PRACTICE SET

IBPS PO-CWE
Test-I: Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. 1-5): Study the following information
carefully to answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement machine when given
an input line of words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of the input and rearrangement. (All the numbers
are two-digit numbers.)
Input:
76 pink 83 colour 79 each 65 owl ice 81
Step I:
each 76 pink 83 colour 79 65 owl ice 81
Step II: each 65 76 pink 83 colour 79 owl ice 81
Step III: each 65 ice 76 pink 83 colour 79 owl 81
Step IV: each 65 ice 76 owl pink 83 colour 79 81
Step V: each 65 ice 76 owl 79 pink 83 colour 81
Step VI: each 65 ice 76 owl 79 colour pink 83 81
Step VII: each 65 ice 76 owl 79 colour 81 pink 83
Step VII is the last step of the above input as the
desired arrangement is obtained. As per the rules
followed above, find the appropriate step for the given
input.
Input: magazine 14 desire 21 input 13 28 expire activate
25 30
1. Which step number is the following output?
activate 13 expire 14 input magazine desire 21 28 25 30
1) Step IV
2) Step V
3) Step VII
4) There is no such step
5) None of these
2. How many elements (words or numbers) are there
between 14 and 25 as they appear in the last step
but one?
1) Two
2) Three
3) Four
4) Five
5) Six
3. Which word/number would be at the fifth position
from the right in Step III?
1) desire
2) 14
3) input
4) 21
5) None of these
4. Which of the following represents the position of
input in the sixth step?
1) Seventh from the left
2) Fifth from the right
3) Fifth from the left
4) Sixth from the right
5) None of these
5. How many steps would be required to get the final
output?
1) Six
2) Seven
3) Five
4) Nine
5) Eight

Directions (Q. 6-8): Study the following information

carefully and answer the given questions.
There are five bottles A, E, I, O and U arranged on a
table but not necessarily in the same order. Bottle E is to
the north of bottle O. Bottle I is to the south of bottle E.
Bottle A and bottle U are in the east and west respectively
of bottle I.
6. In which direction is bottle O with respect to bottle I?
1) South
2) North
3) Either 1) or 2)
4) East
5) North-east
7. If bottle I is exactly between E and O then in which
direction is bottle A with respect to bottle O?
1) North
2) North-east
3) South-east
4) South
5) None of these
8. In which direction is bottle U with respect to bottle E?
1) South
2) South-east
3) West
4) South-west
5) None of these
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
EDITION each of which has as many letters between
them in the word as in the English alphabetical series?
1) One
2) Two
3) Three
4) Four
5) None of these
10. In a certain code langauge RIVER is written as LUXOB.
How is TEPID written in that code language?
1) HWRAF
2) HWQAF
3) HRNAF
4) AFRHW
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 11-15): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
There are six family members L, M, N, O, P and Q. Each
member has a different choice of ice cream, viz Vanilla,
Chocolate, Strawberry, Mango, Kesar-Pista and Peanut
butter but not necessarily in the same order. There are two
married couples in the family. No female member likes either
Vanilla or Kesar-Pista.
L is daughter-in-law of Q and likes Strawberry. N is
brother of O and son of M, and likes Peanut butter. P is
grandmother of O, who does not like Mango. The husband
has a choice for Vanilla and his wife likes Chocolate ice
cream.
11. How many male members are there in the family?
1) Two
2) Three
3) Four
4) Cant be determined
5) None of these
12. Which of the following is true about O?
1) Daughter of M
2) Son of L
3) Brother of Q
4) Either brother or sister of P
5) None of these

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13. How is M related to Q?

1) M is sister of Q
2) M is son of Q
3) M is grandson of Q
4) Cant be determined
5) None of these
14. Which of the following combinations of ice cream does
one of the couples like?
1) Vanilla Mango
2) Kesar-Pista Peanut butter
3) Strawberry Mango
4) Peanut butter Mango
5) None of these
15. Which of the following ice creams does P like?
1) Vanilla
2) Mango
3) Chocolate
4) Kesar-Pista
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 16-20): In each question below are
given three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
16. Statements: All plastics are notes.
No note is a coin.
Some coins are papers.
Conclusions: I. Some coins are plastics.
II. No coin is a note.
(17-18):
Statements: No graphic is a picture.
Some pictures are figures.
All symbols are figures.
17. Conclusions: I. Some figures are not graphics.
II. Some pictures are symbols.
18. Conclusions: I. All symbols being pictures is a
possibility.
II. Some graphics are symbols.
(19-20):
Statements: Some birds are insects.
All birds are butterflies.
All insects are snakes.
19. Conclusions: I. Some snakes are birds.
II. Some butterflies are snakes.
20. Conclusions: I. All butterflies being insects is a
possibility.
II. All birds being snakes is a
possibility.
21. There are three ladies L, M and N married to three men
P, Q and R. All the men have a different profession
while the women have none. L is married to P. M is not
married to the CA. N is not married to the teacher. R is

not a teacher and P is a lawyer. Which of the following

statements is correct?
1) M is married to R, who is a teacher.
2) N is married to R, who is a CA.
3) L is married to P, who is a teacher.
4) Only 2) and 3) are correct
5) None of these
22. There are five books J, K, Y, W and X placed on a
table. Y is placed just below J, W is placed just above
X, and K is placed below Y and X. Which of the
following books touches the surface of the table?
1) W
2) X
3) K
4) J
5) Y
Directions (Q. 23-27): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X are eight group captains of
different games, viz, Badminton, Volleyball, Cricket, Table
Tennis, Football, Hockey, Kho-Kho and Lawn Tennis, but
not necessarily in the same order. There are three female
members in the group and four captains are holding PhD
degrees.
X has a PhD degreee and is the captain of Volleyball.
l
Q is the captain of Cricket. R is the captain of Hockey.
l
The one who is the captain of Table Tennis does not
have a PhD degree.
l
No female is captain of either Football or Lawn Tennis.
l
The captain of Lawn Tennis does not have a PhD
degree.
l
W and S are not the captains of either Football or
Hockey.
l
S is the captain of a ladies team and U and S have PhD
degrees.
l
R and V are lady captains and are not PhD degree
holders. T has a PhD degree and is the captain of the
Kho-Kho team.
23. Who is the captain of the Hockey team?
1) Q
2) R
3) S
4) T
5) None of these
24. Which captain is a female and a PhD degree holder?
1) R
2) T
3) S
4) V
5) None of these
25. Which of the following groups represent the male
group of captains who have PhD degrees?
1) QTU
2) SUX
3) UTS
4) TUX
5) Cant be determined
26. S is the captain of which of the following games?
1) Cricket
2) Hockey
3) Badminton
4) Kho-Kho
5) None of these
27. Which of the following combinations is true?
1) R Male Hockey PhD
2) S Female Badminton PhD
3) T Male Cricket PhD
4) W Male Lawn Tennis PhD
5) None of these

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28. If the expression R V and P < Q are true, then which

of the following symbols should be placed in the blank
spaces respectively in the given expression?
Q_R N=P_V
1) >,
2) =, >
3) ,
4) >, >
5) None of these
29. Which of the following expressions is true, if the given
expression is true?
E>F G=H I<J
1) E > I
2) J > G
3) F J
4) E H
5) None of these
30. Which of the following symbols should be placed in
the blank spaces respectively to make the expression
Q > M and P M definitely true?
M_N_O_P_Q
1) <, =, , <
2) , >, =, >
3) =, , , =
4) , =, , <
5) None of these
31. In the following number sequence, how many such
even numbers are there which are exactly divisible by
its immediate preceding number but not exactly
divisible by its immediate following number?
4852683945 939532692
1) None
2) One
3) Two
4) Three
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 32-37): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
A, N, M, R, J, V, S and D are eight friends sitting around
a circular table. Two of them are not facing the centre. All
of them like watches of different brands, viz Maxima, Puma,
HMT, Titan, Fastrack, Rado, Quartz and Omega, but not
necessarily in the same order.
R and M are sitting third and second to the left of A
respectively. R and S are neighbours of N, who likes
Fastrack. The one who likes Titan sits on the immediate
right of N. S is sitting third to the right of A and likes
Maxima. D is third to the right of J and likes Quartz. A and
D are not the neighbour of that person who likes Rado. V
does not like HMT and Titan. The person who likes Omega
is sitting opposite J.
32. The person who is sitting second to the left of A likes
which of the following watches?
1) Maxima
2) Puma
3) Rado
4) Omega
5) None of these
33. Who among the following likes Rado?
1) N
2) M
3) R
4) D
5) None of these
34. What is the position of V with respect to A?
1) Immediate left of A
2) Second to the right of A
3) Immediate right of A
4) Cant be determined
5) None of these
35. If S is on the immediate right of N then by the same
logic who among the following sits third to the right
of N?
1) M
2) J
3) D
4) V
5) None of these
36. How many persons sit between the person who like

