 0.0015 sec
82. C. It opposes either a rise or a fall
in current
83. B. The left-hand rule for
generators
84. A. Toroid
85. D. conductor
86. A. doubles the reactance
87. C. The collapsing magnetic field
88. B. Leading the current by 90
degrees
89. D. Large diameter coils have more
wire and thus more flux
90. C. 4
91. A. (a) Decrease
(b) by 1/2
92. D.
N
I

93. D.
1
2
L
L

94. D. 18.1 H
95. D. 0.98 H

96. C. inductance characterizes the
magnetic properties of a coil
which are significant for the
value of self-induce voltage
generated due to current
change in the coil
97. A. magnetic field intensity
98. A. They are dislodged from orbit
99. C. Mutual inductance
100. D. To support the windings

Section 4
Capacitor & Capacitance Basic
Quiz 7
1. B. E
0

2. A. 7U
0

3. A. 7Q
0

4. A. 7C
0

5. A. 7C
0

6. C. E
0
/7
7. C. U
0
/7
8. C. V
0
/7
9. D. polarity
10. A. chip
11. D. two plates separated by a
dielectric
12. A. RC
13. C. when the capacitor is fully
charged
14. D. capacitance
15. B. polarized
16. A. Dielectric hysteresis
17. C. electric field around the
capacitor
18. C. dry
19. C. Elastance
20. B. working voltage
21. D. metal plates
22. C. electrolytic
23. D. opposes a change in voltage
24. B. coulomb per volt
25. C. 33 pF
26. C. dielectric
27. C. leakage resistance
28. A. zero
29. C. dc voltage
30. B. capacitance is inversely
proportional to the distance
between the plates
31. C. 4372 picofarad
32. D. all of these
33. D. all of these

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34. A. 0.50 F
35. D. Leads the voltage by 90
degrees
36. B. to bring positive charge of one
coulomb from infinity to that
point
37. C. Dielectric-leakage
38. A. 0.2 sec
39. C. Newtons law of gravitation
40. B. They will distort in the opposite
direction
41. B. block dc and pass ac
42. D. 10.0 picofarad
43. D. Straight lines
44. B. conductor
45. D. Both A and C
46. C. distance between the plates,
dielectric and thickness of the
plates
47. C. Capacitor
48. B. air capacitor
49. C. 550 volts
50. C. 3 kV
51. B. Dielectric-hysteresis
52. C. zero
53. B. Plates
54. A. Reactance
55. A. leads the applied voltage by 90
degrees
56. D. picofarads
57. A. 3 farads
58. B. reduces
59. C. 8
60. C. positive
61. C. cuts the reactance in half
62. D. Decreases
63. D. A capacitor
64. C. Vacuum, air
65. A. Dielectric
66. B. increasing the area of plates
67. B. 2.76 pF
68. A. Tank circuit
69. A. 34 pF
70. D. looks like an open circuit
71. C. Block DC and pass AC current
72. B. the equation for capacitive
reactance
73. B.
12
F
8.854 x 10
m

74. B. Pi-L network
75. A. crystal
76. A. Both cause the storage of energy
77. C. 7.12 MHz
78. D. electrostatic field
79. A. Approximately 1
80. C. Ewald Georg von Kleist
81. C. (a) Attracts them to the
positive charges
(b) Distorts their orbits
82. B. an insulator between two metal
plates in a capacitor
83. B. By their dielectric materials
84. A. Oil
85. C. working voltage
86. D. Thickness of the plates
87. C. 10 F
88. B. Elastance
89. B. The plates are moved closer
together
90. A. (a) Glycerine, (b) Pure water
91. D. high capacitance and low
insulation resistance
92. D. Stores electrical energy
93. A. 200 volts
94. D. Vacuum
95. D. 9.55 ohms
96. C. 1
97. B. reduce the working voltage
98. C. mica
99. D. force
100. B. Willard Boyle and George Smith

Section 5
Transformer Fundamentals
Quiz 8
1. A. The transfer of energy from one
circuit to another through
electromagnetic action
2. D. low iron-loss
3. C. Air core transformer
4. B. the same
5. B. primary winding
6. C. 100 watts
7. C. turn ratio
8. A. variable transformer
9. B. One
10. D. A magnetic shield
11. A. extract moisture of the air
12. D. Air, soft iron, and steel
13. A. Per unit impedance
14. C. hollow-core
15. A. Same at all levels
16. A. Exciting current
17. B. High voltage winding of small
rating transformer

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18. C. the self-induced emf
19. A. 12 V
20. C. Mutual induction
21. A. primary emf
22. B. leakage flux
23. D. 500 watts
24. D. leakage flux
25. C. near full load
26. A. increase output power
27. B. 300
28. B. Using magnetic core of low
reactance
29. C. The secondary induced emf
30. D. red and yellow
31. C. The direction of turns of wire on
the primary and secondary
windings
32. B. mutual inductance,
self-inductance
33. A. the turn ratio is equal to 1
34. C. The size of the transformer will
reduce
35. A. The secondary induced emf
36. C. the turn ratio is greater than 1
37. D. Both A and B
38. B. magnetic circuit
39. A. As low as possible
40. A. volt-amps
41. B. the number of secondary turns
divided by the primary turns
42. A. a step-down transformer
43. D. all of these
44. D. 90 to 98%
45. B. 180
o
out of phase in a
transformer
46. D. all of these
47. C. opposite to the turns ratio
48. A. 60 V
AC

49. B. Primary current is small
50. B. the turn ratio is less than 1
51. B. 60 volt-amps
52. B. increase the output voltage
53. D. kVA
54. C. insulation and cooling
55. D. Air core transformer
56. B. k line voltage ratio =
57. D. step-down type
58. C. Is less than the resistance of its
high voltage side
59. D. Decreasing the thickness of
laminations
60. D. divided, multiplied, the square of
the turns ratio
61. C. Decrease the reluctance of the
magnetic path
62. A. save power
63. A. 40.7 V
64. B. 23 V
65. C. power, power
66. C. Oil-cooling
67. C. voltage
68. C. P
69. A. 1 to 3%
70. A. autotransformer
71. A. Eddy currents heat up the
metal parts
72. D. Isolation transformer
73. D. Without changing power,
frequency or shape
74. C. The primary is connected to the
source: the secondary is
connected to the load
75. A. It has only one winding
76. D. A high-voltage transformer has
more insulation between the
layers of windings than does a
low-voltage transformer
77. A.
s
2
R
k

78. C. continuity
79. B. Power transformer
80. A. 100 V
81. C. Air core
82. C. A step-down transformer
83. C.
2
1
V
V

84. C. Secondary winding
86. A. Not change
87. B. inductor
88. B. Decreases the weight per kVA
89. C. 999.9 V
90. A. about the same
91. C. excitation
92. C. The flux linkage between the
two windings
93. B. low voltage side
94. B. Its value cannot be stepped up
or down by transformer
95. B. increased inductive reactance
96. A. Source current
97. C. Lenzs law
98. B. Eddy
100. D. Low reactance

906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233

Section 6
Cells & Batteries
Quiz 9
1. B. 96, 485 Coulombs/mole
2. A. Avogadro's number times the
electron charge
3. B. the cell voltage times the
number of moles of electrons
transferred times the Faraday
constant
4. C. Faraday constant
5. C. anode, cathode, electrolyte
6. D. all of these
7. A. Zinc container
8. D. more stable in their output
9. A. applying a reverse voltage
10. D. all of these
11. C. In a refrigerated space
12. C. Both A and B above
13. D. all of these
14. D. total voltage increases
15. A. It has a very stable output
voltage
16. D. Connecting the anode and
cathode together without a load
17. B. the current increases; the
voltage increases
18. B. first in series, then in parallel
19. B. 1500 hours
20. A. 8
21. A. 468 x 10
18
electrons per second
22. D. Two electrodes of the same
metal provide the highest
voltage output
23. A. Laws of electrolysis
24. D. All the above
25. B. Alkaline cell
26. B. Secondary
27. C. local action
28. C. Discharging the cells
30. B. Lithium organic
31. D. prevents or slows down local
action
33. C. Emergency equipment batteries
34. B. Electrolyte
35. B. Specific gravity
36. A. Silver-cadmium
37. A. 1
38. C. I, II, and III
39. B. types of plates and electrolyte
40. D. The secondary cell can be
recharged by passing current
through it in the proper
direction
41. B. amalgamating the electrode
with mercury
42. B. Check the technical manual for
information on the specific
type of battery
43. C. Silver-zinc cell
44. C. Enough so the float will rise
without entering the suction
bulb
45. D. increase in current capacity
46. D. chemical action to electrical
energy
47. B. 8.4 V
48. B. chemical means
49. B. 6
50. B. local action and polarization
51. B. 1270
52. C. Fresh water
53. C. 1.5 V
54. B. Primary
55. B. Magnesium cell
56. A. Distilled water
57. B. Silver-zinc
58. D.
nE
i
R nr
=
+

59. C. Buckling
60. D. increase the current capacity
61. D. Terminals should be electrically
connected together before
transporting a battery
62. C. Flush with fresh water
63. B. A carbon zinc cell has unlimited
shelf life
64. C. increase voltage output
65. B. Cell
66. D. It converts the produced
hydrogen into water
68. B. Manganese dioxide
69. A. 6.85 hours
70. D. can be recharged
71. B. 200 hr
72. A.
r
n
E
R +

73. D. Primary cell

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906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
74. B. lead, lead peroxide and dilute
sulphuric acid
75. C. The NiCd cell is primary type
76. A. it is rechargeable
77. D. Battery charge
78. D. short time and can be
recharged
79. C. Dry cell
80. A. 15 amperes
81. C. charging an accumulator
82. C. Increases voltage supply
83. C. the terminal voltage and
strength of the electrolyte
84. C. Selenium cells
85. A. 1.15
86. C. Self discharge
87. C. Normal
88. D. nickel cadmium batteries
89. D. Type D
90. A. Decrease the charging rate
91. C. sulphuric acid to water
92. B. Primary cells
93. B. Steady gassing
94. B. 1866
95. D. the area of the plates
96. A. 8
97. C. 6 amperes for 10 hours
98. B. Negative and positive ions
99. A. keep the electrolyte level low
100. D. 4.2 V

Section 7
DC Electrical Concepts
Quiz 10
1. B. attraction, negative
2. D. Mechanical
3. D. larger than the largest resistor
current
4. B. it is not possible to disconnect
the power
5. A. Shorted fuse
6. D. Zero current through it
7. D. Five
8. C. a person to seize the line and
not be able to let go
9. D. (a) Decreases
(b) increases
10. A. the heart to go into fibrillation
11. C. Trip free
12. D. Armature
13. B. plastic
14. C. The armature resistance
15. B. aluminum
16. B. A burnishing tool
17. B. A small internal resistance
18. C. E
T
= E
R1
= E
R2
... = E
Rn
.
19. D. energized
20. D. (a) Decreases
(b) increases
21. B. silicon
22. C. P
T

23. C. Place your finger on the cover
and feel the relay contact
movement
24. C. greater than the largest
resistor
25. D. zero temperature coefficient
26. B. Locked-out
27. D. An amount determined by the
combined resistance of the
remaining branches
28. D. voltage, resistance and current
29. B. Is constant
30. B. The current of the source
31. C. inductor
32. D. capacitor
33. B. fuse
34. B. Rheostat
35. D. (a) Increase
(b) decrease
36. C. voltage divider
37. C. Microswitch
38. C. stability
39. B. Zero voltage across it
40. C. A light switch
41. B. a short circuit
42. D. Toggle
43. B. from, into
44. B. Is constant
45. D. Maximum
46. B. An ignition switch on a motor
vehicle
47. B. The current will drop to 10% of
its original value
48. A. A multicontact switch
49. D. unaffected
50. D. Less than 10 ohm
51. C. add
52. D. ground between two of the
dividing resistors
53. C. troubleshooting

