CCNA 1 v5.

0 R&S ITN Final Exam 2014

1 Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator enters these commands into the
R1 router:
R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?
When the router prompts for an address or remote host
name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the
prompt?
192.168.9.254
192.168.10.1
192.168.10.2
192.168.11.254
192.168.11.252

2 Which three statements characterize the transport layer
protocols? (Choose three.)
TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.

3 What is the purpose of ICMP messages?
to inform routers about network topology changes
to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution
to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions

4 A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is
the technician testing?
connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network
the TCP/IP stack on a network host
connectivity between two PCs on the same network

5 What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC
address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?
It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
It initiates an ARP request.
It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame
was received.
It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.

6 What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?
It places information in the frame that allows multiple Layer 3 protocols to
use the same network interface and media.
It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of
the medium.
It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.
It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.

7
On which switch interface would an administrator configure
an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?
VLAN 1
console 0
vty 0
FastEthernet0/1

8
A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits across
the company backbone for a mission critical database
application. The engineer notices that the network
throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected.
Which three factors could influence the differences in
throughput? (Choose three.)
the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone
the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
the type of traffic that is crossing the network
the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is
crossing

9
When applied to a router, which command would help
mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?
service password-encryption
login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60
banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
exec-timeout 30

10
Which two statements correctly describe a router memory
type and its contents? (Choose two.)
ROM is nonvolatile and contains basic diagnostic software.
FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS.
ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
RAM is volatile and stores the IP routing table.
NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores other system files.

11
Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to
be installed on a WLAN? (Choose two.)
custom adapter
wireless bridge
media
wireless NIC
crossover cable
wireless client software

12 Launch PT - Hide and Save PT

Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity
instructions and then fill in the blank.
The Server0 message is . winner

13
A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network.
Which three functions are performed by intermediary
network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)
applying security settings to control the flow of data
notifying other devices when errors occur
regenerating data signals
acting as a client or a server
serving as the source or destination of the messages
providing a channel over which messages travel

14

15

16
Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is
moved to a different network?
IP address
logical address
MAC address
default gateway address

17
What will happen if the default gateway address is
incorrectly configured on a host?
A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default
gateway.
The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.

18
A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an
address through DHCP. Which two messages will the client
typically broadcast on the network? (Choose two.)
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPOFFER
DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPNACK
DHCPACK

19

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the
name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command
as shown. What prompt will display after the command is
issued?
Switch#
My(config)#
My Switch(config)#
Switch(config)#
MySwitch(config)#

20
After making configuration changes, a network administrator
issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a
Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?
The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be
restored.
The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.

21

Refer to the exhibit.A TCP segment from a server has been
captured by Wireshark, which is running on a host. What
acknowledgement number will the host return for the TCP
segment that has been received?
2921
250
2
306
21

22
Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address
depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP
address?
ARP
DNS
SMB
DHCP
HTTP
NAT

23 What is the purpose of the routing process?
to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks
to convert a URL name into an IP address
to provide secure Internet file transfer
to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses

24 Three bank employees are using the corporate network.
The first employee uses a web browser to view a company
web page in order to read some announcements. The
second employee accesses the corporate database to
perform some financial transactions. The third employee
participates in an important live audio conference with other
corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is
implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from
highest to lowest of the different data types?
audio conference, financial transactions, web page
financial transactions, audio conference, web page
audio conference, web page, financial transactions
financial transactions, web page, audio conference

25
A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides
high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines.
What ISP connection type should be used?
cell modem
dial-up
cable modem
satellite
DSL

26
Which connection provides a secure CLI session with
encryption to a Cisco switch?
a Telnet connection
an SSH connection
a console connection
an AUX connection

27 What is the purpose of the network security accounting
function?
to provide challenge and response questions
to require users to prove who they are
to determine which resources a user can access
to keep track of the actions of a user

28

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring
access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses
Telnet to connect to the switch, which password is needed
to access user EXEC mode?
lineconin
linevtyin
letmein
secretin

29
Which publicly available resources describe protocols,
processes, and technologies for the Internet but do not give
implementation details?
IEEE standards
Request for Comments
IRTF research papers
protocol models

30 A PC is configured to obtain an IP address
automatically from network 192.168.1.0/24. The network
administrator issues the arp a command and notices an
entry of 192.168.1.255 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff. Which statement
describes this entry?
This entry refers to the PC itself.
This entry maps to the default gateway.
This is a static map entry.
This is a dynamic map entry.

31 Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as
a usable host address?
192.168.1.64/26
192.168.1.32/28
192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.64/29

32
A particular website does not appear to be responding on a
Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician
use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?
ipconfig /all
ipconfig /displaydns
arp -a
nslookup

33 Which type of wireless security generates dynamic
encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?
WPA
PSK
WEP
EAP

34
A frame is transmitted from one networking device to
another. Why does the receiving device check the FCS field
in the frame?
to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends
to determine the physical address of the sending device
to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving
device
to check the frame for possible transmission errors
to verify the network layer protocol information

35

Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be
changed?
Site 1
Site 3
Site 4
Site 2

36
What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing
command on a router?
to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group
to permit only unicast packets on the router
to enable the router as an IPv6 router
to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

37
Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)
10.1.1.1
172.16.4.4
224.6.6.6
192.168.5.5
172.32.5.2
192.167.10.10

38

Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration
shown from PC1. What is a description of the default
gateway address?
It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the
Internet.
It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.
It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same
LAN.
It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to
Router1.

39 During normal operation, from which location do most
Cisco switches and routers run the IOS?
flash
RAM
NVRAM
disk drive

40
What is an important function of the physical layer of the
OSI model?
It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.
It accepts frames from the physical media.
It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.
It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.

