Saudi License Exam Questions

Important Notices

This Paper contains all the possible questions that will or most like come on the Saudi License
Exam for Dentists. Its important to understand that this is a reference source and its based on
peoples experience and referred to some sources for verification none the less we are human
and we can do mistakes but this is the best we can do OziDent Team.

Authors

Original Content by (Dr. SoSo , S.M.K , , , . , , dr.330 , ,

Pedodontist , , ) From King Saud University http://www.cksu.com/vb/t100804/

Written By Saud al-Otaibi

Organized by al.sul6an

Edited by Dr. Mohsen S. Ozaibi (OziDent.com)

Contact

Please contact me at mohsen@ozident.com for further information or correction

Aslo visit our website

http://www.ozident.com
Good luck

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1. what is the cavo-surface angle of prep for amalgam resto...

a-30 degree
b 06 -degree
**c- 90 degree***
d- 130 degree
2. when you do amalgam finishing.....
a -immediately
**b- 24 hours later***
3. when polishing amalgam rest.....
-1avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste
-2wait for 24 hours
-3all of the bove**
4. the roof of mandibular fossa consist of:
***a-thin compact bone
b-spongy bone
c-cancellous bone
5. what is the copper ratio that eliminates gamma phase 2:
a- 2% copper
b- 4% copper
c- 10 % copper
***d- 13 % copper***
6. pit and fissure sealants are indicated to prevent dental caries in pits and fissure:
a- in primary teeth
b- in permanent teeth
***c- a & b
7. what is the best instrument used for removing UN SUPPORTED enamel at the gingival
wall of class II:
a- chisel
b- hatchet
***c- gingival marginal trimmer

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8. teeth that have lost pits and fissure sealant show

a- the same susceptibility to caries as teeth that have not been sealed
b- higher susceptibility than non sealed teeth
***c- lower susceptibility than non sealed teeth
d- the same susceptibility as teeth with full retained sealant

9. the periodontal tissue compromise which of the following tissue:

a- gingiva and PDL
b -gingiva and PDL & alveolar bone
***c- gingiva and PDL & alveolar bone & cementum
d- gingiva and PDL & alveolar bone & cementum & enamel

10. which of the following may cause gingival enlargement

***a- phenyntoin (dilantin)
b- cyclosporine
c- nifedipine (a calcium channel blocker)
d- aspirin
e- none of the above
b ,c
a.b.c
11. the function of the periodontal ligament include
a- mechanical function
b- formative function
c- nutritive function
d- sensory function
***e- all of the above

12. pt on treatment with steroids are placed on antibiotic after oral surgical procedure
because
****a- the pt is more susceptible to infection
b- antibiotics are synergistic to steroids
c -antibiotic inhibits kerksheimer reaction
d-antibiotic protect the pt from steroid depletion

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13. periodontally involved root surface must be root planed to

a- remove the attached plaque and calculus
b- remove the necrotic cementum
c- change the root surface to become biocompatible
d- all of the above
e- a & b only
- -
-
14. early squamous cell carcinoma of oral cavity present as:
a- vesicle
b- sessile mass
c- a red plaque
***d- an ulcer
e- a white cauliflower like lesion

15. which of the following lesions has more tendency to show well defined multilocular
radiolucency:
a- lateral periodontal cyst
b- squamous cell carcinoma of jaw bones
c- primordial cyst
***d- ameloblastoma
e- osteomylitis of the mandible

16. firm, fixed neck nodes are most to be detected in association with:
a- an ameloblastoma
b- a basal cell carcinoma
c- an odontogenic fibroma
***d- a squamous cell carcinoma
17. Ankylosis:
a- no PDL
b- caused by trauma
c- extracted surgically
***d- all of the above

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18. the following medical conditions may precipitate a syncope:

-1hypoglycemia
-2mild hyperglycemia
-3anti hypertensive drugs with ganglionic blocking agent
-4anti depressant therapy
a- 1 only is correct
b- 1 2 &are correct
c- 2,3 4& are correct
***d-1,2,3 4& are correct

19. one of the main features of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is the ulcers are confined to
the attached gingival and hard palate:
a- true
***b -false
20 - Compomer restorative materials are:
a. Glass ionomer with polymer components
***b. Resin systems with fluoride containing glasses
c .Composite resin for cervical restorations only
.- 21A glossy finish is best retained on a:
***a. Micro filled composite resin restoration.
b. Macrofilled resin restoration.
c. Hybrid composite resin restoration.
d. Fiber re -inforced composite resin restoration
. 22A class IV composite resin restoration should be finished with a:
a. No. 330 Tungsten carbide bur.
b. Mounted stone.
***c. 12- fluted carbide bur.
d. Coarse diamond point( stone.)
23The functions of cement bases are:
-1To act alike a barrier against acids or thermal shocks.
-2The minimal thickness, which is required, is 0.5 mm of base.
a. 1 and 2.
b .None of the above.
***c. 1 only.
d. 2 only.
. 24It has been proven that amalgam restoration has the following characteristics:
-1Micro leakage decrease with aging of the amalgam restoration.
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-2it is the least techniques sensitive of all current direct restorations.