906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
54. A. less than
55. C. grounded
56. D. divide watts by 746
57. C. Yellow
58. B. 3
59. B. Second approximation
60. D. Locked-in
61. B. Coulomb's
62. B. voltage
63. D. Maximum
64. D. The electron theory
65. C. (a) Decrease
(b) increase
66. A. logical, systematic
67. B. Infinite internal resistance
68. D. resistive
69. C. signal tracing
70. C. A coil attracts a soft iron core
when current flows in the coil
71. C. desoldering
72. D. Two
73. D. A starter for a motor vehicle
74. B. R
2
has opened
75. B. Power
76. D. R
2
has shorted
77. D. current
78. A. Three
79. B. current probe
80. A. Momentary
81. D. R
3
has opened
82. A. It is leaving a junction
83. A. Ideal approximation
84. A. BTU
85. A. as few
86. D. everywhere the same
87. A. addition
88. B. Voltage drop
89. C. 50%
90. A. amperage
91. B. Equivalent resistor
92. C. times
93. C. older
94. A. Equal
95. D. A and C
96. C. To isolate a faulty circuit
without affecting other circuits
97. C. Be sure to "tag out" the
fuseholder when you remove
the fuse
98. D. A large internal resistance
99. D. Nontrip free
100. C. A point bender
Section 7
DC Electrical Concepts
Quiz 11
1. C. The equivalent resistance is
smaller than 4 k
2. C. A reciprocal relationship
3. C. less than the smallest
resistance
4. B. The resistance value changes
with age
5. C. equal to the sum of the
individual resistances
6. C. decrease, increase
7. C. Wirewound resistor
8. D. 7.07 V
9. D. The power level is quadrupled
10. A. All of the points on a voltage
node are at the same potential
11. B. 4
12. A. 58.1 V
p

13. B. Size
14. B. at the source with total current
15. C. The maximum current that will
flow through a fuse without
opening the fuse
16. B. The current doubles
17. B. uses current flowing through its
coil to actuate electric contacts
18. D. adding
19. B. Secure the circuit immediately
by removing power at the
nearest switch
20. C. resistive
21. D. branch
22. C. ohm
23. C. To adjust the power level of a
device
24. C. is the same for every resistor in
the circuit, regardless of the
selection of resistor values
25. C. Direct short
26. D. The maximum voltage across a
fuse that will not jump the
open fuse
27. B. transmissive and reflective
28. C. +15 V, -9 V
29. B. A voltage source
30. D. parallel block
31. D. Aluminum
32. B. the rate energy is used over
time
33. D. 41 V
p


6-17
906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
34. B. conductors
35. A. Copper
36. D. undergoes an electrical change in
response to a physical change
37. D. rotary
38. A. Cross-sectional area is
decreased, length is increased
39. C. smaller than the smallest
resistor
40. A. parallel with each other
41. A. Zero
42. B. P1820.5
43. A. 3 V
44. B. (a) Two (b) three
45. D. the largest resistor
46. B. (a) Increases
(b) decreases
47. A. heat
48. D. no branches exist
49. B. R
T

50. B. 7.46 kWh
51. D. Electric charge
52. D. A voltmeter check of the fuse
53. B. 0 V
54. D. all of the above
55. A. Electric potential
56. D. High resistance
57. B. low-voltage direct current
58. B. Use an ohmmeter and place a
resistor in series with the fuse
59. A. increase, increase
60. D. 5.7 , 27.7 W
61. D. Electric current
62. C. A fusepuller
63. C. electric charge
64. B. Put the fuse back in the circuit
65. B. coulomb
66. A. William Gilbert
67. D. tingling sensation
68. C. 15 V
69. D. Negative
70. A. Can't let go
71. A. Negative
72. C. defibrillation
73. C. summed together to find E
T

74. C. divide the total of R
1
times R
2

by the total of R
1
plus R
2

75. B. IV, II, III, I
76. A. can be different for each
resistor
77. A. (a) Equals
(b) divides
78. C. is the same for every resistor in
the circuit, regardless of the
selection of resistor values
79. D. Input power voltage
80. B. the largest amount of current
81. B. Open
82. B. 1286 mW
83. C. 831 mW
84. D. (a) Becomes infinite
(b) Decreases to zero
85. B. Ventricular fibrillation
86. B. Excessive current
87. B. 2400 mW
88. A. Fuses and circuit breakers
89. C. Stephen Gray
90. D. mascular inhibition
91. A. Abnormal heating
92. C. it is the sum of the branch
current
93. D. In series
94. B. 1/R
T
= 1/R
1
+ 1/R
2
... + 1/R
n

95. C. Zero internal resistance
96. D. Electrons moving from
negative to positive
97. A. less than any resistor
98. C. The current is cut in half
99. C. There is an error and you
should recheck your
measurements

Section 8
Electrical Laws & Theorems
Quiz 12
1. A. around any closed path equals
zero
2. D. entering and leaving any point
equals zero
3. D. Peltier effect
4. A. node
5. B. Davisson-Germer experiment
6. D. Faraday's law
7. B. Thevenizing the circuit
8. C. Nortons
9. B. Thvenins
10. A. Stefan-Boltzmann law
11. A. the superposition
12. C. Millmans theorem
13. A. Faraday's law
14. C. AC as well as DC circuits
15. B. Their internal impedance

906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
17. C. a 1.33-mA source and a 3-k
resistance in parallel
18. A. Stokes' law
19. B. Fermat's principle
20. C. AC as well as DC circuits
21. A. short R
L
, determine I
L
, make
I
L
= I
N

22. B. Internal conductance
23. C. changes by the reciprocal ratio
24. B. a 15.3-V source in series with a
5.1-k resistance
25. B. changes by the same ratio
26. C. Loop
27. C. multiple current and/or voltage
sources
28. D. current source and a shunt
resistor
29. B. Has zero internal resistance
30. D. A and C are correct
31. A. Ideal current source
32. B. Bilateral network
33. C. Current source is a passive
element
34. C. Nortonizing the circuit
36. B. Joule's law
37. D. Both A and B
38. B. Laplace
39. D. an open circuit
40. D. Ideal voltage source is one
whose internal conductance is
zero
41. C. Neumans law
42. D. Norton's theorem
43. D. Law of electrostatic attraction
44. C. Ampere's law
45. C. BCS (Bardeen, Cooper,
Schrieffer) theory
46. D. Biot-Savart law
47. B. Millmans theorem
48. D. Child's law
49. C. Heater coil
50. B. emf E
1
and internal impedance
Z
1

51. C. a short circuit
52. B. All independent voltage
sources are short circuited and
all independent current sources
are open circuited
53. A. Faraday's first law of
electromagnetic induction
54. B. Thevenin equivalent resistance
is calculated when all voltage
sources are open circuited
55. D. sum of the total currents
flowing out of a junction equals
the sum of the total currents
flowing into that junction
56. D. current
57. C. efficiency is 100%
58. A. Nortons equivalent is the
voltage equivalent of the
network
59. A. efficiency is greater than 50%
60. C. To find dc level in a network
that has both sources
61. D. Infinity
62. B. Faraday's second law of
63. B. A constant current source and
impedance in parallel
64. A. 10 sec, 0.985 V
65. A. E
th

= I
n
Z
th
= I
n
Z
n

66. C. 69.3 ms
67. C. short all voltage and current
source
68. C. Both A and B
69. C. open R
L
, determine V
L
, make
V
L
= V
TH

70. A. Nortons theorem
71. A. voltage source and a series
resistor
72. C. Sources
73. C. Faraday's third law of
74. D. Must be equal to load
impedance
75. B. Reduced by 1/3
76. B.
4R
2
V

77. A. Linear responses only
78. D. Ohms law
79. D. Jacob's law
80. C. Ampere's law
81. B. -9 V
82. C. Kirchhoff's current law
83. A. Gausss law
84. A. Generators are not present
85. D. Amperes law
86. B. Brewster's law
87. C. Coulomb's first law
88. B. Faradays law
89. C. Coulomb's second law
90. C. Michael Faraday

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906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
91. B. Thevenin's theorem
92. B. Grosh's law
93. A. Passive network only
94. A. Kirchhoff's voltage law
95. A. individual, combinations of
96. B. Rayleigh's law
97. D. A or B
98. A. Its zero internal impedance
99. A. Faraday's first law of electrolysis
100. B. Faraday's second law of
electrolysis

Section 10
AC Electrical Concepts
Quiz 13
1. D. e
2
lags e
1
by
2. A. The voltage or current
associated with the resistive
component
3. D. instantaneous value
4. B. 1500 VAR
5. B. The voltage or current
associated with the reactive
component
6. D. 1
7. C. kVAR
8. D. It is equivalent to a pure
resistance
9. D. 1
10. A. 74.317.77
11. B. AC is reversing direction
12. A. period
13. D. 1400 times
14. B. frequency
15. D. 12 V
16. A. Reduction in power losses
17. A. frequency
18. C. 400 watts
19. B. high power factor
20. C. one half the resistance of one
wire
21. A. Effective value
22. B. resistance
23. B. preventing short circuit
between two conducting wires
24. C. 0.6
25. D. be decreased
26. B. rectangular form
27. D. Volt-coulomb
28. B. polarity, direction
29. D. pulsating direct current
30. C. speed, direction
31. B. cosine
32. B. 1.414
33. A. 90 degrees out of
34. D. period
35. B. rms value/average value
36. B. infinity
37. A. Series
38. D. equal impedance
39. B. Square wave
40. D. equal to generators internal
resistance
41. B. Zero
42. B. j2
43. C. never
44. C. Zero
45. B. 2.5 ohms
46. D. Resistance to impedance
47. D. 2.5 ohms
48. A. rms
49. B. Circuit-control devices
50. B. Sine
51. B. 19.98 V
52. A. -1
53. C. bias
54. B. Unity
55. C. along the surface
56. D. 90sin((t-71.5)
57. D. Resonant
58. B. purely resistive
59. C. current varies directly as the
voltage and inversely as the
resistance
60. C. Draw more current
61. C. 34.98 V
62. D. Wavelength
63. B. current lags voltage
64. D. coupling
65. B. difference between the two
reactances
66. A. frequency
67. A. Open circuit
68. B. Active current to line current
69. C. 66.6 ohms
70. D. Watts to volt ampere
71. C. 200 V
72. D. Increase two-fold
73. C. 100 V, 100 Hz
74. D. 550 ohms
75. C. Always leading
76. B. resistance
77. C. Breakdown voltage

906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
78. B. increases, decreases
79. B. real power
80. B. is the square root of a negative
number
81. D. 5.455 A
82. D. complex number
83. A. Fuse
84. B. counterclockwise 90
85. A. 3.50 hp
86. B. Impedance to resistance
87. A. 360 degrees
88. B. positive temperature coefficient
89. A. Effective value
90. B. piezoelectric, piezoelectric
91. C. in
92. A. The switch contacts return to
their normal rest position
93. D. reactive
94. C. true
95. D. 1.25 watts
96. C. Voltage divider
97. D. 42.4sin(50t)
98. D. 2238 watts
99. D. infinite
100. B. A connection point between
two or more conductors

Section 10
AC Electrical Concepts
Quiz 14
1. C. 180
2. B. 2.51 ms
3. B. Resistance
4. D. the voltage is the same in value
and phase throughout the
circuit
5. C. One circular mil
6. D. 2 watts
7. A. y = b
x

8. A. zero
9. B. One wire is at ground voltage;
the voltage on the other wire
goes alternately positive and
negative (compared to ground)
10. D. y = b
-x

