Ccna Final

1. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?
wiki
e-mail
weblog
instant messaging
2. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three

functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this
conversation? (Choose three.)
regenerating data signals

acting as a client or a server
providing a channel over which messages travel
applying security settings to control the flow of data
notifying other devices when errors occur
serving as the source or destination of the messages
3. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high

speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP
connection type should be used?
DSL
dial-up
satellite
cell modem
cable modem
4. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch

offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times.
Which network technology is required to support this requirement?
LAN
MAN
WAN
WLAN
5. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS?
CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)
flash memory
NVRAM?
RAM
ROM
a TFTP server?
6. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a

Cisco network device?
a console connection
an AUX connection
a Telnet connection
an SSH connection
7. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch

but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is
the problem?
The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
The administrator is already in global configuration mode.

The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.
The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.
8. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch

after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these
keystrokes?
to restart the ping process

to interrupt the ping process
to exit to a different configuration mode
to allow the user to complete the command
9. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a
command in IOS?
It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.

It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.
10. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a

brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What
prompt will display after the command is issued??
My Switch(config)#?
Switch(config)#?
MySwitch(config)#?
My(config)#?
Switch#
11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access

control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the
switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?
letmein
secretin
lineconin
linevtyin
12. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues

a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What
is the result of issuing this command?
The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.

The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be
restored.
13. Refer to the exhibit. Which action will be successful?
PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1?.

PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1.
14. Which IPv4 address can be pinged to test the internal TCP/IP
operation of a host?
0.0.0.0
0.0.0.1
127.0.0.1
192.168.1.1
255.255.255.255
15. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol
suite? (Choose three.)
ARP
DHCP
DNS
FTP
NAT
PPP
16. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)
ARP
BOOTP
ICMP
IP
PPP
17. Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes,

and technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation
details?
Request for Comments

IRTF research papers
protocol models
IEEE standards
18. Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is moved to

a different network?
IP address
default gateway address
MAC address
logical address
19. What is the protocol that is used to discover a physical address from
a known logical address and what message type does it use?
ARP, multicast
DNS, unicast
DNS, broadcast
ARP, broadcast
PING, multicast
PING, broadcast
20. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly

configured on a host?
The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
21. What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?
It accepts frames from the physical media.

It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.
It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.
It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.
22. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper

cables?
requiring proper grounding connections

twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
avoiding sharp bends during installation
23. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic

cabling? (Choose two.)
Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.

Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.
Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.
Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.
Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab?les and laser technology for
multimode cables.
24. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?
logical address
physical address
data
error detection
25. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation

the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a
crossover Ethernet cable connection
the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or
optical cable
the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is
detected
26. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC2
in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1
MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?
just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses

just the PC0 MAC address
PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
just the PC1 MAC address
just the PC2 MAC address?
27. How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?
A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not.

An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. However, this is not
supported in Layer 2 switches.
A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table.
A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its ports.
However, a Layer 2 switch does not.
28. What is the purpose of the routing process?
to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network

to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks
to convert a URL name into an IP address
to provide secure Internet file transfer
to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses
29. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by

allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?
ARP
DNS
NAT
SMB
DHCP
HTTP
30. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown

from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?
It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.
It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.
31. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose

two.)
packet switching
microsegmentation
domain name resolution
path selection
flow control
32. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and
its contents? (Choose two.)
ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.

FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS?.
RAM is volatile and stores the running configuration.
NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.
ROM is nonvolatile and stores bootup information.
33. In which default order will a router search for startup configuration
information?
NVRAM, RAM, TFTP

NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode
setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP
TFTP, ROM, NVRAM
flash, ROM, setup mode
34. What happens when part of an Internet VoIP transmission is not

delivered to the destination?
A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.

The part of the VoIP transmission that was lost is re-sent.
The entire transmission is re-sent.
The transmission continues without the missing portion.
35. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)
10.172.168.1
172.32.5.2
192.167.10.10
172.20.4.4
192.168.5.254
224.6.6.6
36. How many bits make up the single IPv6 hextet :10CD:?
4
8
16
32
37. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command

on a router?
to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group

to enable the router as an IPv6 router
to permit only unicast packets on the router
to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group
38. Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated as a host source

address??
FEC0::/10?
FDFF::/7?
FEBF::/10?
FF00::/8
39. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?
to inform routers about network topology changes

to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions
to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution
40. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured a user workstation

with the IP address and default subnet masks that are shown. Although
the user can access all local LAN resources, the user cannot access any
Internet sites by using either FQDN or IP addresses. Based upon the
exhibit, what could account for this failure?
The DNS server addresses are incorrect.

The default gateway address in incorrect.
The wrong subnet mask was assigned to the workstation.