Maxima and the one who likes HMT (count in

clockwise direction starting from HMT)?
1) Two
2) None
3) One
4) Three
5) None of these
37. Which of the following statements is true?
1) M is the neighbour of R and N.
2) A likes HMT and faces outside the centre.
3) S likes Maxima and does not face the centre.
4) All are true
5) None is true
Directions (Q. 38-40): Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and
II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement
II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data in both the statements I and II together
are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both the statements I and II together
are necessary to answer the question.
38. There are five persons A, B, C, D and E. Then B is in
which direction with respect to E?
I. A is to the west of D and to the north of B, and C is
to the south of E.
II. D is to the north of A and east of E. B is to the west
of C and south-east of D.
39. What is the angle between the two hands of a clock?
I. One hour ago the angle between the two hands
was 75 degrees and the minute hand was ahead of
the hour hand.
II. The hour hand is between 9 and 10.
40. Among T, F, L, M and B, is M uncle of F?
I. F is son of T, who is brother of M. L is sister-in-law
of M.
II. L is mother of F and wife of T, who is son of B, who
is father of M and has only two sons.
41. One day when I was nine years old my father punished
me the only time I was ever punished by shutting
me in a room alone for a whole day. Sarojini Naidu
Which of the following inferences can best be drawn
from the above statement?
1) Sarojini Naidu was stubborn as a child.
2) People realised in Naidus lifetime that punishment
is no solution to stop a child from rebelling.
3) Severe punishment was prevalent during the time
of Naidus childhood.

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4) Naidu was transformed by that single day of

punishment.
5) None of these
Inadequacy of financial resources is a key constraint
to railways following the desired path. Railway
Minister Mallikarjun Kharge
Which of the following courses of action should best
be taken?
1) Passenger and freight fares should be increased.
2) The monopoly of Indian Railways should be
abolished.
3) Big policy announcements should be made.
4) There should be improved ticket checking, and IT
should be used to improve ticket sales.
5) None of these
One-third of Indias GDP slowdown is due to the global
slowdown. But the impact on our advanced coastal
states has been disproportionately high, and the impact
on backward inland states has been disproportionately
low.
Which of the following statements substantiates the
fact expressed in the above statement?
1) The coastal states of Odisha and West Bengal are
not globalised.
2) West Bengal used to be Indias commercial capital
at Independence, but has been driven into
backwardness by the ruination of its industry by
Marxist trade unions.
3) The inland states are less globalised and less exportoriented.
4) Nothing succeeds like success.
5) None of these
The appointment of Satya Nadella as the CEO of the
iconic Microsoft has given us a reason to take pride in
the success of a fellow Indian.
Which of the following is the best reason for the
abovementioned pride?
1) He is Indian by birth.
2) He went to ordinary schools and colleges and got
to the top on his own merit.
3) He remained a nice, normal and humble guy.
4) In his success, we see the possibility of our own
success.
5) Young people are looking for role models to
emulate.
Party Xs support swell doesnt seem that evident in
Uttar Pradesh, where the survey gives the party 34
out of 80 seats.
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the
above statement? (An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted.)
1) Party X is not likely to get as many seats as it did
last time.

46.

2) Party X is not likely to get as many seats in Uttar

Pradesh as it did last time.
3) Uttar Pradesh may show contrary results this time.
4) Party X is not likely to reach its all-time best.
5) Party X is not likely to reach its all-time best in
Uttar Pradesh.
Existing 3G plans will apply to users who will be
migrated to 4G for no extra cost. However, they will
have to get a SIM card replacement.
Which of the following occasions is most likely to
have elicited this statement from the company?
1) Voice networks will continue to run on 2G and 3G
net.
2) The company has launched 4G recently.
3) The company is launching 4G services for
smartphones.
4) 4G network users will be able to download 10
standard movies within 30 minutes.
5) None of these
How many of us know that televisions, computers
and other electronic items contain hazardous material
like lead, mercury and cadmium and that they pose
serious threat to the environment if buried in a landfill?
Which of the following can be concluded from the
above statement?
1) People should not use televisions and computers.
2) Electronic items should be made without using
hazardous materials.
3) The environment has been endangered from ewaste and is on the verge of crashing.
4) There should be proper disposal of electronic items.
5) None of these
The biggest mistake people make is buying a life
insurance policy every year to save taxes.
Which of the following can be the best reason for the
assertion made in the above statement?
1) Such people do not have adequate insurance cover.
2) The annual premium becomes huge over a period
of time.
3) There is a mad rush to make investments to save
taxes in the last three months of the financial year.
4) A salaried individual can invest up to `1 lakh and
claim tax deduction under Section 80 C of the I-T
Act.
5) None of these
Do tax-free bonds qualify for tax deduction under
Section 80C? Well, according to stories doing the
rounds, somebody thought they do and bought
them.Needlesstosay,thepoorsoulrealisedthattaxfree bonds were not meant to save tax under Section
80C; they only offer tax-free interest. Similarly, many
bank customers are not aware that the bond they just
bought to save tax is actually an insurance policy.

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Some taxpayers also dont know that a PPF is a

15-year account.
Which of the following inferences can be made in the
above situation?
1) Investors are unaware of the nitty-gritty of taxsaving instruments.
2) Investment consultants often take their clients for
a ride.
3) There are no bonds that save your taxes in their
year of investment.
4) PPF allows tax benefits after a period of 15 years.
5) None of these
50. Raising tariffs wont be an easy option since the market
is still very competitive and all operators do not have
the same high costs of spectrum.
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the
above statement? (An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted.)
1) Phone call rates are not likely to go up.
2) There are not too many players in the telecom
market.
3) It costs a lot to buy spectrum.
4) Raising telecom tariffs involves prior approval from
TRAI.
5) None of these

the late 1700s. This period was all about power systems
to augment human muscle, explained McAfee in an
interview, and each successive invention in that age
delivered more and more power. But they all required
humans to make decisions about them. Therefore, the
inventions of this era actually made human control and
labour more valuable and important.
In the Second Machine Age, though, argues
Brynjolfsson, we are beginning to automate a lot more
cognitive tasks, a lot more of the control systems that
determine what to use that power for. In many cases today
artificially intelligent machines can make better decisions
than humans. So humans and software-driven machines
may increasingly be substitutes, not complements. Whats
making this possible, the authors argue, are three huge
technological advances that just reached their tipping
points, advances they describe as exponential, digital and
combinatorial.
To illustrate exponential they retell the story of the
king who was so impressed with the man who invented
chess that he offered him any reward. The inventor
suggested rice to feed his family. He asked the king to
simply place a grain of rice on the first square of a
chessboard and then have each subsequent square receive
twice as many grains as the previous. The emperor agreed
until he realised that 63 instances of doubling yields a
fantastically big number, even starting with one grain
like 18 quintillion grains of rice, once you finish the second
half of the chessboard.
The authors compare this second half of the
chessboard to Moores Law about the relentless doubling
of digital computing power about every two years. Unlike
the steam engine, which was physical and doubled in
performance every 70 years, computers get better, faster
than anything else, ever, says Brynjolfsson. Now add the
spread of the Internet to both people and things soon
everyone on the planet will have a smartphone, and every
cash register, airplane engine, student iPad and thermostat
will be broadcasting digital data via the Internet.
51. Why does the author say that average is over? Give
your answer in the context of the given passage.
1) Because the world is now hyperconnected.
2) Because people have now become more intelligent.
3) Because we have to compete with intelligent people,
not average ones.
4) Because employees now have easier and cheaper
access to above-average software and cheap
genius from abroad.
5) Because the average man will produce goods or
services of average quality, which casts negative
impact on consumers.
52. Why did Jan Hein Donner, in reply to a question, say
that he would bring a hammer if asked to match against
a computer?

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Test-II: English Language

Directions (Q. 51-60): Read the passage carefully

and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
My favorite story in Erik Brynjolfsson and Andrew
McAfees fascinating new book, The Second Machine Age,
is when the Dutch chess grandmaster Jan Hein Donner
was asked how hed prepare for a chess match against a
computer, like IBMs Deep Blue. Donner replied: I would
bring a hammer.
Donner isnt alone in fantasising that hed like to
smash some recent advances in software and automation
think self-driving cars, robotic factories and artificially
intelligent reservationists which are not only replacing
blue-collar jobs at a faster rate, but now also white-collar
skills, even grandmasters!
Something very, very big happened over the last
decade. My own shorthand is that the world went from
connected to hyperconnected and, as a result, average
is over, because employers now have so much easier,
cheaper access to above-average software, automation and
cheap genius from abroad. Brynjolfsson and McAfee, both
at MIT, offer a more detailed explanation: We are at the
start of the Second Machine Age.
The First Machine Age, they argue, was the Industrial
Revolution that was born along with the steam engine in

53.

