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The "kilowatt-hour" is a unit of ___________. What is the maximum value of the static friction? a. Starting friction B. Kinetic friction C. Sliding friction D. Dynamic friction 14. What is the quantity of heat required to change the temperature of unit mass through one degree?
The "kilowatt-hour" is a unit of ___________. What is the maximum value of the static friction? a. Starting friction B. Kinetic friction C. Sliding friction D. Dynamic friction 14. What is the quantity of heat required to change the temperature of unit mass through one degree?
The "kilowatt-hour" is a unit of ___________. What is the maximum value of the static friction? a. Starting friction B. Kinetic friction C. Sliding friction D. Dynamic friction 14. What is the quantity of heat required to change the temperature of unit mass through one degree?
initial velocity is 30 m/s at an angle of 30 degrees with the horizontal? A. 100 m B. 92 m C.79.45 m D.110 m
2. Newtons Second law of motion states
that the rate of change of momentum with respect to time is: A. force B. power C. energy D. work
3. The number 175.00 has how many
significant figures? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 2
4. The kilowatt-hour is a unit of
___________. A. work B. energy C. Power D. work or energy
5. What is another term for a scalar
product of two vectors? A. Cross product B. Dot product C. Vector product D. Plus product
6. What is another term for vector product
of two vectors? A. Cross product B. Dot product C. Vector product D. Plus product
7. What is the property of matter which is
the reluctance to change its state of rest or of uniform motion? A. impulse B. inertia C. momentum D. equilibrium
8. What is the maximum value of the static
friction? A. starting friction B. kinetic friction C. sliding friction D. dynamic friction
9. What is the energy something possesses
by virtue of its motion? A. kinetic energy B. potential energy C. rest energy D. mechanical energy
10. What is the energy something
possesses by virtue of its mass? A. kinetic energy B. potential energy C. rest energy D. mechanical energy
11. What is the energy something
possesses by virtue of its position? A. kinetic energy B. potential energy C. rest energy D. mechanical energy
12. The Acceleration of a particular body is
directly proportional to the resultant force acting on it and inversely proportional to its mass is a statement of A. Joules Law B. 1st Law of Thermodynamics C. Newtons 2nd Law of Motion D. Boyles Law
13. In a trajectory, at what angle will the
object be fired in order to reach a maximum range? A. 45O B. 30O C. 60O D. 75O
14. The quantity of heat required to change
the temperature of unit mass through one degree. A. Temperature B. Specific Heat C. Thermal Equilibrium D. Calorie
15. From the speed of 100 kph, a car
decelerates at the rate of 15 m/min/sec along a straight road. Which of the following gives the distance travelled at the end of 40 sec. A. 3800 m B. 911.112 m C. 91.111 m D. 455.56 m
16. In optics, this effect refers to the
blurring of the image produced on a concave mirror due to the convergence of rays far from the mirror to other points on the principal axis. What do you call this effect? A. spherical aberration B. focal divergence C. parallax error D. Snells effect
17. A rock is dropped into an old well. After
4 seconds, the sound of the rock splashing into the water is heard. What is the depth of the well if the speed of sound is 330 m/s? A. 65.43m B. 70.34m C. 76.33m D. 82.54m
