MATERNITY AND CHILD NURSING

1. An adolescent boy asks, "Does the scrotum have a function?" The nurse's best
response is:
a. "The scrotum maintains a higher temperature then the core body temperature."
b. "The scrotum is an insensitive structure that houses the testicles."
c. "The scrotum is the source of ejaculation."
d. "The scrotum helps to protect the testes and provides an ideal environment
to create sperm."
2. A condition of a baby that has not yet been born after 42 weeks of gestation,
two weeks beyond the normal 40 is referred as:
a. Prenatal
b. Antepartum
c. Post term
d. Premature
3. It indicates the number of times the mother has been pregnant regardless of
whether these pregnancies were carried to term.
a. Para
b. Gravida
c. Still birth
d. Primigravida
4. A nursing student asked by his clinical instructor to describe a pregnant
having given birth two or more times. The nursing student best response is:
a. Primipara
b. Nullipara
c. Multigravida
d. Multipara
5. During a pelvic exam, the nurse practitioner observes a slit with irregular
edges in the client's cervix. She interprets this finding as an indication of:
a. A congenital uterine anomaly
b. Cervical trauma from a surgical procedure
c. Past pregnancy
d. Cervical cancer
6. Two erectile tissues that are connected to the pubic bone.
a. Corposa cavernosa
b. Clitoris
c. Ischiocavernous muscle
d. Fossa navicularis
7. A nurse is teaching a class about the female reproductive system to a group of
women aged 45-55. When she asks a participant to name the event that is
primarily responsible for the initiation of menopause, she knows the participant
has understood when she answers:
a. The ovaries secrete decreasing amounts of estrogen.
b. The ovaries secrete decreasing amounts of luteinizing hormone (LH).
c. The ovaries secrete decreasing amounts of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
d. The ovaries secrete decreasing amounts of progesterone.
8. The nurse is assessing the pH level of the vaginal environment of a 26-year-old
client. Which of the following would be an expected finding for this client?
a. pH level of 3.4
b. pH level of 4.6
c. pH level of 5.7
d. pH level of 6.9

9. A nurse is teaching a class for adolescents about the female reproductive

system. When the nurse asks the class what the function of the vagina is, she
knows that the class has understood when they answer which of the following?
Select all that apply.
a. It protects the labia minora.
b. Its a passageway for the sperm and the fetus.
c. Its a passageway for menstrual flow.

d. It protects against infections from pathogenic organisms.

10. A nurse is teaching a class on the anatomy of the reproductive system. A
student states that she has pain during menstruation. The nurse knows that
painful menstruations may be due to which of the following ligaments?
a. Uterosacral ligament
b. Round ligament
c. Ovarian ligament
d. Broad ligament
11.A male client is having some problems with infertility and is waiting for a
report on his semen sample. The nurse knows that the problem may not be
related to the pH level of the semen based on the following pH lab value:
a. 7.5
b. 6.5
c. 5.5
d. 4.5
12.During a discussion about the pelvic bony structure, a client relates that she
has been told by her physician that she has a narrow pubic arch and wants to
know how this might affect childbirth. The nurse's best response is:
a. If the arch is too narrow for the head, it could result in the need for
forceps or cesarean birth
b. The hormones of pregnancy will relax the joint enough to allow passage of the fetal
head through the pubic hair
c. Giving in a squatting or sitting position will increase the diameter of the outlet
enough to allow passage of the fetal head.
d. The sacrococcygeal joint is flexible and will allow passage of the fetal head through
the outlet.
13.A nurse is reviewing a client's record and notices a physician's report of a
malformation in one of the fallopian tubes. The nurse knows that the client is
most at risk for:
a. Ectopic pregnancy
b. Urinary tract infection
c. Early menopause
d. A decrease in estrogen levels
14.Which statement by the nurse best describes the correct order of the 4 phases
of the menstrual cycle?
a. Menstrual, follicular, secretory, ischemic
b. Luteal, follicular, secretory, menstrual
c. Menstrual, proliferative, secretory, ischemic
d. Luteal, secretory, ischemic, follicular
15.What is the name given to the process in which a reproductive cell divides to
produce four daughter cells with only 23 chromosomes ?
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Oogenesis
d. Spermatogenesis
16.What is the name of the disorder in which endometrial tissue develops outside
the uterus?
a. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
b. Endometriosis
c. Fibroids
d. Mastitis
17.What is the name of the hormone responsible for the development of
masculine secondary sexual characteristics?
a. Follicle stimulating hormone
b. Estrogen
c. Progesterone
d. Testosterone
18.What is the name of the principal hormone that stimulates the production of
milk in the mammary glands?
a. Lutenizing hormone
b. Relaxin
c. Inhibin

