Series I-C

Basic Medical Science

Time: 80 mins

Model Paper

Microbiology

Author Email: sidharta123@yahoo.com

Total Marks: 100 | Pass Mark: 60

MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY
Please use a dark pencil/pen to complete the test. Read the instructions at the
begining carefully. This is a practice test series in Medical Microbiology.
Please Note: There is a Negative Marking of (-1) for each incorrect response.
1. Case Study:
A 39-year-old man presents with fever, fatigue, headache and black discharge
from his nose. On physical examination, swelling is observed in one of his eyes.
The patient also complaints of persistent headache behind the affected eye. What
could be the most probable diagnosis?
A Mucormycosis

C Coccidioidomycosis

B Blastomycosis

D Cryptococcosis

2. Consider the following statements about bacteria:

Statement 1: Most bacteria have ssDNA but lacks mitochondria
Statement 2: Small subunit of ribosomes are composed of 16S rRNA
Statement 3: Bacterial exoenzymes are potent toxins which can affect humans
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A 1, 2, and 3

C 2 and 3

B 1 and 3

D 1 and 2

3. Which exotoxin uses a mechanism similar to diphtheria toxin to inhibit protein

synthesis?
A tetanolysin

C thioredoxin

B toxin A of pseudomonas
aeruginosa

D rImmunotoxin of P. pastoris

4. Water Chlorination is effective against all of the following organisms except

A Escherichia coli

C Cryptosporidium

B Vibrio cholerae

D Schistosomiasis cercariae

5. Apicomplexan parasites include all of the following except

A Toxoplasma gondii

C plasmodium malariae

B Cyclospora cayetensis

D Perkinsus marinus

Basic Medical Sciences

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Series I-C

Model Paper

Microbiology

6. Hypersensitivity vasculitis is an example of

A Immune complex mediated
reaction

C Allergic reaction
D antibody-dependent
cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

B T cell mediated hypersensitivity

reaction

7. The toxic gene encoded in Cornybacterium diphtheriae

A encodes a polypetide chain of
435 amino acids

D encodes a polypetide chain of

535 amino acids

B codes for two subunits of the

polypetide chain known as A-B
toxin

E none of the above

C codes for two subunits of the

polypetide chain known as C-D
toxin
8. Caseous necrosis is seen mostly in which type of Cutaneous tuberculosis (CTB)?
A lupus vulgaris

C scrofuloderma

B Lichen scrofulosorum

D erythema nodosum

9. Granulomas are collection of all of the following except

A Langhans giant cell

D histiocytes

B tissue macrophage

E Hofbauer cell

C dendritic cell
10. Not true about Granuloma inguinale
A diagnosis usually made by Frie
test

C characterized by gentinal ulcers

B caused by Calymmatobacterium
G.

D effective treatment is with

amphotericin B and tetracycline

11. Which of the following fungus is a causative agent of subcutaneous mycosis?

A Histoplasma capsulatum

C Cryptococcus neoformans

B Madurella mycetomatis

D Candida albicans

12. Fungal meningitis in AIDS patients is caused by

A Exserohilum rostratum

C Cryptococcus neoformans

B Aspergillus fumigatus

D Coccidioides immitis

Basic Medical Sciences

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Series I-C

Model Paper

Microbiology

13. The confirmatory test most sensitive for diagnosis of candidiasis

A complement fixation

D cultures of skin lesions

B sputum cultures

E quantitative urine culture

C latex agglutination test

14. Which of the following statements regarding corona virus infection has no good
reasons to be incorrect?
A corona virus infections in
humans mostly confined to URI

C incubation period 5-8 days

D corona virus infections in
humans mostly cause
gastroenteritis

B corona virus is the causative

agent of SARS outbreak

15. Most sensitive test for detection of rotaviruses in stool specimens

A EIA

D cell culture (HEK)