11. D. Reactive power
12. A. There are three AC voltages,
phased 120 degrees apart on
three or four wires
13. A. It would double
14. A. V
dc
= 5.3 V, V
rms
= 8.39 V
15. B. 14.5 mA
16. B. To decrease the reactive power
17. A. 39067 ohms
18. B. 25,300 ohms
19. D. 8,301 ohms
20. B. f = np
21. B. 72.0 volts
22. C. Load
23. D. is in phase with
24. B. AC can be readily stepped up or
down
25. C. larger than R
26. D. V
27. C. 0 V
28. A. the voltage leads the current by
90 degrees
29. B. Application to AC circuit having
its impedance used in place of
resistance
30. C. Touching a high voltage with
one hand, and "ground" with
the other
31. A. dc to ac
32. C. turn on and off 120 times per
second
33. D. 0.25 ohms
34. A. peak value
35. D. spectrum analyzer
36. D. All nodes in the circuit
37. D. A or B
38. A. 0 volts
39. A. ripple
40. A. average
41. B. Effective current
42. A. Joule
43. D. A resistor placed in series with
the load
44. C. 240 cycles
45. C. amplitude and direction
46. D. Potential energy
47. D. current flow
48. A. reactive power
49. B. 1.92
50. A. Never mix values
51. C. ratio
52. C. Toggle switch
53. C. R, X
L

54. A. Two
55. C. is in phase with
56. A. A voltage that opposes the
applied EMF
57. D. A magnetic field
58. B. 40 ohms
60. C. Amplitude versus time

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906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
61. D. The rms voltage is always greater
than the average voltage
62. C. leads
63. B. Two
65. D. Peak value
66. A. smaller
67. A. Excessive heat condition
68. D. increases, decreases
69. C. Instantaneous value
70. C. switch
71. A. the resistor is open or the
capacitor is shorted
72. D. Sine waves in phase
73. C. purely resistive
74. D. the magnetic field, the coil, the
slip rings
75. A. the effective value
76. C. triangular waves use
out-of-phase harmonics
77. D. Volt ampere
78. A. multiples of the fundamental
frequency
79. B. effective value
80. D. 1.11
81. D. the resistance value
82. D. all of these
83. A. Decreased
84. B. the impedance is more
inductive
85. A. 1.274 A
86. A. effective value
87. C. 54.9 ohms
88. C. 660 watts
89. B. linear
90. C. 6.95 A
91. B. Linear circuit
92. C. 141.4 ohms
93. C. current flow
94. A. peak to peak value
95. C. 0 out of phase
96. A. 6.5 A
97. D. lags voltage by 90
98. B. Effective voltage
99. C. Resistors dissipate energy as
heat, capacitors store energy in
an electric field, and inductors
store energy in a magnetic field
100. D. 187 ohms

Section 11
RLC Circuits & Resonance
Quiz 15
1. A. 0.136
2. D. all of these
3. B. equal
4. A. Current high, impedance low
5. C. inductor, resistor
6. B. the voltage lags the current by
90 degrees
7. C. When the inductive and
capacitive reactances are equal
8. A. 478 kHz
9. C. X
C
varies inversely with
frequency
10. C. at the resonant frequency
11. B.

2
2
1
1 R
2
LC
2L

12. B. 63%
13. C. 100 -37 V
14. D. 47.3 kHz
15. C. wide bandwidth
16. B. resistance, impedance
17. B. resonance
18. B. 1
19. D. 10.1 MHz
20. A. 200 V
21. A. halved
22. C. the voltage across L and
C >applied voltage
23. D. 0.027 F
24. B. maximum, minimum
25. B. 50 kHz
26. B. The matching network can
cancel the reactive part of an
impedance and change the
value of the resistive part of an
impedance
27. C. total circuit voltage
28. C. current, total voltage
29. D. 1868 ohms
30. C. 0, 1
31. B. 10.3 MHz
32. B.
( )

2
1
RC
2 LC
2

33. B. apparent
34. B. seconds
35. A. 14.5 MHz

906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
36. D. inductive
38. C. Wattles, non-productive power
39. C.
2 1
1 0
f f
f f

40. D. maximum
41. A. minimum
42. C. resistive
43. D. decrease in bandwidth in series
circuit and decrease in parallel
circuit
44. C. 3.56 MHz
45. D. series circuit is capacitive and
parallel circuit is inductive
46. B. decreases
47. B. V
R
, V
L

48. B. Determined solely by the dc
resistance
49. C. maximum in series circuit and
minimum in parallel circuit
50. D. The current circulating in the
parallel elements is at a minimum
51. A. minimum
52. B. arctan X
L
/R
53. D. changes in stored energy in
inductance and capacitance
54. D. Resonance
55. C. maximum
56. C. negative, positive
57. D. high resonant frequency
58. B. The frequency at which
capacitive reactance equals
inductive reactances
59. B. leads , between 0 and 90
60. C. 1536 ohms
61. D. inductive
62. A. lags
63. C. Tank circuit
64. D. maximum, unity
65. D. ( ) +
2
2
L C
R X X
66. C. capacitive
67. C. Higher
68. A. voltage, resistor voltage
69. B. 18.9 kHz
70. D. resistance, impedance
71. B. 57,019 ohms
72. B. inductive voltage, total voltage
73. C. 23.7 MHz
74. C.
2
2
1 1 R
2 LC
L

75. C. 16.5 kHz
76. B. Decreased capacitance
77. C. impedance, resistance
78. C. 14.5 MHz
79. C. X
L
-X
C

80. D. The resonant frequency cannot
be easily changed
81. B. leads , between 0 and 90
82. C. greater accuracy and stability
83. A. down, impedance
84. A. 144 seconds
85. D.
1
R
cos
Z
or
1 L
X
sin
Z
or

1 L
X
tan
R

86. C. capacitive
87. B. 18.4 MHz
88. A. 29.1 MHz
89. D. all of these
90. B. decreases
91. A. lags, 90
92. A. inductor voltage leads current
93. B. lags
94. C. it is at a maximum
95. C. 5 V
96. A. always, resonant, X
L
=X
C

97. D. power factor
98. B. 90 degrees out of
99. A.
1
2 LC

100. C. leads voltage by 90

Section 12
AC & DC Generators
Quiz 16
1. C. Flux and speed
2. B. pulsating dc
3. C. Prime mover
4. D. Both A and B
5. C. Interpoles and compensating
windings
6. C. design of the armature winding
7. B. Laminating the iron in the core
8. B. speed
c
R
9. B. Dynamotor
10. B.
a a
E=V+I R
11. B. interpoles

6-23
906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
12. D. I, II, and III
13. D. 0.100
14. C. it reverses the direction of current
flow
15. D. By varying the voltage applied to
the electromagnetic field coils
16. D. Both A and B
17. C. dynamo
18. D. Hippolyte Pixii
19. B. Separately excited generator
20. A. relative motion between the field
and the armature coils
21. C. When there is improper
commutation
22. C. series, series
23. C. the direction of the end
connection
24. B. the rated-load voltage is greater
than the no-load voltage
25. A. resultant pitch
26. B. The commutator
27. A. to increase the speed of rotation
28. A. 1% regulation
29. B. electric charge
30. C. Hysteresis loss
31. A. voltage over a narrow load range
32. D. Serve as power amplifier
33. C. self excited
34. C. the rated-load voltage is less than
the no-load voltage
35. D. A or C
36. A. Armature reaction
37. C.
2 x #
#
of conductors
N=
of poles

38. D. Multiple coil armature
39. B. long shunt
40. B. Compound-wound
41. D. copper loss
42. D. Elementary generator
43. B. 100%
44. B.
Z P
A
N
E=
60

45. D. Flux lines are not being cut
46. C. rate of change of flux is
maximum
47. D. Series-wound
48. B. winding pitch
49. B. Multi pole generator
50. C. self excited generator
51. D. High-current
52. B. parallel with the field
53. B. Field excitation
54. C. low voltage, high current
55. C. Alternating current
56. D. remains the same
57. A. The output voltage varies as
the load current varies
58. B. commutator
59. D. Rotating field and rotating
armature
60. A. Self excited generator
61. D. 85-95%
62. D. Direction of current flow
63. B. demagnetizing effect of
armature reaction
64. C. Lap-wound
65. B. shunt generator
66. A. Shunt-wound
67. B. shunt generator
68. D. Armature reaction
69. D. Both B and C
70. C. The armature
71. D. Alternator
72. A. Voltage regulation
73. B. 0%
74. B. using commutator with large
number of segments
75. B. Flux and speed
76. B. magnetic neutral axis (MNA)
77. B. Parallel
78. C. saturation of iron
79. B. heat-treated silicon steel
laminations
80. C. compound generators
81. A. Lap-wound and Wave- wound
82. C. alternator
83. A. the rated load voltage is the
same as the no-load voltage
84. C. neutralize cross-field of
armature reaction and obtain
ideal commutation
85. C. provide dc field excitation
86. D. Left-hand rule
87. C. 90
88. D. Amplidyne
89. A. reduce eddy current loss
90. D. Slip rings
91. A. crowded, weaken
92. B. Motor reaction
93. C. shunt generator
94. C. Parallel operation
95. C. Magnetic induction
96. B.
m
o
AT =ZI x
2

97. C. Slip rings

906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
98. B. current which is getting reversed
99. B. Prime mover
100. C. brush loss

Section 13
AC & DC Motors
Quiz 17
1. B. A wire with a current exerts a
force when in the presence of a
magnetic field
2. A. Constant speed
3. D. Armature reaction
4. C. Direction of flux north to south
5. B. 6
6. C. 90
o

7. A. Drum wound armature
8. D. An internal self-generated
voltage, proportional to speed,
that subtracts from the applied
voltage
9. C. Universal
10. A. Voltage regulation
11. C. High no-load speed, high stall
torque
12. A. To limit armature current
13. A. Motor
14. C. series motor
15. C. 600 rpm
16. D. Can use slip rings in place of
brushes
17. C. 2
18. A. The polarity of armature current
and direction of magnetic flux
19. B. f ' Sf =
20. A. Motor is driven with voltage dc
voltage. As the voltage is
increased, the torque increases
21. B.
2
T V
22. A. The armature and the field
23. C. Increased field voltage
24. B. Single-phase induction
25. B. Increases the torque and
decreases the current due to
increase impedance
26. B. The motor is driven with
repetitive pulses. As the pulse
width increases, the torque
increases (the frequency stays
the same)
27. D. Synchronous
28. B.
s
120f '
N N
P
=
29. A. the angle between the rotating
stator flux and rotor poles
30. B. Generator action
31. A. Reverse the polarity of the
motor wires
32. A. the force required to accelerate
the rotor to the synchronous
speed in an instant is absent
33. A. Motor set
34. B. The mechanical device the
motor moves
35. C. It allows a dc motor to be
powered by an ac power source
36. B. A shunt motor maintains a
more constant speed under
varying load conditions than a
series motor
37. C. Rotor runs at a speed which is
always lesser than the speed of
the stator field
38. A. remove the stator winding and
turn it around
39. C. 75
40. A.
s
s
N N
%slip x 100%
N
=
41. A. Temporarily connecting the
motor wires to a resistor for
braking
42. B. increases to 2x the original
value
43. B. Induction motor
44. B. Nikola Tesla
45. B. both supply voltage and
frequency simultaneously
46. A. Decreases with increase in load
47. B. Has no brushes; power is
electronically switched to the
field coils
48. A. The "normal" force pressing the
materials together
49. C. The synchronous speed
50. C. The number of poles and the
speed of rotation
51. B. 5
52. A. The armature speeds out of
control
53. B. two
54. C. 1800
55. D. hot-wire relay
56. B. The object will accelerate at a
constant rate