The workstation is not in the same network as the DNS servers.
41. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable

host address?
192.168.1.64/26
192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.32/28
192.168.1.64/29
42. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from

servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme
should be applied to these devices?
random static addresses to improve security

addresses from different subnets for redundancy
predictable static IP addresses for easier identification
dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses
43. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be

changed?
Site 1
Site 2
Site 3
Site 4
44. Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting
in IPv6? (Choose two.)
/62
/64
/66
/68
/70
45. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address

through DHCP. Which two messages will the client typically broadcast
on the network? (Choose two.)
DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPACK
DHCPNACK
46. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?
to require users to prove who they are

to determine which resources a user can access
to keep track of the actions of a user
to provide challenge and response questions
47. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate bruteforce password attacks against the router?
exec-timeout 30
service password-encryption
banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60
48. A particular website does not appear to be responding on a Windows

7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any
cached DNS entries for this web page?
ipconfig /all
arp -a
ipconfig /displaydns
nslookup
49. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these

commands into the R1 router:
R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?
When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP
address should the administrator enter at the prompt?
192.168.9.254
192.168.10.1
192.168.10.2
192.168.11.252
192.168.11.254
50. Match the IPv6 address to the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are
used.)
51. What two preconfigured settings that affect security are found on
most new wireless routers? (Choose two.)
broadcast SSID
MAC filtering enabled
WEP encryption enabled
PSK authentication required
default administrator password
52. Which type of wireless security generates dynamic encryption keys

each time a client associates with an AP?
EAP
PSK
WEP
WPA
53. Fill in the blank.

TFTP
is a best-effort, connectionless application layer
protocol that is used to transfer files.
54. Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be

installed on a WLAN? (Choose two.)
media
wireless NIC
custom adapter
crossover cable
wireless bridge
wireless client software
55. Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::
The prefix-length for the range of addresses is
/60
56. Match the phases to their correct stage in the router bootup process.
(Not all options are used.)
57. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote network. Which three


58. When is a dial-up connection used to connect to an ISP?
when a cellular telephone provides the service

when a high-speed connection is provided over a cable TV network
when a satellite dish is used
when a regular telephone line is used
59. On a school network, students are surfing the web, searching the
library database, and attending an audio conference with their sister
school in Japan. If network traffic is prioritized with QoS, how will the
traffic be classified from highest priority to lowest priority?
audio conference, database, HTTP

database, HTTP, audio conference
audio conference, HTTP, database
database, audio conference, HTTP
60. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco routers
run the IOS?
RAM
flash
NVRAM
disk drive
61. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to

a Cisco switch?
a console connection
an AUX connection
a Telnet connection
an SSH connection
62. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an
IOS process?
Ctrl-Shift-X
Ctrl-Shift-6
Ctrl-Z
Ctrl-C
63. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a

brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What
prompt will display after the command is issued??
HR Switch(config)#?
Switch(config)#?
HRSwitch(config)#?
HR(config)#?
Switch#
64. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network

administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command.
What is the result of issuing this command?
The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.

The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be
restored.
65. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP

address so that the switch can be managed remotely?
FastEthernet0/1
VLAN 1
vty 0
console 0
66. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the

technician testing?
the TCP/IP stack on a network host

connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
connectivity between two PCs on the same network
physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network
67. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?
68. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate

with another host on a different network?
switch
hub
router
host
69. A network technician is measuring the transfer of bits across the

company backbone for a mission critical application. The technician
notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth
expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in
throughput? (Choose three.)
the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network

the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
the type of traffic that is crossing the network
the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing
the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone
70. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
It is not affected by EMI or RFI.

Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling
71. What are two features of a physical, star network topology? (Choose
two.)
It is straightforward to troubleshoot.
End devices are connected together by a bus.
It is easy to add and remove end devices.
All end devices are connected in a chain to each other.
Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor.
72. A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why

does the receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?
to determine the physical address of the sending device

to verify the network layer protocol information
to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends
to check the frame for possible transmission errors
to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device
73. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a
received frame is not in the MAC table?
It initiates an ARP request.

It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.
It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.
74. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?
cut-through
store-and-forward
fragment-free
fast-forward
75. Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the
destination when there are multiple routes available?
the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network
the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network
the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network
the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network
76. Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of

ROM in a router? (Choose two.)
stores routing tables

allows software to be updated without replacing pluggable chips on the motherboard
maintains instructions for POST diagnostics

holds ARP cache
stores bootstrap program
77. Which statement describes a characteristic of the Cisco router

management ports?
A console port is used for remote management of the router.

A console port is not used for packet forwarding.
Serial and DSL interfaces are types of management ports.
Each Cisco router has a LED indicator to provide information about the status of the
management ports.
78. What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is not

delivered to the destination?

The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent.
79. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address

11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?
192.0.2.199
198.51.100.201
203.0.113.211
209.165.201.223
80. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)
10.20.30.1
172.32.5.2
192.167.10.10
172.30.5.3
192.168.5.5
224.6.6.6
81. What types of addresses make up the majority of addresses within

the /8 block IPv4 bit space?
private addresses
public addresses
multicast addresses
experimental addresses
82. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to
reach the destination www.cisco.com??
11
12
13
14
83. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet

mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks
that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two
networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)
192.168.1.16/28
192.168.1.64/27
192.168.1.128/27
192.168.1.96/28
192.168.1.192/28
84. In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet
containing 100 hosts?
/23
/24
/25
/26
85. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?
Transmission Control Protocol

Real-Time Transport Protocol
Secure File Transfer Protocol
Video over Internet Protocol
86. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?
to determine the active TCP connections on a PC

to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server
to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network
to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC
87. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the asterisk (*) in the
exhibited output?
The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot the system.
The asterisk designates which file system is the default file system.
An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable.
An asterisk designates that the file system has at least one file that uses that file system.
88. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each
time a client establishes a connection with the AP?
EAP
PSK
WEP
WPA

