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Mathew 11:19.
Mark 3:21.
Mark 3:22
John 5:16
John 8:48
Mark 15:13-20
In modern day language the Pharisees would be considered "hostile witnesses," or ones fabricating evidence in order to
bring down the recipient of the hostility. To take the view that they now knew what they were talking about in this
interpretation in John 10 is a highly irrational standpoint. The Pharisees clearly did not know who Jesus was therefore
their statement of belief in John 10:33 is worthless.
Summary:
The Pharisees had mistakenly thought that Jesus was a glutton, a drunkard, out of his mind, possessed by Beelzebub, a
Samaritan, had a demon and had persecuted him and eventually put him to death.
It was the Pharisees traditional viewpoint that a person was equal to his father, in reality this is not true of any son
father relationship and the bible does not teach it. Obviously Jesus disagreed with their viewpoint because he had
repeatedly told them and others that God was their Father.
The Pharisees viewpoint was incorrect so often, on so many subjects, that it makes no sense to assume it is correct on
this occasion.
Jesus view of the Pharisees was that their teachings had made void the word of God, and they worshipped God in vain.
It is Jesus' viewpoint that we should follow, not theirs, and see theirs as incorrect and not from God.
AV 1 Sam 20:12 And Jonathan said unto David, O LORD God of Israel, when I have sounded my father
KJV 1 Sam 20:12 And Jonathan said unto David, O LORD God of Israel, when I have sounded my father
ESV 1 Samuel 20:12 And Jonathan said to David, "The LORD, the God of Israel, be witness!"
If modern Bible translators wanted to find evidence that made King David also appear to be equally God they would
use this passage.
King David is called Jehovah God of Israel by his close friend Jonathan.
Psalm 45:6 Your throne, O God, is forever and ever. The scepter of your kingdom is a scepter of uprightness;
Some interpret this verse to say it is calling David O God who is Gods representative. My viewpoint is that O God
is aimed at Jehovah God and the righteous branch is aimed at David.
Angels.
Judges 13:21The angel of the LORD appeared no more to Manoah and to his wife. Then Manoah knew that he
was the angel of the LORD.
22 And Manoah said to his wife, "We shall surely die, for we have seen God."
It is my belief that Manoah made a mistake thinking the angel was YHWH God.
It is possible that Manoah knew the angel was not the LORD God, but still called him "a god."
AV Psalm 8:5 For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels (H430/Elohiym).
ESV Psalm 8:5 Yet you have made him a little lower than the heavenly beings and crowned him
HCSB Ps 8:5 You made him a little less than God and crowned him with glory
Man is made a little lower than the angels/Elohiym
Do the translators believe angels to be gods because they translate Elohiym to angels?
NIRV Psalm 29:1 Praise the LORD, you mighty angels (H410/El). Praise the LORD for his glory
El/H410 a shorter version of Elohiym/H430 is translated to "angels."
Hebrews 2:7 You made him for a little while lower than the angels, you have crowned him with glory
This is a direct quote of Psalm 8 which uses the word Elohiym to describe the one who is higher. In Hebrews the writer
uses the word angelos/G32 which is translated to angel 165 times and messenger 11 times. This being the case then the
Hebrew writer is confirming that Psalm 8:5 called the angels, Elohiym/god.
So, if we accept both Ps. 8:5 (elohim - gods) and Heb. 2:7 (aggelous - angels) as inspired scripture, we must accept that
angels were, on occasion, called gods in a good, but subordinate, sense. Angels are spirits, Heb. 1:14, but can assume
the human form when necessary as per several OT appearances.
False gods
DR Exodus 15:11 Who is like to thee, among the strong (Elohiym/H430), O Lord?
ESV Exodus 15:11 Who is like you, o LORD, among the gods?
The translators are divided on how to interpret the Hebrew "Elohiym," most translate it to lower case gods.