-3High dimensional changes.
a. 1,2 and.3
b. 1 and 3.
***c. 1 and 2.
d. 2 only.
.22Silicate cement:
-1First tooth colored restoration.
-2It can be used as permanent filling.
-3It contains % 12 fluoride.
a. 1, 2 and 3.
b. 1 and 2.
***c. 1 and 3.
d. 1 only
. .20The effects of natural fluoride versus added fluoride in reducing dental caries as it
relates to the concentration are:
a. Greater
b. Less
***c. The same
Q-27 radiographic diagnosis of bilateral expansile radio opaque areas in the caninepremolar region of the mandible is:
a-hematoma
b- remaining roots
***c- tours mandibularis
d -internal oplique ridge
Q - 22dental carries is an endemic disease "means that the disease is:
a- occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy
****b- is habitually present in human population
c- affect large number of countries simultaneously
d- exhibit a seasonal pattern
Q-29 in countries with higher annual population growth rates, the need for community
based preventive programs would be greater for:
***a- dental caries
b-periodontal disease
c- dentofacial anomalies
d- dental floozies.
30 The functions of cement bases are:
-1To act alike a barrier against acids or thermal shocks.
-2The minimal thickness ,which is required, is 0.5 mm of base.
a. 1 and 2.
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b. None of the above.

***c. 1 only.
d. 2 only
Q-31 the x -ray of choice to detect the proximal caries of the anterior teeth is:
***a -periapical x-ray
b- bitewing x-ray
c- occlusal x-ray
d- non of the above
-
d

Q-32 in terms of caries prevention, the most effective and most cost effective method
is:
***a- community based programs
b -private based programs
c- individually based programs
Q -33 radiographic examination in impacted teeth is useful to demonstrate:
a -proximity of the roots to the adjacent anatomical structures
b- associated pathology
***d- all of the above
Q-34 the post operative complication after the removal of impacted third molar is:
a- secondary hemorrhage
b- swelling
c- pain
d- alveolar osteitis
***e- all of the above
Q-35 acute periapical abcess associated with
***a- swelling
b- widening of PDL
c- pus discharge
Q-36 epidemiology can be defined as:
a- a study of special areas of the skin
***b- the study of the distribution and determinant of disease in man
c- study of biological animals
d- study of disease in research laboratory
Q- 37 dental caries:
a- is a transmissible disease
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b- is world wide in distribution

c -can be prevented
***d- all of the above
e- non of the above
Q-38 the most accurate impression material for making impression of an oral cavity is:
a- impression compound
b -condensation type silicon
***c- polyvinyl siloxanes
d- poly sulfide
39 -At which location in enamel is the density of enamel crystals is lowest:
a- Prismless enamel
***b -DEJ
c-Center of enamel Prisms
d-Edge of enamel Prisms
e-Facial enamel

46 -The Function of cement bases are:

-1act a like a barrier against acids or thermal shocks.
-2The minimal thickness, which is required is .05 mm of base
a-1+2
b-none of the above
***c-1 only
d-2 only
-41 A glossy finish is best retained on a:
***a- Micro filled composite resin restoration.
b -Macro filled composite resin restoration.
c-Hybrid composite resin restoration.
d- Fiber re-inforced composite resin restoration
.
42 in chronic suppurative periodontitis:
a - pt. complain from moderate pain
***b- fistula with drain
c- pulp polyp in open coronal carious lesion
43 blood supply of the palate is from:
a- greater palatine artery
b-lesser palatine artery
c- facial artery
d- long sphenopalatine artery
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e- anatomising braches from all of the above except c

e

44 - mandibular branch of tigiminal nerve leaves the skull through:
a- foramen rotundum
***b- foramen ovale
c-superior orbital fissure
d-inferior orbital fissure
e- juglar foramen
Q- 45 in terms of caries prevention, the most effective and most cost effective method is:
***a- community based programs
b- private based programs
c- individually based programs
Q-46 radiographic examination in impacted teeth is useful to demonstrate:
a- proximity of the roots to the adjacent anatomical structures
b- associated pathology
***d- all of the above
Q- 47 the post operative complication after the removal of impacted third molar is:
a- secondary hemorrhage
b- swelling
c -pain
d- alveolar osteitis
***e- all of the above