18. The velocity of a particle moving along
the x axis is defined by v = x^4 + 2x^3 3x^2 where v is in m/s and x is in m. Which of the following gives the velocity when x = 2m. A. 20 m/s B. 44 m/s C. 40 m/s D. 22 m/s
19. An automobile accelerates at a constant
rate of 15 mi/hr to 45 mi/hr in 15 seconds, while travelling in a straight line. What is the average acceleration? A. 2 ft/s B. 2.12 ft/s C. 2.39 ft/s D. 2.93 ft/s
20. It describes the luminous flux incidence
per unit area and is expressed in lumens per square meter. A. Illuminance B. Luminance C. Luminous intensity D. Radiance
21. The energy stored in a starched elastic
material such as spring is A. Mechanical energy B. Elastic potential energy C. Internal energy D. Kinetic energy
22. What is the unit of mass moment of
inertia? A. kg-m^4 B. kg-m^3 C. kg-m^2 D. kg-m
23. The principles of kinetics of particles
are derived from which law? A. Newtons first law B. Newtons third law C.Newtons second law D.dAlemberts principle
24. If the coefficient of restitution is zero,
the impact is __________. A. partially elastic B. perfectly elastic C. perfectly inelastic D. partially elastic
25. The load that acts on a body with some
velocity causing loss of potential energy and kinetic energy is known as _________. A. moving load B. impact load C. apparent load D. impulse load
26. If two forces, 30kN and 20kN are
separated by 50 degrees, what is the resultant force? A. 43.54 kN B. 45.51 kN C. 44.45 kN D. 46.63 kN
27. Given 3 vectors, 500N at 30O, 300N at
150O and 400N at 270O, what is the magnitude of the resultant vector? A. 137.21N B. 143.71N C. 173.21N D. 177.31N
28. What is the dot product of the vectors:
A = 6i +4j -5k and B = 5i + 3j + 7. A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7
29. What is the cross product of the
vectors: A = 6i +4j -5k and B = 5i + 3j + 7. A. 43i-67j-2k B. 43i+67j-2k C. 43i-67j+2k D. 43i+67j+2k
30. How long does it take for a ball tossed
up along the y-axis to reach its maximum height if it was given a vertical initial speed of 15m/s? A. 1.35s B. 1.53s C. 3.15s D. 5.13s
31. What is the horizontal range of a
projectile if the object is fired from a building 400m high and initial velocity of 350 m/s? The angle of elevation of the projectile is 25O. A. 10.4 km B. 11.2 km C. 12.6 km D. 14.4 km
32. What is the force exerted by an 80-kg
man if he is standing in an elevator that is moving at 2.75 m/s^2 downward? A. 220.0N B. 356.6N C. 564.8N D. 784.8N
33. How much work is required to raise a
0.1-kg block to a height of 2 m and simultaneously give it a velocity of 3 m/s? A. 1.42 J B. 1.67 J C. 2.12 J D. 2.41 J
34. A particle moves such that its
displacement (in centimeters) at any time t (in seconds), measured from a fixed reference point along a straight line, is defined as: s = 5t^3 + 18t^2 -8t + 3. How far will the particle travel during the fifth second? A. 459 cm B. 574 cm C. 1038 cm D. 1245 cm
35. If the lifetime of pions at rest in the
laboratory is 2.6 x 10-8s, at what speed must the pions travel with respect to the laboratory so that their lifetime is 7.8 x 10-8s as measured by a laboratory observer? A. 0.89c B. 0.94c C. 0.98c D. 0.49c
36. A projectile weighing 100 pounds
strikes the concrete wall of a fort with an impact velocity of 1200 ft/s. the projectile comes to rest in 0.01 s, having penetrated the 8-foot thick wall to a distance of 6 feet. What is the average force exerted on the wall by the projectile? A. 3.57 x10^5 lbs B. 3.75 x10^5 lbs C. 37.5 x 10^5 lbs D. 35.7 x10^5 lbs