d. Prolactin
19.Where are the ovaries located?
a. The inferior portion of the pelvic cavity beneath the uterus
b. The middle portion of the pelvic cavity inside of the uterus
c. The middle portion of the pelvic cavity below the uterus
d. The superior portion of the pelvic cavity on either side of the uterus
20.What is the name of the layer of tissue that lines the uterus and is shed during
menstruation?
a. Stratum functionalis
b. Stratum basalis
c. Perimetrium
d. Myometrium
21.Where in the female reproductive system do the sperm and ovum unite and
fuse to form a zygote?
a. Urethra
b. Fallopian tubes
c. Uterus
d. Ovaries
22.Which of the following structures is found in both male and female bodies?
a. Scotum
b. Uterus
c. Urethra
d. Testes
23.How long is the average pregnancy?
a. One trimester
b. Two trimesters
c. Three trimesters
d. Four trimesters
24.What is the name of a specialist who deals with the female reproductive
system?
a. Oncologist
b. Gynecologist
c. Urologist
d. Haematologist
25.Which of the following structures all secrete fluids that combine with sperm to
form semen?
a. Seminal vesicles, mammary glands, bulbourethral glands
b. Prostate gland, corpus luteum, Graafian follicle
c. Bulbourethral glands, prostate gland, seminal vesicle
d. Mammary glands, corpus luteum, corpus albicans
26.In which of the following structures do sperm mature?
a. Epididymis
b. Vas deferens
c.Spermatic cord
d. Urethra

27.What is the function of the testes?

a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Oogenesis
d. Spermatogenesis
28.A nurse is teaching a couple about the process of fertilization. Which
statement by the couple would indicate understanding of fertilization?
a. "Fertilization takes place in the fimbria (outer third) of the fallopian tube."
b. "Fertilization takes place in the uterine cavity."
c. "Fertilization takes place in the isthmus (inner third) of the fallopian tube."
d. "Fertilization takes place in the ampulla (outer third) of the fallopian tube."
29.A nurse in the fertility clinic is teaching clients about the process of
fertilization. Which statement by the client would not require further teaching
by the nurse?