1) Because he knew that he could not compete with a

computer.
2) Because he was completely against the excessive
use of computers.
3) Because he thought that computer would someday
render labourers as well as intelligent men jobless.
4) Because he knew that computer was the greatest
enemy of mankind.
5) None of the above
What, according to McAfee, was/were the
characteristic features of the First Machine Age?
(A) This period was all about power system to
enhance the utility of manpower.
(B) This period is marked as the invention of steam
engine.
(C) The inventions of this era made human control
and labour more valuable and important.
1) Only (A) and (B)
2) Only (B) and (C)
3) Only (A) and (C)
4) Only (A)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
What is the significance of quoting the story of the
king who wanted to reward the inventor of chess?
1) The author wants to entertain the readers.
2) The author wants to make it known that exponential
progression gives much higher result than
arithmetic progression does.
3) The author wants to affirm that technology has
grown at exponential rate.
4) Only 1) and 2)
5) Only 2) and 3)
Which of the following is not true about the Second
Machine Age? Give your answer in the context of the
given passage.
1) In this age, artificially intelligent machines can make
better decisions than humans.
2) No machine in the Second Machine Age can fully
automate cognitive tasks.
3) Human-and software-driven machines may
substitute human force.
4) In this age, many cognitive tasks are being
automated.
5) None of these
Find the correct statement(s) on the basis of the given
passage.
(A) According to Moores law, the computing power
of a computer gets doubled every two years.
(B) The First Machine Age is also known as the
industrial revolution.
(C) If a grain doubles itself exponentially it becomes
eighteen quintillion grains in just sixty three
instances of doubling.
1) Only (A)
2) Only (B)
3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) and (B)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)

Directions (Q. 57-58): Choose the word/group of

words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
57. Smash
1) emulate
2) crush
3) appraise
4) succeed
5) appreciate
58. Cognitive
1) complex
2) physical
3) mechanical
4) unique
5) mental
Directions (Q. 59-60): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
59. Augment
1) enhance
2) wax
3) elongate
4) diminish
5) increase
60. Subsequent
1) next
2) later
3) previous
4) perfect
5) following
Directions (Q. 61-70): Read the passage carefully
and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/
phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
A Reserve Bank of India panel has submitted a report
on financial inclusion. It proposes that priority sector
lending by banks be raised and that banks be mandated to
open accounts for every adult Indian by January 2016.
The recommendations do not challenge the RBIs basic
approach to financial inclusion. This approach, which has
been to mandate banks to undertake financial inclusion,
might have spread public sector bank branches in rural
areas for some years, helped open bank accounts and
directed credit, but it has stopped yielding results. What
India needs is a new approach, which encourages
competition and innovation, rather than more mandates.
Indias approach to financial inclusion has been bankcentric. So far, it has focused on bank nationalisation,
continued with government ownership of banks and their
recapitalisation. The way to ensure inclusion has been
priority sector lending, which mandates that 40 per cent of
each banks lending be to weaker sectors small-scale
industries, agriculture and exports to which the bank
might not have lent otherwise. The RBI panel now
recommends raising this share to 50 per cent.
The panels recommendations are in sync with the
RBIs recent guidelines for the grant of licences to new
banks. These require that the bank have a plan for financial
inclusion and that it open 25 per cent of its branches in
unbanked rural areas. This approach is similar to the one
that required PSU banks to open rural branches. By once
again mandating financial inclusion, this time for private
sector licence applications, instead of focusing on
competition and innovation, the RBI is essentially doing
more of the same.
Financial inclusion may be defined as access to a range

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of financial services in a convenient, flexible, reliable and

continuous manner from formal, regulated financial
institutions. Even though access can be ensured by
mandates, the quality parameters of access may be
compromised in the process. This is seen in the low usage
of accounts and the poor asset quality of priority sector
portfolios. Such inclusion confuses ends with means. A
bank account is meant to fulfil certain functions simply
opening an account is not enough. The panel proposes to
make it mandatory for every Indian over the age of 18 to
have a bank account.
An often overlooked consequence of the mandatedriven approach to inclusion, as pursued by the RBI, is
that the costs of this inclusion are levied on the investors
and consumers of banks. The losses from unused bank
accounts and poorly performing priority sector assets are
eventually borne by the investors and consumers. If the
political objective of opening bank accounts is to be met,
or lending to certain sectors ensured, it should be
transparent as a line item on the governments budget.
Instead, it is done through a cross-subsidy that effectively
makes other customers pay for the political goals of a
government pushing its agenda through banks.
This approach has been accompanied by a neglect of
the other drivers of inclusion competition and
innovation. In the last 11 years, the Indian economy has
grown rapidly, but no banking licences have been given in
this time. The trend has been that once a decade, the RBI
decides to give a few licences, but there is no window to
get licences during this period. The incumbent banks feel
little or no pressure to reach out to unbanked areas and
people with their services. This, in turn, necessitates a
mandate-driven approach to financial inclusion. Despite
decades of RBI mandates, rural customers turn to informal
channels and unregulated financial firms.
61. What was the basic purpose of the RBIs financial
inclusion?
1) To spread public sector bank branches in rural areas
2) To provide financial assistance to farmers and
artisans at a lower rate
3) To encourage competition between private and
public sector banks
4) To force every Indian citizen to open bank accounts
with public sector banks
5) None of these
62. According to the passage, what is/are the conditions
for granting licences to new banks as per the recent
recommendations of the RBI?
1) The entity seeking a licence for opening a new bank
should have a minimum paid-up capital of `500
crore
2) All PSU banks should open at least 25 per cent of
its branches in rural areas.

3) New banks should open one-fourth of their

branches in unbanked rural areas.
4) At least twentyfive per cent of total deposits
received by a bank should be invested in central
govt securities.
5) All the above
63. What is the consequence of the mandate-driven
approach to inclusion?
1) The mandate-driven approach to inclusion results
into inclusion of such people as cannot continue
their accounts for a longer period.
2) It enhances workload on bank staff, which results
into poor service.
3) Such an approach to inclusion defeats the very
purpose of financial inclusion.
4) The losses from unused bank accounts are
eventually borne by the investors and consumers.
5) None of these
64. Find the correct statement(s) on the basis of the given
passage.
1) Indias approach to financial inclusion has focused
on the nationalisation of banks.
2) The RBI panel has recently recommended to raise
the lending share for weaker sectors to forty per
cent.
3) Indias financial inclusion means government
ownership of banks and their recapitalisation.
4) Only 1) and 2)
5) Only 1) and 3)
65. What guidelines have been prepared by the RBI panel
on financial inclusion?
(A) Banks be instructed to open accounts for every
adult Indian by Jan 2016
(B) Banks be allowed to open satellite branches to
provide better services in unbanked rural areas
(C) Priority sector lending by banks be raised
1) Only (A) and (B)
2) Only (B) and (C)
3) Only (A) and (C)
4) Only (A)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
Directions (Q. 66-68): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
66. Mandate
1) accuse
2) command
3) request
4) hinder
5) uphold
67. Borne
1) endured
2) tolerated
3) carried
4) sustained
5) launched
68. Window
1) casement
2) opening
3) pane
4) bay
5) loophole
Directions (Q. 69-70): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

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KUNDAN

69. Overlooked
1) underlined
2) ignored
3) excluded
4) denied
5) responded
70. Levied
1) imposed
2) exempted
3) taxed
4) forced
5) collected
Directions (Q. 71-75): Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
number of that part is the answer. If there is No error,
the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
71. 1) An international team of scientists successfully
developed / 2) a new topological insulator which
exhibits / 3 / many topological effects that have / 4)
not seen experimentally before. / 5) No error
72. 1) The recent discovery of ancient artifacts / 2) deep
in the heart of Sunderban in West Bengal / 3) indicates
that the region has human habitation / 4) as early as
the third century BCE. / 5) No error
73. 1) The very definition of a classic implies the
recognition / 2) that it speaks to all ages, despite the
complex ways / 3) in which it relates to and reflects / 4)
the specific circumstances of the world in which it
originates. / 5) No error
74. 1) Ujjaini was long a centre of learning and intellectual
activity; / 2) an observatory had been built fairly early
in its history / 3) and the prime meridian passed from
the city, / 4) making Ujjaini the Greenwich of ancient
India. / 5) No error
75. 1) Hopes for an end to the conflict in Syria are high / 2)
as the Geneva peace talks are announced / 3) and the
US decides to abort war plans / 4) after investigations
find that the rebels used sarin. / 5) No error
Directions (Q. 76-80): Rearrange the following seven
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer
the questions given below.
(A) If the balance is insufficient to cover the debit,
the difference becomes payable immediately or
else a service fee is levied.
(B) Debit cards are the same as credit cards.
(C) Quite obviously, a debit card may not be the
appropriate card for those who would like to have
a credit.
(D) If the amount payable is overdue for a long period,
the card may be cancelled.
(E) As the transactions in the debit card are debited
to the account instantaneously, they are relatively
less risky to banks than credit card.
(F) The only difference in this card is that the amount
of dues from the cardholder for each and every
transaction is debited to cashholders account as
soon as each transaction is notified to the issuer.
(G) This, has, however, an advantage in the sense