6-25
906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
57. B.
s
120f
N
P
=
58. C. How much "twisting force" is
being applied
59. C. The total amount of energy
remains the same
60. A. Steady load, high torque
61. B. Rotating magnetic field
62. D. The system is underdamped
64. A. It is vibrated at a frequency at its
resonate frequency
65. C. The rotor by shifting its phase
backward causes motor to take
more current
66. B. Shaft
67. A. It causes the speed to decrease
68. B. Very small starting torque
69. A. 300 rpm
70. B. Slower than the synchronous
speed
71. D. To disconnect the power coming
from one rotating shaft to another
shaft
72. A. In the direction of rotation
73. C. The AC goes to the rotor and sets
up a "rotating field". The stator
gets power for its magnetic field
through induction
74. B. Slip rings
75. C. armature current
76. A. To provide some phase shift for
the start winding, so the motor
can start
77. D. 8 poles
78. C. It decreases
79. C. It is self-starting
80. A. Slip ring
81. B. By reversing either the
armature connections or the
field connections
82. B. Runs without any "slip"
83. C. It can run on AC or DC
84. B. Synchronous motor
85. D. The START button seals on a
relay that closes the motor
contacts, the STOP
button breaks the seal and
de-activates the relay
86. A. Universal motors
87. B. To vary the frequency and
voltage in a coordinated
manner
88. A. The motor stops
89. B. An actuator that creates a force
by the principle of advancing a
"nut" on a rotating threaded
shaft
90. D. Rotor speed is either less or
more than synchronous speed
91. A. 59.5%
92. A. The electric is slower and
weaker than the hydraulic
actuator
93. B. An electro-magnetic powered
short-stroke linear actuator
94. A. Series motor
95. D. applied voltage
96. D. Sequentially energized
electro-magnets
97. A. the motor will stop
98. D. Prime mover
99. D. Rotating-field
100. D. Zero

Section 1
Semiconductor Physics
Quiz 18
1. D. Gallium
2. D. Zero
3. C. The characteristic curve graph
of the diode
4. D. An insulator
5. D. negative to positive
6. D. Increasing battery voltage
7. D. Electron
8. A. the doping level
9. B. Electrons
10. B. 1N563
11. C. Thermal energy

906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
12. B. The diffusion of electrons and
holes moving across the junction
into the two materials
13. D. Silicon and germanium
14. B. +1
15. A. depletion region
16. C. unipolar
17. A. Troubleshooting
18. D. reverse junction breakdown
19. A. linearly
20. A. Forward
21. A. negative ion
22. B. conduction electrons
23. D. Majority
24. C. Extrinsic
25. A. minority carriers that are
thermally produced
26. D. answer A, B and C
27. D. The electrons will tend to move
towards the positive terminal and
the holes towards the negative
terminal
28. C. Atoms
29. B. the boundary of a p-type and an
n-type material
30. D. Crystal
31. A. thermal runaway
32. B. Crystal
33. C. Insulator
34. C. an electron falls into a hole
35. A. When reverse bias exceeds the
limiting value
36. D. answer A, B and C
37. A. It is shorted
38. D. 50 V
39. B. Forbidden band
40. D. answer B or C
41. D. Electrons
42. A. Covalent bond
43. A. The separation between the
conduction and valence bands
44. B. Pentavalent
45. A. majority carriers
46. C. (a) Semiconductor
(b) Valence band
47. C. reverse-biased, breakdown
voltage
48. D. answers A, B and C
49. A. protons and electrons
50. A. A few free electrons and holes
51. D. Electron
52. B. Increases
53. C. free electron current and hole
current
54. B. Right
55. B. valence electrons, hole, hole
56. A. 1
57. A. majority, p-type, holes
58. A. biasing
59. C. 8
60. A. Neutral
61. C. in the most distant orbit from
the nucleus
62. A. atoms, symmetrical pattern,
crystal
63. B. Recombination
64. C. a valence electron breaks away
from the atom
65. B. 0.7 V
66. A. acceptor atoms
68. B. valence band, atom
69. B. 0.82 eV
70. B. increase in level
71. D. 0.265 eV
72. A. band gap
73. B. Barrier potential
74. D. holes
75. A. Alloy Junction
76. B. eight valence electrons
because all are with other
atoms
77. B. Peak forward current
78. C. It is the point at which
rectification takes place
79. A. 0
80. B. increase
81. C. N-type only
82. D. answer B and C
83. A. 0
84. A. a dc voltage is applied to
control the operation of a
device
85. B. 0.23 ohm
86. C. Opto electronics
87. A. Load resistance is low
88. B. a unique type of atom
89. C. minority
90. A. Hole
91. D. answer A and C
92. D. minority
93. A. avalanche
94. D. Electrons are drawn to the grid
and do not reach the plate
95. D. must be greater than 0.7 V
96. B. neutral
97. D. none of these
98. D. 0.265 eV

6-27
906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
99. D. P type
100. D. A dynamic electrical check with a
diode test set

Section 1
Semiconductor Physics
Quiz 19
1. B. doping
2. D. No holes or free electrons
3. C. shells, electrons
4. D. a p-type semiconductor
5. A. Positive ions
6. C. Collision
7. C. 3
8. A. silicon
9. D. p-type, 3
10. C. Reverse current
11. C. conducts current
12. C. Ionization
13. D. extrinsic
14. A. the diode barrier potential
15. B. majority
16. D. Breakdown voltage
17. B. donor atoms
18. C. Surface-leakage current
19. A. increase the number of free
electrons
20. C. 0.7 V
21. C. covalent bond
22. B. electron and proton
23. C. may not be equal to the number
of protons
24. D. Zero
25. B. electron-hole pair
26. D. all of these
27. B. 0.82 eV
28. A. positive, negatively, uncharged
29. D. Positive charges
30. C. valence band, valence electrons
31. D. P-type material
32. A. I and IV only
33. C. donor atoms
34. D. 4.3 V
35. A. conduction
36. B. intrinsic
37. A. 0.555 eV
38. C. 0.7 V
39. B. Depletion region
40. A. Very small
41. B. an equal number of mobile and
ionic charges
42. B. Becomes larger
43. B. Ionization
44. D. the depletion region
45. C. 0.335 eV
46. C. Semiconductor
47. D. The depletion layer
48. A. barrier potential
49. B. electrons, nucleus
50. C. a negative voltage source
connected to N-material
51. C. protons and neutrons
52. A. 1,800 times
53. C. pentavalent materials
54. D. 5
55. B. Because they pass AC and
block DC
56. A. Electron
57. D. protons, atomic number
58. C. Reverse current
59. B. The breaking of covalent bonds
61. A. doping
62. C. changing AC to DC
63. B. minority, n-type, holes
64. C. Intrinsic
65. C. energy
66. A. V-I characteristic curve
67. C. Recombination
68. A. proton and neutrons
69. A. 1 watt of less
70. A. 32
71. B. n-type, 5
72. C. ionization
73. A. Acceptor atoms
74. B. holes
75. B. Electron
76. D. neutrons, electrons, and
protons
77. D. proton
78. D. free
79. B. conduction band
80. C. n-type
81. C. Light emitting diode
82. B. thermal energy
83. D. all of these
84. A. Solid state device
85. C. More than 1 billion
86. D. (a) 300:1 (b) 10:1
87. C. the current is produced by both
holes and electrons
88. D. majority, n-type, free electrons
89. B. Right
90. C. Valence band

906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
91. D. gold
92. B. there is very small current due
to minority carriers
93. A. Equals the number of holes
94. B. Photoconduction
95. C. both electrons and holes
96. C. Only those produced by thermal
energy
97. C. minority, p-type, free electrons
98. C. Rectifier
99. D. Trivalent
100. A. 2.63 W

Section 2
Diode Circuits Applications
Quiz 20
1. D. is intended to operate in reverse
bias
2. A. Decrease
3. B. Within 1%
4. D. Answer A and B
5. C. there is an open diode
6. C. The rectifier will conduct during
both halves of the input cycle
7. D. It is approximately constant
9. B. more positive than the anode
10. A. Half wave rectified signal
11. B. It is a constant-voltage device
12. A. Towards the cathode
13. B. I, III and V
14. B. The junction temperature
15. B. Schottky diode
16. C. 180
17. B. One
18. B. zener breakdown
19. B. IR LED
20. B. Has a constant voltage in the
breakdown region
21. B. Rectification
22. B. 3 V
23. B. Percent of regulation
24. B. That the diodes will conduct
during both halves of the input
cycle
25. C. 10
26. A. 60 cps
27. A. I, II and III
28. A. 0.094
29. D. variable capacitor
30. A. Small
31. D. Voltage regulator
32. B. It will increase
33. A. 20
34. A. 420
35. B. 0%
36. C. Increases
37. D. the outermost shell
38. D. 0%
39. C. Zener resistance
40. B. a variable capacitance that
depends on reverse voltage
41. D. FWR
42. C. Avalanche breakdown
43. D. 100 V
44. B. when the P material is
connected to the positive side
of the power supply and the N
material is connected to the
negative side of the power
supply
45. C. Voltage regulator
47. A. 2.4 volts to 200 volts
48. D. Bridge and Center-tapped
49. C. Diode characteristic
50. B. Optocoupler
51. D. Tunnel diode
52. B. , one
53. A. emits light when
forward-biased
54. C. Operating in the breakdown
region
55. C. Current regulation
56. A. Series current
57. D. Forward bias
58. A. produces light with longer
wavelength
59. D. a shorted diode
60. A. Junction and point contact
61. D. Breakdown voltage
62. D. 91%
63. C. To protect the relay from high
voltage transients when
magnetic field collapses
64. C. An action where the minority
carriers tunnel across the
junction to form the current
that occurs at breakdown
65. A. Decreases
66. B. A shunt regulator
67. A. , peak output voltage
68. D. Forward bias

6-29
906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
69. C. using a center-tapped
transformer, a full-wave bridge
rectifier, and a center tapped
load resistor
70. C. clamper
71. A. Zener acts like a short circuit
72. B. The voltage across the diode
remains almost constant after
breakdown
73. B. decrease with light intensity when
forward-biased
74. B. Stays the same
75. B. 0.82 %
76. A. tunnel diode
77. B. The energy difference across the
forbidden gap
78. A. (a) Narrow (b) wide
79. C. Load current
80. C. the axial lead
81. D. decrease
82. A. 0.7 V
83. B. 1,000:10,000,000
84. D. reverse bias breakdown mode
85. C. I, III, IV, and V
86. C. It decreases
87. D. Charge storage
88. D. in series with both the input and
the load
89. A. Decreases
90. A. almost maximum value
91. C. Maximum zener current rating
92. B. I, II and IV
93. B. maximum power dissipation
94. D. As a tuning device
95. D. All segments must be on
96. C. it provides a high degree of
electrical isolation
97. D. all of these
98. A. line regulation
99. B. PIV
100. B. load regulation

Section 2
Diode Circuits Applications
Quiz 21
1. C. 180 degrees
2. D. 63.7 V
3. C. 180
4. A. A zener diode
5. A. connecting an opposite
temperature coefficient diode in
series with forward biasing
6. A. 60 Hz
7. D. tunnel diode
8. C. twice the peak output voltage
9. B. PIN diode
10. D. 35.4 V
11. D. all of these
12. C. as an RF detector
13. B. Full-wave signal
14. A. when it is forward biased
15. B. a series resistor
16. C. 14.1 V
17. C. Its internal capacitance varies
with the applied voltage
18. B. 9.3 V
19. C. Maximum and minimum input
voltage, minimum output
current and maximum output
voltage
20. D. all of these
21. D. 1.7 volts and 20 mA
22. A. capacitor, reverse biased,
variable resistor, forward
biased
23. B. Collision
24. D. 47.8 V
25. C. A constant voltage under
conditions of varying current
26. D. all of these
27. A. Maximum reverse current and
PIV
28. C. 28.3 V
29. B. Ideal
30. D. all of these
31. C. 1.5 V
32. D. all of these
33. A. 33%
34. C. line or input and load regulation
35. B. twice
36. C. Rectification
37. C. photovoltaic
38. C. II, III, and IV
39. B. 120 H
40. A. photoconductive
41. D. 360 degrees
42. C. 62.5 V
43. A. p-type, intrinsic, n-type
44. C. 19.8 V
45. C. 200 V
46. C. negative
47. C. is simple and inexpensive to
build