B nucleic acid hybridization

E ELISA

C RNA genotyping by PCR

16. A transport medium for streptococcus pyogenes
A Cary Blair medium

D Pikes medium

B Bile peptone medium

E Stuart medium

C Glycerol saline medium

17. Which of the following is an enrichment medium?
A Loefflers serum slope

D chocolate agar

B Bile peptone Medium

E Nutrient broth

C MacConkey Agar Medium

18. Acute uncomplicated cystitis is usually caused by
A Proteus

D Enterobactor

B Staphylococcus

E E.coli

C all of the above

19. Bacteriuria is significant when the number of colonies are greater than
A 10-2CFU/ml of urine

C 10-5 CFU/ml of urine

B 10-3CFU/ml of urine

D 10-7CFU/ml of urine

Basic Medical Sciences

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Series I-C

Model Paper

Microbiology

20. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) is a component of

A innate immune system

C adaptive immune system

B cell mediated immune system

D nonspecific immune system

21. Most common clinical type of re-infection cutaneous tuberculosis is

A scrofuloderma

D tuberculous verucossa cutis

B lupus vulgaris

E lichen scrofulosorum

C papulonecrotic
22. All of the following tests are used in laboratory diagnosis of hydatidosis except:
A counterimmunoelectrophoresis

D electroimmunotransfer blot assay

B indirect haemagglutination

E indirect immunofluorescence
assay

C serum agglutination test

23. A combination of Serum agglutination test with Coomb's test is diagnostic of

A Hydatosis

C Q Fever

B Cysticercosis

D Brucellosis

24. The most frequent laboratory-acquired bacterial infection:

A Brucellosis

D Q Fever

B Coccidioidomycosis

E Neisseria meningitidis

C Tularemia
25. Type II hypersensitivity reaction is associated with
A Henoch-Schnlein purpura

C Goodpasture's syndrome

B Systemic lupus erythematosus

D Hemolytic disease of the newborn

26. Mitsuda reaction is seen in which form of leprosy?

A lepromatous form

C Both

B tuberculoid form

D None

27. Which of the following organisms is the largest intestinal parasite of humans?
A Entamoeba hartmanni

D Balantidium coli

B Entamoeba histolytica

E Escherichia coli

C Entamoeba coli

Basic Medical Sciences

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Series I-C

Model Paper

Microbiology

28. Tick born diseases/illnesses include all of the following except:

A Tularemia

C Lyme disease

B Relapsing fever

D Dengue hemorrhagic fever

29. Following statements about rotavirus has no good reasons to be correct

A Rotavirus A causes
gastroenteritis >90% in humans

D double-stranded RNA virus

E causative agent of "stomach flu"

B Rotavirus D causes
gastroenteritis >90% in humans
C single-stranded RNA virus

30. Hydatid cyst is caused by the larval form of which of the following organism?
A Taenia solium

D Hymenolepsis nana

B Echinococcus

E Toxocara canis

C Diphyllobothrium latum
31. Organism that causes amoebic dysentery in humans
A Entamoeba coli

C Entamoeba histolytica

B Balantidium coli

D Entamoeba dispar

32. Which organism constitutes about 30% of all gut flora (microflora of the gut)?
A Bacteroides

D Esch. coli

B Clostridium

E Lactobacillus

C Peptococcus
33. The virus that causes Molluscum contagiosum belongs to which family?
A Picornaviridae

C Parvoviridae

B Poxviridae

D Orthomyxoviridae

34. Which of the following is a oncogenic RNA virus?

A Papillomaviruses

C Polyomavirus

B Human T cell leukemia virus

D Cytomegalovirus

Basic Medical Sciences

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Series I-C

Model Paper

Microbiology

35. Pick the most appropriate statement about pneumocystis carinii

A P. carinii can be cultured in vitro

C laboratory diagnosis is by
microscopy or PCR only

B occurs almost exclusively in

immunocompromised hosts

D it is protozoan infection confined

only to lungs

36. Immunoglobulin with a least content (lowest %) of carbohydrateA IgE

C IgD

B IgM

D IgG

37. In Type I hypersensitivity, the antibody is

A IgA

C IgG

B IgE

D IgM

38. Organism which is a causative agent of San Joaquin fever

A Coccidioides immitis

C Rickettsia rickettsii

B Cryptococcus neoformans

D Coxiella burnetii

39. Regarding Rabies infection, pick the incorrect statements:

A rabies virus replicates at the site
of bite wound

C FA staining is useful for

diagnosis of rabies

B non-enveloped double stranded

DNA genome

D enveloped single stranded RNA

genome

40. Soft chancre is caused by

A Chlamydia trachomatis

C Haemophilus ducreyi

B Mycoplasma genitalium

D Human papillomavirus (HPV)