that it replaces the requirement of carrying cash

or cheque book, when the transactions are being
carried out.
76. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence
after rearrangement?
1) G
2) B
3) D
4) C
5) A
77. Which of the following would be the SECOND
sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) C
3) E
4) F
5) B
78. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence
after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) G
4) E
5) C
79. Which of the following would be the FOURTH
sentence after rearrangement?
1) C
2) E
3) D
4) B
5) F
80. Which of the following would be the LAST
(SEVENTH) sentence after rearrangement?
1) B
2) A
3) G
4) F
5) E
Directions (Q. 81-90): In the following passage, some
of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated
by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given
against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.
There was a time when Prime Minister Manmohan
Singh was (81) as someone who could do no wrong; not a
run-of-the-mill politician, the economist-prime minister was
seen as the (82) of Indias growth story. And rightly so.
His meteoric rise in Indias politics was seen as a (83) of
the educated, hard-working Indian middle class. Now
Manmohan Singh is no (84) the feted leader but is seen as
a (85) of a ship who failed to read the headwinds correctly.
So when the government announced that the prime minister
will hold a press conference, only his third in the last 10
years, it generated a lot of (86). Rumours about his
retirements had been doing the (87) for some time and Mr
Singh took this opportunity to announce that he would
(88) up his boots after the general elections. Commenting
on the quality of his stint, Mr Singh (89) the charge that he
was a weak prime minister and said that history will
hopefully be more kind to him that the Opposition and (90)
media have been as he did the best he could in the given
political circumstances.
81. 1) admitted
2) listened
3) communicated
4) purviewed
5) seen
82. 1) author
2) actor
3) lender
4) performer
5) creator
83. 1) defeat
2) step
3) triumph
4) way
5) luck
84. 1) one
2) more
3) way
4) less
5) body
85. 1) commander
2) leader
3) sailor
4) captain
5) passenger
86. 1) buzz
2) problem
3) fuss
4) trouble
5) pleasure

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87. 1) noise
4) clocks
88. 1) cling
4) give
89. 1) represented
4) accepted
90. 1) current
4) contemporary

2) news
5) best
2) make
5) hang
2) refuted
5) clarified
2) present
5) latest

3) rounds
3) leave
3) declared
3) recent

Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 91-93): What value should come in
place of question mark (?) in the following equations?
91.

9
42

1)

81
5
54
63
8

413
20

8
5

2)

399
4

3)

540
39

96. 5 7.5 15 37.5 112.5 ?

1) 340
2) 395.5
3) 393.75
4) 397.25
5) 339
97. 66 35 72 38 78 ?
1) 39
2) 158
3) 37
4) 41
5) 40
98. 21 25 52 68 193 ?
1) 391
2) 139
3) 200
4) 211
5) 229
99. 5 7.25 13.5 25.75 46 ?
1) 70.25 2) 71.25 3) 73.25 4) 75.25 5) 76.25
100. 16 25 44 83 162 ?
1) 317
2) 250
3) 282
4) 301
5) 321
Directions (Q. 101-105): In each of these questions,
two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both
the equations and give answer
1) if x > y
2) if x < y
3) if x y
4) if x y
5) if x y or relation cannot be established between x
and y.
101. I. 8x + y = 10
II. 4x + 2y = 13
102. I. (x + 3) (y + 2) = 12
II. 2xy + 4x + 5y = 11
3x 2 3x 6
x 2 x 5
103. I. y
II.
y 16
y 4 y 10
104. I. x2 + 20x + 4 = 50 25x
II. y2 10y 24 = 0

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KUNDAN
4)

92.

397
40

1
3

5) None of these

2 5
8

5 4
3

37
17
9
1)
2)
3)
12
12
2
47
4)
5) None of these
12
2 15
8
3 13 ?
93. 10
3
2
22
11
11
2
2
11
7
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
2
11
11
2
2
Directions (Q. 94-95): What approximate value should
come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions?
3

94.

143 24 (13) 168

1)
95.

1727 3(12) (13) (25) 2195

1
25

240
11.8

2)

1
4

13
5
38.99 8

3)
25
6

1
5

4) 25

1
2

5) 5

7
9
2) 7
3) 9
4)
5) 6
5
2
Directions (Q. 96-100): What will come in place of
question mark (?) in the following number series?

1)

x 2 10x 16

2
II. y2 y 20 = 0
x 12x 24 3
106. A right prism has a triangular base with perimeter 38
cm. If the lateral surface area of the prism is 342 cm2,
find its height.
1) 5 cm 2) 16 cm 3) 12 cm 4) 9 cm 5) 17 cm
107. A 360-m-long train is running at a speed of 54 kmph. In
what time will it pass a 240-m-long tunnel?
1) 48 seconds
2) 40 seconds
3) 36 seconds
4) 38 seconds
5) 42 seconds
108. A solid rectangular box of dimensions 16 cm 12 cm
11 cm is melted to make lead balls of diameter 4 cm
each. Find the number of balls.
1) 52
2) 100
3) 93
4) 22
5) 63
109. A rectangular box has dimensions 9m 8m 7m. Find
its total surface area and volume respectively.
1) 371m2, 292m3 2) 382m2, 504m3 3) 504m2, 382m3
4) 121m2, 392m3 5) None of these
110. A park is in the form of a rectangle 120m 100m. At the
centre of the park there is a circular lawn. The area of
the park, excluding the lawn, is 8700m2. Find the radius
of the circular lawn.
1) 32.40m 2) 44.4m 3) 22.4m 4) 28.40m 5) 35m
111. Out of 5 men and 2 women, a committee of 3 is to be
formed. In how many different ways can it be done if
at least one woman is to be included?
1) 30
2) 60
3) 24
4) 25
5) 72
112. An unbiased coin is tossed. If the head turns up a
person gains `20. If the tail turns up he loses `5. If 4

105. I.

unbiased coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the

probability that he gains `5 overall?

Ur

Telugu
13%

6%
du

1
7
1
1
3
2)
3)
4)
5)
8
8
2
4
4
113. Kaushal is three times as old as his son. After 10 years,
the sum of their ages will be 72 years. Find the ratio of
the present age of Kaushal to that of his son.
1) 2 : 3
2) 1 : 3
3) 3 : 1
4) 1 : 4
5) 3 : 7
114. Find the altitude of a rhombus whose area is 44 m2 and
perimeter 44m.
1) 9m
2) 5m
3) 4m
4) 6m
5) 8m
115. A sum of money triples itself at compound rate of
interest in 10 years. In how many years will it become
nine times?
1) 45 years
2) 30 years
3) 20 years
4) 25 years
5) 15 years
116. The sum of two numbers is 1000 and the difference of
their squares is 256000. Find the largest number.
1) 628
2) 372
3) 682
4) 724
5) 282
117. A 200-m-long train crosses a pole in 10 seconds.
Another train travelling at the same speed crosses a
300-m-long platform in 20 seconds. Find the time taken
by the second train to cross the first train, if the first
train is stationary.
1) 20 seconds
2) 15 seconds
3) 10 seconds
4) 30 seconds
5) 25 seconds
118. An article is marked 40% over its cost price. Two

1)

a city.
M alayalam
19%

Hindi
10%
Bangla
12%

Tamil
22%
Oriya
18%

Number of people speaking Oriya = 14400

The table shows the ratio of male to female
for each language
Language
Tamil
Oriya
Bangla
Hindi
Telugu
Urdu
Malayalam

M :F
5:6
5:7
2 :3
7:9
4:9
7 : 17
9:7

K
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2
successive discounts of 14 % and 10% are allowed
7
on the marked price of the article. Find the profit/loss
per cent after selling at discount.
1) 71% loss
2) 8% profit
3) 20% profit
4) 30% profit
5) 40% loss
119. A, B and C entered into a partnership with the capital
in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 8. If at the end of the year the ratio
of their profits is 6 : 15 : 4, find the ratio of their periods
of investment.
1) 2 : 3 : 2
2) 2 : 3 : 1
3) 4 : 6 : 1
4) 3 : 2 : 12
5) 1 : 2 : 3
120. A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 8, 12 and 24
days respectively. A and C started working, and B
joined them after one day. If C left 2 days before
completion of the work, in how many days was the
work finished?