41
Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in
copper cables?
wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
avoiding sharp bends during installation
requiring proper grounding connections
designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together

42
What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2
data encapsulation? (Choose three.)
placement and removal of frames from the media
detection of errors through CRC calculations
conversion of bits into data signals
delimiting groups of bits into frames
data link layer addressing
error correction through a collision detection method
session control using port numbers

43
What method is used to manage contention-based access
on a wireless network?
token passing
CSMA/CD
CSMA/CA
priority ordering

44
What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is
not delivered to the destination?
A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent.
The transmission continues without the missing portion.
The entire transmission is re-sent.

45
What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper
or optical cable
the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a
crossover Ethernet cable connection
the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is
detected
the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation

46
Which function is provided by TCP?
detection of missing packets
communication session control
path determination for data packets
data encapsulation

47
How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?
A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its
ports. However, a Layer 2 switch does not.
A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table.
A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not.
An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch.
However, this is not supported in Layer 2 switches.

48
Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when
subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)
/68
/62
/66
/64
/70

49
What is the purpose of having a converged network?
to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication
infrastructure
to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices
to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally
to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure
devices

50

Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1,
and PC2 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be
contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated
with the Fa0/1 port?
just the PC0 MAC address
PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
just the PC2 MAC address
just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses
just the PC1 MAC address

51
Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the
same during its transmission?
Packet Length
Destination Address
Flag
Time-to-Live

52
What two preconfigured settings that affect security are
found on most new wireless routers? (Choose two.)
MAC filtering enabled
default administrator password
WEP encryption enabled
PSK authentication required
broadcast SSID

53
Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to
the destination when there are multiple routes available?
the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network
the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network
the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network
the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network

54

Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the asterisk
(*) in the exhibited output?
An asterisk designates that the file system has at least one file that uses that file
system.
The asterisk designates which file system is the default file system.
An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable.
The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot the system.

55

56
Fill in the blank.
During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a
specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of
a multicast message.

57
An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a
switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose
of using these keystrokes?
to interrupt the ping process
to restart the ping process
to allow the user to complete the command
to exit to a different configuration mode

58

Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an
extranet for the company network that is shown?
area A
area D
area C
area B

59

60

61
In which default order will a router search for startup
configuration information?
setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP
NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode
NVRAM, RAM, TFTP
TFTP, ROM, NVRAM
flash, ROM, setup mode

62

Launch PT - Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity
instructions and then answer the question.
Which IPv6 address is assigned to the Serial0/0/0 interface
on RT2?
2001:db8:abc:1::1
2001:db8:abc:5::1
2001:db8:abc:5::2
2001:db8:abc:10::15

63
What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?
physical address
data
error detection*
logical address
64



CCNA 2 v5.0 R&S Essentials Final Exam 2014
1.
What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.
Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other
routers.
Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
2.
Fill in the blank.
In IPv6, all routes are level 1 ultimate routes.
3.
Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
ingress port buffering
cut-through switching
store-and-forward switching
borderless switching
4.
Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize
only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0
5.

1
3
4
2
6.
When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which
VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?
data VLAN ID
native VLAN ID
unused VLAN ID
management VLAN ID
7.
A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP
address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video
streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the
Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30.
The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-
236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this
device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?
ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5
ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365
ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365
No additional configuration is necessary.
ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225
8.
Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
It has an administrative distance of 1.
It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
9.
A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and
gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt
or gt keywords be used?
in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN
in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined
for a specific network device
in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to
be used on a specific server
in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to
another LAN
10

Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?
The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the
network routing protocol configuration mode command.
The ipv6 route command was used.
the ip route command was used.
Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a
dynamic routing protocol.
11

Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a
router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to
the switch? (Choose two.)
(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
(config-if)# no switchport
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252
(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown
(config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
(config)# interface fastethernet0/4
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
(config)# ip routing
12.
A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens
when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?
Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.
Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.
Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.
All devices in all VLANs see the frame.
13


the correct answer of question 13 is
1- Each router learns about its own directly connected networks.
2- Each router is responsible for saying hello to its neighbors on directly
connected networks.
3- Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each
directly connected link
4- Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received
in a database
5- Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and
computes the best
14.
Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended
ACL? (Choose two.)
computer type
source TCP hello address
ICMP message type
destination UDP port number
destination MAC address
15

Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route
209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network
172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this
static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?
Add an administrative distance of 254.
Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.
Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.
16.
How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?
the highest IPv6 address on an active interface
the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface
the highest IPv4 address on an active interface
the lowest MAC address on an active interface
17.
Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop
computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of
commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and
create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict
switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect
18.
Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing
protocol to use? (Choose two.)
speed of convergence
scalability
ISP selection
the autonomous system that is used
campus backbone architecture
19

ultimate route
child route
default route
level 1 parent route
20.
What caused the following error message to appear?
01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8,
putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state
01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation
occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.
01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface
FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to
down
An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection
was made on switch port Fa0/8.
Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously
unused.
21.
Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch?
(Choose two.)
In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and
distribution layers.
They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.
The interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.
They are used for point-to-multipoint links.
They are not associated with a particular VLAN.
22.
A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter
environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an
ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?
permit ip any host ip_address
permit icmp any any nd-na
permit ip any any
deny ip any any
23

24.
What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.
Cost equals bandwidth.
A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the
destination.
25

Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured
with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them.
PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on
VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what
direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data
VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose
two.)
outbound
R2 S0/0/1
R1 S0/0/0
inbound
R1 Gi0/1.12
R2 Gi0/1.20
26.
On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will
remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?
Switch(config)# no vlan 100
Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100
Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100
Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat
27.
A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two
commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
28.
What is a function of the distribution layer?
interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets
network access to the user
fault isolation
high-speed backbone connectivity
29.
A small-sized company has 20 workstations and 2 servers. The company has
been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. What
technology should the company implement in order to allow the workstations to
access the services over the Internet?
static NAT
dynamic NAT
port address translation
DHCP
30.
Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an
adjacency? (Choose three.)
The link interface subnet masks must match.
The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2
network command.
The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.
The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id
command.
The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.
31.
Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially
as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)
the cost of that link
the type of network link
the link bandwidth
the link next-hop IP address
the link router interface IP address and subnet mask
32.
What is a disadvantage of NAT?
The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external
communication.
There is no end-to-end addressing.
The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.
The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
33


Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to
configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows
that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which
configuration error is causing this problem?
There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.
The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.
The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.
34

Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able
to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?
R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.
A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP
address.
The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.
The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.
35.
What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
They use hop count as their only metric.
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
They flood the entire network with routing updates.
They only send out updates when a new network is added.
36.
A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure
inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which
command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
37.
Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)
The path a static route uses to send data is known.
No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.
Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better
security.
Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations
than dynamic routing does.
Configuration of static routes is error-free.
Static routes scale well as the network grows.
38.
When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is
the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?
show active SSH ports on the switch
disconnect SSH connected hosts
create a public and private key pair
show SSH connected hosts
access the SSH database configuration
39.
Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?
the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
the source MAC address and the incoming port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
the source MAC address and the outgoing port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
the destination MAC address and the incoming port
40

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a
DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to
verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of
active clients is 0?
The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6
operation.
The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.
No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.
41.
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then
answer the question.
What is the problem preventing PC0 and PC1 from communicating with PC2
and PC3?
The routers are using different OSPF process IDs.
The serial interfaces of the routers are in different subnets.
No router ID has been configured on the routers.
The gigabit interfaces are passive.
42

Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
43.
Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the
interface is down and the line protocol is down?
The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.
There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.
A cable has not been attached to the port.
An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.
44.
Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended
access control list entry? (Choose three.)
access list number between 100 and 199
source subnet mask and wildcard mask
default gateway address and wildcard mask
source address and wildcard mask
destination subnet mask and wildcard mask
access list number between 1 and 99
destination address and wildcard mask
45.
A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25,
192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are
affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use
when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?
0.0.0.127
0.0.0.255
0.0.1.255
0.0.255.255
A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these
particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security
risk.
46.
Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has
expired?
a DHCPREQUEST unicast message
a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message
a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message
47.
What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello
packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?
They request more information about their databases.
They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.
They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead
intervals.
They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs
48.
What benefit does NAT64 provide?
It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing
structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single
public IPv4 address.
It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6
addresses to IPv4 addresses.
It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6
addresses.
49.
What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?
The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management
information, so it should be different from data VLANs.
A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid
bandwidth contention on data VLANs.
The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be
enhanced
50.
Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router,
enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP,
when that link to the ISP is enabled?
ip helper-address
ip address dhcp
ip dhcp pool
service dhcp
51.
Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?
IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.
IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.
IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for
dynamic routes.
IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols
52.
A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19
network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this
network?
ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100
ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100
53

Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the
topology?
5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains
16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains
54.
Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access
control lists? (Choose two.)
show processes
show cdp neighbor
show access-lists
show ip route
show running-config
55.
Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a
NAT device?
IPsec
DNS
Telnet
HTTP
ICMP
56.
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then
answer the question.
Which keyword is displayed on the web browser?
NAT works!
Goodjob!
Welldone!
NAT configured!
57

Refer to the exhibit.
What summary static address would be configured on R1 to advertise to R3?
192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/23
192.168.0.0/22
192.168.0.0/21
58
Fill in the blank.
Static routes are configured by the use of the ip route global configuration
command.
CCNA 3 R&S: Scaling Networks Final Exam
Answers 2014
1

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to upgrade the
IOS system image on a Cisco 2901 router. After the new image has been
downloaded and copied to the TFTP server, what command should be
issued on the router before the IOS system image is upgraded on the
router?
ping 10.10.10.1
dir flash:
ping 10.10.10.2*
copy tftp: flash0:
2

Fill in the blank.
The backbone area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.
3
Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello
messages?
the interface IPv6 link-local address*
the 32-bit router ID
the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address
the IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface
4

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 eigrp
neighbors command. Which conclusion can be drawn based on the output?
The link-local addresses of neighbor routers interfaces are configured
manually.*
If R1 does not receive a hello packet from the neighbor with the link-local address
FE80::5 in 2 seconds, it will declare the neighbor router is down.
R1 has two neighbors. They connect to R1 through their S0/0/0 and S0/0/1
interfaces.
The neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 is the first EIGRP neighbor that
is learned by R1.
5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the
output? (Choose two.)
The network 192.168.10.8/30 can be reached through 192.168.11.1.
The reported distance to network 192.168.1.0/24 is 41024256.
Router R1 has two successors to the 172.16.3.0/24 network.
There is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30.*
The neighbor 172.16.6.1 meets the feasibility condition to reach the
192.168.1.0/24 network.*
6