Q -42 acute periapical abcess associated with

***a- swelling
b- widening of PDL
c- pus discharge
Q-49 epidemiology can be defined as:
a- a study of special areas of the skin
***b- the study of the distribution and determinant of disease in man
c- study of biological animals
d- study of disease in research laboratory
Q - 26dental caries:
a- is a transmissible disease
b- is world wide in distribution
c- can be prevented
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***d- all of the above

e- non of the above
Q- 51 the most accurate impression material for making impression of an oral cavity is:
a- impression compound
b- condensation type silicon
***c- polyvinyl siloxanes
d- poly sulfide
Q- 52 formicrisol when used should be:
a -full Saturated
b- half saturated
***c- fifth saturated
d- non of the above

Q- 53 the PH of the calcium hydroxide is:

a2.2 ***b- 12
c- 19
d-5.5
Q- 54 the irrigation solution is good because:
a- lubricate the canals
b- flushes the debris
c- non of the above
***d- all of the above
Q- 55 an 12 years old pt present complaining of pain, bad breath and bleeding gingival .This
began over the weekend while studying for the final exam.the pt may have which of the following
conditions:
***a- acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
b- rapidly progressive periodontitis
c- desquamative gingivitis
d- acute periodontal cyst
Q- 56 best way to select retainer for rubber dam
a- contact all surface of the tooth
***b- four points of contact two buccally and two lingually without rocking
c- contact above the height of contour

Q 57 - permeability of dentine:
**a- bacterial products go through it
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**b- decrease by formation of smear layer

**c- bacteria can go in

Q- 59 how can you prevent dental hyper sensitivity
***a- restoration by adhesion
b -controlled by alcohol
c- put sedative medication
Q - 60 overhanging restoration margins should be removed because:
a- it provides ideal location for plaque accumulation
b- it tears the gingival fibers leading to attachment loss
c- stimulate inflammatory reaction directly
d -its removal permits more effective plaque control
e- a & d
***e- a & d
Q- 61 which of the following may be used to disinfect gutta percha points
a- boiling
b- autoclave
***c- chemical solutions
d- dry heat sterilization
Q- 62 the radiographic criteria used for evaluating the successes of endodontic therapy
***a -reduction of the size of the periapical lesion
b- no response to percussion and palpation test
c- extension of the sealer cement through lateral canals
Q- 63 the accesses opening for amaxillary premolar is most frequently
***a- oval
b- square
c -triangular
d- non of the above
Q-64 mandibular foramen in children
a- above the occlusal plane
***b- below the occlusal plane
c -at the level
Q-65 a U- shaped radiopaque structure in the upper 1st molar x-ray is
***a- the zygomatic process
b- maxillary sinus wall
Q-66 loss of sensation in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is related to paralysis of
***a- lingual nerve
b- hypoglossal nerve
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c -chorda tympani nerve

Q- 67 long bone formed by endochondrial ossification while flat bone by membranous calcification
and many bones by booth mechanisms
***a- true
b-false

Q- 68 the choice of local anesthesia depend on:

a- diameter of the nerve
b- structure of the bone
c- number of branches
***d- type of L.A agent chemistry
Q- 69 when you give inferior dental block for pedo pt the angulations for the needle
a- 7 mm below the occlusal plane
b- 5 mm below the occlusal plane
c- 7 mm above the occlusal plane
***d- at the occlusal plane
Q- 70 main use of dental fioss
a- remove calculus
b- remove over hang
***c- remove bacterial plaque
***d -remove food debris
Q 71 The following are types of hamartoma except: ***a-CementobLastoma
b-Compound odontoma
c-Complex odontoma
Q 72 Most common Benign Tumer in oral cavity is: a-Fibroma(AmdobLashic pibroma)

Q 72 In hairy tongue ,which taste buds increase in Length:

***a-FiLi form
b-Fungi form
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c-Foliate
d-Circumvallates
Q 79 Which most common salivary gland neoplasm:
a-Pleomorphic adenoma

Q 80 Ranula is associated with which salivary gland:

a-submandiuLar gland
***b-sublingual gland
Q 81 Ranula Can be treated by: ***a-Excision
b-Cauterization
c-Incision
d-Marsuplization

- 22Which of the following spaces are bilaterally involved in Ludwig's angina?

a-SubmandibuLar and masticatory spaces
b-SubLinguaL+Lat.Pha.space
****c-SubmandibuLar+SubLinguaL+submentaL