a. "Transportation of the sperm to the fallopian tube takes an average of 12-24 hours
after ejaculation."
b. "Testosterone in the semen helps to transport the sperm by increasing uterine smooth
muscle contractions."
c. "Progesterone increases peristalsis in the fallopian tubes during ovulation, moving the
ovum toward the uterus."
d. "If the sperm plasma membrane is not removed (capacitation), the sperm
will not be able to fertilize the ovum."
30.A pregnant client is concerned about a blow to the abdomen if she continues
to play basketball during her pregnancy. The nurse's response is based upon
her knowledge of which of the following facts concerning amniotic fluid?
a. The total amount of amniotic fluid during pregnancy is 300 mL.
b. Amniotic fluid functions as a cushion to protect against mechanical injury.
c. The fetus does not contribute to the production of amniotic fluid.
d. Amniotic fluid is slightly acidic.
31.A client states that she had a spontaneous abortion 12 months ago. The client
asks if her hormones may have contributed to the loss of the pregnancy. The
nurse's response is based upon her knowledge of which of the following facts?
a. Implantation occurs when progesterone levels are low.
b. hCG reaches a maximum level at 4 weeks gestation.
c. Progesterone decreases the contractility of the uterus.
d. Progesterone is only produced by the corpus luteum during pregnancy.
32.A nurse is teaching a group of student nurses about amniotic fluid. Which of
the following statements by the student nurse reflects an understanding of the
fetus's contribution to the quality of amniotic fluid? Select all that apply.
a. "The fetus contributes to the volume of amniotic fluid by excreting urine."
b. "Approximately 400 mL of amniotic fluid flows out of the fetal lungs each
day."
c. "The fetus swallows about 600 mL of the fluid in 24 hours."
d. "A fetus can move freely and develop normally, even if there is no amniotic fluid."
33.The nurse is preparing an educational workshop on fetal development. Which
statement by the student would require the nurse to explain further?
a. "True knots are usually associated with a cord that is too long."
b. "The average cord length at term is 22 inches."
c. "The umbilical cord normally contains two veins and one artery."
d. "The high blood volume and Wharton's jelly content of the umbilical cord prevents
compression of the cord."
34.At 17 weeks pregnant, a mother asks the nurse questions about the
development of her baby. The mother states that it may be too early to
visualize any body structures via ultrasound. The nurse's best response in
relation to fetal development at 17 weeks is:
a. Myelination of the spinal cord has occurred.
b. Differentiation of hard and soft palate can be seen.
c. The earlobes are soft with little cartilage.
d. Hard tissue (enamel) for teeth has developed.
35.The nurse is preparing an educational workshop on the time frames for fetal
exposure to potential teratogens. Which defect is most likely to occur at 7
weeks gestation?
a. The shortening of fingers and toes
b. A cleft lip
c. Septal or aortic abnormalities
d. A cleft palate
36.A client in the prenatal clinic tells the nurse that her sister has twins. The
client is concerned that she may also have twins. The nurse's response is
based upon her knowledge of which of the following facts?
a. The chance of dizygotic twins decreases with maternal age up to about 35 years.
b. Monozygotic twins always share a common amniotic sac.
c. The survival rate of monozygotic twins is about 10% higher than that of dizygotic
twins.
d. Genetic factors in the mother may lead to elevated serum gonadotropin
levels, causing double ovulation.

37.A nurse is instructing her students where to listen for a uterine souffle. Each
student has placed the fetoscope on the pregnant woman's abdomen. Based
on the following placements of the fetoscopes, the student most likely to hear
a uterine souffle is the one who placed her fetoscope on which of the following
areas?
a. Under the area of the umbilical cord of the fetus
b. Just above the symphysis pubis
c. Over the area of the umbilical cord of the fetus
d. Just below the symphysis pubis
38.A condition wherein a lower abdominal pain is felt at the side of the ovary that
released the ovum.
a. Implantation
b. Fertilization
c. Mittelschmerz
d. Spinnbarkheit
39.It signals that woman is nearing ovulation or is ovulating.
a. Spinnbarkheit
b. Fertilization
c. Ovulation
d. Mittelschmerz
40.A nurse is teaching a prenatal client about cardiovascular changes during
pregnancy. The client asks the nurse why she becomes dizzy when getting out
of a chair or out of bed. What rationale should the nurse provide as to the
cause of this dizziness during pregnancy?
a. Decreased production of estrogen and progesterone
b. Increased production of fibrinogen and plasma
c. Decreased absorption of hemoglobin in the blood
d. Increased blood volume in the lower extremities
41.A nurse is assessing a prenatal client's cardiovascular function. When should
the nurse expect this client's cardiac output (CO) to begin rising?
a. 8-10 weeks
b. 12-18 weeks
c. 20-24 weeks
d. 34-38 weeks
42.A nurse is teaching a group of first-trimester prenatal clients about the
discomforts of pregnancy. A client asks the nurse, "What causes my nausea
and vomiting?" The nurse responds indicating which of the following as being
contributing factors to first-trimester emesis? Select all that apply.
a. Human chorionic gonadotropin
b. Estrogen
c. Alterations in carbohydrate metabolism
d. Prostaglandins
43.A nurse is researching the topic of edema during pregnancy. Which of the
following observations contributes
a. Increased serum protein
b. Decreased intracapillary pressure and permeability
c. Decreased nitrogen retention
d. Increased level of steroid sex hormones
44.The nurse is taking an initial history of a prenatal client. Which of the
following, if detected by the nurse practitioner, would indicate a positive, or
diagnostic sign of pregnancy?
a. Positive pregnancy test
b. Goodell's sign
c. Uterine enlargement and amenorrhea
d. Fetal heartbeat with at Doppler at 11 weeks gestation
45.The nurse in the prenatal clinic assesses a 26-year-old client at 13 weeks
gestation. Which presumptive (subjective) signs and symptoms of pregnancy
should the nurse anticipate?
a. Hegar's sign and quickening
b. Ballottement and positive pregnancy test
c. Chadwick's sign and uterine souffl