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator attempts to configure EIGRP for IPv6
on a router and receives the error message that is shown. Which command
must be issued by the administrator before EIGRP for IPv6 can be
configured?
eigrp router-id 100.100.100.100
no shutdown
ipv6 eigrp 100
ipv6 cef
ipv6 unicast-routing*
7
What two conditions have to be met in order to form a cluster that includes
5 access points? (Choose two.)
The APs must use different cluster names.
The APs must all be configured to use different radio modes.
At least two controllers are needed to form the cluster.
The APs have to be connected on the same network segment.*
Clustering mode must be enabled on the APs.*
8
Which technological factor determines the impact of a failure domain?
the forwarding rate of the switches used on the access layer
the number of layers of the hierarchical network
the role of the malfunctioning device*
the number of users on the access layer
9
Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an
EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending
negotiation traffic?
SW1: desirable
SW2: desirable
SW1: passive
SW2: active
SW1: on
SW2: on*
SW1: auto
SW2: auto
trunking enabled on both switches
SW1: auto
SW2: auto
PortFast enabled on both switches
10
In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers
at the distribution layer? (Choose two.)
provide Power over Ethernet to devices
provide a high-speed network backbone
connect remote networks*
connect users to the network
provide data traffic security*
11
A network engineer is implementing security on all company routers.
Which two commands must be issued to force authentication via the
password 1C34dE for all OSPF-enabled interfaces in the backbone area of
the company network? (Choose two.)
area 0 authentication message-digest*
ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 1C34dE*
username OSPF password 1C34dE
enable password 1C34dE
area 1 authentication message-digest
12
When does an OSPF router become an ABR?
when the router is configured as an ABR by the network administrator
when the router has interfaces in different areas*
when the router has an OSPF priority of 0
when the router has the highest router ID
13
Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to
select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?
ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on
VLAN number(s)
ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput
ability to build a routing table*
ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself
14
A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on
the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch
block?
A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.
This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single network
device.
The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.*
This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.
15
A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard
default command. What is the result of this command being issued on a
Cisco switch?
Any switch port will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-
disabled if it receives a BPDU.*
Any trunk ports will be allowed to connect to the network immediately, rather than
waiting to converge.
Any switch port that receives a BPDU will ignore the BPDU message.
16
What are two differences between the Cisco IOS 12 and IOS 15 versions?
(Choose two.)
Every Cisco ISR G2 platform router includes a universal image in the IOS 12
versions, but not the IOS 15 versions.
The IOS version 15 license key is unique to each device, whereas the IOS
version 12 license key is not device specific.*
The IOS 12 version has two trains that occur simultaneously, whereas the IOS 15
version still has two trains, but the versions occur in a single sequential order.
The IOS 12 version has commands that are not available in the 15 version.
IOS version 12.4(20)T1 is a mainline release, whereas IOS version 15.1(1)T1
is a new feature release.*
17

Refer to the exhibit. What are two results of issuing the displayed
commands on S1, S2, and S3? (Choose two.)
S3 can be elected as a secondary bridge.
S2 can become root bridge if S3 fails.
S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the lowest.*
S2 can become root bridge if S1 fails.*
S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the highest.
18
A remote classroom can successfully access video-intensive streaming
lectures via wired computers. However, when an 802.11n wireless access
point is installed and used with 25 wireless laptops to access the same
lectures, poor audio and video quality is experienced. Which wireless
solution would improve the performance for the laptops?
Upgrade the access point to one that can route.
Decrease the power of the wireless transmitter.
Adjust the wireless NICs in the laptops to operate at 10GHz to be compatible with
802.11n.
Add another access point.*
19
A network engineer is troubleshooting a single-area OSPFv3
implementation across routers R1, R2, and R3. During the verification of the
implementation, it is noted that the routing tables on R1 and R2 do not
include the entry for a remote LAN on R3. Examination of R3 shows the
following:
that all interfaces have correct addressing
that the routing process has been globally configured
that correct router adjacencies have formed
What additional action taken on R3 could solve the problem?
Force DR/BDR elections to occur where required.
Use the network command to configure the LAN network under the global routing
process.
Enable the OSPFv3 routing process on the interface connected to the
remote LAN.*
Restart the OPSFv3 routing process.
20
When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?
when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM
when a router has more than three active interfaces
when a network contains discontiguous network addresses*
when a router has less than five active interfaces
when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
21
When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in the
active state?
when the EIGRP domain is converged
when there is outgoing traffic toward the destination network
when the connection to the successor of the destination network fails and
there is no feasible successor available*
when there is an EIGRP message from the successor of the destination network
22
Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a
hierarchical network design?
add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network
continually purchase backup equipment for the network*
immediately replace a non-functioning module, service or device on a network
implement STP portfast between the switches on the network
23
Fill in the blank. Use the acronym.
Which encryption protocol is used by the WPA2 shared key authentication
technique? AES
24

Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given
from the R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip
interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up.
What is the most likely problem?
R1 has not sent a default route down to R2 by using the default-information
originate command.
R2 has not brought the S0/0/1 interface up yet.
R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.*
The ISP has not configured a static route for the ABC Company yet.
R1 or R2 does not have a loopback interface that is configured yet.
25

Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100, which
configuration must be entered?
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 255.255.255.248
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 255.255.255.248
B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 255.255.255.192
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63*
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
26

Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting missing
OSPFv3 routes on a router. What is the cause of the problem based on the
command output?
The local router has formed complete neighbor adjacencies, but must be in a
2WAY state for the router databases to be fully synchronized.
The neighbor IDs are incorrect. The interfaces must use only IPv6 addresses to
ensure fully synchronized routing databases.
The dead time must be higher than 30 for all routers to form neighbor
adjacencies.
There is a problem with the OSPFv3 adjacency between the local router and
the router that is using the neighbor ID 2.2.2.2.*
27

Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output?
(Choose two.)
The bundle is fully operational.
The port channel is a Layer 3 channel.
The EtherChannel is down.*
The port channel ID is 2.*
The load-balancing method used is source port to destination port.
28