41. The causative agent of Fifth disease (Erythema infectiosum)

A Human herpesvirus 7

C Human papillomavirus

B Human herpesvirus 6

D Human parvovirus B19

42. The causative agent of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

A polyoma virus

C papilloma virus

B BK virus

D parvovirus

43. The natural definitive host for Gnathostoma spinigerum is

A human

C dog

B cyclops

D fish

Basic Medical Sciences

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Series I-C

Model Paper

Microbiology

44. Causative agent of Scrub typhus is

A Rickettsia typhi

C Orientia tsutsugamushi

B Rickettsia prowazeki

D Borrelia burgdorferi

45. Which type of human papilloma virus (HPV) is classified as low-risk mucosal type
HPV?
A type 6,11,40

D type 16 and 18

B type 6,16,18

E none of the above

C type 30,31,22
46. Swimming pool granuloma is caused by
A Mycobacterium fortuitum

C Mycobacterium ulcerans

B Mycobacterium chelonei

D Mycobacterium abscessus

47. Which of the following microorganisms belongs to Ascomycetes?

A Trichophyton

C C. neoformans

B Rhizopus

D Absidia

48. Ringworm infection of the scalp and hair:

A Tinea unguium

C Tinea corporis

B Tinea capitis

D Tinea pedis

49. Mass of immunoglobulin D (IgD) heavy chain

A 65 kDa

C 70 kDa

B 56 kDa

D 72 kDa

50. Which of the following conditions is a result of Type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

A Crohn's disease

C Graves' disease

B Behet's disease

D Myasthenia gravis

51. The correct formula of immunoglobulin M (IgM) isotype J chain

A 5[2+2k or 2]+ J
B 5[2d+2k or 2]+ J

C 2[21+2k or 2]+ J
D 2[22+2k or 2]+ J

52. Which of the following immunoglobulin antibodies do not fix complement?

A IgG

C sIgA

B IgD

D IgM

Basic Medical Sciences

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Series I-C

Model Paper

Microbiology

53. The causative agent of Japanese Lung fluke

A Clonorchis sinensis

C Paragonimus westermani

B Fasciolopsis buski

D Leucochloridium paradoxum

54. An example of Type III hypersensitivity reaction (immune response):

A transplant rejection

C anaphylaxis

B serum sickness

D Multiple sclerosis

55. Which of the following is not an infection transmitted to man by tick bites?
A Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

C Babesiosis

B Relapsing fever

D Q fever

56. The causative agent of Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

A R. rickettsii

D R. prowazekii

B Ehrlichia chaffeensis

E R. typhi

C Coxiella burnetti
57. Which of the following organism is responsible for causing Q fever?
A Rickettsia rickettsii

C Coxiella burnetii

B Borrelia burgdorferi

D Amblyomma americanum

58. Following symptom is not characteristic of Reiter's syndrome:

A urethritis

C oligoarthritis

B orchitis

D conjunctivitis

59. Case Study:

A 31 yr old male presents with complaints of porridge-like diarrhea, abdominal
pain, fever, and weight loss. On being examined, the stool is foul smelling and
contains excess fat, but does not contain any blood. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A Crohn's disease

C Amoebic dysentery

B Ulcerative colitis

D Campylobacteriosis

60. Chikungunya virus belongs to which viral family?

A Bunyaviridae

C Coronaviridae

B Flaviviridae

D Togaviridae

Basic Medical Sciences

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Series I-C

Model Paper

Microbiology

61. Case Study:

A 16-year-old boy presents with high fever for the past four days, besides sore
throat, malaise, and with inflamed eyes but no discharge of pus. On physical
examination, lymph nodes of his neck are found to be slightly enlarged. He has a
H/O of a visit to a summer camp the previous week. What could be the most
probable diagnosis?
A Pharyngoconjunctival fever

C Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis

B Stevens-Johnson syndrome

D Spring catarrh

62. Which of the following agent is a secondary vector of dengue virus?

A Aedes polynesiensis

C Aedes albopictus

B Anopheles gambiae

D Aedis egypti

63. Interleukin that augments the cytotoxic function of NK cells

A interleukin-12

C interleukin-13

B interleukin-17

D interleukin-15

64. Case Study:

A 54-year-old man complaints of cough, mediastinal pain, and shortness of
breadth when breathing in. He is a chronic smoker and has a H/O of chronic
alcohol consumption. Physical examination of the patient otherwise do not reveal
much, except for few red skin bumps on his lower right leg. What could be the
possible diagnosis?
A Tuberculosis

C Sporotrichosis

B Coccidioidomycosis

D Histoplasmosis

65. Which of the following immunoglobulins is/are used to detect or diagnose dengue
virus infection using ELISA?
A IgM

C IgA

B IgD

D IgG

66. Match the following with their correct choices:

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Dengue virus
Hepatitis A virus
Hepatitis B virus
Hepatitis C virus
SARS

Basic Medical Sciences

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

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Picornavirus
dsDNA-RT
Flaviviridae
Coronavirus
+
ssRNA

Series I-C

Model Paper

Microbiology

67. Most common cause of acute viral hepatitis in India is due to:
A Hepatitis A virus (HAV)

C Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

B Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

D Hepatitis E virus (HEV)

68. All of the following features are characteristics of HIV infection except:
A maculopapular rash

C lymphocytosis

B fever

D inversion of CD4+ T cells : CD8+

T cells ratio

69. Lymphocytopenia occurs in all of the following conditions except:

A Typhoid

C Systemic lupus erythematosis

B hepatitis

D Rheumatoid arthritis

70. Causes of relative lymphocytosis includes all of the following except:

A thyrotoxicosis

C Addison's disease

B toxoplasmosis

D acute viral infections

71. Major component of the immune system in Drosophila melanogaster:

A plasmatocyte

C plasmacyte

B hemocyte

D plasmalogen

72. Which of the following statements about Giardia lamblia is/are incorrect?
A colonizes the large intestine

C lacks mitochondria

B cysts resistant to chlorination

D lacks microtubules

73. Which of the following Interleukins is a mediator of inflammation?

A IL-2

C IL-6

B IL-1

D IL-4

74. P jerovicii is the causative agent of pneumocystis pneumonia in humans. Which

of the following statements regarding P. jerovicii do you think is incorrect?
A occurs in HIV patients when CD4
count < 200 cells/microliter
B identified by hematoxylin and
eosin stained lung tissue

Basic Medical Sciences

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C cannot be grown in culture

D is an intracellular fungal parasite

Series I-C

Model Paper

Microbiology

75. Cryptosporidiosis: Pick the incorrect statements

A incubation period 5-12 days

C self-limiting in healthy individuals

B itraconazole is an effective
treatment

D is a zoonotic infection

76. Primary vector for bubonic plague is

A Nosopsyllus fasciatus

C Spilopsyllus cuniculi

B Dasypsyllus gallinulae

D Xenopsylla cheopsis

77. Not true about Interferon-

A produced by monocytes

C used to treat hepatitis B

B formation inhibited by
interleukin-10

D activated by interleukin-12

78. Stages of Plasmodium lifecycle that does not occur in humans

A formation of merozoites

C formation of zygotes

B latent hypnozoites stage

D erythrocytic schizogony

79. A patient with cancer on chemotherapy has a platelet count of 46,000 per
microliter. Which of the following agents do you think is the best to treat
thrombocytopenia?
A lithium carbonate

C interleukin-2

B interleukin-4

D interleukin-11

80. Case Study:

A 45-year-old male patient presents with fever, cough, arthralgia, and persistent
weight loss at the outpatient department. On physical examination, he complains
of pleuritic chest pain and night sweats. What could be the most probable
diagnosis?
A Histoplamosis

C Blastomycosis

B Sporotrichosis

D Tuberculosis

81. Arrange the items in their correct order of events/sequence regarding plasmodium
parasite:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

merozoites
zygotes
trophozoites
schizonts
sporozoites

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Series I-C

Model Paper

Microbiology

82. All of the following agents are mycotic mytotic inhibitors except:
A neoxaline

C aurantiamine

B griseofulvin

D colchicine

83. Which of the following statements about the mechanism of action of Amphotericin
B is correct?
A interfere with peptide chain
synthesis