d. Excessive fatigue and urinary frequency

46.The nurse is researching the topic of uteroplacental blood flow. Which of the
following accurately describes funic souffl?
a. A soft blowing sound of blood that is at the same rate as the fetal heart
rate
b. Increased blood pulsating through the placenta
c. A soft blowing sound of blood that is at the same rate as the maternal pulse
d. Increased blood pulsating through the uterine arteries
47.The nurse in the prenatal clinic is taking a history from a prenatal client at 7
weeks gestation. The client states, "I don't know if I want this baby. How will I
know if I'll be a good mother?" What is the most appropriate response by the
nurse?
a. "Ambivalence can be a normal reaction to parenthood in the first
trimester."
b. "This would be the best time to consider an abortion or adoption."
c. "This is a sign of depression, and I'd like you to see a mental health specialist."
d. "This is an abnormal reaction, and I'd like you to speak with Family Services."
48.The nurse is teaching a parenting class to prospective fathers. The nurse
correctly teaches that couvade refers to the:
a. Expectant father's fear of hurting the unborn baby during intercourse.
b. Expectant father's transition from nonparent to parent.
c. Development of the physical symptoms of pregnancy in the father of the
baby.
d. Development of attachment and bonding behaviors in the father of the baby.
49.A client at 28 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and birth unit. Which
test would most likely be used to assess the client's comprehensive fetal
status?
a. Ultrasound for physical structure
b. Nonstress test (NST)
c. Biophysical profile (BPP)
d. Amniocentesis
50.A prenatal client in her second trimester is admitted to the maternity unit with
painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. What test might the physician order?
a. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
b. Contraction stress test (CST)
c. Amniocentesis
d. Ultrasound

51.The nurse is preparing a prenatal client for a transvaginal ultrasound. What

nursing action should the nurse include in the preparations? Select all that
apply
a. Advise the client to empty her bladder.
b. Encourage the client to drink 1.5 quarts of fluid.
c. Apply transmission gel over the client's abdomen.
d. Place client in lithotomy position.
52.A pregnant client asks why ultrasound is used so frequently during pregnancy.
The nurse's response is based on her knowledge that the advantages of
ultrasound include which of the following? Select all that apply.
a. "It is noninvasive and painless."
b. "It can be used to estimate gestational age."
c. "Results are immediate."
d. "The ultrasound is the only test to determine gender."
53.The physician orders an ultrasound for a prenatal client prior to an
amniocentesis. The nurse explains to the client that the purpose of the
ultrasound is to:
a. Determine the gestational sac volume.
b. Measure the fetus's crown-rump length.
c. Locate the placenta.

d. Measure the fetus's biparietal diameter.