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the command output shown, what is the
status of the EtherChannel?
The EtherChannel is dynamic and is using ports Fa0/10 and Fa0/11 as passive
ports.
The EtherChannel is in use and functional as indicated by the SU and P
flags in the command output.*
The EtherChannel is down as evidenced by the protocol field being empty.
The EtherChannel is partially functional as indicated by the P flags for the
FastEthernet ports.
29
A network engineer is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to make
better use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the
engineer implement?
FHRP
VRRP
GLBP*
HSRP
30
Users on an IEEE 801.11n network are complaining of slow speeds. The
network administrator checks the AP and verifies it is operating properly.
What can be done to improve the wireless performance in the network?
Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz
band.*
Set the AP to mixed mode.
Change the authentication method on the AP.
Switch to an 802.11g AP.
31
A network administrator is troubleshooting slow performance in a Layer 2
switched network. Upon examining the IP header, the administrator notices
that the TTL value is not decreasing. Why is the TTL value not decreasing?
This is the normal behavior for a Layer 2 network.*
The VLAN database is corrupt.
The MAC address table is full.
The inbound interface is set for half duplex.
32
What is a wireless modulation technique used by 802.11 WLAN standards
that can implement MIMO?
FHSS
OFDM*
BSS
DSSS
33
Which technology is an open protocol standard that allows switches to
automatically bundle physical ports into a single logical link?
Multilink PPP
PAgP
DTP
LACP*
34
A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge
priority value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the
root?
32768
4096
65535
61440*
35
Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician who
is installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses
Bluetooth?
ad hoc mode*
hotspot
mixed mode
infrastructure mode
36

Refer to the exhibit. Which route or routes will be advertised to the router
ISP if autosummarization is enabled?
10.0.0.0/8*
10.1.0.0/16
10.1.0.0/28
10.1.1.0/24
10.1.2.0/24
10.1.3.0/24
10.1.4.0/28
37
When are EIGRP update packets sent?
only when necessary*
every 30 seconds via broadcast
every 5 seconds via multicast
when learned routes age out
38
Which requirement should be checked before a network administrator
performs an IOS image upgrade on a router?
The old IOS image file has been deleted.
The FTP server is operational.
There is sufficient space in flash memory.*
The desired IOS image file has been downloaded to the router.
39
What method of wireless authentication is dependent on a RADIUS
authentication server?
WPA Personal
WEP
WPA2 Enterprise*
WPA2 Personal
40
A network administrator wants to verify the default delay values for the
interfaces on an EIGRP-enabled router. Which command will display these
values?
show running-config
show interfaces*
show ip protocols
show ip route
41
A network administrator in a branch office is configuring EIGRP
authentication between the branch office router and the headquarters office
router. Which security credential is needed for the authentication process?
a randomly generated key with the crypto key generate rsa command
a common key configured with the key-string command inside a key chain*
the username and password configured on the headquarters office router
the hostname of the headquarters office router and a common password
42

Refer to the exhibit. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 on S1 is connected to
Interface FastEthernet 0/1 on S2, and Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on S1 is
connected to Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on S2. What are two errors in the
present EtherChannel configurations? (Choose two.)
Desirable mode is not compatible with on mode.
The trunk mode is not allowed for EtherChannel bundles.
Two auto modes cannot form a bundle.*
The channel group is inconsistent.*
The interface port channel ID should be different in both switches.
43
Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest cost to
reach the root bridge?
disabled port
root port*
designated port
non-designated port
44
What are two features of OSPF interarea route summarization? (Choose
two.)
ASBRs perform all OSPF summarization.
Routes within an area are summarized by the ABR.*
Route summarization results in high network traffic and router overhead.
ABRs advertise the summarized routes into the backbone.*
Type 3 and type 5 LSAs are used to propagate summarized routes.
45
Launch PT Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then
answer the question.
Which message was displayed on the web server?
Work done!
Congratulations!
Wonderful work!
Youve made it!*
46

Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information could be determined by
a network administrator from this output? (Choose two.)
The metric that will be installed in the routing table for the 10.0.0.0 route will be
65 (64+1).
Interface Fa0/1 is not participating in the OSPF process.
R1 is the distribution point for the routers that are attached to the 10.0.0.4
network.
R1 is participating in multiarea OSPF.*
The OSPF process number that is being used is 0.
47

RouterA# -> copy flash0:tftp:
Source Filename? -> C1900-universalk9-m.SPA.152-4.M3.bin
Address or name of remote host ->2001:DB8:CAFE:100::9
48
A network administrator has configured an EtherChannel between two
switches that are connected via four trunk links. If the physical interface for
one of the trunk links changes to a down state, what happens to the
EtherChannel?
Spanning Tree Protocol will recalculate the remaining trunk links.
The EtherChannel will remain functional.
The EtherChannel will transition to a down state.*
Spanning Tree Protocol will transition the failed physical interface into forwarding
mode.
49

Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames
are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?
MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers
MAC address of the standby router
MAC address of the virtual router*
MAC address of the forwarding router
50

Refer to the exhibit. A company has migrated from single area OSPF to
multiarea. However, none of the users from network 192.168.1.0/24 in the
new area can be reached by anyone in the Branch1 office. From the output
in the exhibit, what is the problem?
There are no interarea routes in the routing table for network 192.168.1.0.*
The OSPF routing process is inactive.
The router has not established any adjacencies with other OSPF routers.
The link to the new area is down.
51
What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a
Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)
Telnet or SSH access to the device
a connection to an operational network interface on the device
a direct connection to the console or AUX port*
a terminal emulation client*
HTTP access to the device
52
For troubleshooting missing EIGRP routes on a router, what three types of
information can be collected using the show ip protocols command?
(Choose three.)
any interfaces on the router that are configured as passive*
any ACLs that are affecting the EIGRP routing process*
any interfaces that are enabled for EIGRP authentication
networks that are unadvertised by the EIGRP routing protocol*
the local interface that is used to establish an adjacency with EIGRP neighbors
the IP addresses that are configured on adjacent routers
53
What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel
between two switches? (Choose two.)
All the interfaces need to work at the same speed.*
All interfaces need to be assigned to different VLANs.
The interfaces that are involved need to be contiguous on the switch.
All the interfaces need to be working in the same duplex mode.*
Different allowed ranges of VLANs must exist on each end.
54