Point-to-point communications where both devices can transmit and
receive on the medium at the same time are known as
fullduplex
.
90. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. (Not all
options are used.)
91. A host is accessing a Telnet server on a remote network. Which three


92. Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an extranet for
the company network that is shown?
area A
area B
area C
area D
93. What is the purpose of having a converged network?
to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices

to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally
to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices
to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure
94. Three office workers are using the corporate network. The first
employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to
read some announcements. The second employee accesses the
corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third
employee participates in an important live audio conference with other
office workers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network,
what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data
types?
audio conference, financial transactions, web page
financial transactions, web page, audio conference

audio conference, web page, financial transactions
financial transactions, audio conference, web page
95. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco

switches and routers run the IOS?
RAM
flash
NVRAM
disk drive
96. A network administrator is making changes to the configuration of a

router. After making the changes and verifying the results, the
administrator issues the copy running-config startup-config command.
What will happen after this command executes?
The configuration will be copied to flash.

The configuration will load when the router is restarted.
The new configuration file will replace the IOS file.
The changes will be lost when the router restarts.
97. What information does the loopback test provide?
The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.

The device has end-to-end connectivity.
DHCP is working correctly.
The Ethernet cable is working correctly.
The device has the correct IP address on the network.
98. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?
It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.

It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the
medium.
It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same
network interface and media.
It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.
99. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a

wireless network?
CSMA/CD
priority ordering
CSMA/CA
token passing
100. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated
CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS field?
The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.
The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.
The switch drops the frame.
The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived
to notify the hosts of the error.
101. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?
0.0.0.0
255.255.255.255
FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
127.0.0.1
01-00-5E-00-AA-23
102. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation

the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet
cable connection
the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or
optical cable
the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is
detected
103. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and
performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?
cut-through switching
store-and-forward switching
fragment-free switching
fast-forward switching
104. What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding
(CEF)? (Choose two.)
adjacency tables
MAC-address tables
routing tables
ARP tables
forwarding information base (FIB)
105. Which statement describes the sequence of processes executed by

a router when it receives a packet from a host to be delivered to a host
on another network?
It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host.

It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the appropriate path, and encapsulates the packet to
forward it toward
the destination host.
It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host.
It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host.
106. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by

allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?
ARP
DNS
NAT
SMB
DHCP
HTTP
107. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has two interfaces that were
configured with correct IP addresses and subnet masks. Why does the
show ip route command output not display any information about the
directly connected networks??
The directly connected networks have to be created manually to be displayed in the

routing table.
The routing table will only display information about these networks when the router
receives a packet.
The no shutdown command was not issued on these interfaces.
The gateway of last resort was not configured.
108. What happens when part of an Internet television transmission is

not delivered to the destination?

The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.
109. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols?

(Choose three.)
TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.
110. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access

www.cisco.com to search for certification course information. The Cisco
web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request from one of the
web browsers. Which information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack
in the PC to identify the destination web browser?
the destination IP address

the destination port number
the source IP address
the source port number
111. Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process during a
session with a server?
Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that in which they were sent are not placed
in order.
A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged.
A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins.
Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable.
112. Which two components are configured via software in order for a
PC to participate in a network environment? (Choose two.)
MAC address
IP address
kernel
shell
subnet mask
113. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose

three.)
The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.

Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.
Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.
114. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of
assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)
It eliminates most address configuration errors.

It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.
It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.
It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.
It reduces the burden on network support staff.
115. What is the subnet address for the address

2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?
2001:DB8:BC15::0
2001:DB8:BC15:A::0
2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1
2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0
116. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose
two.)
compression
addressing
encryption
session control
authentication
117. What is the purpose of the network security authentication

function?
to require users to prove who they are

to determine which resources a user can access
to keep track of the actions of a user
to provide challenge and response questions
118. Which type of wireless security makes use of dynamic encryption

keys each time a client associates with an AP?
EAP
PSK
WEP
WPA

During data communications, a host may need to send a single message
to a specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is
in the form of a
Multicast
message.
120. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all
options are used.)
CCNA 1
END
CCNA 4 Practice Final Exam Answer v5.02

2015 (100%)
March 21, 2015 by admin Leave a Comment
CCNA 5 Blog
1.
Which three items are normally included when a log message is

generated by a syslog client and forwarded to a syslog server?
(Choose three.)
o
o
o
o
o
o
Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and

is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?
o
o
o
o
ATM
ISDN
Frame Relay
metro Ethernet
What can cause a reduction in available bandwidth on a

cable broadband connection?
o
o
o
o
date and time of message

ID of sending device
length of message
message ID
checksum field
community ID
smaller cells
number of subscribers
committed information rate
distance from the central office of the provider
A technician has been asked to configure a broadband

connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that
all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing
phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
o
o
o
cable
DSL
ISDN
Which three algorithms can be used to encrypt user data in

an IPSec VPN framework? (Choose three.)
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
channel widths
access method
maximum data rate
modulation techniques
compression techniques
What makes the Cisco EasyVPN application a useful tool for

VPN implementation?
o
o
o
o
3DES
AES
Diffie-Hellman
DES
ESP
SHA
Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Dataover-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
o
POTS
It provides encryption algorithms unavailable in other systems.

