Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 6. The unit m3 is used to express a. length. b. mass. c. volume. d. density.
1. The dimensions of a rectangular solid are measured
to be 1.27 cm, 1.3 cm, and 2.5 cm. The volume should be recorded as a. 4.128 cm3. b. 4.12 cm3. c. 4.13 cm3. d. 4.1 cm3.
7. Which of these statements about the scientific
method is not true? a. All experiments must follow the same step-by-step procedure. b. Experiments may be repeated several times. c. Some unexpected results can be beneficial. d. Experimental results may or may not support the hypothesis.
2. Three samples of 1.12 g, 1.8 g, and 1.562 g are
mixed together. The combined mass of the three samples, expressed to the correct number of significant figures, would be recorded as a. 4.4 g. b. 4.48 g. c. 4.482 g. d. 4.5 g.
8. Ten plants are grown in equal amounts of sunlight
with equal amounts of water and varying amounts of fertilizer. Sunlight, water, and fertilizer are a. controls. b. experiments. c. systems. d. variables.
3. The speed of light is 300 000 km/s. In scientific
notation, this speed is written to one significant figure as a. 3 105 km/s. b. 3.0 105 km/s. c. 3. 106 km/s. d. 3.0 106 km/s.
9. An experiment was designed to measure the effect
of sulfur dioxide emissions from a power plant on the pH of rain falling downwind of the plant. In this experiment, the average pH of rainwater upwind from the plant would be considered a. a model. b. a variable. c. the hypothesis. d. the control.
4. The most appropriate SI unit for measuring the
length of an automobile is the a. millimeter. b. kilometer. c. meter. d. liter. 5. If some measurements agree closely with each other but differ widely from the actual value, these measurements are a. both accurate and precise. b. neither precise nor accurate. c. precise but not accurate. d. accurate but not precise.
10. The relationship between the mass m of a material,
its volume V, and its density D is a. D = mV. b. D = V/m. c. D = m/V. d. D = m + v.
Name: ________________________
ID: A
11. Using a metric ruler with 1 mm divisions, the sides
of a rectangular piece of plywood were measured as 3.54 cm and 4.85 cm, which corresponds to an area of 17.1690 cm2. Which of these shows the area expressed correctly? a. 17.1 cm2. b. 17.169 cm2. c. 17.17 cm2. d. 17.2 cm2.
15. A scientist hypothesizes that a colorless gas
produced during a chemical reaction is carbon dioxide. Which observation would confirm this hypothesis? a. The gas will react violently with water. b. A glowing splint placed in the gas will burn brighter. c. Buring the gas in presence of oxygen will produce water. d. Bubbling the gas through lime water will make the lime water cloudy.
12. The average distance between the sun and Earth is
about 150 million km. Light travels at a speed of 3.0 10 8 m/s. Dividing the distance by the speed and then multiplying by the number of meters in a kilometer will result in units of a. seconds. b. meters per second. c. kilometers squared. d. kilometers per second.
16. A three-dimensional region around a nucleus where
an electron may be found is called a(n) a. spectral line. b. electron path. c. orbital. d. orbit. 17. A spherical electron cloud surrounding an atomic nucleus would best represent a. an s orbital. b. a px orbital. c. a combination of px and py orbitals. d. a combination of an s and a px orbital.
13. In an experiment, onion plants of different ages
were exposed to various amounts of caffeine to determine the effect of caffeine on cell growth. Temperature, amount of water, and light were kept constant. Which of these statements about the experiment is definitely true? a. The results may not be valid because there were two variables. b. The amount of caffeine used was a control. c. Temperature, water, and light were the only variables. d. Onion plants can be used to model the effects of caffeine on living things.
18. What is the maximum number of electrons that a
single orbital can hold? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 19. For each successive electron removed from an atom, the ionization energy a. increases. b. decreases. c. remains the same. d. shows no pattern.
14. A student recorded the following while completing
an experiment. Color of substance: yellow, shiny powder Effect of magnet: yellow, shiny powder was attracted
20. The force of attraction by Group 1 metals for their
valence electrons is a. weak. b. zero. c. strong. d. greater than that for inner shell electrons.
The student should classify the substance as a(n)
a. element. b. compound. c. mixture. d. plasma.
Name: ________________________
ID: A
21. The electrons available to be lost, gained, or shared
when atoms form compounds are called a. ions. b. valence electrons. c. d electrons. d. electron clouds.
28. Which of the following processes always decreases
the number of protons by an even number? a. fusion b. beta decay c. alpha decay d. fission
22. Within a group of elements, as the atomic number
increases, the atomic radius a. increases. b. remains approximately constant. c. decreases regularly. d. varies unpredictably.