This type of LSA exists in multi-access & non-broadcast multi-access
networks w/DR => TYPE 2 LSA
This type of LSA describes routes to networks outside of the OSPF
AS => TYPE 5 LSA
This type of LSA is flooded only within the area which it
originated => TYPE 1 LSA
This type of LSA is used by ABR to advertise networks from other
areas => TYPE 3 LSA
55
At a local college, students are allowed to connect to the wireless network
without using a password. Which mode is the access point using?
network
shared-key
open*
passive
56
What are three access layer switch features that are considered when
designing a network? (Choose three.)
broadcast traffic containment
forwarding rate***
failover capability
Power over Ethernet***
speed of convergence
port density***
57

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.1.0 in
the R2 routing table?
This network has been learned from an internal router within the same area.
This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.*
This network is directly connected to the interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.
58
Which two statements are correct about EIGRP acknowledgment packets?
(Choose two.)
The packets are sent as unicast.*
The packets are unreliable.*
The packets are used to discover neighbors that are connected on an interface.
The packets require confirmation.
The packets are sent in response to hello packets.
59
An STP instance has failed and frames are flooding the network. What
action should be taken by the network administrator?
Broadcast traffic should be investigated and eliminated from the network.
Spanning tree should be disabled for that STP instance until the problem is
located.
Redundant links should be physically removed until the STP instance is
repaired.*
A response from the network administrator is not required because the TTL field
will eventually stop the frames from flooding the network.
60
A network administrator issues the command R1(config)# license boot module
c1900 technology-package securityk9 on a router. What is the effect of this
command?
The IOS will prompt the user to provide a UDI in order to activate the license.
The IOS will prompt the user to reboot the router.
The features in the Security package are available immediately.
The Evaluation Right-To-Use license for the Security technology package is
activated.*
61
A router has been removed from the network for maintenance. A new Cisco
IOS software image has been successfully downloaded to a server and
copied into the flash of the router. What should be done before placing the
router back into service?
Delete the previous version of the Cisco IOS software from flash.
Copy the running configuration to NVRAM.
Back up the new image.
Restart the router and verify that the new image starts successfully.*
62
What are the two methods that are used by a wireless NIC to discover an
AP? (Choose two.)
receiving a broadcast beacon frame*
delivering a broadcast frame
transmitting a probe request*
sending an ARP request
initiating a three-way handshak
63

Refer to the exhibit. Why did R1 and R2 not establish ad adjacency?
The link-local address must be the same on both routers.
The AS number must be the same on R1 and R2.*
R1 S0/0/0 and R2 S0/0/0 are on different networks.
The no shutdown command is misapplied on both routers.
The router ID must be the same on both routers.
64

feasible distance to 192.168.11.64 => 660110
new successor to network 192.168.1.0 => 192.168.3.1
destination network => 192.168.11.64


CCNA 4 Final Exam Connecting Networks
(Version 5.0)
1 Why is it useful categorize networks by size when discussing network
design?
Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many additional layers
will be added to the three-tier hierarchical network design.
Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many multilayer
switches will be necessary at the core layer.
A high-level redundancy at the access layer may be better implemented if the
number of connected devices is know.
The complexity of networking infrastructure will vary according to the
number of connected devices.*
2 Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two
Cisco routers? (Choose two.)
Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.
NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.
With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.
LCP tests the quality of the link.*
LCP manages compression on the link.*
3 What is a disadvantage of a packet-switched network compared to a
circuit-switched network?
fixed capacity
higher latency*
less flexibility
higher cost
4 Which statement describes a characteristic of dense wavelength division
multiplexing (DWDM)?
it assigns incoming electrical signals to specific frequencies.
it can be used in long-range communications, like connections between
ISPs.*
it enables bidirectional communications over one pair of copper cables.
it supports the SONET standard, but not the SDH standard.
5

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF
network. The 10.10.0.0/16 network is not showing up in the routing table of
Router1. What is the probable cause of this problem?
The OSPF process is configured incorrectly on Router1.
There is an incorrect wildcard mask statement for network 10.10.0.0/16 on
Router2.*
The OSPF process is not running on Router2.
The serial interface on Router2 is down.
6 The security policy in a company specifies that the staff in the sales
department must use a VPN to connect to the corporate network to access
the sales data when they travel to meet customers. What component is
needed by the sales staff to establish a remote VPN connection?
VPN appliance
VPN concentrator
VPN client software*
VPN gateway
7 A network administrator is troubleshooting the dynamic NAT that is
configured on router R2. Which command can the administrator use to see
the total number of active NAT translations and the number of addresses
that are allocated from the NAT pool?
R2# show ip nat translations
R2# clear ip nat translation
R2# show running-config
R2# show ip nat statistics*
8 Which three parts of a Frame Relay Layer 2 PDU are used for congestion
control? (Choose three.)
the FECN bit*
the BECN bit*
the C/R bit
the 10-bit DLCI
the Extended Address field
the DE bit*
9 Which two statements correctly describe asymmetric encryption used
with an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)
The same encryption keys must be manually configured on each device.
Public key encryption is a type of asymmetric encryption.*
Encryption and decryption use a different key.*
A shared secret key is used to perform encryption and descryption.
AES is an example of an asymmetric encryption protocol.
10 Which WAN technology can serve as the underlying network to carry
multiple types of network traffic such as IP, ATM, Ethernet, and DSL?
MPLS*
ISDN
Ethernet WAN
Frame Relay
11 Drag and droop