It ensures that remote workers actually use the VPN for connectivity.
It simplifies the configuration tasks for the device that is used as the
VPN server.
It allows a greater variety of network devices to be used for VPN
connections.
How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT

translation when a router is configured with the following
commands?
Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30
netmask 255.255.255.224
Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME
o
o
o
o
o
7
8
9
10
24
Which three statements are true regarding the Frame Relay

LMI? (Choose three.)
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
The clock rate is not set on the DTE.

An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.
Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device.
A user is unable to connect to the Internet. The network

administrator decides to use the top-down troubleshooting
approach. Which action should the administrator perform first?
o
o
o
o
The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.

The LMI type must always be manually configured.
The available LMI types are CHAP and PAP.
The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.
The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the
Frame Relay switch.
The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE
and DCE.
The output of the show ip interface brief command indicates

that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. What are two
possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state?
(Choose two.)
o
31
Run the tracert command to identify the faulty device.

Check the patch cable connection from the PC to the wall.
Enter an IP address in the address bar of the web browser to determine
if DNS has failed.
Run the ipconfig command to verify the IP address, subnet mask, and
gateway on the PC.
How does an SNMP trap aid network monitoring and

management?
o
o
o
It reports to the management station by responding to polls.

It collects information for the management station by using polling
devices.
It sends an alert message to the management station when a threshold
is reached.
It flags attempts to begin a DoS attack on the network.
What are two characteristics of DSL technology? (Choose
two.)
o
o
o
o
o
Uploads typically offer larger transfer rates than downloads.

Service providers deploy DSL in the local loop of the telephone
network.
DSL download rates are reduced by large volumes of POTS voice
traffic.
Filters and splitters allow POTS and DSL traffic to share the same
medium.
DSL is a shared medium that allows many users to share bandwidth
available from the DSLAM.
A network administrator has moved the company intranet

web server from a switch port to a dedicated router interface. How
can the administrator determine how this change has affected
performance and availability on the company intranet?
o
o
o
o
Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was
established previously.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of
company web pages from remote sites.
Interview departmental administrative assistants and determine if they
think load time for web pages has improved.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current
week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.
Which statement is true about NCP?
o
o
o
o
Link termination is the responsibility of NCP.

Each network protocol has a corresponding NCP.
NCP establishes the initial link between PPP devices.
NCP tests the link to ensure that the link quality is sufficient.
Which two statements about NetFlow are true? (Choose two.)
o
o
o
o
NetFlow can be used to create baseline documentation.

NetFlow can be used to collect performance indicators such as
interface errors, CPU usage, and memory usage.
NetFlow can be used to monitor traffic statistics, including packet
payload content.
NetFlow is a Cisco-specific feature that enables the collection of
detailed traffic profiles.
o
o
What are three parameters that are used by NetFlow to

classify traffic? (Choose three.)
o
o
o
o
o
o
ingress interface
TOS field
egress interface
number of packets
number of bytes
port number
What is the purpose of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture?
o
o
NetFlow is a network monitoring and event reporting tool.

NetFlow traffic collectors use a pull based model to acquire traffic
statistics from ports of interest.
It replaces the three-layer hierarchical model with a flat network

approach.
It provides an enterprise-wide system network architecture that helps
protect, optimize, and grow the network infrastructure that supports the
business processes of a company.
It provides services and functionality to the core layer by grouping
various components into a single component that is located in the access
layer.
It reduces overall network traffic by grouping server farms, the
management server, corporate intranet, and e-commerce routers in the
same layer.
Refer to the exhibit. While planning an upgrade, a network

administrator uses the Cisco NetFlow utility to analyze data flow in
the current network. What generated the most packets?
o
o
o
o
o
Which is a clientless VPN solution for mobile workers?
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
a specification for the way in which a group of protocols and algorithms

combine to create VPNs
a protocol that is used to create a VPN at Layer 2 of the OSI model
a 56-bit authentication and encryption method that must be used to
create VPN tunnels
a means by which routers and VPN gateways read and forward packets
with encrypted packet headers
What are two significant benefits that are provided by IPsec?

(Choose two.)
o
o
o
o
o
authentication
encryption
automatic creation of a public network
automatic creation of a private network
encapsulation
How does STDM allocate bandwidth on a serial connection?
o
o
o
o
GRE
IPsec
SSH
SSL
What is IPsec?
ICMP
TCP-Telnet
TCP-other
UDP-DNS
UDP-other
It statically assigns bandwidth based upon pre-assigned time slots.