ESV Ps 82:1 God has taken his place in the divine council, in the midst of the gods he holds judgment
NASB Ps 82:1 God takes His stand in His own congregation. he judges in the midst of the rulers.
YLT Ps 82:1 God hath stood in the company of God (elohiym), In the midst God (elohiym) doth judge
God is in the midst of the gods. The translators are divided on how to interpret the second and third use of "Elohiym,"
most apply it to lower case gods.
DR Psalm 97:7 and that glory in their idols. Adore him, all you his angels.
ESV Psalm 97:7 who make their boast in worthless idols, worship him all you gods.
Worship him all you gods. The translators are divided on how to interpret the Hebrew "Elohiym," most translate it as
gods, some as angels.
Psalm 138:1 I give you thanks, O LORD, with my whole heart, before the gods I sing your praise.
Before the gods/Elohiym. Translated to "angels" in DR and "heavenly beings" HCSB, NET,
Isaiah 8:19 should not a people inquire of their god?
Inquire of their false god
Daniel 11:37 He shall pay no attention to the gods of his fathers...... not pay attention to any other god....
38 He shall honor the god of fortresses instead of these. A god whom his fathers did not know
39 He shall deal with the strongest fortresses with the help of a foreign god.
A god (Elohiym/H430) who his fathers did not know, a false god (Eloah/H433).
Judges
DR Exodus 21:6 His master shall bring him to the gods, and he shall be set to the door and the posts,
HCSB Ex 21:6 his master is to bring him to the judges and then bring him to the door or doorpost
ESV Ex 21:6 then his master shall bring him to God, and he shall bring him to the door or the doorpost.
The master shall bring him to the gods/judges. The translators are divided on how to interpret the Hebrew "Elohiym,"
however it is usually applied to people.
DR Exodus 22:8 the master of the house shall be brought to the gods, and shall
HCSB Ex 22:8 the owner of the house must present himself to the judges, to determine whether
ESV Ex 22:8 the owner of the house shall come near to God to show whether or not he has
The master shall be brought to the gods/judges. The translators are divided on how to interpret the Hebrew "Elohiym,"
however it is usually applied to people.
DR Exodus 22:9 the cause of both parties shall come to the gods.
HCSB Ex 22:9 the case before the two parties is to come before the judges. The one the judges condemn
ESV Ex 22:9 the case of both parties shall come before God. The one whom God condemns shall pay
The cause of both parties shall come to the gods/judges. The translators are divided on how to interpret the Hebrew
"Elohiym," however it is usually applied to people.
Psalm 82:6 I said you are gods (H430/Elohiym) you are all sons of the Most High. But you will die like
mere men, you will fall like every other ruler.
God called these men gods, does that mean they were each the God of the universe?
Some understand this to be not plural but owned by God, as in "you are God's" YLT. My understanding is that it is
gods plural.
The judges of Israel abused their office and God is represented as calling them gods (theoi, elohim)
because they were Gods representatives. Its interesting that those judges or magistrates of Israel who
were
called gods by Jehovah himself were also called Sons of the Most High at Ps. 82:6, and Jesus was was also called
Son of the Most High God at Mark 5:7.
Judges 5:8 When new gods were chosen, then war was in the gates. Was shield or spear to be seen among
forty thousand in Israel?
"New gods were chosen" is the title for the men who were to be the commanders of Israel. Some translations have the
word "leaders" instead of "gods."
Other
NASB Genesis 30:8 So Rachel said, "With mighty (elohiym/H430) wrestlings I have wrestled with my sister,
and I have indeed prevailed." And she named him Naphtali.
Exodus 9:28 that there be no more mighty (elohiym/H430) thunderings and hail
ASV 1 Samuel 14:15 so there was an exceedingly (elohiym/H430) great trembling
Jonah 3:3 Now Nineveh was an exceedingly (elohiym/H430) great city, three days journey in breadth.
Elohiym in these passages signifies great, or large, or immense etc
Philippians 3:19 Their end is destruction, their god is their belly, and they glory in their shame, with minds set
on earthly things.