3
1) 3 days
4

2
2) 3 days
3

1
3) 4 days
2

2
1
4) 4 days
5) 3 days
3
3
Directions (Q. 121-125): The following graph shows
the percentage of people speaking different languages in

121. How many people speak Tamil?

1) 16000 2) 19500 3) 18600 4) 17600 5) 15200
122. Telugu-speaking people are what per cent more than
those speaking Bangla?
1) 6.66% 2) 3.33% 3) 5.54% 4) 8.33% 5) 9%
123. The number of Oriya-speaking males is approximately
what per cent of the number of females speaking
Malayalam?
1) 65% 2) 90% 3) 85% 4) 95% 5) 99%
124. The number of Bangla-speaking females is what per
cent more than the number of Hindi-speaking males?
1) 62.5% 2) 63.5% 3) 61.5% 4) 64.5% 5) 66.5%
125. The number of Urdu-speaking females is approximately
what per cent of the total female population of the
city?
1) 4%
2) 9%
3) 5%
4) 8%
5) 11%
Directions (Q. 126-130): Population of a country of
six different places in two different years:
Pie-chart I shows the population of different places in
2012 out of 5 lakh and pie-chart II shows the population of
different places in 2013 out of 7 lakh.

Pie-chart I
U
11%

F
16%

E
19%

T
9%

A
15%

D
20%
C
12%

B
18%

S
16%

P
18%
R
12%

Q
15%

Marks obtained by B in 8 different subjects

Pie-chart II

D
15%

W
10%

Total = 5400

Year 2012; population = 5 lakh

E
17%

V
9%

F
8%
A
18%

U
11%
T
9%
S
16%

V
9%

W
10%
P
18%

K
KUNDAN
C
22%

B
20%

Year 2013; population = 7 lakh

126. What is the total population of place A in the year

2012?
1) 50000
2) 65000
3) 95000
4) 75000
5)70000
127. The population of place D in the year 2012 is what per
cent more than that of place F in the year 2013?
1) 63.5%
2) 78.5%
3) 50%
4) 72.3%
5) 62.8%
128. What is the total population of place C in the year
2013?
1) 135000
2) 116000
3) 124000
4) 154000
5) 165000
129. The population of place A in the year 2013 is what per
cent more than that of place B in the year 2012?
1) 20% 2) 15% 3) 35% 4) 25% 5) 40%
130. What is the population of place E in the year 2013?
1) 120000 2) 116000 3) 119000 4) 118000 5) 112000
Directions (Q. 131-135): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Marks obtained by A in 8 different subjects

R
12%

Q
15%

Total = 6500

131. What is the marks scored by B in R?

1) 720
2) 730
3) 790
4) 780
5) 800
132. The marks scored by A in Q is what per cent more than
the marks scored by B in T?
1) 33.4% 2) 39.2% 3) 40.8% 4) 38.4% 5) 60%
133. What is the total marks scored by A and B in U and V
respectively?
1) 1309 2) 1071 3) 1185 4) 1173 5) 1179
134. The marks scored by A in P is what per cent more than
the marks obtained by B in W?
1) 38.5% 2) 49.5% 3) 61.2% 4) 43.5% 5) 55%
135. What is the total marks obtained by A and B in Q?
1) 1645 2) 1785 3) 1745 4) 1760 5) 1790
Directions (Q. 136-140): Study the following
information carefully and answer the questions given
below:
Pie-chart I shows the sales of different products of a
company in 2009 and pie-chart II shows the sales of
different products in 2010.
Pie-chart - I

D
21.5%
C
18.1%

E
20.7%
A
15.4%
B
24.3%

2009; Total = 65000 units

Pie-chart-II

E
29%
D
16%

A
13%

1) Sundarbans 2) Wular Lake

3) Western Ghats
4) Chilika lagoon 5) None of these
142. India has signed a loan agreement worth $275 mn with
which of the following agencies/banks for improving
rural road connectivity in five states in the country?
1) Asian Development Bank
2) European Central Bank
3) Bank of Japan
4) World Bank
5) None of these
143. Enrico Letta resigned recently after serving as the Prime
Minister of which of the following countries for just
10 months?
1) Spain
2) Italy
3) Norway
4) Zimbabwe
5) None of these
144. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)
has approved the proposal to increase foreign
investment limit to 74 per cent for which of the following
private banks recently? The increase is subject to the
aggregate foreign institutional investors (FIIs)
shareholding cap.
1) Indusind Bank
2) Federal Bank
3) Kotak Mahindra Bank 4) Yes Bank
5) Saraswat Bank
145. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has constituted an
expert committee to review governance of boards of
banks under the chairmanship of who among the
following?
1) PJ Nayak
2) C Rangarajan
3) Y Venugopal Reddy
4) Bimal Jalan
5) None of these
146. Bank loans to PACS is considered as direct finance
for agricultural purposes under the priority sector
lending specified by the Reserve Bank of India. What
is expanded form of PACS?
1) Premier Agricultural Credit Societies
2) Primary Agricultural Credit Services
3) Permanent Agricultural Credit Societies
4) Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
5) Provisional Agricultural Credit Societies
147. Nageswara Rao, who passed away recently, was a
legendary ______actor.
1) Bengali
2) Marathi
3) Tamil
4) Telugu
5) Malayalam
148. The panel set up by the govt for considering splitting
overseas inflows into two categories Foreign
Portfolio Investment (FPI) and Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI) is headed by who among the
following?
1) Arvind Mayaram
2) Anand Sinha
3) Subir Gokarn
4) KC Chakrabarty
5) Usha Thorat
149. The govt launched the ambitious National Urban

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KUNDAN
C
23%

B
19%

2010; Total = 95000 units

136. What is the percentage increase in sales of Product B

in the year 2010 from 2009?
1) 13.2%
2) 16.1%
3) 15.7%
4) 14.2%
5) 20%
137. What is the average sales of Product A, C and E in the
year 2010?
1) 19588.3
2) 20583.3
3) 16293.8
4) 21000
5) 16584.2
138. What is the per cent increase of Product E in the year
2010 from Product C in the year 2009?
1) 13.4%
2) 190.2%
3) 54%
4) 134.1%
5) 150%
139. What is the average sales of Product A and B in the
year 2009?
1) 12902.5
2) 11908.5
3) 11904.5
4) 12909.8
5) 1390.5
140. What is the difference between sales of Product D in
the year 2010 and 2009?
1) 1025
2) 1225
3) 1125
4) 1350
5) 1325

Test-IV: General Awareness

(with Special Reference to Banking Industry)
141. Which of the following biodiversity hotspots in India
has been named destination flyways by United
Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO)
recently? It is the only site to be selected from Asia.

Health Mission (NUHM) recently. Consider the

following with respect to NUHM:
(A) It is aimed at providing adequate and efficient
urban public health delivery system for the urban
poor.
(B) It would cover 779 urban areas with over 50,000
population across the country by Mar 2015.
(C) The central govt will share 50 per cent of the cost
to implement the programme.
Which of the above statements is/are correct about
the mission?
1) Only (A)
2) Only (B)
3) Only (C)
4) Only (A) and (B)
5) All (A), (B) and (C)
150. As per the National Manufacturing Policy (NMP) 2011,
the govt aims at raising the share of manufacturing
sector to 25 per cent of GDP from the current 16 per
cent by which of the following years?
1) 2018
2) 2020
3) 2022
4) 2024
5) 2030
151. The Govt of India has defined micro, small and medium
enterprises. Which of the following is correctly
matched for an enterprise engaged in the manufacture
or processing of goods as per the definition?
(A) Micro enterprise: Investment in plant and
machinery does not exceed `25 lakhs
(B) Small enterprise: Investment in plant and
machinery is more than `25 lakhs but does not
exceed `5 cr.
(C) Medium enterprise: Investment in plant and
machinery is more than `5 cr but does not exceed
`20 cr.
1) All the above
2) Only (A) and (B)
3) Only (A) and (C)
4) Only (B) and (C)
5) None of the above
152. The Reserve Bank of India carries out state govts
transactions in terms of the agreement entered into
with them. As of now, such agreements exist between
RBI and all the state govts except which of the
following state govt?
1) Sikkim
2) Arunachal Pradesh 3) Kerala
4) Goa
5) Nagaland
153. Name the Indian-American who has been awarded with
Baylor Universitys 2014 Robert Foster Cherry Award
for Great Teaching. It carries the single largest
monetary reward of $250,000.
1) Jaishankar Ganesh
2) V Ramanathan
3) Meera Chandrasekhar 4) Anjani Jain
5) None of these
154. Which of the following countries has introduced new
restrictions on online shopping as part of efforts to
stop foreign currency reserves from falling any further?
Anyone buying items through international websites

will now need to sign a declaration.