906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
48. A. Diode resistance is either very
low or very high on either
direction
49. D. all of these
50. D. Forward bias
51. B. 60 Hz
52. D. Point contact
53. A. Decreases
54. A. 28.3 V
55. D. bleeder
56. B. Reverse-biased
57. B. hot-carrier diodes
58. D. Ripple factor
59. C. 120 Hz
60. C. the peak value of the rectified
voltage
61. A. Low power consumption and long
life
62. C. reverse-breakdown voltage
63. A. 0.005
64. B. Rectifier
65. D. A or C
66. A. Half-wave rectifier
67. D. diode
68. B. Increases
69. A. One
70. D. all of these
71. C. Varactor diode
72. D. I, III, and IV
73. B. 5.0 V
74. A. Decreases
75. A. Most positive
76. C. Bridge rectifier
77. B. increases
78. D. As a VHF and UHF mixers and
detectors
79. A. Half-wave rectifier
80. A. Voltage regulator
81. D. changes in output voltage and
input voltage
82. B. Light waves
83. D. 41.7 mV
84. A. a small value series resistor
85. B. changes in load current and
output voltage
86. C. thermistor
87. C. 4 A
88. B. 2
89. A. 0.7 V
90. C. Bridge rectifier
91. C. 28.3 V
92. C. Voltage controlled capacitor
93. C. 32.4 V
94. C. Peak inverse voltage
95. C. shorted
96. A. Circuit will stop rectifying
97. C. Increase
98. C. Controls gain
99. D. a half-wave rectified voltage
100. B. An ohmmeter test across a
diode shows low resistance in
one polarity and high
resistance in the opposite
polarity

Section 3
Transistor Circuits Fundamentals
Quiz 22
1. C. 2.1 mV/C
2. B. I, III, and IV
3. C. 3
4. D. the coupling capacitors
5. B. Beta
6. D. amplifier applications
7. C. Frequency multipliers
8. A. Class A amplifiers
9. A. Q-point on a transistor collector
curves
10. A. Input voltage
11. C. RF voltage amplifier
12. A. Beta increases
13. C. Below saturation and above
cutoff
14. C. An rf voltage amplifier
15. A. unity-gain frequency
16. A. The amount of time (in relation
to the input signal) that current
flows in the output circuit
17. C. To establish a proper stable dc
operating point
18. C. No current flows from emitter
to collector
19. B. 0.4 A
20. D. It decreases
21. A. very low
22. B. Common collector
23. B. the transistor may be driven
into saturation
24. B. Smaller than the output current
25. A. 0.96
26. D. thin, lightly doped
27. B. To transfer energy from one
stage to another

6-31
906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
29. B. RC
30. D. 8.75 M
31. B. An area of low charge density
around the P-n junction
32. D. Match the compensating diodes
33. C. very low
34. D. Resistor
35. B. Class B
36. C. Class A
37. B. It increases
38. B. Different from the dc load line
39. C. Base current bias or fixed bias
40. D. 5 V
41. B. To provide maximum
impedance at a given
frequency
42. A. 10
43. C. The output impedance of circuit
number one should be equal to
the input impedance of circuit
number two
44. B. Emitter to collector
45. A. Lower than
46. D. PNP transistor
47. D. Push-pull
48. A. 2N
49. A. 5 mV
50. D. slightly less than a class B
51. D. Polarity of source voltage
52. A. C
53. A. common-emitter
54. B. Class B
55. C. Function and frequency response
56. C. C
57. B. Voltage divider bias
58. A. digital switching applications
59. C. An overcoupled transformer
60. A. acting like a forward biased diode
61. C. The ratio of output quantity to
input quantity of an amplifier
62. C. The difference between the
highest and lowest frequency
shown on a frequency-response
curve
63. A. alpha
64. D. 8.33
65. B. Increase
66. D. Hole current in the emitter
67. A. Narrowband
68. B. collector
69. D. the signal has a 180 phase shift
from input to output
70. C. That frequency at which the
grounded emitter current gain
has decreased to 0.7 of that
obtainable at 1 kHz in a
transistor
71. C. cut-off
72. C. Small signal
73. A. Class A
74. D. method of coupling
75. D. At the center of the ac load line
76. A. Optimum
78. C. Class AB
79. D. Common base
80. B. 0 Hz
81. B. looking them up in a transistor
parts manual
82. B. Gain
83. B. tuned amplifiers to produce a
sinusoidal output
84. A. 50
85. A. I, III and IV
86. A. Charge storage
87. A. Decrease
88. A. the voltage gain will decrease
89. C. Tuned RF amplifiers
90. D. Hum in the circuit
91. C. the internal transistor
capacitances
92. A. gain
93. A. Output is represent for less
than 180 degrees of the input
signal cycle
94. A. acting like a forward biased
diode
95. A. The collector current at its
maximum value
96. C. Bipolar
97. A. a switch
98. A. Amplify weak signals
99. C. coupling capacitor
100. C. decreases

Section 3
Quiz 23
1. C. I, II, and V
2. C. 0.7 V
3. A. the midrange gain
4. A. 30 mA
5. B. 125 C
6. B. series peaking design

906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
7. D. 100 kHz to 30,000 MHz
8. A.
dc
R
E

9. A. Base bias
10. B. Reverse bias
11. C. 6800 Hz
12. D. High when clipping occurs
13. C. When the base is set to about
0.7 V, causing the base current
to start flowing
14. C. PNP transistor
15. A. 0
16. D. Collector feedback bias
17. C. remains constant with
frequency
18. B. h parameters
19. C. voltage divider
20. B. - 6 dB/decade
21. A. A loosely coupled transformer
22. B. loadline
23. A. 48.2 dB
24. C. current
25. A. 16.5 k
26. D. Input impedance of second stage
27. B. Transistor
28. B. I, II, and III
29. B. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
30. B. saturates on negative half-cycle
31. B. plastic material
33. A. The coupling and bypass
capacitors
34. A. Class C
35. A. a narrower bandwidth
36. D. Gate
37. B. 220
38. A. The coupling and bypass
capacitors
39. B. current flow
40. B. Very low resistance
41. A. R
IN(base)
> 10 R
2

42. B. Cut-off
43. B. 7.5
44. C. < +/- 0.1 V throughout the active
range of the transistor which may
change base current by a factor of
10 or more
45. C. common-collector
46. A. An audio power amplifier
47. C. complementary symmetry
transistors
48. C. Large
49. D. Emitter
50. C. Larger
51. A. equal to the current in the bias
resistors and diodes
52. D. an area of low charge density
around p-n junction
53. C. C
54. D. all of these
55. A. collector-base, reverse bias
56. C. A parallel LC network
57. A. The change of the collector
current with respect to base
current
58. B. Vary the capacitance
59. A. Decrease
60. D. Class D
61. B. Using rf transformers
62. B. Low
63. A. digital switching applications
64. B. no current flows from emitter to
collector
65. D. The coupling of a portion of the
output signal to the input of
the circuit
66. C. Common base
67. C. Transformer
68. B. quiescent current
69. C. Crossover distortion
70. A. (a) Low (b) high
71. A. one-half the peak load current
72. C. 4 A
73. C. 800 kohm
74. B. Common collector
75. B. Is usually small enough to
ignore
76. B. 12 W
77. C. base
78. A. To provide signals of usable
amplitude
79. C. Crossover distortion
80. D. Linear region
81. B. 2.25 V
82. A. can be essentially independent
of
DC

83. B. AC coupling
84. B. 2V
CEQ

85. D. 50
86. B. 0.7 V
87. B. forward-reverse
88. B. Class B
89. B. Bypass capacitor
90. B. A swamping resistor in parallel
with the tuned circuit


6-33
906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
91. A. Output is present more than
180 degrees but less than 360
degrees of the signal input cycles
92. D. minimum
93. B. acting like a reverse biased
diode
94. B.
C
25
I

95. A. I
B
> I
C(sat)
/
DC

96. A. Class A
97. A. not affected the collector
current
98. A. Forward-biased
99. D. all of these
100. D. Both A and B

Section 3
Quiz 24
1. A. Amplification
2. B. Class B
4. B. RC
5. D. right at cutoff
6. C. Has an AC voltage
7. C. Common collector
8. D. Equal zero
9. C. class B amplifiers
10. B. 98%
11. C. Transformer
12. A. full 360 of the input cycle
13. C. In order to produce an output that
is a replica of the input
14. C. 14.14 V
15. A. negative on emitter, positive on
base, positive on collector
16. B. The input signal remains
unchanged and the output signal
is controlled by the input signal
17. D. Shockley
19. B. impedance matching
20. C. 60 V
22. D. I
C
and V
CE

23. C. Emitter bias
24. C. heat sinks
25. C. Negative feedback
26. D. two stages of CC
27. B. V
GS

28. B. PNP transistor
29. A. Stabilizes voltage gain
30. B. zero
31. A. Emitter-follower
32. B. Base, collector and emitter
33. D. greater than classes A, B, or AB
34. A. Cutoff
35. C. Has lower input resistance
36. A. Flow into the collector
37. A. to maintain a constant voltage
across the emitter resistor
38. D. answer A and B
39. B. current, voltage
40. A. The base current is effectively
amplified to become the
collector current
41. D. Usually destructive
42. C. a very small percentage of the
input cycle
43. D. Cut-off
44. A. Class A
45. D. 30 V
46. C. Negative
diode
48. C. Class A amplifier
49. C. totem-pole
50. C. uses only a small portion of its
load line
51. D. Unimportant
52. A. Excessive power
53. C. enhancing the probability that
electrons will be swept across it
into the collector
diode
55. B. Neutralization
56. A. common-emitter
57. D. Increases the overall gain
58. A. 500 mW
59. D. The final stage in an audio
amplifier
60. B. Reduces distortion
61. A.
AC

62. A. Class A
63. A. Transformer coupling
64. A. Higher gain
65. B. No current flow from emitter to
collector
66. D. acting like a forward biased
diode
67. D. Transformer
68. B. Linear and Cutoff region
69. C. it produces high leakage
current

906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
70. B. The presence of capacitance
both external and internal
71. A. A
72. D. positive with respect to the
emitter
73. B. RC
74. D. current gain
75. C. 78.5 percent
76. A. Impedance
78. A. Very low
80. C. Collector current plus base
current
81. B. The relationship of the
component to the output signal
path
82. D. megger
83. D. Is usually less than the load
resistance
84. A. Capacitance
85. C. is 5.3 mA
86. B. Emitter feedback resistance
87. D. A step-down transformer
88. B. I
C(sat)

89. A. Inductors
90. A. based on the principle of negative
feedback
91. A. Transformer coupling
92. B. At the center of the loadline and
cutoff respectively
93. A. Fewer parts are used
94. B. the voltage gain
95. B. Dependent on r
e
'
96. C. P-type collector, N-type base,
P-type emitter
97. D. AC collector resistance
98. B. V
CE(cut off)
and I
C(sat)

99. B. Holes
100. B. Collector current to base current

Section 4
Field Effect Transistors (FET)
Quiz 25
1. C. positive V
GS(th)
, negative V
GS(th)