54.The nurse is reviewing four prenatal charts. Which client would be an
appropriate candidate for a contraction stress test (CST)?
a. A client with intrauterine growth retardation
b. A client with multiple gestation
c. A client with an incompetent cervix
d. A client with placenta previa
55.A prenatal client at 22 weeks gestation is scheduled for an amniocentesis.
Which nursing action would apply to any client undergoing this procedure?
Select all that apply.
a. Assess for bleeding.
b. Administer Rh immune globulin to the client.
c. Cleanse skin with alcohol.
d. Assess vital signs and fetal heart rate.
56.A prenatal client at 30 weeks gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test (NST)
and asks the nurse, "What is this test for?" The nurse correctly responds that
the test is used to determine which of the following? Select all that apply.
a. Fetal lung maturity
b. Adequate fetal oxygenation
c. Accelerations of fetal heart rate
d. Fetal well-being
57.The nurse is teaching a prenatal client about chorionic villus sampling (CVS).
The nurse correctly teaches the client that risks related to CVS include which
of the following? Select all that apply.
a. Intrauterine infection
b. Rupture of membranes
c. Maternal hypertension
d. Spontaneous abortion
58. A prenatal client at 35 weeks gestation is scheduled for an amniocentesis to
determine fetal lung maturity. The nurse expects the lecithin/sphingomyelin
(L/S) ratio to be:
a. 0.5:1
b. 1:1
c. 2:1
d. 3:1

59.The nursing instructor asks the nursing student about the physiology related
to the cessation of ovulation that occurs during pregnancy. Which of the
following responses, if made by the student, indicates an understanding of
this physiological process?
a. Ovulation ceases during pregnancy because the circulating levels of
estrogen and progesterone are low.
b. Ovulation ceases during pregnancy because the circulating estrogen and
progesterone are low.
c. The low levels of estrogen and progesterone increase the release of the FSH and
LH.
d. The high levels of estrogen and progesterone promote the release of the FSH and
LH.
60.The client is in active phase of labor. The physician has administered epidural
anesthesia. Which of the following nursing actions should be given highest
priority by the nurse?
a. Ensuring patent IV access line
b. Checking for rupture of membrane
c. Monitoring duration of each contraction
d. Providing food and fluids
61.A nursing instructor asks a nursing student who is preparing to assist with the
assessment of a pregnant client to describe the process of quickening. Which
of the following statements if made by the student indicates an understanding
of this term?

a. It is the irregular, painless contractions that occur throughout pregnancy.

b. It is the soft blowing sound that can be heard when the uterus is auscultated.
c. It is the fetal movement that is felt by the mother.
d. It is the thinning of the lower uterine segment.
62.The client is on her twelfth-week of pregnancy. She had been diagnosed to
have ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs and
symptoms are characteristic of the condition?
a. Profuse bright red vaginal bleeding
b. Spotting, abdominal pain that radiates to the shoulder
c. Elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit level
d. Leukopenia, decreased body temperature
63.A patient presents today for her first new obstetric visit. The nurse takes her
history. Here is what she says about her past pregnancies:
1991: ectopic pregnancy
1992: spontaneous miscarriage at 5 weeks
1998: cesarean section at 41 weeks
1999: NSD at 38 weeks
2002: intrauterine fetal death at 18 weeks
Which of the following represents her GTPAL?
a. 62032
b. 45232
c. 52122
d. 42132
64.A nurse midwife is performing an assessment of a pregnant client and is
assessing the client for the presence of ballottement. Which of the following
would the nurse implement to test for the presence of ballottement?
a. Auscultating for fetal heart sounds
b. Palpating the abdomen for fetal movement
c. Assessing the cervix for thinning
d. Initiating a gentle upward tap on the cervix
65.A nurse is assisting in performing an assessment on a client who suspects that
she is pregnant and is checking the client for probable signs of pregnancy.
Select all probable signs of pregnancy.
a. Uterine enlargement
b. Fetal heart rate detected by nonelectric device
c. Outline of the fetus via radiography or ultrasound
d. Chadwicks sign
e. Braxton Hicks contractions
f. Ballottement
66.During a prenatal examination, the nurse draws blood from a young Rh
negative client and explain that an indirect Coombs test will be performed
to predict whether the fetus is at risk for:
a. Acute hemolytic disease
b. Respiratory distress syndrome
c. Protein metabolic deficiency
d. Physiologic hyperbilirubinemia
67.An Rh-positive infant is born to an Rh-negative mother. What test should be
carried out on the cord blood?
a. Blood typing
b. Indirect coombs test
c. Direct coombs test
d. RhoGAM
68.The nurse is caring for a Rh negative mother who has delivered an Rh
positive child. The mother states, The doctor told me about RhoGAM, but
Im still a little confused. Which of the following responses, if made by the
nurses, is most appropriate?
a. RhoGAM is given to your child to prevent the development of antibodies.
b. RhoGAM is given to your child to supply necessary antibodies.
c. RhoGAM is given to you to prevent the formation of antibodies.
d. RHoGAM is given to you to encourage the production of antibodies.