Place the options in the following order:
PAP Characteristics
uses two-way handshake
single challenge
weak authentication
clear text passwords
CHAP Characteristics
uses three-way handshake
repeated challenges
strong authentication
encrypted passwords
12 Which command can be used to check the information about congestion
on a Frame Relay link?
show frame-relay lmi
show interfaces
show frame-relay pvc*
show frame-relay map
13 Which two statements describe remote access VPNs? (Choose two.)
Client software is usually required to be able to access the network.*
Remote access VPNs are used to connect entire networks, such as a branch
office to headquarters.
Remote access VPNs support the needs of telecommuters and mobile
users.*
A leased line is required to implement remote access VPNs.
End users are not aware that VPNs exists.
14

Refer to the exhibit. Which three steps are required to configure Multilik
PPP on the HQ router? (Choose three.)
Bind the multilink bundle to the Fast Ethernet interface.
Enable PPP encapsulation on the multilink interface.
Assign the serial interfaces to the multilink bundle.*
Create and configure the multilink interface.*
Assign the Fast Ethernet interface to the multilink bundle
Enable PPP encapsulation on the serial interfaces.*
15 What are two examples of network problems that are found at the data
link layer? (Choose two.)
incorrect interface clock rates
late collisions and jabber
framing errors*
electromagnetic interface
encapsulation errors*
16 What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames
over DSL networks?
CHAP
ADSL
PPPoE*
LTE
17 What is required for a host to use an SSL VPN to connect to a remote
network device?
The host must be connected to wired network.
A site-to-site VPN must be preconfigured.
A web browser must be installed on the host.*
VPN client software must be installed.
18

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented the
configuration in the displayed output. What is missing from the
configuration that would be preventing OSPF routing updates from passing
to the Frame Relay service provider?
The command to disable split horizon has not been issued.
The passive-interface command has not been issued on interface serial 0/1/0
The directly connected neighbor should have been identified by using static
mapping.
The broadcast keyword has not been issued.*
19

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring NAT to provide Internet
access to the inside network. After the configurtation is completed, users
are unable to access the internet. What is the cause of the problem?
The inside and outside interfaces are backwards.
The ACL is referencing the wrong network address.
The NAT inside source command is referring to the wrong ACL.*
The NAT pool is using an invalid address range.
20 A company connects to one ISP via multiple connections. What is the
name given to this type of connection?
multihomed
single-homed
dual-multihomed
dual-homed*
21

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about
network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)
There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*
The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 miliseconds.
This host does not have a default gateway configured.
The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.
There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*
22 A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:
R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70
What is the effect of these commands?
The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70
percent.
The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.*
The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70
percent or more.
The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be
accepted.
23 Which IEEE standard defines the WiMax technology?
802.5
802.11
802.16*
802.3
24 Which three flows associated with consumer applications are supported
by NetFlow collectors? (Choose three.)
accounting*
network monitoring*
error correction
bandwidth regulation
quality of service
billing*
25


Refer to the exhibit. What kind of NAT is being configured on R1?
NAT overload
dynamic NAT
port forwarding*
PAT
26

Place the options in the following order:
Outside global
- not scored -
Outside local
Inside global
- not scored -
Inside local
27 What is the default location for Cisco routers and switches to send
critical logging events?
syslog server
virtual terminal
console port*
auxiliary port
28 In the data gathering process, which type of device will listen for traffic,
but only gather traffic statistics?
SNMP agent
NetFlow collector*
syslog server
NMS
29 What is a characteristic of Frame Relay that allows customer data
transmissions to dynamically burst over their CIR for short periods of
time?
The combination of LMI status messages and Inverse ARP messages enables
the CIR to be exceeded.
The physical circuits of the Frame Relay network are shared between
subscribers and there may be times when unused bandwidth is available.*
BECN and FECN messages notify the router that the CIR can be exceeded.
Bursting is enabled by the configuration of multiple subinterfaces on one physical
interface.
30 Which SNMP message type informs the network management system
(NMS) immediately of certain specified events?
GET response
SET request
GET request
Trap*
31 Which statement is a characteristic of SNMP MIBs?
The SNMP agent uses the SNMP manager to access information within the MIB.
The MIB structure for a given device includes only variables that are specific to
that device or vendor.
The MIB organizes variables in a flat manner.
The NMS must have access to the MIB in order for SNMP to operate
properly.*
32 What benefit does NAT64 provide?
It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the
IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.*
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single
public IPv4 address.
It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal
addressing structure form hosts on public IPv4 networks.
It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6
addresses.
33 What is the expected behavior of an ADSL service?
The user can select the upload and download rates based on need.
The download and upload rates are the same.
The upload rate is faster than the download rate.
The download rate is faster than the upload rate.*
34 The DLCI number assigned to a Frame Relay circuit is to be manually
added on a point-to-point link. Which three subinterface commands could
be used to complete the configuration? (Choose three.)
frame-relay map ip ip-address dlci
frame-relay map ip ip-address dlci broadcast
no shutdown
ip address ip-address mask*
encapsulation farme-relay
bandwidth kilobits*
frame-relay interface dlci dlci*
35 A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet
network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs
can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To
troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP
address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to
the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will
provide the necesary information? (Choose three.)
tracert
telnet
ping*
netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor
nslookup*
arp -a
ipconfig*
36


Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 was configured by a network administrator
to use SNMP version 2. The following commands were issued:
R1(config)# snmp-server community batonaug ro SNMP_ACL
R1(config)# snmp-server contact Wayne World
R1(config)# snmp-server host 192.168.1.3 version 2c batonaug
R1(config)# ip access-list standard SNMP_ACL
R1(config-std-nacl)# permit 192.168.10.3
Why is the administrator not able to get any information from R1?
The snmp-server community command needs to include the rw keyword.
The snmp-server location command is missing.
There is a problem with the ACL configuration.*
The snmp-server enable traps command is missing.
37 Which broadband technology would be best for a small office that
requires fast upstream connections?
DSL
Cable
fiber-to-the-home*
WiMax
38