C inhibitor of cell membrane

function

B inhibit of nucleic acid synthesis

D inhibit cell wall synthesis

84. An acute adverse reaction characterized by "shake and bake" effect may seen
with the use of
A quinine

C penicillin

B amphotericin B

D amoxicillin

85. Which of the following is a "resting spore" of fungi?

A chlamydospore

C ascospore

B zygospore

D basidiospore

86. Granulomas with numerous eosinophils suggests

A blastomycosis

D granulomatosis with polyangitis

B coccidioidomycosis

E cat-scratch disease

C aspiration pneumonia
87. Fungus that form blastospores:
A saccharomyces cerevisiae

C candida albicans

B cryptococcus neoformans

D pneumocystis jirovecci

88. An example of asexual spore:

A ascospores

C chlamydospores

B sporangiospores

D basidiospores

89. What differentiates fungi from slime molds?

A spore formation

C movement

B plasmodium

D presence of mitochondria

Basic Medical Sciences

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Series I-C

Model Paper

Microbiology

90. Antibiotics can be extracted from all of the following organisms except:
A Fuligo septica

C Ganoderma lucidum

B Aspergillus terreus

D Penicillium patulum

91. Statement which is not true about prokaryotic ribosomes:

A 70S ribosome sediment faster
than 80S ribosome

C sedimentation coefficient of large

subunit is 30S

B small subunit contains 20

proteins

D has a mass of about 2.5 MDa

92. Consider the following statements about interferon:

Statement 1: interferons activate NK cells and macrophages
Statement 2: interferons act as antigen presenting cells
Statement 3: interferon-1a is used to treat multiple sclerosis
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A 1 and 2

C 1 and 3

B 2 and 3

D 1, 2, and 3

93. Regarding genetic reassortment in viruses, pick the correct statement(s):

A reassortment accelerates the rate
of mutations in influenza virus

C reassortment occurs between

two influenza virus species A & B

B occurs exclusively in segmented

RNA virus

D reassortment occurs through

template switch mechanism

94. The vector which acts in mechanical transmission of Japanese encephalitis virus
A Culex titraeniorhynchus

C Aedes vexans

B Aedes aegypti

D Culex vishnui

95. Match the following causative organisms with the disease they cause:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Arena virus
Bunyaviridae
Hantavirus
Nairovirus
Orbivirus

Basic Medical Sciences

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

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Epizootic hemorrhagic disease

Aseptic meningitis
Acute hemorrhagic gastroenteritis
Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever
Hemorrhagic fever with renal
syndrome

Series I-C

Model Paper

Microbiology

96. Which of the following statements regarding Natural killer cells (NK cells) and
Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) aptly distinguish the former with the latter?
A NK cells can act in absence of
trigger response from MHC

C CTL expresses CD8 which binds

to class I MHC complex

B NK cells are activated by class I

restricted antigens

D NK cells are able to produce

IFN- and IL-4

97. Not true about the lysogenic cycle and lytic cycle of Bacteriophage:
A lysogenic cycle is avirulent or
temperate

C in lysogenic cycle, viral genome

gets integrated with host DNA

B lytic cycle is characterized by

formation of prophage

D In lytic cycle, phage DNA

integrates into host DNA

98. Match the following items with their correct alternatives:

A.

Woronin body

A. Candida albicans

B.
C.
D.
E.

Aflatoxin B1
Ergot alkaloids
Yeast
Dimorphic fungi

B.
C.
D.
E.

Histoplasma capsulatum
Aspergillus flavus
Aspergillus fumigatus
Claviceps purpurea

99. Which one of the following is not an oncogenic virus?

A hepatitis C virus

D Epstein-Barr virus

B adenovirus

E HHV8

C HPV
100. A base triplet of 3'-TAC-5' in antisense DNA strand most likely is:
A 3'-UAG-5' base triplet in mRNA

C a start a codon methionine

B 5'-AUG-3' base triplet in mRNA

D a stop codon in mRNA

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