37. What is the weight of the water in a
waterbed which is 2.4 m long, 1.8 m wide and 0.23 m deep? A. 11.7 kN B. 10.7 kN C. 9.7 kN D. 8.7 kN
38. A pendulum of length 4m is pulled aside
and released. Find the period of the pendulum on earth. A. 0.25 s B. 0.40 s C. 2.5 s D. 4.0 s
39. An airplane is flying in a horizontal
circle of radius 1.5 km with a speed of 450 km/hr. What is the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration of the plane? A. 13.5 m/s2 B. 30.0 m/s2 C. 10.4 m/s2 D. 15.2 m/s2
40. A 1200 kg car oscillates vertically on its
suspension springs with a period of 0.60s when empty. If six persons, each of mass 80 kg, get into the car, how far down will the supporting springs be depressed? A. 3.6 cm B. 3.6 m C. 0.36 m D. 0.36 cm
41. What is the fundamental frequency of a
0.3 m string if the string wave speed is equal to 900 m/s? A. 1000 Hz B. 2000 Hz C. 500 Hz D. 1500 Hz
42. An astronaut carries a meter stick in his
spaceship. The meter stick is aligned in the direction of motion of his spaceship, which is moving at a speed of 0.8c relative to the earth. What is the length of the meter stick, as measured by an observer back on earth? A. 0.8 m B. 0.9 m C. 0.6 m D. 0.7 m
43. A small boy stands with his finger
plugging a hole in a dike. The hole has a diameter of 12 mm and is located 3.4 m below the surface level of the water behind the dike. How much force must the boy exert to hold back the water? A. 3.30 N B. 3.08 N C. 3.80 N D. 0.38 N
44. A string 80cm long has a mass of 6.4 x
10^-2 g and is stretched by a force of 96N. What is the frequency of the fundamental vibration? A. 6.8 x 10^2 vib/s B. 6.8 x 10^3 vib/s C. 1.1 x 10^3 vib/s D. 1.1 x 10^2 vib/s
45. Calculate the wavelength of a 1500-kg
automobile traveling with a speed of 25m/s. A. 2.21 x 10^-38 m B. 2.12 x 10^-38 m C. 1.80 x 10^-38 m D. 1.08 x 10^-38 m
46. What effect do the following forces have
on a point: 100N, 30E of N; 200 N, 80S of E; 150N, 45S of W; 175 N, 25W of N; 50N, due N. A. 95.6 N, 4.5 S of W B. 95.6 N, 4.5 W of S C. 59.6 N, 4.5W of S D. 59.6 N, 4.5S of W
47. An airplane lands on a carrier deck at
150 mi/hr and is brought to a stop uniformly, by an arresting device, in 500 ft. Find the time required to stop. A. 5.44 s B. 10.88 s C. 4.55 s D. 9.1 s
48. A projectile fired at an angle of 45
degrees with the horizontal has an initial velocity of 10 m/s. After what time will it reach its maximum range? A. 4.14 s B. 1.44 s C. 1.09 s D. 2.18 s
49. What average force is necessary to
stop a bullet of mass 20g and speed 250 m/s as it penetrates wood to a distance of 12 cm? A. 3.8 KN B. 5.2 KN C. 4.1 KN D. 7.3 KN
50. An automobile traveling 30 m/s has
wheels of 0.75 m diameter. What is the angular speed of the wheels about the axle? A. 22.5 rad/s B. 80 rad/s C. 40 rad/s D. 45 rad/s
51. A ball is shot at a ground level at an
angle of 60 degrees with the horizontal with an initial velocity of 100 m/s. Which of the following gives the height of the ball after 2 seconds? A. 135.6 m B. 315.2 m C. 173.2 m D. 153.6 m
52. The number of electrons in a neutral
atom of every element is always equal to the atoms ____. A. Number of nucleons B. Number of neutrons C. Number of positrons D. Number of protons
53. The atom of carbon-14
contains______. A. 6 protons, 8 neutrons, and 8 electrons B. 6 protons, 8 neutrons, and 6 electrons C. 6 protons, 6 neutrons, and 8 electrons D. 8 protons, 6 neutrons, and 6 electrons
54. Compounds are mostly classified as