1) Indonesia
2) Malaysia
3) Argentina
4) Brazil
5) Thailand
155. The RBIs expert panel which has suggested adoption
of new Consumer Price Index (CPI) for anchoring
monetary policy in the country among other
suggestions, was headed by who among the
following?
1) Subir Gokarn
2) Harun Rashid Khan
3) Urjit Patel
4) Anand Sinha
5) Kamalesh Chandra Chakrabarty
156. With a view to enabling highly rated corporate
borrowers to diversify their sources of short-term
borrowings and to providing an additional instrument
to investors, the commercial paper was first introduced
in India in which of the following years?
1) 1980 2) 1985 3) 1990 4) 1995 5) 2000
157. In the event of a bank failure, the Deposit Insurance
and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) protects
bank deposits that are payable in India. Which of the
following deposits will be insured by the DICGC?
1) Deposits of foreign govts
2) Deposits of central/state govts
3) Inter-bank deposits
4) All the above
5) None of the above
158. The United Nations World Tourism Organisation
(UNWTO) awarded Ulysses Award for Innovation
in Public Policy and Governance to the tourism
department of which of the following states recently?
It is the highest honour given to the govt bodies for
shaping global tourism policies through innovative
initiatives.
1) Kerala
2) Andhra Pradesh
3) Goa
4) West Bengal 5) Odisha
159. India and which of the following countries are building
a state-of-the-art satellite for earth observation for
climate change? It is the third satellite to be developed
jointly after they have successfully designed MeghaTropiques in 2011 and SARAL-AltiKa in 2013.
1) US
2) Germany
3) Japan
4) France
5) Russia
160. In a move that is likely to hit currency hoarders and
counterfeiters, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has
decided to withdraw from circulation all currency notes
issued prior to which of the following years? These
notes do not have on them the year of printing.
1) 2000
2) 2002
3) 2005
4) 2009
5) 2011
161. A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) with what
asset size, as per last audited balance sheet, is
categorised as a systemically important NBFC as their
activities will have a bearing on the financial stability
in our country?

K
KUNDAN

1) `10 cr or more
2) `20 cr or more
3) `50 cr or more
4) `75 cr or more
5) `100 cr or more
162. Which of the following financial institutions has
announced recently to instal 3000 ATMs and 1.35 lakh
micro-ATMs by Sep 2015 in the country?
1) Mahindra Finance
2) Tata Capital
3) Muthoot Fincorp
4) Bajaj Capital
5) India Post
163. Name the Indian-origin academician who will become
dean of the prestigious Harvard College wef July 1,
2014.
1) Soumitra Dutta
2) Dipak Jain
3) Rakesh Khurana
4) Sunil Kumar
5) Nitin Nohria
164. Which of the following teams has won the Federation
Cup football tournament recently?
1) Mohun Bagan
2) Churchill Brothers
3) Mohammedan Sporting 4) Sporting Clube de Goa
5) None of these
165. Who among the following are among the awardees of
the prestigious Padma Bhushan awards conferred
recently?
1) Pullela Gopichand
2) Yuvraj Singh
3) Leander Paes
4) Only 1) and 3)
5) All the above
166. Name the India-born engineer-scientist who has been
awarded the 2014 Marconi Prize, a Nobel equivalent
for technology pioneers. His work is at the heart of
the current high-speed WiFi and 4G mobile systems.
1) AJ Paulraj
2) Dipak Jain
3) Sunil Kumar
4) Nitin Nohria 5) Rakesh Khurana
167. With the prior approval of the Reserve Bank of India,
the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs)
having a minimum net owned fund of `100 cr are
allowed to undertake which of the following
businesses?
1) Debit cards
2) Stored-value cards
3) Credit cards
4) All the above
5) None of these
168. The meeting of finance ministers and central bank
governors of the G20 major economies was held in
which of the following countries recently?
1) Turkey
2) Australia
3) Russia
4) Mexico
5) France
169. Consider the following with respect to Indian currency
and identify the statement which is NOT correct.
1) The `5-note was the first paper currency issued by
the RBI in Jan 1938.
2) At present, notes of `10, `100, `500 and `1,000
only are printed.
3) The printing of `1, `2 and `5 has been stopped as
these have been coinised.
4) Coins of up to `1,000 denomination can be minted.

5) The RBI has the powers to print currency notes of

up to `20,000 denomination.
170. Name the shuttler who has clinched the womens
singles title of the Syed Modi International India Grand
Prix Gold badminton tournament recently?
1) PV Sindhu
2) Saina Nehwal
3) Qingchen Chen
4) Jia Yi Fan
5) None of these
171. Who among the following has won the mens singles
title of the 2014 edition of the Australia Open tennis
tournament recently?
1) Rafael Nadal
2) Stanislas Wawrinka
3) Roger Federer
4) Horia Tacau
5) Daniel Nestor
172. State Bank of India (SBI) has raised `8,032 cr by selling
shares through QIP, making it the biggest ever equity
sale via this route recently. What does QIP stand for?
1) Qualified Initial Placement
2) Qualified Institutional Proposal
3) Qualified International Placement
4) Qualified Initial Proposal
5) Qualified Institutional Placement
173. Which of the following countries has been ranked at
the bottom in the Global Gender Gap Report 2013,
published by the World Economic Forum (WEF) for
136 countries recently? Iceland tops the list.
1) Yemen
2) Pakistan
3) India
4) China
5) Japan
174. India and which of the following countries entered
into a double taxation avoidance agreement (DTAA)
for the first time recently? The DTAA has provisions
for exchange of banking information for tax
administration purpose among other things.
1) Malaysia
2) Mauritius
3) Fiji
4) Rwanda
5) None of these
175. As per the recent estimates of the Planning
Commission, the number of persons living below the
poverty line in the country has declined from 40.74
crore in 2004-05 to _____in 2011-12.
1) 27 crore
2) 32 crore
3) 37 crore
4) 38 crore
5) 39 crore
176. Who among the following has been appointed the
new CEO of the software giant Microsoft recently?
1) Sundar Pichai 2) Stephen Elop 3) Alan Mulally
4) Satya Nadella 5) None of these
177. Which of the following is the best alternative banking
service to achieve the target of financial inclusion in
the country?
1) Agricultural loans
2) Kisan Credit Cards
3) Personal Banking Branches
4) Mobile Banking Facility
5) None of the above
178. The RBIs report titled State Finances A study of

K
KUNDAN

Budgets of 2013-14 put which of the following states

on top of a list of states based on fiscal management?
1) Jharkhand
2) Goa
3) Madhya Pradesh
4) Bihar
5) Chhattisgarh
179. The book titled Maverick Unchanged, Unrepentant
has been penned by who among the following?
1) Ram Jethmalani
2) Preeti Shenoy
3) Chetan Bhagat
4) Elizabeth Chatterjee
5) None of these
180. Which of the following countries has become the first
Asian country and only 3rd in the world to have Shore
Based Test Facility (SBTF)? The facility is primarily
meant for flight testing of naval aircrafts and pilots.
1) China
2) Japan
3) South Korea
4) India
5) Pakistan

Test-V: Computer Knowledge

5) None of these
189. In the URL http://www.prenhall.com, the portion
labelled http is
1) host
2) domain name
3) protocol
4) top-level domain
5) None of these
190. In a database, a field is a
1) label
2) table of information
3) group of related records 4) category of information
5) None of these
191. A standard code used to exchange information among
data processing and communication systems, is
1) ACM
2) ASCII
3) APL
4) ANSI
5) None of these
192. A unit for measuring data transmission speed is called
1) Cache
2) Band
3) Byte
4) Broadband channels
5) None of these
193. Which of the following languages is used to retrieve
data from database?
1) DDL
2) DCL
3) DML
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
194. RTF stands for
1) Real Time Formatting 2) Rich Text Format
3) Real Time Fonts
4) Real Text Format
5) None of these
195. You can edit the existing Excel data by pressing the
1) F1 key
2) F2 key
3) F3 key
4) F4 key
5) None of these
196. In ________ topology, n-1 lines are required for
connecting n nodes.
1) ring
2) bus
3) star
4) mesh 5) hybrid
197. Newsgroups use a special network of computers that
are called
1) channel net
2) address net
3) mail net
4) Usenet
5) control net
198. The main circuit board in the computer system unit is
1) BIOS
2) motherboard 3) SMPS
4) CPU
5) None of these
199. Which of the following is NOT done by a modem?
1) Transmission speed
2) Data accuracy
3) Error detection and correction
4) Data compression
5) None of these
200. Which of the following is a program coded in
programming language?
1) Target code 2) Source code 3) Block
4) All the above 5) None of these