-Q -83 Neoplasm that spread by Lymphatic from the angle of the mouth reach the:
a-PreauricuLar Lymph nodes
***b-mental Lymph nodes
***c-submandibuLar Lymph nodes
d-Pterygoid plexus
e-juguLo-digastric node
Q 84 In radiographs, which disease cause multiple radiolucencies
a-Hypothyroidism
***b-Hyperparathyroidism
c-Ricket disease
Q 85 Aplastic anemia is caused by:46 a-Tetracycline
b-penicillin
c-Erythromycin
***d-Sulfonamide
Q 86 -The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called:
***a-Osmosis
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b-Active transport
c-Filtration
d-Diffusion
Q87 -Cell that can give more than one type:
a- Fibroblast
b- Odontoblast
***c Q 88 - high rate of fractures at canine area in the mandible due to:
a- cahnge direction of forces accuring here
***b -long canine root
c- lower boreder is thin in this area
d- alveolus is thin in this area

Q 89 - what is the amount in mg in 1.8 ml of xylocain

a- 20 mg/ml
b- 1.8 mg/ml
***c- 3.6 mg
Q 90 -non odontogenic Lesion similar to Endo Lesion: a-Hyperparathyroidism
***b-initial stage of comental dysplasia
c-ossifying Fibroma
d-Dentigeaus cyst
e-ameLobLastoma
f-Lateral periodontal cyst
j-myxoma & Hemangieoma
Q 91 -Which virus is present in the patient's mouth all his Life? a-Herpes Simplex
b-Herpes zoster
c-varecilla Virus
****d-None of the above
Q 92 -The scientific evidence in dictating that oral Lichen pLanus is a "premalignant Lesion" is:
a-Very strong
b-Non-existent
c-Moderately strong
***d-Weak
Q 93 - Infection is more dangerous in children than adult because
***a-marrow spaces are wide
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b-Affect growth centre

c-Hypo calcification in enamel
Q 94 - years old child present with bilateral swelling of submandibular area, what could be the
disease:
a-Fibrous dysphasia
***b-Cherubim
c-polymorphic adenoma

Q 95 - AchiLd came to the clinic with continuous involuntary movement of his head and
extremities and difficulty in vocal communication;
the condition is described as:
a-Epilepsy
***b-Cerebral palsy

Q 96 Odontogenic infection can cause Least complication: a-Pulmonary abscess

b-Peritonitis
c-Prosthetic valve infection
***d-cavernous sinus thrombosis
Q 97 - The Common disease affecting the submandibuLar salivary gland is:
***a-salivary calculi
b-pleomorphic adenomas
c-Viral sialoadenitis
d-Infected sialoadenitis
Q 98 -The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is:
a- failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival sulcus
b- lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth
***c- lack of attention to tooth shape, position, and contacts
d- lack of prominent cusps, deep sulcus ,and marginal ridges.
Q 99 - Polyether impression materials:
a- are less stable dimensionally than poly sulfide rubber
b -are less stiff than poly sulfide rubber
****c- can absorb water and swell if stored in water

Q 100 an anterior fixed partial denture is contraindicated when:

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a- abutment teeth are not carious

b- an abutment tooth is inclined 15 degrees but otherwise sound
***c- there is considerable resorption of the residual ridges
d- crown of the abutment teeth are extremely long owing to gingival recession
Q 101 - the most accurate impression material for making the impression of an onlay cavity:
a -impression compound
b- condensation type silicone
***c- polyvinyl siloxane
d- polysulfide
Q 102 - for the ceramometal restorations,the type of finish line is:
***a- chamfer
b- beveled shoulder
Q 103 adjustment of contact point:
a -pincile
***b- shim stock
c- siloicon spray indicator
d- dental floss
e- non of the above

Q 104 benefits of opaque porcelain layer:

a- bonding the metal structure
b- initiating the color
***c- a & b

Q 105 orthognathic ridge relationship( class II) present several problems which should be taken
into consideration when constructing a complete denture prosthesis. These include all EXCEPT:
***a- require minimum interocclusal distance
b- have a great range of jaw movement
c- require careful occlusion, usually cuspless teeth are indicated
Q 106 planning centric occlusion for complete denture, it is advisable to have:
***a- 1-2 mm of vertical and horizontal overlap of upper and lower anterior teeth with no contact
b -definite tooth contact of upper and lower anterior teeth in order to facilitate the use of anterior
teeth for incision
Q 107 the distal palatal termination of the maxillary complete denture base is dictated by the:
a -tuberosity
b- fovea palatine
c- maxillary tori
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***d- vibrating line