A. Homogenous and heterogeneous B. Acids and bases C. Gaseous, liquids and solids D. Metals and non-metals
55. What is the property of metals that
allow them to be rolled without breaking? A. Ductility B. Malleability C. Luster D. Elasticity
56. What acid is added to carbonated
drinks to produce a tart taste? A. Citric acid B. Phosphoric acid C. Sulfuric acid D. Nitric acid
57. The masses of elements in a pure
compound are always in the same proportion. This statement is known as ___________. A. Law of multiple proportion B. Law of definite proportion C. The periodic table D. Daltons theory
58. The discovery of radioactivity further
confirms the existence of subatomic particles. Who discovered radioactivity? A. Henri Becquerel B. Marie Curie C. Pierre Curie D. Niels Bohr
59. Elements in the group 1A in the
periodic table are _______. A. Boron Group B. Alkali earth metals C. Alkali metals D. Carbon group
60. What is the second most abundant
element in the human body? A. Carbon B. Hydrogen C. Oxygen D. Nitrogen
61. Caustic soda is used making soap,
textiles and paper. What is another term for caustic soda? A. Sodium benzoate B. Sodium hydroxide C. Potassium chlorate D. Cesium bromide
62. An instrument that separates particles
of different isotopic composition and measure their individual relative masses A. mass spectrometer B. barometer C. hygrometer D. hydrometer
63. These are compounds containing water
molecules loosely bound to the other components A. isotope B. hydrates C. ion D. mixture
64. If a more active element replaces a less
active one in a compound, the reaction is A. combustion reaction B. replacement reaction C. metathesis D. double displacement
65. If a single reactant is transformed by
heat or electricity into two or more products, the type of reaction is A. decomposition B. combination C. displacement D. double displacement
66. The numerical value for standard
pressure of any gas A. 76 mmHg B. 760 cmHg C. 760 mmHg D. 7.6 cmHg
67. The mass of a neutron is equal to
______________ A. 1.6749 x 10^-27 kg B. 1.008665 amu C. 1.6749 x 10^-24 g D. All of the above
68. Proton was discovered by
A. John Dalton B. James Chadwick C. J. J. Thomson D. Ernest Rutherford
69. Electron was discovered by
A. Rutherford B. Thomson C. Goldstein D. Chadwick
70. The charge of a neutron is
______________ A. +1.6 x 10^-19 Coulomb B. -1.6 x 10^-19 Coulomb C. 4.8 x 10^-10 Coulomb D. None of these
71. The charge of electron was
experimentally discovered by A. Goldstein B. Chadwick C. Millikan D. Thomson
72. How many independent properties are
required to completely fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous compound? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
73. Which of the following thermodynamic
relations is incorrect? A. TdS = dU + pdV B. TdS = dH V dp C. U = Q - W D. H = U - pV
74. If air is at a pressure, p, of 3200 lbf/ft2
and at a temperature, T, of 800 R, what is the specific volume, v? (R = 53.3 ftlbf/lbm-R and air can be modeled as an ideal gas) A. 9.8 ft3/lbm B. 11.2 ft3/lbm C. 13.3 ft3/lbm D. 14.2 ft3/lbm
75. Steam at 1000 lbf/ft2 pressure and 300
R has a specific volume of 6.5 ft3/lbm and a specific enthalpy of 9800 lbf-ft/lbm. Find the internal energy per pound mass of steam A. 2500 lbf-ft/lbm B. 3300 lbf-ft/lbm C. 5400 lbf-ft/lbm D. 6900 lbf-ft/lbm
76. Which of the following is true for water
at a reference temperature where enthalpy is zero? A.Internal energy is negative. B. Entropy is non-zero. C. Specific volume is zero. D. Vapor pressure is zero.