Refer to the exhibit. The inside local IP address of PC-A is 192.168.0.200.
What will be the inside global address of packets from PC-A after they are
translated by R1?
192.168.0.1
172.16.0.1
209.165.200.225*
10.0.0.1
192.168.0.200
39 What is a type of VPN that is generally transparent to the end user?
remote access
public
site-to-site*
private
40 Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO*
uses RF signal transmission
users are on a shared medium
local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)*
physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS
41


Refer to the exhibit. Which three events will occur as a result of the
configuration shown on R1? (Choose three.)
Only traffic that originates from the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface will be
monitored.*
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 or
lower.*
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will use 192.168.1.5 as the
destination IP address.*
The syslog messages will contain the IP address the GigabitEthernet 0/1
interface.
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3 and higher.
For multiple occurrences of the same error, only the first three messages will be
sent to the server.
42 Which two characteristics describe time-division multiplexing? (Choose
two.)
Traffic is allocated bandwidth across a single wire based on preassigned
time slots.*
Bandwidth is allocated to channels based on whether a station has data to
transmit.
Encoding technology provides high data throughput in a minimum RF spectrum
by supporting parallel data transmission.
Data capacity across a single link increases as bits from multiple sources
are transmitted using interleaved slices of time.*
Depending on the configured layer 2 protocol, data is transmitted across two or
more channels via the use of time slots.
43 Which two specialized troubleshooting tools can monitor the amount of
traffic that passes through a switch? (Choose two.)
TDR
DTX cable analyzer
NAM*
digital multimeter
portable network analyzer*
44 Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement
a corporate WAN?
when its employees become distributed across many branch locations*
when the enterprise decides to secure its corporate LAN
when the network will span multiple buildings
when the number of employees exceeds the capacity of the LAN
45 Which algorithm is considered insecure for use in IPsec encryption?
RSA
3DES*
SHA-1
AES
46 What is one advantage to designing networks in bulding block fashion
for large companies?
fewer required physical resources
increased network access time
coarse security control
failure isolation*
47 Which two technologies are implemented by organizations to support
teleworker remote connections? (Choose two.)
CMTS
VPN*
CDMA
IPsec*
DOCSIS
48 A branch office uses a leased line to connect to the corporate network.
The lead network engineer confirms connectivity between users in the
branch office, but none of the users can access corporate headquarters.
System logs indicate that nothing has changed in the branch office
network. What should the engineer consider next to resolve this network
outage?
The network technician for the branch office should troubleshoot the switched
infrastructure.
The server administrator in the branch office should reconfigured the DHCP
server.
The service provider for the branch office should troubleshoot the issue
starting from the point of demarcation.*
The system administartor in the branch office should reconfigure the default
gateway on the user PCs.
49


Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address is configured on the physical
interface of the CORP router?
10.1.1.1
209.165.202.134
10.1.1.2
209.165.202.133*
50 How many 64 kb/s voice channels are combined to produce a T1 line?
8
32
24*
16
51 Which network module maintains the resources that employees,
partners, and customers rely on to effectively create, colaborate, and
interact with information?
services
access-distribution
data-center*
enterprise edge
52 Which broadband solution is appropriate for a home user who needs a
wired connection not limited by distance?
ADSL
cable*
DSL
WiMax
53 A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow
simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP can only supply
five public IP addresses for this network. What technology can the
administrator use to accomplish this task?
classless interdomain routing
variable length subnet masks
classful subnetting
port-based Network Address Translation*
54 What is the purpose of a message hash in a VPN connection?
It ensures that the data is coming from the correct source.
It ensures that the data cannot be duplicated and replayed to the destination.
It ensures that the data has not changed while in transit.*
It ensures that the data cannot be read in plain text.
55 Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing
through a NAT device?
DNS
Telnet
HTTP
ICMP
IPsec*
56 Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing
network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of
information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is
part of a normal network behavior?
network configuration files
syslog records and messages
debug output and packet captures
the network performance baseline*
57 What are three benefits of using Frame Relay for WAN connectivity?
(Choose three.)
mature technology*
QoS support using the IP precedence field
integrated encryption
one physical interface that can be used for several circuits*
reasonable cost*
seamless direct connectivity to an Ethernet LAN
58 What type of information is collected by Cisco NetFlow?
interface errors
traffic statistics*
memory usage
CPU usage
59 Which technology requires the use of PPPoE to provide PPP
connections to customers?
dialup ISDN modem
T1
DSL*
dialup analog modem
60 Under which two categories of WAN connections does Frame Relay fit?
(Choose two.)
packet-switched*
private infrastructure*
public infrastructure
Internet
dedicated
61 What are three characteristics of the generic routing encapsulation
(GRE) protocol? (Choose three.)
GRE tunnels support multicast traffic.*
GRE creates additional overload for packets that are traveling through the
VPN.*
GRE uses AES for encryption unless otherwise specified
By default, GRE does not include any flow control mechanisms.*
Developed by the IETF, GRE is a secure tunneling protocol that was designed for
Cisco routers.
GRE provides encapsulation for a single protocol type that is traveling through
the VPN.
62 An intercity bus company wants to offer constat Internet connectivity to
the users traveling on the buses. Which two types of WAN infrastructure
would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
cellular*
dedicated
private infrastructure
circuit-switched
public infrastructure*
63 What is used as the default event logging destination for Cisco routers
and switches?
syslog server
terminal line
workstation
console line*