2. B. Dual gate MOSFET
3. A. The gate voltage controls the
drain current
4. B. The transistor itself may dissipate
up to 100 W of energy (but this
number may have to be de-rated)
5. A. pinch-off and breakdown
6. D. Gate-source cutoff voltage
7. A. Just below the saturation point
8. C. An unbypassed resistance
between source and ground
(R
S
)
9. A. 2.34 V
10. B. BJT emitter follower and
MOSFET source follower
11. D. all of these
12. C. Resistor
13. D. common-drain amplifier
14. A. Gate material
15. A. 1.89 V
16. D. Drain current for zero gate
voltage
17. A. The gate of MOSFET is
insulated from the channel by
an SiO
2
layer, whereas the gate
and channel in a JFET is
separated by a pn junction
18. D. Zener
19. A. Field effect transistor
20. C. current and power gain
21. A. 35
22. A. high input impedance
23. C. N-channel FET
24. C. Nonlinear
25. A. E-MOSFET
26. C. MESFET
27. C. - V
GS(off)
<V
GS
<0V
28. C. I
DSS

29. C. a V
GS
greater than the
threshold value, V
GS
(th)
30. A. 25 volts
31. B. 11.4
32. C. II, III and IV
33. A. negative on the gate with
respect to the source
34. A. Small
35. A. Zero positively to cutoff
36. C. capacitive
37. D. a current source between drain
and source terminals
38. A. Large voltage gain
39. B. negative V
GS
, positive V
GS

40. C. 48.78 M
41. B. Silicon dioxide
42. B. FET
43. D. 15 mA
44. A. Shrinks
45. A. Zero negatively to cutoff
46. B. I, III and IV
47. C. FET

6-35
906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
48. C. using a transistor tester that
works in an operating circuit
49. C. the enhancement mode
50. A. 200 ohm
51. B. Transconductance (g
m
) and the
drain resistance (R
d
)
52. D. is + 4 V
53. D. Output current
54. B. 0.86
55. D. P-channel FET
56. A. I
D
to the square of a term
containing V
GS

57. C. the gate-to-source bias voltage
decreases
58. C. E-MOSFET
59. B. gate is a bar not an arrow
60. D. I, II and III
61. B. always slightly less than 1
62. C. the voltage gain will decreases
63. C. measuring infinite resistance in
both directions
64. D. depletion
65. C. Threshold voltage
66. D. the input resistance is the
reciprocal of g
m

67. A. CS amplifier
68. D. Greater than V
GS(th)

69. A. I, II and IV
70. B. drain, gate, source
71. C. square-law device
72. B. the JFET has a pn junction
73. C. A passive load
74. D. positive V
GS
, negative V
GS

75. B. positive on the gate with respect
to the source
76. C. gate
77. C. 4.5
78. B. An active load
79. D. V
GS
=0
80. D. much lower input resistance
81. B. the maximum possible drain
current
82. D. all of these
83. C. the source and the substrate
84. C. A passive load
85. C. One charge carrier device
86. B. 1000 M
87. D. Complementary MOS
88. D. Due to reverse-biased
gate-to-source junction
89. D. I
D(on)

90. C. Greater than V
GS(th)

91. D. The transconductance (g
m
)
92. B. V
DD

93. A. Two-terminal device
94. A. drain and source
95. B. Gate-to-source
96. A. completely closed by the
depletion region
97. B. E-MOSFET
98. C. the gate-to-source pn junction
reverse-biased
99. C. 180
100. B. V
p

Section 5
Feedback Networks & Oscillators
Quiz 26
1. B. Opposes the input signal
2. A. The resistance of the coil and
inductor
3. C. a phase shift around the
feedback loop of 0
4. D. Colpitts oscillator
5. C. oscillator
6. A. Zero
7. C. greater than 1
8. D. Negative
9. D. Crystal oscillator
10. C. types of LC oscillators
11. A. Almost equal
12. A. Pulsed oscillator
13. B. Neutralization
14. C. May equal to 1
15. D. Phase-locked-loop
16. A. positive feedback
17. C. Capacitor
18. B. Shorted feedback resistor
19. A. Fewer parts are used
20. C. Filter circuit
21. B. Differential voltage gain of
the op amp
22. B. a VCO
23. D. Astable
24. C. An overcoupled transformer
25. C. Audio oscillators
26. D. Ideally zero
27. B. a gain of 1 around the feedback
loop
28. B. The size and thickness of the
crystal material
29. B. A swamping resistor in parallel
with the tuned circuit
30. B. Sinusoidal oscillator
31. C. stability
32. B. Current-to-voltage converter

906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
33. C. increases
34. C. In biasing circuits DC negative
feedback is provided while
amplifiers employ AC negative
feedback
35. D. It must have a positive
feedback sufficient to
overcome losses
36. A. the charging and discharging of
a capacitor
37. A. LC, RC or crystal
38. D. An electrical voltage will appear
across the X axis
39. D. A step-down transformer
40. B. Distortion
41. A. three RC circuits
42. D. all of these
43. D. Due to series resonance
44. B. 1
45. D. A resistor IC combination
46. B. Three lead or lag circuits
47. B. To provide maximum
impedance at a given
frequency
48. B. RC time constant
49. B. A network consisting of one
inductor and two capacitors or
two inductances and one
capacitor
50. A. Notch filter
51. A. no stable states
52. B. Very small
53. B. multiplication
54. C. The piezoelectric effect
55. B. Causes saturation and cut-off
56. C. Damping
57. A. Decreases
58. D. all of these
59. A. A loosely coupled transformer
60. B. Transformer coupling
61. D. High power rating
62. D. a lead-lag circuit
63. C. relaxation oscillators
64. D. Output voltage to input current
65. B. Frequency cut-off
66. B. Two resistors
67. B. Using rf transformers
68. D. 0.02
69. C. timing circuits
70. A. Coupling
71. C. A virtual ground
72. D. Transformer
73. C. Hartley
74. C. 141,000 Hz
75. B. Through the feedback
resistor
76. A. sine waves
77. D. 360 degrees
78. C. Colpitts
79. B. period
80. C. Ideally zero
81. B. it requires no input signal
82. D. 555
83. C. The difference between the
highest and lowest frequency
shown on a
frequency-response curve
84. D. Power bandwidth
85. D. Negative
86. D. 10% to 90% of maximum
87. A. Positive feedback
88. C. Negative
89. B. Noise voltage in resistors
90. B. Vary the capacitance
91. A. At low frequencies
92. C. voltage-controlled
93. C. Between 0 and -90 degrees
94. A. Optimum
95. B. Lead circuit
96. C. Negative
97. A. Between 0 and +90 degrees
98. C. A parallel LC network
99. D. 4.08 MHz
100. D. High

Section 6
Operational Amplifiers (Op-Amps)
Quiz 27
1. C. Two times either collector
current
2. A. infinite
3. C. 200 millivolts
4. B. Zero
5. A. 0
6. B. Summing amplifier
7. C. 10
5
to 10
9

8. A. Difference between two base
currents
9. C. Astable multi-vibrators
10. B. Sum of two emitter currents
11. C. the gain is 2
13. C. An output error voltage usually
exists

6-37
906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
14. A. 10
-5

15. A. summing of signals occurs at
only the inverting input
16. B. Difference in collector resistors
17. D. 0
19. C. Both inputs
20. D. differential
21. A. I, II, and IV
22. C. operational transconductance
amplifier
23. B. Smaller than voltage gain
24. D. all of these
25. C. Megaohms
26. A. Diff amp
27. D. a bias current
29. A. voltage-to-current amplifier
30. D. slew rate
31. B. Current source
32. A. Very high output power
33. A. CMRR
34. C. The same
35. C. the transconductance and the
load resistor
36. C. Produces an output voltage
that is the sum of the input
voltages
37. C. a square waveform
38. B. Often expressed in decibels
39. B. e
x

40. B. A
v
= -R
f
/R
i

41. D. three op-amps and seven
resistors
42. C. Differential input and
single-ended output
43. D. a ramp
44. D. Amplifies the difference between
two input voltages
45. C. crosses zero
46. A. Less than the input bias current
47. C. 100
49. B. Input offset voltage
50. B. has two trigger points
51. D. Minimum bandwidth
52. C. each proportional to the weight of
its input
53. D. Compensating capacitance
54. D. the unity-gain frequency
55. C. 2
56. A. 100 kHz
57. B. 0.67 V/s
58. B. Closed-loop voltage gain
59. B. increases the input impedance
and the bandwidth
60. B. inverting mode
61. C. stays the same
62. A. Distortion occurs
63. D. all of these
64. B. integrator
65. C. limits the output levels

66. B. Peak value decreases
67. B. setting the voltage gain
68. C. Hartley
69. B. Peak value increases
70. C. 3
71. B. capacitor
72. A. Slew-rate distortion occurs
73. A. high-noise environments
74. D. the fraction of the output signal
that is fed back to the input
75. B. the logarithmic characteristics
of a pn junction
76. C. Maximum positive or negative
77. D. Both B and C
78. A. 2 microvolts
79. A. resistor
80. C. 5 V peak-to-peak (180-degree
phase shift)
81. C. input, output, and power
82. C. The feedback resistance
divided by the input resistance
83. B. 9 kHz
84. A. A high-gain, direct-coupled
differential amplifier whose
characteristics are determined
by components external to the
amplifier
85. B. transformers
86. C. Large closed-loop input
impedance
87. B. 1000
88. D. voltage comparator
89. A. 20 transistors and 11 resistors
90. D. A Wheatstone bridge
91. C. output, input
92. B. Two or more input signals
93. C. +10 V
94. B. Op amp does not go into
saturation
96. B. Minimum
97. B. 100 to 1000
98. B. One supply voltage

906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
99. C. The potential between the
amplifier input terminals of the
op-amp in a closed-loop
condition
100. C. Voltage-to-current converter

Section 7
Basic Filter Networks
Quiz 28
1. C. Transition
2. D. roll-off rate
3. B. Geometric average of the
cutoff frequencies
4. B. second-order filters
5. D. greater than
6. C. a single RC circuit
7. C. Notch filter
9. A. Voltage gain
10. C. greater than critical frequency of
the high-pass filter
11. C. the same gain at all frequencies
12. D. Staggered center frequencies
and Q's
14. B. Inverse Chebyshev
15. D. Divided by the K values
16. B. a summing amplifier and two
integrators
17. C. Elliptic
18. B. butterworth
19. D. Bessel
20. A. increases
21. D. 13
22. A. the negative feedback circuit
23. C. 0 degrees to -360 degrees
24. A. two critical frequencies
25. D. 360 dB per decade

Section 8
Microelectronics & IC Fabrications
Quiz 29
1. D. hybrid
2. C. increases
3. C. less than 180 interconnected
components
4. B. Printed circuit board (PCB)
5. B. less than 1500 interconnected
components
6. D. Epitaxial
7. D. more than 15,000
interconnected
components
8. A. Integrated circuit (IC)
9. D. all of these
10. A. Size
11. B. L shaped leads
12. C. VLSI
13. A. J shaped leads
14. D. Wafer
15. D. all of these
16. C. Epitaxial
17. D. all of these
18. B. cordwood
19. A. Inductors
20. D. encapsulated
21. D. Monolithic
22. B. Integrated circuit
23. C. Isolation
24. C. silicon chips
25. B. Miniature electronics
26. C. Resistors and capacitors
27. B. Use of transistor with narrow bases
28. C. Transistors and vacuum tubes
29. C. Printed circuit board
30. C. 2,000
31. B. Microcircuit module
32. D. very large-scale integration
33. C. Active
34. C. A computer
35. A. Oxidizing
36. D. wafer mask
37. B. Ceramic
38. B. Film IC
39. A. (a) 2 inches (b) 0.01 to 0.02 inches
40. C. Monolithic
41. D. Monolithic
42. C. Screening
43. A. Oxide
44. B. (a) Diffused (b) epitaxial
45. A. Isolation
46. C. Photo etching
47. B. Thin-film
48. D. Each of the above
49. D. Vacuum evaporation
50. A. Hybrid IC
51. C. Design flexibility
52. B. Microcircuit
53. B. For ease of handling
54. D. all of these