77. 3.0 lbm of air are contained at 25 psia
and 100 F. Given that Rair = 53.35 ftlbf/lbm-F, what is the volume of the container? A. 10.7 ft3 B. 14.7 ft3 C. 15 ft3 D. 24.9 ft3
78. On what plane is the Mollier diagram
plotted? A. p-V B. p-T C. h-s D. s-u
79. The first law of thermodynamics is
based on which of the following principles? A. conservation of mass B. the enthalpy-entropy relationship C. action-reaction D. conservation of energy
80. What is the value of the work done for
a closed, reversible, isometric system? A. zero B. positive C. negative D. positive or negative
81. A 5 m3 vessel initially contains 50 kg of
liquid water and saturated water vapor at a total internal energy of 27,300 kJ. Calculate the heat requirement to vaporize all of the liquid. A. 100,000 kJ B. 200,000 kJ C. 300,000 kJ D. 400,000 kJ
82. Find the change in internal energy of 5
lbm of oxygen gas when the temperature changes from 100 F to 120 F. cv = 0.157 BTU/lbm-R. A. 14.7 BTU B. 15.7 BTU C. 16.8 BTU D. 147 BTU
83. Water (specific het cv = 4.2 kJ/kg k) is
being heated by a 1500 W heater. What is the rate of change in temperature of 1 kg of the water? A. 0.043 K/s B. 0.179 k/s C. 0.357 k/s D. 1.50 K/s
84. One kilogram of water (cv = 4.2 kJ/kg
K) is heated by 300 BTU of energy. What is the change in temperature, in K? A. 17.9 k B. 71.4 K C. 73.8 K D. 75.4 K
85. Determine the change in enthalpy per
lbm of nitrogen gas as its temperature changes from 500 F to 200 F. (cp = 0.2483 BTU/lbm-R) A. -74.49 BTU/lbm B. -72.68 BTU lbm C. -68.47 BTU/lbm D. 63.78 BTU/lbm
86. What is the resulting pressure when
one pound of air at 15 psia and 200 F is heated at constant volume to 800 F? A. 15 psia B. 28.6 psia C. 36.4 psia D. 52.1 psia
87. What horsepower is required to
isothermally compress 800 ft3 of air per minute from 14.7 psia to 120 psia? A. 13,900 hp B. 108 hp C. 256 hp D. 28 hp
88. Which of the following relations defines
enthalpy? A.h=u+P/T B.h=u+pV C.h=u+P/V D.h=pV+T
89. For an irreversible process, what is true
about the total change in entropy of the system and surroundings? A. dS=dQ/T B. dS = 0 C. dS > 0 D. dS < 0
90. If 658 g of sucrose (molecular
mass = 342 g) is dissolved in 2000 g of water (essentially 2 L), what will be the freezing point of this solution? A. -0.51OC B. -1.86OC C. -1.79OC D. -6.58OC
91. A carnot heat engine receives 500KJ
of heat per cycle from a high-temperature source at 600 C and rejects heat a low temperature sink at 25C. Determine the thermal efficiency of this Carnot engine A. 93.33% B. 65.86% C. 6.67% D. 64.15%
92. Three moles of an ideal gas
are compressed slowly and isothermally from a volume of 3 to 2.5 ft3, at a temperature of 450K. How much work is done? A. -2.05 kJ B. -3.45 kJ C. -5.67 kJ D.-9.32 kJ
93. A certain gas, with cP=0.529
Btu/lb.RO and R=96.2 ft.lb/lb.OR, expands from 5 cu ft and 80 OF to 15 cu ft while the pressure remains constant at 15.5 psia. Compute T2. A. 240 OR B. 1620 OR C. 26.67 OR D. 180 OR
94. If 10 g of ice melts at 0OC,
the total quantity of heat absorbed is A. 3.35 kJ B. 80 kJ C. 800 kJ D. 8000 kJ
95. A pressure gage register 50 psig
in a region where the barometer is 14.52 psia. Find the absolute pressure in Pascals. A. 445 Pa B.435 kPa C.434 kPa D.445 kPa
96. At 5 atm pressure and 70OC,
how many moles are present in 3L of O2 gas? A. 0.036 B. 0.267 C. 0.533 D. 1.60
97. The ratio in water of oxygen to
hydrogen by mass is A. 1:9 B. 8:1 C. 1:2 D. 1:8
98. It is the calculation of both
energy balances and material balances in a chemical system. A. molarity B. molality C. calorimetry D. stoichiometry
99. It is an impure form of carbon,
formed when coal is heated strongly in the absence of air. A. graphite B. austentite C. coke D. wrought carbon
100. What pressure must be
applied to 225mL of gas at 1atm to reduce its volume to 100mL? A. 2.25 kPa B. 227.98 kPa C. 3.27 kPa D. 357.23 kPa