29. Which of the following forms of radiation has the
greatest penetrating power? a. alpha particles b. beta particles c. gamma rays d. positrons
23. In the alkaline-earth group, atoms with the smallest
radii a. are the most reactive. b. have the largest volume. c. are all gases. d. have the highest ionization energies.
30. Which of the following lists ranks nuclear radiation
from most massive to least massive? a. alpha, beta, and gamma b. beta, gamma, and alpha c. gamma, alpha, and beta d. gamma, beta, and alpha
24. As you move down Group 14 in the periodic table
from carbon through lead, atomic radii a. generally increase. b. generally decrease. c. do not change. d. vary unpredictably.
31. The half-life of an isotope is the time required for
half the nuclei in a sample to a. undergo radioactive decay. b. undergo nuclear fission. c. undergo nuclear fusion. d. react chemically.
25. The process that changes the identity and number
of protons in a nucleus is a. fusion. b. transmutation. c. fission. d. All of the above
32. To use radioactive dating for a substance, you must
know the substance's a. melting point. b. half-life. c. rate of weathering or erosion. d. enthalpy of reaction.
26. The energy released in a nuclear reaction comes
from a. electrons. b. bonds. c. positrons. d. the binding energy of the nucleus.
33. What fraction of a radioactive sample remains after
the decayed of two half-lives elapsed? 1 a. 4 1 b. 2 2 c. 3 d. The whole sample has decayed.
27. What device uses controlled nuclear fission to
produce new radioactive substances and energy? a. synchrotron b. nuclear reactor c. nuclear bomb d. linear accelerator
Name: ________________________
ID: A
34. Oxidation numbers are used to indicate the
a. charge on an ion. b. number of atoms or ions in a compound. c. type of bond holding particles together in a compound. d. distribution of electrons among the bonded particles in a compound.
41. Which best explains the observation that metals are
malleable and ionic crystals are brittle? a. their chemical bonds b. their London forces c. their enthalpies of vaporization d. their net change
35. Atoms have an oxidation number of zero in a(n)
a. pure element. b. acid. c. ionic compound. d. molecular compound.
42. The equal but opposite charges present in the two
regions of a polar molecule create a(n) a. electron sea. b. dipole. c. crystal lattice. d. ionic bond.
36. How many electrons must be shown in the Lewis
structure of the hydroxide ion, OH ? a. 1 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10
43. Which statement about the hardness of diamond
and graphite is correct? a. Diamond is very soft, and graphite is very hard. b. Diamond is very hard, and graphite is very soft. c. Both diamond and graphite are very hard. d. Both diamond and graphite are very soft.
37. What is the formula for barium hydroxide?
a. BaOH b. BaOH2 c. Ba(OH)2 d. Ba(OH)
44. The atoms in graphite
a. form a tetrahedral network. b. are arranged in squares. c. are arranged in layers that form thin hexagonal plates. d. form a face-centered cube.
38. Name the compound Ni(ClO3)2.
a. nickel(II) chlorate b. nickel(II) chloride c. nickel(II) chlorite d. nickel(II) peroxide
45. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Not all carbon-containing compounds are classified as organic. b. All organic compounds contain carbon. c. Hydrocarbons are the simplest organic compounds. d. Not all organic compounds contain covalent bonds.
39. Name the compound Fe(NO3)2.
a. iron(II) nitrate b. iron(II) nitrite c. iron(III) nitrate d. iron(III) nitride
46. Hydrocarbons in which carbon atoms are connected
by only single bonds in straight chains or branched chains are called a. aromatic hydrocarbons. b. alkynes. c. alkenes. d. alkanes.
40. The forces of attraction between molecules in a
molecular compound are a. stronger than the forces among formula units in ionic bonding. b. weaker than the forces among formula units in ionic bonding. c. approximately equal to the forces among formula units in ionic bonding. d. zero.
47. The hydrocarbon, C 6H12, is an example of a(n)
a. alkane. b. cycloalkane. c. alkyne. d. aromatic.
Name: ________________________
ID: A
48. The straight-chain alkane with six carbon atoms is
called a. butane. b. pentane. c. hexane. d. heptane. 49. The number of atoms in 1 mol of carbon is a. 6.022 1022. b. 6.022 1023. c. 5.022 1022. d. 5.022 1023. 50. The molecular mass of CO2 is 44.01 amu. What is the mass of 2.0 mol of CO2? a. 44.01 amu b. 44.01 g c. 88.02 amu d. 88.02 g 51. What is the mass of 3.56 mol of glucose, C6H12O6? (The molar mass of`C6H12O6 is 180.18 g/mol.) a. 50.6 g b. 641 g c. 0.0198 g d. 2.14 1024 g