69.In the 12th week of gestation, a client completely expels the products of
conception. Because the client is Rh negative, the nurse must:
a. Admister RhoGAM within 72 hours
b. Make certain she receives RhoGAM on her first clinic visit
c. Not give RhoGAM, since it is not used with the birth of a stillborn
d. Make certain the client does not receive RhoGAM, since the gestation only
lasted 12 weeks.
70.Which of the following assessment findings indicates adverse reaction
to Morphine Sulfate in a gravida 5 para 5 client?
a. Elevated blood pressure
b. Increased respiratory rate Boggy fundus of the uterus
c.
d. Restlessness
71.A pregnant womans last menstrual period began on April 8, 2005, and
ended on April 13. Using Ngeles rule her estimated date of birth would
be:
a. January 15, 2006
b. January 20, 2006
c. July 1, 2006
d. November 5, 2005
72. A woman comes to the physicians office for a routine prenatal checkup at
34 weeks gestation. Abdominal palpation reveals the fetal position at right
occipital anterior (ROA). Which of the following sites should the nurse
expect to find the fetal heart tone?
a. Below the umbilicus, on the mothers left side.
b. Below the umbilicus, on the mothers right side.
c. Above the umbilicus, on the mothers left side.
d. Above the umbilicus, on the mothers right side.
73. A nurse on the obstetric unit is providing care to a woman in the active
phase of the first stage of labor. Which statement if made by the mother
should be a priority concern for the nurse?
a. I will like to take a nap between contractions
b. I have not voided in the last hour, although I feel I need to
c. I am feeling some rectal pressure that is relieved when I push
d. I am feeling contractions every 5 minutes
74. A nurse is caring for a client in labor. The nurse determines that the client
is beginning in the 2nd stage of labor when which of the following
assessments is noted?
a. The client begins to expel clear vaginal fluid
b. The contractions are regular
c. The membranes have ruptured
d. The cervix is dilated completely

75. Upon examination by the obstetrician, she charted that Julie Ann is in
latent phase of labor. Which of the following is not expected during this
phase?
a. 1 cm cervical dilatation
b. Contraction lasting 60 seconds
c. Mild contractions
d. 25% effacement
76. A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to describe the procedure for
performing the Heimlich maneuver on an unconscious pregnant woman at 8
month's gestation. The student describes the procedure correctly if the
student states that she or he will:
a. place the hands in the pelvis to perform the thrusts

