Control Systems

Solution for problem set #5 (Modified from Jinming Chens homework)

1. Find Jordan-form representations and transformation matrix Q for the following
matrices:

1 1 0
2 0 0
1 0 0
A1 0 0 1 , A 2 1 6 4 , A 3 0 1 0
0 0 1
1 9 6
4 2 2
Solution:
For A1, the characteristic polynomial is:
( 1) 2 0 1 0

2, 3 1

For 1=0, we get: 0

0

1 v1 0 v1 1
0
1

1
0
0

For 2=1, from [A-2I]2v3=0, [A-2I]v30, we obtain:

0
0

1
1
0

1
0

1 v3 0 v3 1
1
0

so v 2 A 2 I v3 0

1 1
Q 1 0
0 0

0
A1 Q AQ 0
0
1

and

0
1
0

0
1
1

For A2, the characteristic polynomial is:

2 ( 2) 0 1 2

2,3 0

for 1=2, we get: 1

1

4
9

4
4 v1 0 v1 4
5
8

for 2=0, from [A-2I]2v3=0, [A-2I]2v30, we get:

4 0 0

4 0 0 v 3 0 v 3
5 0 0

0
0
0 , v 2 ( A 2 I )v 3 4
6
1

 4 0 0
Q 4 4 0
5 6 1

2 0 0
A 2 Q 1 AQ 0 0 1
0 0 0

and

For A3, the characteristic polynomial is:

( 1) 2 ( 2) 0 1, 2 1

3 2

0 0 0
For 1,2=1. We have A-I= 0 0 0 . Since (A-1I)=1, we obtain
4 2 1
(A-1I)=2. (A-1I)v1=0 has two LI solutions. We choose

v1 2 , v 2
0

0
1 .
2
1

For 3=2, we get: (A-3I)v3 = 0

1
Q 2
0

0
1
2

0
0

and

0 0

1 0 v 3 0 v 3

2 0

1
A 3 Q AQ 0
0
1

0
1
0

0
0
2

0
0
1

2. For the matrices in Problem 1, compute A199, A1100, A29, A210, A311, A312.
For A1, assume f()=k, g()=0+1+22 then
g(0)=f(0), 0=0
g(1)=f(1), 1=1+2
g(1)=f(1), k=1+22
we get: 0=0, 1=2-k, and 2=k-1;
So g(A)=(2-k)A+(k-1)A2
1
A 0
0
2

1
0
0

1
1
1

For k=99, g ( A) 0
0
1

For k=100, g ( A) 0
0

1
0

98
1

1
1 99

0
0

1
1

For A2, assume f()=k, g()=0+1+22 then

g(0)=f(0), 0=0
g(0)=f(0), 0=1
g(2)=f(2), 2k=42
we get: 0=0, 1=0, and 2=2k-2
So g(A)=2k-2A2

4 0 0
A 2 4 0 0
5 0 0

512 0 0

For k=9, g ( A) 512 0 0

640 0 0
1024 0
For k=10, g ( A) 1024 0
1280 0

0
0
0

For A3, assume f()=k, g()=0+1+22 then

g(2)=f(2), 2k=0+21+42
g(1)=f(1), 1=0+1+2
g(1)=f(1), k=1+22
we get: 0=2k-2k, 1=2+3k-2k+1, and 2=2k-k-1
So:

4(2 1)

2(2 k 1)

g ( A) (2 2k ) I ( 2 3k 2 2 ) A (2 k 1) A
k

1
A 0
12
2

0
1
6

0
0
4

0
0
0
1
0
8188 4094 2048
1
0
0

1
0
For k=12, g ( A) 0
16380 8190 4096

For k=11, g ( A)

0
0

2 k

3. Let f(A) and g(A) be two polynomials of A. Show that f(A)g(A)=g(A)f(A), i.e., two
polynomials of the same matrix commute.
Proof:
n

Assume g(A)= i A and f(A)= k A k then

i

k 0

i 0

i 0

k 0

g ( A) f ( A) i A i k A k
n

i A i k A k
i 0 k 0
n m

i k A i k
i 0 k 0
n m

k A k i A i k A k i A i
i 0 k 0
m

k 0 i 0

k A k i Ai
k 0

i 0

f ( A) g ( A)

Another approach: use induction. First, it is easy to verify that

( 0 I 1 A)( 0 I 1 A) )( 0 I 1 A)( 0 I 1 A) 0 0 I ( 0 1 1 0 ) A 1 1 A 2
This validates f(A)g(A)=g(A)f(A) when both of them are first order polynomials.
It is also easy to see that An+1g(A) =g(A)An+1 for any n0 and any polynomial g.
Now assume that f(A)g(A)=g(A)f(A) is true for f(A) of degree n and g(A) of degree
m. Let f1(A)=n+1An+f(A) where f(A) has degree n. Then for any g(A) of degree m,

f1 ( A) g ( A) n 1 A n 1 g ( A) f ( A) g ( A)
g ( A) f 1 ( A) n 1 g ( A) A n 1 g ( A) f ( A) n 1 A n 1 g ( A) f ( A) g ( A) f1 ( A) g ( A)
This validates f1(A)g(A)=g(A)f1(A) for f1(A) of degree n+1 and g(A) of degree m.
Similarly we can show that f1(A)g1(A)=g1(A)f1(A) for f1(A) of degree n+1 and g1(A)
of degree m+1.
The result is proved by repeating the above procedure inductively starting with m=1
and n=1.

4. Let f(A) be a polynomial. Suppose that v is an eigenvector of A with corresponding

eigenvalue , then v is also an eigenvector of f(A) with corresponding eigenvalue
f().
Proof:
From the definition, we have: Av=v. Then
A2v=AAv=Av=Av=v=v,
A3v=AA2v=Av=Av=v=v,
..
Anv=nv,

f ( A)v i A i v
i

i v
i

( i i )v
i

f ( )v
so, we have f ( A)v f ( )v
This means that v is an eigenvector of f(A) with corresponding eigenvalue f(