K
KUNDAN

181. Which of the following can be used to select the entire

column in a worksheet?
1) shift + space 2) ctrl + space
3) alt + space
4) ctrl + space + 1 5) shift + space + 1
182. MS-Excel 2003 contains ________ rows.
1) 65,500
2) 65,534
3) 65,535
4) 65,536
5) 65,533
183. ________ is the default page set-up orientation of
slides in PowerPoint.
1) Vertical
2) Landscape
3) Portrait
4) Horizontal
5) None of these
184. Information in a memory that is no longer valid or
wanted is
1) volatile
2) surplus
3) garbage
4) bug
5) non-volatile
185. FIND option is available under which menu?
1) Tools
2) View
3) File
4) Edit
5) None of these
186. Which of the following is the default setting in a cell
of Excel sheet?
1) Leftaligned 2) Rightaligned 3) Centred
4) Justified
5) None of these
187. We use ________ shortcut key to insert worksheet in
Microsoft Excel.
1) ctrl + W
2) ctrl + P
3) Shift + F11
4) Shift + Alt
5) None of these
188. E-R stands for
1) Equity-Relationship
2) Entity-Relationship
3) Equal-Relationship
4) All the above

K
KUNDAN

Answers

(1-5):
In the given arrangement the machine
rearranges the words starting with vowels in
alphabetical order and then those starting
with consonants in alphabetical order. The
numbers are arranged in ascending order.
However, words and numbers are arranged in
each alternate step.
Input: magazine 14 desire 21 input 13 28
expire activate 25 30
Step I. activate magazine 14 desire 21 input
13 28 expire 25 30
Step II. activate 13 magazine 14 desire 21
input 28 expire 25 30
Step III. activate 13 expire magazine 14
desire 21 input 28 25 30
Step IV. activate 13 expire 14 magazine
desire 21 input 28 25 30
Step V. activate 13 expire 14 input magazine
desire 21 28 25 30
Step VI. activate 13 expire 14 input 21
magazine desire 28 25 30
Step VII. activate 13 expire 14 input 21
desire magazine 28 25 30
Step VIII. activate 13 expire 14 input 21
desire 25 magazine 28 30

1. 2
2. 4
3. 4
4. 3
(6-8):
There are two possibilities.

5. 5

(11-15):

Possibility (i)

Possibility (ii)

6. 3

7. 2

8. 4

9. 3;

10. 1;

Similarly,

11. 3
12. 2
13. 2
14. 3
15. 3
16. 2; All plastics are notes (A) + No note is
a coin (E) = A + E = E = No plastic is a coin.
Hence, conclusion I does not follow.
Again, No note is a coin
conversion
No coin is a note. Hence, conclusion II
follows.
17. 1; No graphic is a picture (E) + Some
pictures are figures (I) = E + I = O* = Some
figures are not graphics. Hence, conclusion I
follows.
Again, Some pictures are figures
conversion
Some figures are pictures.
Now, All symbols are figures (A) + Some
figures are pictures (I) = A + I = No conclusion.
Hence, conclusion II does not follow.
18. 1; Now, All symbols are figures (A) +
Some figures are not graphics (O) = A + O =
No conclusion. Hence, conclusion II does
not follow.
Again, All symbols are figures (A) + Some
figures are pictures (I) = A + I = No conclusion.

But the possibility in I exists. Thus,

conclusion I follows.
19. 5; Some birds are insects (I) + All insects
are snakes (A) = I + A = I = Some birds are
snakes
conversion
Some snakes are
birds. Hence, conclusion I follows.
Again, Some birds are insects
conversion
Some insects are birds (I) + All birds are
butterflies (A) = I + A = I = Some insects are
butterflies
conversion
Some butterflies
are insects (I) + All insects are snakes (A) =
I + A = I = Some butterflies are snakes. Hence,
conclusion II follows.
20. 5; Both the conclusions follow since there
are no negative statements.

21. 2; ()L
P(+)
Lawyer
()M
Q(+)
Teacher
()N
R(+)
CA
22. 3; There are two possibilities.

option 3) does not follow. But G < J or J > G

is true. Hence, option 2) follows.
30. 4; Option 1)

Possibility (i)
Hence, option 1) does not follow.
Option 2)
Possibility (ii)

Hence, option 2) does not follow.

Hence, K touches the surface of the table.

Option 3)

(23-27):
PhD Female Male
Degree
()
(+)

Game
Person
Volly Cric Bad Hockey Kho Foot

X
Q
R
S
T
U
V
W

Lawn Table
Tennis Tennis

Hence, option 3) does not follow.

Option 4)

K
KUNDAN

Summing the table

Captains Degree
Game
Q (+)

Cricket
R ()

Hockey
S ()
PhD
Badminton
T (+)
PhD
Kho-Kho
U (+)
PhD
Football
V ()

Table Tennis
W (+)

Lawn Tennis
X (+)
PhD
Volleyball
23. 2
24. 3
25. 4
26. 3
27. 2
28. 1; Check the options one by one.
1) Q > R N = P V
This leads us to R V is true. And Q > P or
P < Q is true. Hence, follows.
2) Q = R N = P > V
This leads us to R > V. Hence, (R V) does

Hence, option 4) follows.

31. 4; 485, 268, 269
(32-37):

not follow. Q P is true. But (P < Q) does

not follow.
3) Q R N = P V
This leads us to R V is true. But Q P is
true. Hence, (P < Q) does not follow.
4) Q > R N = P > V
This leads us to R > V is true. But (R V)
does not follow.
Q > P or P < Q is true. Hence, option 4) does
not follow.
29. 2; Given expression

32. 4
37. 2

33. 5; J 34. 3

35. 4

38. 2; From II.

Hence, B is to the southeast of E.

39. 1; Every hour the angle varies by fixed
degrees.
40. 2; From I.

We cant compare E and I. Hence, 1) does

not follow.
Again, E > H is true. Thus, (E H) or 4) does
not follow. We cant compare F and J. Thus,

36. 1

We dont know the gender of M.

From II.

26 15
93. 4; ? = 3 13
10 50
22

Hence, M is uncle of F.
41. 3; Choices 2 and 4 are unpredictable
consequences. Choice 1 comes quite close,
but it is difficult to gather a general inference
regarding a person from a stray incident. But
3 gives us an indication of the prevailing
norms. Look at the way she announces her
achievement: the only time I was ever
punished.
42. 5; Choice 1 does not follow: freight fares
are already high. Choices 2 and 3 make hollow
claims. Choice 4 will help to some extent
but the extent would be very little.
43. 3; This brings out the connection
between global slowdown and backward
inland states.
44. 4; It is thus identifying with him that
fills us with pride.
45. 5; In general, Party Xs support has swelled.
So 1 and 4 are ruled out. Choice 3 is vague.
Although 2 and 5 are both concerned with the
partys performance in Uttar Pradesh, 2 is ruled
out because there is nothing in the statement
to indicate about last time.
46. 2; This seems to be the most obvious
choice. Choice 3 is ruled out because it goes
specifically into smartphones.
47. 4; Choices 1 and 2 may stand logical
scrutiny but they go too much by the letter
of the statement and not by its spirit. Choice
3 is rather alarmist.
48. 2; The premiums go on accumulating.
49. 1; The passage paints a scenario of
ignorance among those who invest in taxsaving instruments.
50. 1; That is why it is projected as not an
easy option.
51. 4
52. 3
53. 5
54. 2
55. 2
56. 5
57. 2
58. 5
59. 4
60. 3
61. 5; Choice 1 is not the basic purpose; it is
the result of the basic approach.
62. 3
63. 4
64. 5
65. 3
66. 2
67. 3
68. 2
69. 1
70. 2
71. 4; Add been after not
72. 3; Replace has with had
73. 4; Replace originates with originated
74. 3; Replace from with through
75. 5
(76-80): BFADCGE
76. 2
77. 4
78. 1
79. 3
80. 5
81. 5
82. 1
83. 3
84. 2
85. 4
86. 1
87. 3
88. 5
89. 2
90. 4

22
10
40

11
2

94. 3; 1727 (12) 3

2195 (13) 3
143 (12) 2
168 (13) 2
1

?=

3 1727

3 12 13 25 2195 2
143 24 13 168

3 (12 13)3

1
2

(12 13) 2
{ (a + b)3 = a3 + 3ab(a + b) + b3
and (a + b)2 = a2 + 2ab + b2}
1

25 2

1
25

252

1
5

240 39 5 6
9
12 13 8 25
96. 3; The series is 1.5, 2, 2.5, 3, 3.5...
97. 4; The series is a combination of two
series:

or, 3xy + 48x 2y 32 = 3xy + 6y

or, 48x 6y 2y = 32
or, 48x 8y = 32
... (i)
x 2
x 5
II. y 4 y 10
or, xy + 10x + 2y + 20 = xy + 5y + 4x + 20
or, 6x 3y = 0
or, 6x = 3y
y = 2x
Putting the value of y in eqn (i), we get
48x 8 2x = 32
or, 32x = 32
x = 1 and y = 2
Hence, x < y
104. 5; I. x2 + 20x + 4 = 50 25x
or, x2 + 45x = 46
or, x2 + 45x 46 = 0
or, x(x + 46) 1 (x + 46) = 0
or, (x 1) (x + 46) = 0
or, x = 1, 46
II. y2 10y 24 = 0
or, y2 12y + 2y 24 = 0
or, y(y 12) + 2(y 12) = 0
or, (y + 2) (y 2) = 0
y = 2, y = 12
Hence, relation cant be established between
x and y.