e- posterior palatal seal

Q 108 -an examination of the edentulous mouth of an aged pt who has worm maxillary complete
dentures for many years against six mandibular teeth would probably show:
a- cystic degeneration of the foramina of the anterior palatine nerve
***b- loss of osseous structure in the anterior maxillary arch
c- flabby ridge tissue in the posterior maxillary arch
d- insufficient inter occlusal distance
Q 109 - the posterior seal in the upper complete denture serves the following functions:
a- it reduces pt discomfort when contact occurs between the dorsum of the tongue and the
posterior end of the denture base
b- retention of the maxillary denture
c- it compensate for dimensional changes which occur in the acrylic denture base during
processing
***d &.. -b are correct
.....
b & c decks >>> a ... all of the above..
Q 110 - balanced occlusion refers to:
a -the type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric occlusion only
***b- the type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in centric and eccentric
jaw positions
c- a type of occlusion which is similar to the occlusion of the natural teeth
Q 111 -the indication for the use lingual plate major connector include:
a- for the purpose of retention
b- when the lingual frenum is high or when there is a shallow lingual sulcus
c- to prevent the movement of mandibular anterior teeth
***d- all of the above
Q 112 in registering the vertical dimension of occlusion for the edentulous pt, the physiological
rest position:
a- is equal to the vertical dimension of occlusion
b- may be exceeded if the appearance of the pt is enhanced
c- is of a little importance as it is subjected to variations
***d- must always be greater than vertical dimension of occlusion
Q 113 - three weeks after delivery of a unilateral distal extension mandibular removable partial
denture, a pt complained of a sensitive abutment tooth, clinical examination reveals sensitivity to
percussion of the tooth, the most likely cause is:
***a-defective occlusion
b -exposed dentine at the bottom of the occlusal rest seats
c- galvanic action between the framework and an amalgam restoration restoration in the
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abutment tooth

Q 114 -to enhance strength properties of ceramo metal restoration, it is important to:
a- avoid sharp or acute angles in the metal structure
b- build up thick layer of porcelain
c- porcelain should be of uniform thickness and any defect of the preparation should be
compensated by the metal substructure
d- compensate any defect in the preparation equally by porcelain and metal substructure
e- 1 2 & are correct
***f- 1 3 & are correct
g- 2 and 4 are correct

Q 115 - the finish line of the core should be:

a- at the finish line of the final restoration
***b- at contra bevel
c- at gingival level
d- tapered with prepared tooth shape
Q 116 - nausea is a complaint that a new denture wearer might encounter. It may result from:
a- thick posterior border
b- denture under extended
c- denture slightly over extended
***d- a & b are correct

Q 117 - to a great extent, the forces occurring through a removable partial denture can be widely
distributed and minimized by the following methods:
***a- proper location of the occlusal rests
b- selection of lingual bar major connector
c- developing balanced occlusion
d- all of the above

Q 118 - wich cranial nerve that petrous part of temporal bone houses:
a-trigeminal n.
***b-facial n.
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c-vagus n .
d-vestibalcochealer n.

Q 119 - ligaments associated with TMJ:

a-tempromandibular
b-sphenomandibular
c-stylomandibular
***d-all of the above

Q 120 -Eruption cyst" eruption hematoma" can be treated by: ***a-No treatment
b-Immediate incision
c-Complete uncoverage
d-Observe for one week then incise
Q 121 - Cholesterol crystals are found in:12 a-Keratocyst
***b-Periodontal cyst

Q 122 - Most commonly dentigerous cysts are associated with:15 a-Unerupted permanent maxillary canines
***b-Unerupted mandibular third molars
Q 123 -Histopathologically , dentigerous cyst Lining epithelium may be:
a-CuboidaL in type
***b-Stratified squamous in type
c-Reduced enamel epithelium
d-ALL of the above
Q 124 ThyrogLossaL duct cysts: a-Are only found in the posterior tongue
b-Clinically present in the Lateral neck tissue
***c-May be found anywhere along the pathway of the embryonic thyrogLossaL duct
d-Are sometimes called Lympho-epithelial cysts
Q 125 - Which of the following is a benign epithelial neoplasm?
a-Rhabdomyoma
b-Fibroma
c-Lipoma
d-Granular Cell tumor
***e-Keratoacanthoma
Q 126 -Unilateral swelling + slowly progressing Lesion on the Left side of the mandible. This
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could be:
a-osteoma
b-CementobLastoma
***c-Ossifying Fibroma
d-Osteo-sarco
Q 127 - Most common site of oral squamous cell carcinoma; ***a-Postero-LateraL border of tongue
b-Floor of the mouth
c-Buccal mucosa
d-Lip
e-Skin
Q 128 - Apical periodontal cyst arise from: a-Hertwig sheath
***b-Epithelial cell rest of malassez
Q 129 -Which is the most Likely cause of periodontal cyst? a-Cell Rest of Malassez
b-Cell rest of serss
***c-Cell of Hertwig sheet
Q 130 -The process of attraction of NeutrophiLs to a site of Local tissue injury is called:
a-Phagocytosis
b-Diapedesis
***c-Chemotaxis
d-Epistaxis
Q 140 - Action of Histamine:6**a-Vasodilatation
**b-Permeability
**c-Chemokinesis
***d-bronchospasm
Q 141 -Formation of latral periodontal cyst due to
a-Nasolacrimal cyst
b-Hertwig's epithelial root sheath
c-Epithelial rest of maLassaz
****d-The epithelial rests or glands of Serres
Q 142 - the following structures open into the middel meatus:
a-nasolacrimal duct
b-posteror ethmoidal sinus
c-maxillary sinus
d-sphenoid sinus
e-anterior ethmoidal sinus
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-1a,b& d
- 2a & b
-3***c & e
-4all of the above
Q 143 - mastoid process is part of:
***a-temporal bone
b-parital bone
c-occiptal bone
d-frontal bone
Q 144 -The term acanthosis refers to:a-A decreased production of keratin
b-An increased production of keratin
***c-An increased thickness of the prickle cell zone (stratum spinosum)
d-None of the above
Q 145 - The most common benign tumor in oral cavity is:***a-Fibroma
b-Papiloma
c-Lipoma