It ensures each of the time slices are assigned to individual
conversations.
It keeps track of conversations that require extra bandwidth. It then
dynamically reassigns unused time slices on an as-needed basis.
It ensures that bandwidth is allocated to each channel or time slot
regardless of whether the station using the channel has data to
Which statement is true about the operation of a site-to-site

VPN connection?
o
o
o
o
Which two products are part of the Cisco Collaboration

Architecture? (Choose two.)
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
Borderless End Point

TelePresence
Unified Communications
Unified Computing
Virtual Private Network
static NAT
dynamic NAT
port forwarding
PAT off the external router interface
dynamic NAT overload using the pool of addresses
An administrator needs to configure a router so that internal

network servers are accessible from the Internet. Each server is
configured with a private IPv4 address. What type of NAT should the
administrator configure?
o
o
o
o
Cisco
Cisco
Cisco
Cisco
Cisco
A company has been assigned the 203.0.113.0/27 block of IP

addresses by the ISP. The company has over 6000 internal devices.
What type of NAT would be most appropriate for the employee
workstations of the company?
o
The data is encrypted and decrypted by the sending and target hosts.
The data is encrypted and decrypted by VPN gateways at both the
sending and receiving sides.
The data is encrypted by the sending host and decrypted by the VPN
gateway at the receiving side.
The data is encrypted by the VPN gateway at the sending side and
decrypted by the target host.
PAT
dynamic NAT
static NAT
NAT overloading
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration of R1, which

device is the inside host and what is the inside local address of this
host?
o
o
o
o
PC-A
PC-A
PC-B
PC-B
with
with
with
with
address
address
address
address
64.100.0.100
209.165.200.225
64.100.0.100
209.165.200.225
Refer to the exhibit. A PC at address 10.1.1.45 is unable to

access the Internet. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
o
o
o
o
Which three parts of a Frame Relay Layer 2 PDU are used for
congestion control? (Choose three.)
o
o
o
o
o
o
The NAT pool has been exhausted.

The wrong netmask was used on the NAT pool.
Access-list 1 has not been configured properly.
The inside and outside interfaces have been configured backwards.
the
the
the
the
the
the
10-bit DLCI
Extended Address field
C/R bit
FECN bit
BECN bit
DE bit
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured

router Edge_Router as shown in the output. Connectivity is failing
between Edge_Router and a non-Cisco router running Frame Relay.
What should be done to repair this Layer 2 connectivity?
o
o
o
o
o
Issue the ietf keyword when enabling Frame Relay on interface serial
0/1/0.
Issue the broadcast keyword when performing static mapping on
interface serial 0/1/0.
Correct the IP address used in the frame-relay map command.
Issue the frame-relay lmi-type ansi command on interface serial 0/1/0.
Modify the OSPF process-id from 10 to 1.
What is the relationship between the DE and the CIR in Frame
Relay?
o
o
o
o
Which IEEE standard defines the WiMax technology?
o
o
o
o
When the CIR is exceeded, an Inverse ARP DE message notifies the

source to reduce frame transmission speed.
The DE bit will indicate when the CIR committed burst size should be
applied.
When the CIR on a given DLCI is exceeded, the DE bit of frames above
the CIR is set.
The XON/XOFF flow control mechanism sets the DE bit when the CIR is
exceeded.
802.3
802.5
802.11
802.16
For a VPN, which technology provides secure remote access

over broadband?
o
o
o
o
QoS
ADSL
LTE
IPsec
Which two technologies are implemented by organizations to

support teleworker remote connections? (Choose two.)
o
o
o
o
o
Which basic network module of the Enterprise Architecture is

the fundamental component of a campus design?
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
o
encapsulation errors
framing errors
electromagnetic interference
incorrect interface clock rates
late collisions and jabber
Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in

accessing network resources during certain time periods of the
week. What kind of information should network engineers check to
find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?
o
o
o
o
data center
services module
access-distribution
enterprise edge
What are two examples of network problems that are found at

the data link layer? (Choose two.)
o
CMTS
CDMA
DOCSIS
VPN
IPsec
syslog records and messages

the network performance baseline
debug output and packet captures
network configuration files
Refer to the exhibit. Which three events will occur as a result

of the configuration shown on R1? (Choose three.)
o
o
o
o
o
o
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3
or lower.
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will be limited to levels 3
and higher.
Only traffic that originates from the GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface will
be monitored.
Messages that are sent to the syslog server will use 192.168.1.5 as the
destination IP address.
The syslog messages will contain the IP address the GigabitEthernet
0/1 interface.
For multiple occurrences of the same error, only the first three
messages will be sent to the server.
What is a disadvantage of a packet-switched network

compared to a circuit-switched network?
higher cost
fixed capacity
less flexibility
higher latency
o
o
o
o
What is a type of VPN that is generally transparent to the end
user?
o
o
o
o
Which statement best describes a WAN?
o
o
o
o
site-to-site
remote access
public
private
A WAN interconnects LANs over long distances.

A WAN is a public utility that enables access to the Internet.
WAN is another name for the Internet.
A WAN is a LAN that is extended to provide secure remote network
access.
How many 64 kb/s voice channels are combined to produce a

T1 line?
o
o
o
o
8
16
24
32
In the Cisco Enterprise Architectures network design

approach what is the purpose of the enterprise edge module?
o
o
o
o
Refer to the exhibit. A ping from R1 to 10.1.1.2 is successful,

but a ping from R1 to any address in the 192.168.2.0 network fails.
What is the cause of this problem?
o
o
o
o
to provide access to IP telephony services, wireless controller services,

and unified services
to provide high-speed connectivity and protection for servers
to forward traffic from one local network to another
to provide Internet, VPN, and WAN connections
There is no gateway of last resort at R1.