b. perform abdominal thrusts until the object is dislodged

c. perform left lateral abdominal thrusts until the object is dislodged
d. place a rolled blanket under the right abdominal flank and hip area
77. A nurse is performing an assessment of a client who is scheduled for a
cesarean delivery. Which assessment finding would indicate a need to
contact the physician?
a. Fetal heart rate of 180 beats per minute
b. White blood cell count of 12,000
c. Maternal pulse rate of 85 beats per minute
d. Hemoglobin of 11.0 g/dL
78.A nursing student is assigned to a client in labor. A nursing instructor asks
the student to describe fetal circulation, specially the ductus venosus. The
nursing instructor determines that the student understands fetal
circulation if the student states that the ductus venosus:
a. connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta
b. is an opening between the right and left atria
c. connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava
d. connects the umbilical artery to the inferior vena cava
79. A client in labor is transported to the delivery room and is prepared for a
cesarean delivery. The client is transferred to the delivery room table, and
the nurse places the client in the:
a. Trendelenburgs position with the legs in stirrups
b. Semi-Fowler position with a pillow under the knees
c. Prone position with the legs separated and elevated
d. Supine position with a wedge under the right hip
80. When caring for a client during the second stage of labor, which action
would be most appropriate?
a. Ensuring the clients legs are positioned appropriately
b. Encouraging the client to ambulate
c. Allowing the client clear liquids
d. Initiating electronic monitoring
81. A nurse is performing an assessment of primipara who is being evaluated
in clinic during her second trimesterof pregnancy. Which of the following
indicates an abnormal physical finding that necessities further testing?
a. Quickening
b. braxton hicks contractions
c. consistent increase in fundal height
d. fetal heart rate of 180 bpm
82. A nurse is caring for a client in labor and prepares to auscultate the fetal
heart rate by using a Doppler ultrasound device. The nurse most accurately
determines that the fetal heart sounds are heard by:
a. Noting if the heart rate is greater than 140 BPM
b. Placing the diaphragm of the Doppler on the mother abdomen
c. Performing Leopolds maneuvers first to determine the location of the fetal
heart
d. Palpating the maternal radial pulse while listening to the fetal heart
rate
83. A nurse is monitoring a client in active labor and notes that the client is
having contractions every 3 minutes that last 45 seconds. The nurse notes
that the fetal heart rate between contractions is 100 BPM. Which of the
following nursing actions is most appropriate?
a. Encourage the clients coach to continue to encourage breathing exercises
b. Encourage the client to continue pushing with each contraction
c. Continue monitoring the fetal heart rate
d. Notify the physician or nurse mid-wife

84. A 15-year-old primigravida is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of HELLP

syndrome. Which laboratory finding is associated with HELLP syndrome?
a. Elevated blood glucose
b. Elevated platelet count
c. Elevated creatinine clearance
d. Elevated hepatic enzymes
85.A postpartum nurse is taking the vital signs of a woman who delivered a
healthy newborn infant 4 hours ago. The nurse notes that the mothers
temperature is 100.2*F. Which of the following actions would be most
appropriate?
a. Retake the temperature in 15 minutes
b. Notify the physician
c. Document the findings
d. Increase hydration by encouraging oral fluids
86. A primigravida with diabetes is admitted to the labor and delivery unit at
34 weeks gestation. Which doctors order should the nurse question?
a. Magnesium sulphate 4mg (25%) IV
b. Brethine 10mcg IV
c. Stadol 1mg IV every 4 hours PRN for pain
d. Ancef 2gm IVPB every 6 hours
87. A nurse has performed a nonstress test on a pregnant client and is
reviewing the fetal monitor strip. The nurse interprets the test as reactive
and understands that this indicates:
a. normal findings
b. abnormal findings
c. the need for further evaluation
d. that the findings on the monitor were difficult to interpret