Whose god is their appetite is a figurative use of Theos
Jesus
John 20:28 Thomas answered him "my Lord and my God."
Thomas may have called Jesus theos/God
There are other passages that some might say quote Jesus as being God/god/theos such as John 1:1, 5:17, 10:33,
Philippians 2:7, 1 Timothy 3:16, Titus 2:13, Hebrews 1:8-9, 2 Peter 1:1,. They are listed elsewhere and examined in
full showing how and why none of them are calling Jesus, Jehovah God.
Paul:
2 Corinthians 11:1-2 I wish you would bear with me in a little foolishness. Do bear with me!
2 For I feel a divine (theos/god/G2316) jealousy for you, since I betrothed you to one husband, to present
you as a pure virgin to Christ.
Paul had a God (Theos) jealousy for the people, does this mean Paul was 100% man and 100% God?
No, this is Paul being figurative, or trying to make a point.
Acts 14:11 When the crowd saw what Paul had done, they shouted in the Lycaonian language, "The gods
(theos/G2316) have come down to us in human form!"
Paul did a miracle and the people thought Paul was a god/theos. How is what these people said any different from what
Thomas said in John 20:28?
Acts 28:6 He, however, shook off the creature into the fire and suffered no harm.
6 They were waiting for him to swell up or suddenly fall down dead. But when they had waited a long
and saw no misfortune come to him, they changed their minds and said that he was a god.
The people who saw Paul not die from a snake bite said he was Theos/G2316
time
Herod:
Acts 12:21-22 On an appointed day Herod put on his royal robes, took his seat upon the throne, and
delivered an oration to them.
22 And the people were shouting, The voice of a god (theos/ G2316), and not of a man!
The people saw that Herod was a man and they said that his voice was of a god. Did they mean he was the God of the
universe or were they trying to lift up Herod and show him support? This passage if applied to Jesus would be used by
Trinitarians to show he was YHWH God, however it is used as a man.
Satan:
2 Corinthians 4:4 In their case the god (theos) of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, to
keep them from seeing the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God.
Most bibles have translated theos to lower case god rather than God. Most understand this to be a figurative reference
to Satan, however he is still called theos. What does that imply to you?
2 Thess 2:4 who opposes and exalts himself against every so-called god or object of worship, so
takes his seat in the temple of God, proclaiming himself to be God.
that he
A prophecy of the coming of Satan and all who follow him. Someone will claim to be theos/god or as Thessalonians
says theos/God.
2 Summary:
Moses
In the old testament books of Exodus, Samuel, Chronicles, Judges, Psalms, Isaiah, and Daniel the writers give the title
of H430/elohiym/God to those other than the LORD God. It was not an uncommon thing for writers to give this title in
a similar way that they might perhaps use the term Lord. The term "elohiym" was given to Moses, Samuel, King
Hezekiah, King David, angels and false gods.
Moses is the prophet called elohiym/god, judges are called elohiym/god, David and Hezekiah are called elohiym/god.
If Jesus is prophet like Moses, a judge, and king like David, it seems clear that if they are called god then so should he
be. Jesus has been given all authority over heaven and earth, Mathew 28:18 and so is far above all three of them.
In the remainder of the NT, several times the Greek lemma theos/God is used in a way other than for Jehovah God.
Theos is used for false gods, Satan, Herod, Jesus and Paul. Paul was called theos/god in Acts 14:11 and 28:6 each time
by a group of people, he also applied it to himself. Therefore, if imperfect humans can be called Hebrew elohiym, or
Greek theos, or English god we should not be surprised that a much more perfect imitator of God, his servant, Jesus,
should be called god. However just like those listed here, Elohiym or Theos is not in reference to the creator of the
universe but to others in a lesser but positive subordinate sense
People were not independent elohiym, or theos, but perhaps extensions of the YHWH Elohiym.