The serial interface between the two routers is down.
A default route is not configured on R1.
The static route for 192.168.2.0 is incorrectly configured.
Refer to the exhibit. A small office uses an ISR to provide

connectivity for both wired and wireless computers. One day, a
sales person who is using a laptop cannot connect to Server1
through the wireless network. A network technician attempts to
determine if the problem is on the wireless or the wired network. The
technician pings successfully from the wireless laptop to the default

gateway IP address on the ISR. What should be the next
troubleshooting step?
o
o
o
o
Ping
Ping
Ping
Ping
from
from
from
from
the laptop to PC1.

Server1 to PC1.
Server1 to its gateway IP address.
the laptop to the Ethernet port on the cable modem.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is

troubleshooting the OSPF network. The 10.10.0.0/16 network is not
showing up in the routing table of Router1. What is the probable
cause of this problem?
o
o
o
o
The serial interface on Router2 is down.

The OSPF process is not running on Router2.
The OSPF process is configured incorrectly on Router1.
There is an incorrect wildcard mask statement for network
10.10.0.0/16 on Router2.
Refer to the exhibit. R3 has the following configuration:

R3# show running-config
some output text omitted
interface serial0
bandwidth 128
ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
encapsulation frame-relay
frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast
After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a
ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the
output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router
configuration, what is the problem?
o
o
o
o
No clock rate has been configured on interface s0.

There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.
An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
The encapsulation frame-relay command is missing the broadcast
keyword.
Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will

be used for connection D on the basis of this configuration on a
newly installed router:
RtrA(config)# interface serial0/0/0
RtrA(config-if)# ip address 128.107.0.2 255.255.255.252
RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown
o
o
o
o
The security policy in a company specifies that the staff in

the sales department must use a VPN to connect to the corporate
network to access the sales data when they travel to meet
customers. What component is needed by the sales staff to
establish a remote VPN connection?
o
o
o
o
VPN
VPN
VPN
VPN
gateway
appliance
concentrator
client software
Which PPP protocol allows a device to specify an IP address

for routing over the PPP link?
o
o
o
o
Ethernet
Frame Relay
HDLC
PPP
PAP
CHAP
LCP
IPCP
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured

routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial interface to serial
interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of
the problem?
o
o
o
o
o
What is the default location for Cisco routers and switches to

send critical logging events?
o
o
o
o
application
transport
network
data link
physical
auxiliary port
console port
syslog server
virtual terminal
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity

instructions and then answer the question.
Which message is displayed on the web browser?
o
o
o
o
Well done!
PPP is working!
PPP configured!
Configured correctly!
Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity

What is the IP address or range of IP addresses that are used as the

inside global address for packets that originate from PC1 and are
going to the server?
o
209.165.200.231
209.165.200.225 200.165.200.229
209.165.200.231 209.165.200.239
192.168.10.21
CCNA 4 END
CCNA 3 Chapter 1 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02

2015 (100%)
CCNA 5 Blog
1.
Which two features of enterprise class equipment assists an

enterprise network in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time? (Choose
two.)
o
failover capabilities
collapsed core
redundant power supplies
failure domains
services module
Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain

when switch S3 loses power?
S4 and PC_2
PC_3 and AP_2
AP_2 and AP_1
PC_3 and PC_2
S1 and S4
Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in

an enterprise network?
o
the use of a collapsed core design
the use of the building switch block approach
the installation of redundant power supplies
the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic
volume
How can an enterprise network be designed to optimize

bandwidth?
o
by installing devices with failover capabilities
by limiting the size of failure domains
by deploying a collapsed core model
by organizing the network to control traffic patterns
Which technology is required when switched networks are

designed to include redundant links?
o
link aggregation
Spanning Tree Protocol
virtual private networks
virtual LANs
A network administrator is planning redundant devices and

cabling in a switched network to support high availability. Which
benefit will implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this
design?
Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel
interface.
o
Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops.
Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.
Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.
What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity

to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)
o
increased flexibility
decreased number of critical points of failure
reduced costs
increased bandwidth availability
increased network management options
As the network administrator you have been asked to

implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this
configuration consist of?
o
providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device

failure
Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Meraki

switches?
o
They promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport
flexibility.
o
They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual stacking of
switches.
o
They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as Cisco
2960 switches.
o
They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of the
network.
In which situation would a network administrator install a

Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote
infrastructure scalability?
o
to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access
on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and simplified
management
o
on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility
o
on a campus LAN network as access layer switches
Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst

2960 switches?
o
They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS
versions prior to 15.x.

o
They are best used as distribution layer switches.
They are modular switches.
New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through.
A network engineer is reviewing a network design that uses a

fixed configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and
WAN connections. However, the engineer realizes that the router
does not have enough interfaces to support growth and network
expansion. Which type of device should be used as a
replacement?
o
a Layer 3 switch
a modular router
a PoE device
another fixed configuration router
What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
It connects multiple IP networks.
It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
It determines the best path to send packets.
It manages the VLAN database.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain.
Which two requirements must always be met to use in-band

management to configure a network device? (Choose two.)
o
a direct connection to the console port
a direct connection to the auxiliary port
a terminal emulation client
at least one network interface that is connected and operational
Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device
Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp

neigbors command on a router?
o
to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices
o
to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
o
to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices
o
to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco
devices
Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the

network administrator wants to check the routers configuration.
From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can
the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)
o
show flash
show NVRAM
show startup-config
show running-config
show version
What is a characteristic of in-band device management?
It uses a terminal emulation client.
It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is
unavailable.
o
It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
o
It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device

over a network connection.
Mach the purpose to the related configuration item. (Not all
options are used.)