88.A nurse is admitting a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. In reviewing the

medical orders, the nurse identifies the immediate priority to be:
a. Diet: clear liquids, advance as tolerated
b. Maintain strict I&O
c. Establish IV of 1000ml PNSS
d. Daily weights
89. A nurse is caring for a client in labor and is monitoring the fetal heart rate
patterns. The nurse notes the presence of episodic accelerations on the
electronic fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following actions is most
appropriate?
a. Document the findings and tell the mother that the monitor indicates
fetal well-being
b. Take the mothers vital signs and tell the mother that bed rest is required to
conserve oxygen.
c. Notify the physician or nurse mid-wife of the findings.
d. Reposition the mother and check the monitor for changes in the fetal tracing
90. A client is being maintained at home with a diagnosis of mild preeclampsia.
Which of the following complaints require further evaluation? (Select all
that apply)
a. Heartburn
b. Anxiety
c. Headache
d. Blurred vision
91.The nurse is assessing a client who is 6 hours PP after delivering a full-term
healthy infant. The client complains to the nurse of feelings of faintness
and dizziness. Which of the following nursing actions would be most
appropriate?
a. Obtain hemoglobin and hematocrit levels

b. Instruct the mother to request help when getting out of bed

c. Elevate the mothers legs
d. Inform the nursery room nurse to avoid bringing the newborn infant to the
mother until the feelings of light-headedness and dizziness have subsided.
92.Which client would be an appropriate referral for a contraction stress test
(CST)?
a. A client with intrauterine growth retardation
b. A client with multifetal gestation
c. A client with placenta previa
d. A client with cerclage
93.A nonstress test is performed on a client who is pregnant and the results of
the test indicate nonreactive findings. The physician orders a
contraction stress test to be done and the results are documented as
negative. The nurse interprets this finding as indicating:
a. a normal test result
b. an abnormal test result
c. a high risk for fetal demise
d. the need for a cesarean delivery
94.A labouring client is complaining of severe nausea and increased rectal
pressure. She is trashing about and cries, I cant do this anymore, Please
help me!. This client is most likely in which phase of labor?
a. Latent
b. Second
c. Transitional
d. Active
95. A nurse is reviewing the record of a client in the labor room and notes that
the nurse midwife has documented that the fetus is at -1 station. The nurse
determines that the fetal presenting part is:
a. 1 cm above the ischial spine
b. 1 fingerbreadth below the symphysis pubis
c. 1 inch below the coccyx
d. 1 inch below the iliac crest
96.A nurse is caring for a client in the delivery room. A few minutes after birth,
there is a rise in the fundus, a short, rapid gush of blood from the vagina
and a lengthening umbilical cord. The nurse recognizes these to be signs
of:
a. Postpartum haemorrhage
b. Marginal placental abruption
c. Cord prolapse
d. Placental separation
97. The nurse is assessing the lochia on a 1 day PP patient. The nurse notes
that the lochia is red and has a foul-smelling odor. The nurse determines
that this assessment finding is:
a. Normal
b. Indicates the presence of infection
c. Indicates the need for increasing oral fluids
d. Indicates the need for increasing ambulation
98. A nurse is preparing a list of self-care instructions for postpartum client who was
diagnosed with mastitis. Which of the following instructions would be included in
the list?
a. Wear a supportive bra
b. Rest during the acute phase
c. Maintain fluid intake of at least 3000ml
d. Continue to breastfeed if the breast is not too sore
e. Take the prescribed antibiotics until the soreness subsides
f. Avoid decompression of the breast by breastfeeding or breastpump

99. A mother complains of pain due to breast engorgement and is bottle-feeding her
newborn. Which action by the mother needs follow-up?
a.
b.
c.
d.

the mother applies warm compress on her breasts

the mother wears support bra
the mother applies cold compress on her breasts
the mother takes prescribed analgesics

100.
A nurse is preparing to assess the uterine fundus of a client in the immediate
postpartum period. When the nurse locates the fundus, she notes that the uterus
feels soft and boggy. Which of the following nursing interventions would be most
appropriate initially?
a. Massage the fundus until it is firm
b. Elevate the mothers legs
c. Push on the uterus to assist in expressing clots
d. Encourage the mother to void