Q 146 -The most common malignant tumors of the minor salivary glands are:
a-Adenoid cystic carcinoma and adenocarcinoma
b-Adenoid cystic carcinoma and acinic cell carcinoma
***c-Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and adenoid cystic carcinoma
d-Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and polymorphous Low grade adenocarcinoma

Q 147 -The moat common type of malignant bone tumor of the jaws is:
a-Osteochondrosarcoma
****b-Osteosarcoma
c-Leiomyosarcoma
d-Chondrosarcoma
Q 148 -The majority of intra-oral squamous cell carcinomas are histologically:
a-Poorly differentiated
***b-Well moderately differentiated
c-Spindle cell in type
d-Carcinoma in situ
Q 149 - Histopathologically , early verrucous carcinomas:*** - a-Have characteristic microscopic
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features
b-can be confused with acute hypertrophic candidiasis
c-Can be confused with Lichen pLanus
d-Can be confused with chronic hypertrophic candidiasis
Q 150 - Histopathologically adenoid cystic carcinoma in characterized by islands of:
a-Basophilic islands of tumor/cells that are intermingled with areas of pseudocartiLage
b-Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a "Swiss cheese "appearance
[???***c-Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a "Swiss cheese "appearance and evidence of
serous acini
d-Basophilic islands of tumor cells that contain mucin and normal acini
Q 151 The risk of malignant change being present in epithelium is greatest in:
a-Homogenous Leukoplakia
***b-Erythroplakia
c-Chronic hyperplasic candidiasis
d-Speckled Leukoplakia

Q 152 - Primary malignant melanoma of the oral mucosa: a-Always originates within the surface
epithelium
***b-Mostly originates within the surface epithelium
c-Always originates from nevus cells in the connective tissue
d-Always originates from Langerhans cells within
Epithelium

2662 ) ( ..
[1]
the body secret antibody against antigen using which cells
-T lymphocyte
- B lymphocyte
[2]
? in diabetic patient , periodontium affected by which cells
-Neutrophil
- Macrophages
[3]
. when take an x-ray to pregnant lady we use all of this method except:
- digital x-ray
-high sensitive film
-cone??
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- 8 inch??
-lead apron with thyroid collar
[4]
when take x-ray we should stand :
- 6 feet away in 90-135 angle
[5]
best measurement of periodontitis by:
- pocket depth
- bleeding
attachment level[6]
- proximal caries should be opened when
- o fi d wit i
.
-pass DE junction
-dentin lateraly
- all of the above
[7]
-in a study ,it should???
- Protect you against role of the statistician
- Protect you against legal risks
protect against physical risks
8-ethics of the study include all of the following except:
-privacy of all subjects
-informed consent may be required or not
-object if the subject refuse to take part of the study
9-clinical research??:
-no diff b/w blind & double blind
-if there's need of intervention
10-pit and fissure sealant:
-new erupted teeth
-deep fissure and pits in molars
proximal caries
-a&b
11. cause of angular chelitis:
-loss vertical dimension pt have complete denture
-autoimmune factors
-.....
.......
12. ugly duckling stage:
-9-11 years old
-13-15 years old
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13- component of Gutta percha:

-50% Gp & 50%?
-20% Gp & 70% ZOE
??
14. all are irrigation for canals except:
-naocl
-RC prep
15. for po t pr p r tio w

ou d

of GP:

10mm-5mm
16.enamel caries :
-out r zo fr of.?
- outer zone contain high pores

17. most common bacteria causing caries:

- streptococcal mutans
18. proximal caries confined to enamel:
- prevention
-observation
-restore with G I
19- in community diagnosis and treatment program:
water flouridation- ?? diagnose, prevent, treat
-?
20- pass throw parotid gland:
-facial nerve
-facial arteries
-external carotid viens
21. porcelain shrinkage after firing:
- 1-5%
-5-10%
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22. the cement under MOD amalgam have this character:

-high modulus of elasticity(stiff)
-low modulus of elasticity ( stiffness)
-the high modulus of elasticity prevent of bonding and ??decrease tensile strength.
- both a &c

23. radiographic radioulucency in the interradicular area:

-invasion of furcation.
-periodontal abcess
-periodontal cyst
24. examination of pt health by the dentist:
to know the patients health to know what medications to give??- to know general health data
25.2 statement true or false:
RCT abutment of FPD have higher risk for fracture.abutment which have RCT in cantilever FPD
have higher susceptibility to fracture1st is true,2nd is false
1st is false,2nd is true-both are false
-both are true
26. both glass ionomer & polycarpoxylate cement contain:
-polyacrylic acid
-ZOE powder
27.most frequent cause of fainting in dental office:
vaso-vagal shock
-diabetes
....
....
28-loss of consciousness most frequent cause:
syncope
CO2 ...
29. most common cyst oral cavity:
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-radicular
peridontal cyst30.ostomilitis most in:
-maxilla
-mandible
31. factors delay healing of wound:
infectiontorn wound edges-strain
- all of the above
32. factor interfere with healing??:
poor suturing -infection
??33. dry socket happen after:
-24 h
-3-5days
-1week
-2weeks

34.compared to herpetic ulcers...aphthous ulcers are:

-small size?
-in mucosa lining
leave scars..35. avulsion more important factor that affect reimplantation :
contaminated roots-time since the avulsion
36.nicotine stomatitis:
-p t . p r??
hyperplasia - ri k ?? ik
p pro i

t b

37. dentinogenisis imperfecta have all except:

-broken enamel
-blue sclera
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-broken bone
-super numerary teeth
38.most sign of fracture of mandible:
-nose bleeding
-malocclusion
parasthesia
39.hairy tongue is elongation of:
-fungiform papilla
-filiform
40-What supply the gingival buccal tissue of premolars,canines and incisors:
-long buccal
inferior alveolar nerve
superior alveolar nerve41-drainage of tip of the tongue:
submandibular lymph nodes-submental
42.Cementum in cervical 2/3 have:
-acellular intrinsic fiber
-acellular extrinsic fiber
cellular mixed fibers
intermediate cementum43.periodontal attachment contain of:
?????-epithilum, sulcus, connective tissue
44. pins are insert into:
-enamel
-dentin
-DEJ
-all

45. after etch enamel and bond it with 5th generation the strength of?:
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-5-10Mp
-25Mp
-30Mp
-100Mp
46.LA in mg if epinephrine 1:100 000 in 2% xylocaine:
.01 mg-1.8 mg
-3.6mg
47. composite restoration that was matching in shade ,after one week it became much lighter..the
reason could be:
-. ig t t rt d p otoi it tio
-absorption water
shade selected after rubber dam???48. disadvantage of digital x-ray except:
-large disk space Storage
- clarity and resolution
expensive-

49. treatment of fungal infections:

penicillintetracycline???-nystatin
50. properties of ideal endo obturation material are all except:
biocompatible-radiolucnt
51.vibrating line :
-b/w hard & soft palate
-b/w mobile and non mobile soft tissue
-????
52. pt have hyperventilation in clinic most couse:
- reduced of CO2
-increase CO2
-anxiety
53. all relate to retention of maxillary complete denture except:
-tongue movement
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-type of saliva
54. most difficult of extract:
mand. 3rd molar with mesioangular fused roots??-mand 3rd molar with distoangular angulation with divergent curve roots
55.very important part in endo treatment:
-complete depridment of the canal
56.perio endo lesion the primary treatment:
- endo treatment
-deep scaling and root planning
57.provisional luting cement:
prevent restoration from dislodgement?
?-sealing??
58. contra indication to extraction:
-cardiac pt
-previous recent radio therapy
??59. base of the flap should be wide for:
--??healing
-better blood supply to the wound
60.supra calculus all true except:
??- easy to detach
- has component of saliva
61.to prevent perio problem MOST effective method is:
community program-removal of plaque
-patient education
62. thickness of luting cement:??
100 micrometer-40micro meter
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-1mm
63. formacresol used in:
- full concentration
- 5th concentration
one fifth concentration
64. zinc phosphate cement:
-mechanical attachment
Chemical
65. traditional Glass ionomer:
- mechanical bonding
acid-base reaction
66.pontic design of an FPD:
-Same size buccolingually of the missing tooth
-smaller than missing buccolingually
wider buccolingually
-non of the above
67. Maryland bridge:
-use with young
to replace single missing tooth-?
68. false negative response of an electric pulp test given:
-after trauma
periodontal disease- in teenager