Filed Under: CCNA 3 V5.02 Tagged With: CCNA 3 v5.02 Answers 2015
CCNA 3 Chapter 2 Exam Answer v5 & v5.02

2015 (100%)
CCNA 5 Blog
1.
Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol

(STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.)
o
static default routes
implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
redundant links between Layer 2 switches
link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes
removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?
Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.
The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.
Routers continually forward packets to other routers.
A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.
What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?
Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become
congested.
o
New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.
CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.
ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.
What additional information is contained in the 12-bit

extended system ID of a BPDU?
o
MAC address
VLAN ID
IP address
Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?
port ID
port ID
IP address
extended system ID
MAC address
bridge priority
cost
Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch

would always be the root switch?
o
spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0
spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP,

combines many VLANs with the same physical and logical topology
into a common RSTP instance, and provides support for PortFast,
BPDU guard, BPDU filter, root guard, and loop guard?
o
STP
Rapid PVST+
PVST+
MST
Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause

suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanningtree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)
o
STP
Rapid PVST+
PVST+
MSTP
RSTP
What is an advantage of PVST+?
PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional
implementations of STP that use CST.

o
PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the
root bridge.
o
PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.
In which two port states does a switch learn MAC addresses

and process BPDUs in a PVST network? (Choose two.)
o
blocking
disabled
forwarding
learning
listening
If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is

considered when electing the root bridge?
o
lowest IP address
lowest MAC address
highest IP address
highest MAC address
Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?
trunk ports
designated ports
root ports
edge ports
A network administrator is preparing the implementation of

Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+
link types determined on the switch interfaces?
Link types are determined automatically.
Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.
Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.
Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single
VLAN.
Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to

when configured for PortFast?
o
listening
learning
forwarding
blocking
To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a

switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanningtree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this
command display? (Choose two.)
o
The root bridge BID.
The role of the ports in all VLANs.
The status of native VLAN ports.
The number of broadcasts received on each root port.
The IP address of the management VLAN interface.
What is the purpose of HSRP?
It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.
It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.
It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.
Which nonproprietary protocol provides router redundancy

for a group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?
o
HSRP
VRRPv2
GLBP
SLB
Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol information is being

displayed in the output?
FHRP
GLBP
HSRP
VRRP
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting

host connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy
protocol. Which IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the
host?
192.168.2.0
192.168.2.1
192.168.2.2
192.168.2.100
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

The spanning-tree
mode rapid-pvst
global configuration
command is used to enable Rapid PVST+.
Fill in the blank.
In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single
virtual
router.
Match the step number to the sequence of stages that occur

during the HSRP failover process. (Not all options are used.)
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity

Which switch is the root bridge?
o
Switch_1
Switch_2
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CCNA 3 END
CCNA 2 Final Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015

(100%)
CCNA 5 Blog
1.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router

as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp
pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains
the reason that the number of active clients is 0?
The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.
No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.
The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6
operation.
Which command, when issued in the interface configuration

mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address
automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?
ip dhcp pool
ip address dhcp
service dhcp
ip helper-address
Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP

address lease has expired?
o
a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message
a DHCPREQUEST unicast message
a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message
Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown.

However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the
problem?
A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is
receiving the IP address.

o
R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.
o
The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.
The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.
A college marketing department has a networked storage

device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for
encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college
already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The
router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The
IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from
209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network
administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the
marketing personnel from home?
o
ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5
ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225
ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365

o
ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365
o
No additional configuration is necessary.
What is a disadvantage of NAT?
There is no end-to-end addressing.
The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external
communication.
o
The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed
network.
Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when

passing through a NAT device?
o
Telnet
IPsec
HTTP
ICMP
DNS
What benefit does NAT64 provide?
It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6
addresses.
o
It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a
single public IPv4 address.
o
It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the
IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
o
It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal
addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.
Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers

have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the
VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able
to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print
to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction
should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from
data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1
printer? (Choose two.)
R1 Gi0/1.12
R1 S0/0/0
R2 S0/0/1
R2 Gi0/1.20
inbound
outbound
Which two packet filters could a network administrator use

on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)
o
destination MAC address
ICMP message type
computer type
source TCP hello address
destination UDP port number
A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague

the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an
extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?
o
in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination
VLAN
o
in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are
allowed to be used on a specific server
o
in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN
getting to another LAN
o
in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports
destined for a specific network device
Which three values or sets of values are included when

creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)
o
access list number between 1 and 99
access list number between 100 and 199
default gateway address and wildcard mask
destination address and wildcard mask
source address and wildcard mask
source subnet mask and wildcard mask
destination subnet mask and wildcard mask
A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks

192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26,
and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask,

if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these
networks in a single ACL permit entry?
o
0.0.0.127
0.0.0.255
0.0.1.255
0.0.255.255
A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these
particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a
security risk.
The computers used by the network administrators for a

school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are
needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only
devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed
Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)
o
access-class 5 in
access-list 5 deny any
access-list standard VTY
permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

o
access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
ip access-group 5 out
ip access-group 5 in
A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6

multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added
implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can
discover each other?
o
permit ip any any
permit ip any host ip_address
permit icmp any any nd-na
deny ip any any
Which statement describes a route that has been learned

dynamically?
o
It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
It has an administrative distance of 1.
It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.
Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route
that is shown?
The ip route command was used.
The ipv6 route command was used.
Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a
dynamic routing protocol.