If I were taking John 10 at face value and had never examined Greek text, it would be a perfectly legitimate argument
that the Jews were accusing Jesus of claiming to be God/theos. However this is not true, it is the problems with
translating to the English language that have caused the misunderstanding.
Either way, the Jews understanding and interpretation was different to the claim that Jesus had made. For the next three
verses at least, Jesus is refuting their suggestion and his entire response is based on answering their mistaken
accusation.
Vs34-35 This is referencing Psalm 82:6 "I said you are gods" (H430/elohiym,) and is referring to one of the several
times in the bible when men are gods or called gods. In the old testament books of Exodus, Samuel, Chronicles, Judges,
Psalms, Isaiah, and Daniel the writers give the title of H430/elohiym/God to those other than the LORD God. It was not
an uncommon thing for writers to give this title in a similar way that they might perhaps use the term Lord. The term
"elohiym" was given to Moses, Samuel, King Hezekiah, King David, angels and false gods.
Vs34 Jesus is using "theoi" and "theous" without the definite article "ho." This becomes English lower case "gods."
Vs 36 Jesus is denying blasphemy, (irreverent talk about God or sacred things)
Vs 36 Jesus says he is God's son, not God. Jesus did not say I am God. He specifically corrects them on the
difference between who they think he claimed to be, god, and who he actually claimed to be, the Son of God. He did
this because he was denying being, or claiming to be, a god.
Vs 37 His Father does it and he does it, two beings do the same thing
In the remainder of the NT, several times the Greek lemma theos/God is used in a way other than for Jehovah God.
Theos is used for false gods, Satan, Herod, Jesus and Paul. Paul was called theos/god in Acts 14:11 and 28:6 each time
by a group of people, he also applied it to himself. Therefore, if imperfect humans can be called Hebrew elohiym, or
Greek theos, or English god we should not be surprised that a much more perfect imitator of God, his servant, Jesus,
should be called god. However just like those listed here, Elohiym or Theos is not in reference to the creator of the
universe but to others in a lesser but positive subordinate sense
(Its interesting that those judges or magistrates of Israel who were called gods by Jehovah himself were also called
SONS of the Most High at Ps. 82:6, and Jesus was also called SON of the Most High God at Mark 5:7.)
Overall Summary and Conclusion.
It was the Pharisees traditional viewpoint that a person was equal to his father, in reality this is not true of any son
father relationship and the bible does not teach it. Obviously Jesus disagreed with their viewpoint because he had
repeatedly told them and others that God was their Father.
Jesus view of the Pharisees was that their teachings had made void the word of God, and they worshipped God in vain.
It is Jesus' viewpoint that we should follow, not theirs, and see theirs as incorrect and not from God.
In the remainder of the NT, several times the Greek lemma theos/God is used in a way other than for Jehovah God.
Theos is used for false gods, Satan, Herod, Jesus and Paul. Paul was called theos/god in Acts 14:11 and 28:6 each time
by a group of people, he also applied it to himself. Therefore, if imperfect humans can be called Hebrew elohiym, or
Greek theos, or English god we should not be surprised that a much more perfect imitator of God, his servant, Jesus,
should be called god or "a god." However just like those listed here, Elohiym or Theos is not in reference to the
creator of the universe but to others in a lesser but positive subordinate sense
However Jesus does not claim to be god, a god, and definitely not God. He goes to great length to explain that he is not,
that is his whole point in at least the following three verses. Otherwise what was his point?
Therefore;
A Son is not equal to his father according to the bibles teachings, the Jews assumption was incorrect. Many people
were called Elohiym/God in the OT and theos/God/god in the NT so Jesus could have agreed and no one would have
thought he was claiming to be the God of the universe. But it is because of Jesus' denial in vs34-36 regarding the Jews
incorrect assumption, that nothing in John 10:29-36 says Jesus is God.
There is an in depth study 02C Jesus is the Son of God before Creation coming 2015, that explains in fine detail what it
means that Jesus is the Son of God and how that means he is not God.