69. young with open apex examination test:

-reliable
-non reliable
Non of the above
???
70.primary teeth had trauma, tooth change in color become white yellowish ,what should u tell
the parents:
-pulp is dead
-inflammation of pulp
-calcification of dentin
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B&c
71. best media for the avulsed tooth:
-milk
-water
72-in enamel caries passing half of enamel:
-leave it
-restoration
???
??
73-biological depth:
crestal bone to gingival sulcus

1.What is the least accurate imp material :

a.Alginate
b.Plysufide
c.Polyether
2.What 's the most untorable Imp material by the pt due to bad taste:
agar
Silcone
3.To increase the retention of Full crown for a short molar:
a.Use zinc phosphate
b.Retintive vertical groove
c.Shoulder finish line
4.Pathfinder survey what are the age gruops
5.During perio surgery for a pt. With chronic periodontitis we found Carter how is it removed?!!
a.Osteotomy
b.Osteoplasty
c.Gingivectomy
6.X-ray of parotid gland if pt has iodine sensitivity:
Sialogram
MRI
Computed tomography
7.The degree of taper for crown prep:
a.3-5
b.15
8.Pt infected by anthrax after examination doctor should disinfect with:
a.12% cholorihexiden
b.Antibacterial hand scrup
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c.Non antimicrobila soap

9.Giving sufficient time the dgree of ethanol alcohol disinfection:
a.50%
b.60 %
c.70%
d.80%
10.2-4 fixed appliance for deciduous teeth is indicated for
11.The pedo pt behavior after 1st visit is affected by which environmental factor:
a.Behavior shaping
b.At home
c.The doctor & nurse showing great care
12.The cement material with uniform film thekness:
a.Zinc oxide
b.Resin
c.Gi
d.Zinc..
13.Submandibular space infection is drained :
a.Intraorally at myelohyoid
b.Extraorally at the base of chin
c.Extraorally at the skin if chin
14.High copper amalgam is repeated if
a.Marginal detching is less than 0.5 mm
b.Marginal leakage with food impaction
c.Unesthic discoloration
15.8 y old pt sollowed 10 ml of 1o% f what the immediate action:
a.Ingest milk
b.Hospitalization
16.Decrease the polymerization shrinkage of composite by :
a.Incremental placement with increase time of curing
b.Incremental placement with high intensity light cure
17.Pt with sialolithiasis we want to take x-ray with ordinary film in order show the stone we should
18.Take x-ray in the same way as usual
Increase the intensity of x-ray
19.during endodontic surgery the irrigation solution used is:
a.Saline
b.EDTA
c.Naocl
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20. Retrograde filling is indicated In what condition?!!

a.Max central incisor with Good filling with 9 mm radiolucency
b.Max pre with post & core & buccal root with 4 mm short filling & RL at the apex but the palatal
root with good filling
c. 1st molar with MBR & DBR short filling & platal root with fracture instrument
21.whats true about the mandibular canal
a.Above the occ plane n children
b.Below occ plane in adult
c.At occ plane n adult
22.during mentoplasty doctor should take care for injury of what nerve
23.2 wall defect in perio whats the best graft to treat this defect :
A.
B.Cortical freeze dried bone allograft
C.cancellous freeze dried bone allograft
D.All are the same
24.test for determinig the efficiency of sterilizing agent is:
a.Fungi
b.Virus
c.Bacteria
d.Bacterial spores
25.Sterilization means killing of
a.Virus
b.Fungi
c.Bacteria
d.Virus,fungi,bacteria,bacteria spores
e.Virus ,fungi,bacteria

26.which of the following has doesnt have damage effect on hand piece
A. Apply great pressure during use
B. Infrequent mosturization
C. Fall down of the head of the hand piece
D.
27.pedo pt with physical retardation & negative behavior the inappropriate thing to do is:
A. Send him home
B. Use
C.
28.pt with lesion in the post of the tongue we want to take excidional biopsy how to pull the
tongue forward:
A.menesota tongue retractor
B.mirror Handle
C.towl clip
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29.pedo pt with extremely -ve behavior to restrain the extremity :

A.use mouth prope
B.belt
C. Board
30.during anathesia what's true:
A. The needle should be inserted before cartridge
B. The needle cap is inserted before the stopper
C. Excessive force should be applied to allow insertion of the cartridge into the harpon

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