6-39
906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
55. A. ICs usually combine several
functions into one package
56. B. Size
57. C. a DIP
58. A. never on together
59. D. complementary pairs
60. B. Blast furnace
61. C. propagation delay
62. D. negative voltage operation, high
speed, and high power
consumption
63. C. Vacuum evaporation
64. A. low power consumption and
very high noise immunity
65. B. level-shifter or translator
66. A. high input impedance and low
output impedance
67. B. System packaging
68. C. both the voltages and the
currents
69. A. Cordwood module
70. B. SMT
71. C. thousands of basic logic gates and
advanced sequential logic functions
72. B. PLD
73. C. Beam-lead chip
74. A. the PLA has a programmable OR
plane and a programmable AND
plane, while the PAL only has a
programmable AND plane
75. C. DIP plastics
76. B. PAL (Programmable Array Logic)
77. C. Bonding wires
78. A. a global interconnection matrix
79. D. Wafer
80. C. it cannot be reprogrammed

Section 9
Instrumentations & Controls
Quiz 30
1. C. Hall
2. A. The smallest change in applied
stimulus that will indicate a
detectable change in deflection
3. A. In series
4. C. Never apply power to the circuit
when measuring voltage with
the meter
5. C. Zener
6. B. Full-scale deflection
7. A. Voltmeter sensitivity
8. A. Energy
9. A. Ohms/Volt
10. C. clipper
11. C. Pair of headphones
12. A. Its calibration
13. C. In series with the load
14. A. Hay bridge
15. A. ripple
16. B. Move slowly
17. C. Less than meter resistance
18. B. regulation
19. B. Determination of the proper
scale
20. B. Its reading will not change
21. B. 150 mV
22. B. ammeter shunt
23. C. Braking action on a meter
pointer
24. C. Ability to measure wide range
of voltages and resistances
25. B. Ammeter sensitivity
26. B. In DC circuits only
27. C. In parallel with the load
28. A. ammeter
29. C. D Arsonval
30. D. Accuracy classes 1, 1.5, 2.5
and 5
31. A. High voltage
32. A. A shunt resistance in parallel
with the meter
33. B. resistance
34. C. Degree to which repeatability
continues to remain with
specific limits
35. D. High voltage measurement
36. D. The maximum error in
sensitivity displayed by a pen
37. B. A and B only
38. B. Shunt resistors in parallel with
the meter movement
39. A. parallel
40. B. Linear scale
41. A. Out-of-circuit meter
42. D. Effective
43. A. Circuit continuity
44. A. X is more sensitive
45. A. Has infinite high resistance
46. C. energy
47. A. Bypass the current
48. B. To monitor circuit operation
49. B. Hotwire and thermocouple
50. B. Insulation resistance

906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
51. C. multiply the desired value by
the known value, then divide this
product by their difference
52. A. By ensuring that the meter
resistance is low compared to
circuit resistance
53. D. Analog meters
54. C. Moving-coil meter
55. D. total current is multiplied by
the ratio of the other branch
resistor, divided by the sum of
the branch resistances
56. D. Aluminum
58. B. 2
59. B. ground
60. D. Voltmeter, current meter and
ohmmeter
61. B. Clamp probe
62. B. Never
63. D. balanced
64. D. Kelvin-double bridge
65. D. Increase the voltage range
66. B. A resistor in series with the
meter movement
67. C. multiply the desired value by
the known value, then divide
this product by their difference
68. A. Anderson bridge
69. B. Ohmmeter
70. D. power supply bleeder
71. D. High resistance
72. B. The highest range and then
increase the range
73. B. 0 V
74. B. The interaction of magnetic
fields
75. C. zero ohms
76. B. Smoothing the oscillations of
the pointer
77. D. infinite
78. B. It acts as a resistances in series
and lowers the circuit current
79. C. how much the meter will
change the circuit conditions
80. D. All of these
81. A. A rectifier
82. D. add the capability of reading AC
currents
83. A. To determine the reason a
circuit is not functioning
properly
84. A. Megohmmeter
85. A. 14 V
86. D. Low deflection indication
87. C. DC as well as AC voltage
88. A. 5,000
89. A. The scales of the meters
90. B. The difference between two
nearly equal resistances
91. A. lower than the circuit voltage
92. D. Hidden behind the pointer
93. D. Capacitance and its power
factor
94. B. 3
95. A. In series with the load
96. A. field effect transistors
97. C. The mid-scale portion
98. D. Current in the coil connected
across the measurement points
99. A. lower, lower
100. A. Point more to magnetic north

Section 10
Instrumentations & Controls
Quiz 31
1. D. 30 A
2. D. voltages
3. B. The lowest amount of current for
full-scale deflection indication
4. A. Reading errors due to inclined
observation are eliminated by
removing parallax between the
pointer and its image in the mirror
5. A. 0
6. C. To aid in reducing parallax error
7. B. 0.5 A
8. A. Average
9. D. an ac signal source
10. B. Current
11. B. 2.4 V, 4 kHz
12. A. Mid-scale portion
14. C. The smallest signal that results
in a detectable output
15. A. An ac/dc switch
16. A. Hall Effect
17. B. A high resistance is connected in
series
18. C. Hook-on voltameter
19. B. 0.3 volt peak-to-peak
20. D. Permanent-magnet moving
21. A. The internal resistance of ammeters
should be very small and that of
voltmeters should very small


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906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
22. D. all of these
23. C. Voltage
24. B. Get an instrument with a higher
internal resistance
25. A. high accuracy of measurements
26. D. Electrodynamic
27. A. A nonlinear scale
28. C. connected in parallel with the
component removed from the
circuit
29. B. The zero point is corrected with the
help of this control
30. C. Continuity
31. D. all of these
32. B. Loading
33. B. observe polarity
34. B. To control the pointer movement
35. B. Range resistors
36. A. zero deflection
37. C. Eddy-current damping
38. D. Voltmeter
39. C. ohmmeter testing
40. D. A coil of high inductance
41. D. all of these
42. D. It decreases
43. B. 1
44. C. Power
45. A. ohms
46. A. Higher than
47. D. DC ammeter
48. D. resolution
49. A. in parallel with the circuit
50. A. the highest range
51. C. screen, deflection plates and
electron gun
52. B. lowest position to just see the
waveform
53. A. in phase
54. B. Personal safety
55. C. The aluminum frame
56. D. All of these
57. D. All of these
58. D. It is smaller and shows a simplified
readout
59. D. A logic probe
60. D. The high and low logic states
61. D. A logic probe
62. A. Attenuate the transmitter output
going to the spectrum analyzer
63. C. a looping pattern with 3 loops
horizontally and 2 loops vertically
64. D. It gives an indication of the
resonant frequency of a nearby
circuit
65. B. Power coupled from an
oscillator causes a decrease in
metered current
66. B. Time base accuracy, speed of the
logic and time base stability
67. A. Frequency
68. D. Amplitude
69. B. A device used to produce a highly
accurate reference frequency
70. A. As loosely as possible
71. C. The speed at which a transceiver
switches from transmit to receive
when being used for packet radio
72. A. Accuracy and linearity of the time
base and the linearity and
bandwidth of the deflection
amplifiers
73. B. Calibration, mechanical tolerance
and coil impedance
74. D. By increasing the horizontal sweep
rate and the vertical amplifier
frequency response
75. B. In parallel with the circuit
76. A. In series with the circuit
77. C. By adding resistance in series with
the meter, between the meter and
the circuit under test
78. A. Resistance is added in series with
the meter
79. D. By adding resistance in parallel with
the ammeter
80. D. Voltage, current and resistance
81. B. It would probably destroy the meter
circuitry
82. C. It would probably destroy the meter
circuitry
83. A. Forward and reflected power
84. C. Measuring voltage when using the
ohms setting
85. C. A signal generator
86. A. An oscilloscope
87. D. An oscilloscope designed around
digital technology rather than
analog technology
88. D. To identify an inoperative stage in
a receiver
89. D. By varying electromagnetic fields
90. D. The length of time the image
remains on the screen after the
beam is turned off
91. A. The image size will decrease and
the tube will produce X-rays

906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
92. B. The anode voltage
93. C. It samples an analog signal and
passes it in stages from the input to
the output
94. A. It stores photogenerated charges as
signals corresponding to pixels
95. B. a display that uses a crystalline liquid
to change the way light is refracted
96. C. Electrostatic
97. C. It can be used as an
analog-to-digital converter
98. A. Oscilloscope
99. C. Bolometer
100. D. Employ shunt resistor across

Section 10
Transducers & Thyristors
Quiz 32
1. D. To protect the drive from high
voltage transient surges
2. C. A switch
3. B. Latching
4. B. Load current can flow in both
directions under control of one
gate
5. D. answer A and B
6. A. Gate and anode
7. D. To control the power to an AC
load
8. B. Aids the original change
9. B. Thermocouple
10. A. Reports when each slot passes
the photo detector
11. A. Gate, anode 1 and anode 2
13. A. Transistors
14. C. Report linear position
15. A. The junction diode
16. D. it has two gate terminals
17. C. Two-terminal bi-directional
switch
18. C. Breakover
19. B. Holding current
20. B. When a thin wire is stretched,
its resistance goes up
21. B. Trigger current
22. B. the device will turn off when the
anode current falls below this
value
23. B. Low-current drop out
24. C. The sensor generates a voltage
when in the presence of a
magnetic field
25. D. Inverse parallel connected
SCRs with common gate
26. C. triggered on and off by the
gate-to-anode voltage
27. A. A voltage proportional to
temperature is generated at
the junction of two dissimilar
metals
28. B. Anode, cathode and gate
29. A. Holding current
30. D. diacs and triacs
31. B. The pressure at the bottom is
proportional the liquid depth
32. B. Silicon controlled rectifier
33. B. Three external leads
34. A. like a bi-directional SCR
35. C. When fluid goes through a
restriction the pressure drops
proportional to the flow
36. B. A gate trigger
37. D. bilateral conduction
38. D. Servo
39. C. LASCR
40. C. High-current devices
41. C. the forward-breakover voltage
42. A. Conducting and
non-conducting
43. B. holding current
44. A. Crowbar
45. D. either B or C
46. A. Current can flow either way, if
the forward breakover voltage
is exceeded
47. B. False triggering
48. B. in the off state
49. D. The difference between the
measured pressure and
ambient pressure
50. D. Current limiting
51. B. directly proportional to light
52. C. 8 V
53. D. Light
54. B. three pn junctions
55. D. anode, reversing polarity
56. D. Bidirectional device
57. B. Breakover voltage
58. A. it has a gate terminal
59. C. A positive voltage on the gate
switches the SCR into

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906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
conduction mode, but the gate
cannot be used to turn it off
60. C. A positive voltage on the gate
switches the SCR into
conduction mode, but the gate
cannot be used to turn it off
61. C. Light activated SCR
62. B. breakover voltage
63. A. Voltage gradient
64. D. Latch
65. D. Digital displays
66. A. Breakover
67. C. show high resistance in both
directions
68. C. show high resistance in both
directions
69. C. 2.5 V
70. B. 0.7 V
71. A. SCS
72. C. Low-current drop out
73. C. capacitance
74. B. False triggering
75. A. dV/dt
76. C. pnpn diode
77. B. Transducers
78. A. High frequencies
79. B. Positive feedback
80. A. Degenerative or negative
feedback