K
KUNDAN

91. 5; ? =

92. 4; ? =

9
42

63
5
54
81
8

8
5

5
= 9
8

8
5

7
3

5 8
7
=
4 3
3

17
5

360 25 64
40
17 8

4 3

399
40
47
12

95. 3; ? =

105. 5; I.

Series I:

Series II:

98. 4; The series is +22, +33, +42, +53, +62, ...

99. 5; The series is +(1.5) 2 , +(2.5) 2 , +(3.5) 2 ,
+(4.5) 2 , +(5.5) 2, ...
100. 5; The series is +4 2 + 1, +9 2 + 1,
+19 2 + 1, +39 2 + 1, +79 2 + 1, ...
101. 2; I. 8x + y = 10 ... (i)
II. 4x + 2y = 13 ... (ii)
On solving eqn (i) and (ii), we get

16x 2 y

20

4x

2y 13

12 x

...(iii )

... (iv)

7
12
Putting the value of x in eqn (i), we get
7
8
y 10
12
14
16
or, y = 10
=
3
3
Hence, x < y
102. 1; I. xy + 2x + 3y + 6 = 12
or, 2xy + 4x + 6y = 12 ... (i)
II. 2xy + 4x + 5y = 11 ... (ii)
Subtracting (ii) from (i), we get
y=1
Putting the value of y in (i), we get
x=3
Hence x > y
3x 2 3x 6
103. 2; I.
y
y 16
x=

x 2 10 x 16

x 2 12x 24 3
or, 3x2 30x + 48 = 2x2 24x + 48
or, x2 6x = 0
or, x(x 6) = 0
x = 0, 6
II. y2 y 20 = 0
or, y2 5y + 4y 20 = 0
or, y(y 5) + 4(y 5) = 0
or, (y + 4) (y 5)
y = 4, 5
Hence, relation cant be established between
x and y.
106. 4; Lateral surface area of prism
= Perimeter height
Now, 38 h = 342
342
h=
= 9 cm
38
107. 2; Sum of the length of train and tunnel
= 360 + 240 = 600m
Speed of train = 54 kmph

5
= 15 m/sec
18
Time taken by the train to cross the tunnel
= 54

600
= 40 seconds
15
108. 5; Number of lead balls
Volume of box
=
Volume of lead balls
=

= 4
3

16 12 11
22
2 2 2
7

63

109. 2; Total surface area = 2(lb + bh + hl)

= 2(9 8 + 8 7 + 9 7) = 382m2
Now, volume = l b h = 9 8 7 = 504m3

110. 1; Area of the park = 12000m2

Area of the park excluding the lawn
= 8700m2
Area of the lawn = 12000 8700 = 3300m2
or, r2 = 3300

3300 7
or, r =
= 1050
22
111. 4; Total number of ways

32.40m

= 5 C2 2 C1 5 C1 2 C2 = 20 + 5 = 25
112. 2; Since he gains only `5 in 4 tosses,
Possible outcomes = H, T, T, T
Possibility of r heads if n coins are tossed
n

Cr

C1

4 1
=
16 4
2n
24
113. 2; Let the present age of Kaushals son
be x years.
Then, Kaushals age = 3x
After 10 years, Kaushals age = (3x + 10) years
Kaushals sons age = (x + 10) years
Now, 3x + 10 + x + 10 = 72
or, 4x = 72 20 = 52
x = 13 years
Kaushals age = 3 13 = 39
13
Reqd ratio =
=1:3
39
114. 3;
We have perimeter of the rhombus = 44m
And area of the rhombus = 44m2
Now, side of the rhombus
Perimeter of rhombus
44
=
=
= 11m
4
4

or, 9 = 1

Thus, 1

r
100
r
100

or, 32 = 1

10 2

= 1

r
100

r
100

T = 20 years
Hence, the money becomes 9 times in 20
years.
116. 1; Let the larger number be x and the
smaller number be y.
Then, x + y = 1000
... (i)
Now, x2 y2 = 256000
256000
xy=
= 256
... (ii)
1000
Again, solving (i) and (ii), we get
x y 1000
1256
x y 256
x=
= 628
2
2 x 1256

200
= 20 m/s
10
Now, speed of 2nd train = Speed of first train
x 300
20 =
20
where x = length of 2nd train
x = 100m
Now total length = 100 + 200 = 300m
Now, s = 20 m/s
300
Time =
= 15 seconds
20
118. 2; Let CP = `100
Marked price = `140
100
% of 140 = `20
Now,
7
And 10% of (140 20) = 12
SP = 140 (20 + 12) = `108
108 100
100 = 8%
Percentage profit =
100
119. 3; Ratio of periods of investment
Ratio of profits
6 15 4
4 : 6 :1
= Ratio of capitals = : :
3 5 8
1
120. 4; One days work of A =
8
1
Bs one days work =
12
1
Cs one days work =
24
Let the number of days taken be x.
A worked for x days.
B for (x 1) days
117. 2; Speed of 1st train =

C for (x 2) days
x ( x 1) (x 2)
Now,
= 1 (Total work)
8
12
24

28
4
2
= 4 = 4 days
6
6
3
(121-125):
Language
Male
Female
or, x =

Total

Tamil

8000

9600

17600

Oriya

6000

8400

14400

Bangla

3840

5760

9600

Hindi

3500

4500

8000

Telugu

3200

7200

10400

Urdu

1400

3400

4800

Malayalam

8550

6650

15200

Total

34490

45510

80000

22
80000 17600
100
[18% of x = 14400
x = 80000]
10400 9600
100 = 8.33%
122. 4; Req % =
9600
6000
100 90%
123. 2; Req % =
6650
5760 3500
100 = 64.5%
124. 4; Req % =
3500
121. 4;

K
KUNDAN
Altitude of the rhombus =

Area of rhombus
44
=
= 4m
Side
11
115. 3; Let the sum be `P.
It triples in 10 years.
Therefore, 3P = P 1
10

r
100

10

r
100
Now, suppose the money becomes 9 times,
ie 9P, in T years.
or, 3 = 1

So, 9P = P 1

r
100

125. 4; Req % =

3400
100
45510

8%

(126-130):

Place
2012
2013
A
75000
126000
B
90000
140000
C
60000
154000
D
100000
105000
E
15000
119000
F
80000
56000
126. 4; Population of A
15 500000
=
= 75000
100
100000 56000
100 = 78.5%
127. 2; Req % =
56000
128. 4
126000 90000
100 40%
129. 5; Req % =
90000
130. 3

(131-135):
Subject
P
Q
R
S
T
U
V
W
131. 4

A
972
810
648
864
486
594
486
540

B
1170
975
780
1040
585
715
585
650

156. 3 157. 5 158. 1 159. 4 160. 3

161. 5 162. 5 163. 3 164. 2 165. 4
166. 1 167. 3 168. 2 169. 5 170. 2
171. 2 172. 5 173. 1 174. 3 175. 1
176. 4 177. 4 178. 5 179. 1 180. 4
181. 2 182. 4 183. 2 184. 3
185. 4; FIND option is used to find a
particular word or group of words. It is
available under EDIT menu.
186. 2 187. 3 188. 2 189. 3 190. 3
191. 2 192. 2 193. 3 194. 2 195. 2
196. 3 197. 4 198. 2 199. 2 200. 2

810 585
100 = 38.4%
585
133. 5; Total marks = 584 + 585 = 1179
132. 4;

134. 2;

972 650
100 = 49.5%
650

135. 2
(136-140):

Product

2009

2010

K
KUNDAN
A

10010

12350

15795

18050

11765

21850

13975

15200

13455

27550

Total

65000

95000

136. 4;

18050 15795
100 = 14.2
15795

137. 2

138. 3;
139.
140.
141.
146.
151.

1
2
4
4
2

27550 11765
100 = 134.1%
11765

142. 1 143. 2 144. 2

147. 4 148. 1 149. 4
152. 1 153. 3 154. 3

145. 1
150. 3
155. 3