o
The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition
to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.
Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?
IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.
IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols.
IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.
IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for
dynamic routes.
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16?
child route
ultimate route
default route
level 1 parent route
Which two factors are important when deciding which

interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)
o
scalability
ISP selection
speed of convergence
the autonomous system that is used
campus backbone architecture
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is

configured in the exhibit?
directly attached static route
recursive static route
fully specified static route
floating static route
A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the

172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup
floating static route to this network?
o
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100
ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100
Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be

configured to summarize only the routes to networks
2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?
o
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0
Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops

away does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?
Which statement is true about the difference between

OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?
o
OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.
OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.
OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.
OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor

adjacencies.
What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have

exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?
o
They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello
and dead intervals.

o
They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.
o
They request more information about their databases.
They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.
What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the
destination.
o
Cost equals bandwidth.
o
A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.
Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing

protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected
links? (Choose three.)
o
the link router interface IP address and subnet mask
the type of network link
the link next-hop IP address
the link bandwidth
the cost of that link
Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2

routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
o
The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2
network command.
o
The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process
area-id command.
The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.
The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
The link interface subnet masks must match.
The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.
A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0.

Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose
two.)
o
RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
What are two features of a link-state routing protocol?

(Choose two.)
o
Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.
Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other
routers.
o
The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
o
Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated
router.
Why would an administrator use a network security auditing

tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC
addresses?
o
to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address
flooding
o
to determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to
prevent overflows
o
to determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly
o
to determine which ports are functioning
Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts

with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the
office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops
to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without
shutting down the port if a violation occurs?
o
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
o
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict
o
o
switchport port-security violation protect
Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command

shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?
o
An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.
A cable has not been attached to the port.
The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.
There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.
What caused the following error message to appear?

01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on
Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state
01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security
violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port
FastEthernet0/8.
01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface

FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed
state to down
o
Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port
Fa0/8.
o
A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was
previously unused.
o
Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection
was made on switch port Fa0/8.
While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices

reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these
reoccurring errors?
o
All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is
being misdirected or dropped.

o
All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly
regardless of the error.
o
Unexpected traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being received.
Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a

functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)
o
dynamic desirable dynamic desirable
dynamic auto dynamic auto
dynamic desirable dynamic auto
dynamic desirable trunk
access trunk
access dynamic auto
What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between
switches? (Choose two.)
o
Change the native VLAN on both ports.
Configure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.
Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.
Configure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite
attached switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.

o
Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.
A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick

method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to
connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare
this port for the task?
o
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1

o
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast
o
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
o
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN?

(Choose two.)
o
Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also
known as the default VLAN.

o
The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.
This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.
High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.
The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.
On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which

command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?
Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat
Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100
Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100
Switch(config)# no vlan 100
What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from

data VLANs?
o
The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can
be enhanced.
o
A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to
avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.
o
The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management
information, so it should be different from data VLANs.
A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple

switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a
broadcast Ethernet frame?
o
All devices in all VLANs see the frame.
Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.
Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.
Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.
Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown

was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50.
However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems
between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this
problem?
A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.
There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.
The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.
What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part

of configuring IP address translation?
o
The access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool.
The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.
The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address
translation.
o
The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device
doing the translation.
Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to

reach PC B?
R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
R2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
Fill in the blank.

In IPv6, all routes are level
ultimate routes.
Fill in the blank.Static routes are configured by the use of the

ip route
global configuration command.
Fill in the blank.
The OSPF Type 1 packet is the
Hello
packet.
Fill in the blank.The default administrative distance for a static

route is
1
.
Match the order in which the link-state routing process

occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.)
Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC

address table?
o
the destination MAC address and the incoming port
the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
the source MAC address and the incoming port
the source MAC address and the outgoing port
Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision

domains exist in the topology?
10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains
What is a function of the distribution layer?
fault isolation
network access to the user
high-speed backbone connectivity
interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets
Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS

check?
o
borderless switching
cut-through switching
ingress port buffering
store-and-forward switching

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1. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?

2. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three

regenerating data signals

3. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high

4. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

6. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a

7. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

The administrator is already in global configuration mode.

8. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch

to restart the ping process

It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.

10. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

12. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues

The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which action will be successful?

PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1?.

17. Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes,

Request for Comments

18. Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is moved to

20. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly

It accepts frames from the physical media.

22. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper

requiring proper grounding connections

23. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic

Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.

24. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

25. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 005 (v5.02, 2015)

just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses

27. How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?

A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not.

28. What is the purpose of the routing process?

to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network

29. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by

30. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 006 (v5.02, 2015)

31. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose

ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.

NVRAM, RAM, TFTP

34. What happens when part of an Internet VoIP transmission is not

A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.

35. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

37. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command

to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group

38. Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated as a host source

39. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

to inform routers about network topology changes

40. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured a user workstation

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 007 (v5.02, 2015)

The DNS server addresses are incorrect.

The wrong subnet mask was assigned to the workstation.

41. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable

42. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from

random static addresses to improve security

43. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 008 (v5.02, 2015)

45. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address