Section 11
Fundamentals of Robotics
Quiz 33
1. D. 60 degrees
2. C. Leon Fourcault
3. B. Uses a permanent magnet for
the rotor
4. C. The torque required to rotate
the shaft when it is stopped
with power off
5. C. Has only two separate winding
circuits
6. B. Has four field coils, each coil is
energized separately
7. A. Frequency and induction
heating
8. A. When adjacent coil field coils
are energized at the same time,
causing the rotor to align
between the field coils
9. D. Pneumatic and jointed arm
10. B. Uses a toothed iron wheel for
the rotor
11. D. Combines the features of the
permanent magnet and
variable reluctance
stepper motors
12. C. Be able to reverse polarity to
the same coils in sequence
13. B. Send the voltage to each
individual field coil in sequence
14. D. Open-loop
15. D. A control system where
feedback is not used
16. A. A control system that has a
feedback loop
17. B. Time lag
18. A. A number which describes the
behavior of a device (output
divided by the input)
19. D. 0.005V/rpm
20. B. Any control system that uses a
digital circuit (such as a
microprocessor) for the
controller
21. A. A control system used in
industry to oversee the making
of a uniform product
22. D. A process that has a defined
series of tasks
23. C. A closed-loop control system
that physically moves
something
24. A. Differential synchro
25. A. A system for automatically
machining parts on lathes and
milling machines
26. D. A simple robot that moves
parts from one place to
another, over and over
27. D. Weld interval
28. A. Front-panel milking
29. B. piezoelectric effect
30. A. Will reject frequencies below
the cutoff frequency
31. B. A, B and C
32. B. The information is conveyed by
current (to avoid voltage drop
problems)
33. A. When equipment is grounded
at different places, which may
cause a large current in the
shield
34. D. Stabilized

906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
35. D. All the shields and equipment
are connected to ground at the
same place
36. C. Precession
37. C. 9.56 V
38. A. Has one set of contacts, that
set has three terminals
39. B. 6 mA
40. D. By magnetic coupling from the rotor
41. A. A static fluid under pressure will
exert the same pressure on all
the vessel walls
42. C. Two meshed gears rotate in
housing. Fluid is moved in the
space between the teeth
43. A. Articulated arm and cylindrical
44. A. The pump is on the whole time.
Unneeded fluid circulates
through a pressure regulator
back to the fluid tank
45. C. Directs fluid to either side of the
piston, and allows for the fluid
on the other side of the piston
to return to the tank
46. B. Uses compressed air that is
exhausted to the atmosphere
after use
47. C. A, B and C
48. C. The controller tries to maintain
some process at a specified
value by continuously sampling
the output with a sensor and
using this information to make
corrections
49. B. drop time
50. D. Control transformer
51. B. The controller maintains the
output between two levels by
turning the actuator on when
the output gets too low and
turning it off when the output
gets too high
52. A. The controller drives the output
up if it gets too low, and drives
it down if it gets too high
53. C. Servo
54. D. proportional to the difference
between the actual position
and the set-point
55. C. Gyroscope
56. A. When the error is small, the
restoring force from the
controller is small
57. D. Position servo
58. C. Eliminates steady-state-error
59. A. Great force capacity handling
heavy loads
60. C. Makes the system respond
faster
61. C. Hydraulic
62. A. A proportional controller with
some integral and differential
control added
63. C. Servo system
64. C. An unstable control system
may go into oscillations
65. C. It always has all nothing motion
66. B. Open when the relay is not
energized
67. A. Intrinsically safe flammable
environment such as painting
68. C. Each "rung" is a circuit, which
connects across the power lines
69. D. Hydraulic
70. C. A self-contained,
microprocessor-based
controller
71. D. A section of memory where
each bit corresponds to state of
an actual physical switch
72. B. Each rung controls a possible
action; if the rung goes TRUE,
the action is taken
73. A. An instruction that goes TRUE
when it's corresponding
real-world switch closes
74. D. Tri-speed synchro system
75. D. Goes TRUE after a specified
time has elapsed
76. C. Controls a sequence of on-off
outputs
77. B. Heat sub-interval
78. C. Connect sensors and actuators
to the PLC
79. B. A digital controller specifically
built to control multi-axis
motion
80. A. arm manager
81. D. Dexterity
82. C. equality constraint
83. C. inequality constraint
84. C. Repeatability
85. B. end-effector
86. A. first arm
87. B. Pitch
88. C. Roll
89. B. Servo control
90. D. Yaw

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906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
91. C. Accuracy
92. B. Continuous-path programs
93. A. Arc welding
94. D. Base
95. C. Robot Axis
96. C. Artificial Intelligence
97. C. Pneumatic
98. D. CAD
99. B. CAM
100. A. Degrees of Freedom
101. A. Flexibility
102. A. Flexibility
103. B. Force sensor
104. A. Manipulator
105. B. Off-Line Programming
106. A. On-Line Programming
107. C. Pick and Place robot
108. D. Point-To-Point motion
109. B. Reliability
110. D. Resolver
111. D. Robot
112. C. Shoulder
113. C. Stepper Motor
114. D. Sequential, Tracking,
Registration, Informational
115. A. Point-to-point
116. B. Tachometer
117. D. Tactile sensor
118. D. Tool center point (TCP)
119. A. Degree of mobility
120. A. Teaching
121. A. Pneumatic and jointed-arm
122. D. Touch sensor
123. D. Touch sensor
124. C. Work Cell
125. B. Work Envelope

Section 12
Computer Fundamentals
Quiz 34
1. C. instruction set
2. C. UNIVAC
3. B. Parallel port
4. C. A loop program
5. C. A microprocessor is just the
processor, the microcontroller
is the name of the an IC that
contains the microprocessor
and other supporting circuits,
including memory and I/O
6. C. 0101 0110 0111
7. C. using the formula 2
n
where
n = number of inputs
8. C. Algorithm
9. D. all of these
10. A. one
11. A. first an AND gate then an
inverter
12. D. all of these
13. C. 1, 1, 1, 0
14. B. Program
15. A. first an OR gate then an
inverter
16. C. none of the inputs are an one
17. A. ALU
18. B. 0, 1, 1, 0
19. D. all of these
20. A. reduce complicated logic
expressions to simplest form
21. A. William Oughtred
22. D. all of these
23. D. all of these
24. A. OR expression
25. A. plus (+)
26. C. A flip-flop
27. B. Two
28. B. A bistable multivibrator
29. D. all of these
30. D. It produces a logic "0" at its
output only when all inputs
are logic "1"
31. D. all of these
32. B. Colossus
33. D. all of these
34. D. all of these
35. C. the single data input
36. D. all of these
37. D. Output device(s)
38. B. It produces a logic "1" at its
output only if all inputs are
logic "1"
39. A. CPU
40. C. shift registers both store data
and change its format
41. A. CPU
42. D. all of these
43. D. all of these
44. B. Even when power is not applied
to the memory
45. A. produce a coded output signal
46. A. Flip-flop

906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
47. C. 8 or 16 input lines are
connected individually to 1 output
line
48. D. byte
49. A. Number of States = 2
n
where
n = number of flip-flops
50. A. It produces a logic "1" at its
output if any input is or all
inputs are logic "1"
51. B. a decoder circuit
52. A. John Van Neumann
53. D. all of these
54. B. Hackers
55. C. input, output, control, memory
and ALU
56. D. ROM
57. B. the instruction register stores
the instruction which the
decoder converts to a control
signal
58. C. the program counter steps to
the next instruction using the
address register to keep track
59. A. PROMs
60. B. number of bits in the address
bus
61. C. 65,536 locations
62. A. inverting buffer
63. A. stores the address of the
instruction being fetched from
memory
64. A. stores the memory location of
data stored to be next worked
on
65. B. machine language
66. D. all of these
67. B. store
68. B. add, subtract increment or
decrement data
69. C. control input and output
devices
70. A. design engineer
71. C. synthesis
72. B. minterm
73. A. data processing
74. C. 6
75. A. Associative
76. B. hardware
77. C. 16
78. D. Database
79. A. primitive
80. B. VHDL
81. B. Operating system
82. C. architecture
83. C. bit
84. B. decoder
85. C. binary coded decimal
86. B. process
87. D. demultiplexer
88. A. ripple blanking
89. A. 1's complement
90. C. excess-3 code
91. A. Gray code
92. C. 2 single bits and one carry bit
93. C. generate
94. A. the output Q is ACTIVE
95. B. sequential
96. D. port map
97. B. hold time
98. C. recovery time
99. D. Output Logic Macrocell
100. C. 16

Section 12
Computer Fundamentals
Quiz 35
1. D. look-up table
2. C. carry chains
3. D. 32
4. D. terminal count
5. B. 9
6. B. 9
7. B. 2n
8. B. Moore machine
9. D. enumerated type
10. C. the output was previously 1,
and J = 1
11. B. 5
12. D. Both column and row decoders
13. A. fan-out
14. A. V
OH
V
IH

15. D. all of these
16. A. Flowchart
17. B. compare two numbers
18. C. 1 if both inputs are the same
19. B. AND gate
20. A. CMOS
21. C. open collector
22. D. floating
23. B. settling time
24. D. digital
25. A. LSB
26. D. nonmonotonic error
27. B. aliasing
28. B. 1024
29. B. Moore's Law

6-47
906 0220 / 0921 674 4326 / 0927 843 8742 / 0923 621 3233
30. A. address multiplexing
31. D. First In First Out (FIFO)
32. C. bus contention
33. C. 139
34. A. Computer literacy
35. D. Data is stored in 8-bit groups,
where each group has an
address
36. A. The processor can read and
write to RAM, it can read but
not write to ROM
37. A. Fetching and executing the
instructions one by one
38. B. 2.66 V
39. D. 10011101
40. B. multiplication
41. D. multiplication
42. A. commutative law
43. C. associative law
44. A. subtraction and division
45. C. 42
46. A. 69EC
47. A. 0 V
48. C. AND
49. D. vinculum
50. D. NOR gate
51. C. NOT
52. B. 2
53. C. propagation delay
54. B. glitch
55. C. a system in which a low voltage
represents logic HIGH
56. D. the fraction of the period that
the signal is in the HIGH state
57. B. the 50% point of the rising
edge to the 50% point of the
falling edge
58. A. MSB
59. C. 36A
60. D. A bank alarm will trigger when
any of the tellers hits a panic
button
61. A. an LED
62. B. computer program
63. B. NOR gate
64. D. low
65. A. OR
66. D. over 10,000 gates per package
67. D. TTL
68. C. A & B & C
69. C. data bus
70. D. Macro-instruction
71. A. accumulator
72. C. port
73. A. adds a positive offset to the
input signal
74. D. Compatibility
75. B. bootstrap loader
76. C. macro
77. B. label
78. D. industry standard architecture
79. C. 5 volts
80. C. Magnetic bubble
81. C. converts 4 bit-binary into
decimal number
82. A. are similar to encoders but
carry data from many inputs to
1 output
83. A. A high-logic state
84. A. 2.0 to 5.5 volts
85. C. 0.0 to 0.8 volts
86. D. Differential output
87. C. The input switching threshold is
about one-half the power
supply voltage
88. B. Two
89. D. It alternates between two
unstable states
90. A. It switches momentarily to the
opposite binary state and
then returns after a set time to
its original state
91. D. Hardware
92. C. It produces a logic "0" at its
output if any input is or all
inputs are logic "1"
93. C. A list of input combinations and
their corresponding outputs
that characterize the function
of a digital device
94. D. A high level
95. A. A low level
96. D. It divides an HF signal so a
low-frequency counter can
display the operating frequency
97. B. 10
98. A. It produces one output pulse
for every ten input pulses
99. C. Two flip-flops
100. C. Machine language

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