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SOLUTION MANUAL

COMPILED BY YEMI BUKKY


+234(0)8057474928; +234(0)8064974071
(jjbukky@yahoo.com)

Department of Physics,
Federal University of Technology,
Minna, NG
Nigeria

PRINCIPLES OF QUANTUM
MECHANICS
BY R. SHANKAR
SECOND EDITION

SOLUTIONS
COMPILED BY YEMI BUKKY (jjbukky@yahoo.com)
Department of Physics,
Federal University of Technology, Minna, NG
Nigeria
+2348057474928

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Physics 710-712

due October 30, 2009

Problem Set 4
Problem 1: Do exercise 2.5.3 of the text.
Solution: The problem asks us to get the equations of motion using the Hamiltonian method
for the system shown in Figure 1.5 (p. 46) of the text. Using x1 and x2 shown there as
the generalized coordinates, the kinetic energy and potential energy are
T =

m 2 m 2
x + x 2 ,
2 1
2

V =

k 2 k
k
x + (x1 x2 )2 + x22 ,
2 1 2
2

so the Lagrangian is L = T V and thus the generalized momenta are


p1

p2

T
L
=
= mx 1 ,
x 1
x 1
L
T
=
= mx 2 ,
x 2
x 2

p1
,
m
p2
x 2 = ,
m

x 1 =

so the Hamiltonian is
H=T +V =

p2
k
k
k
p21
+ 2 + x21 + (x1 x2 )2 + x22 ,
2m 2m 2
2
2

and Hamiltons equations are


x 1

x 2

H
p1
= ,
p1
m
p2
H
= ,
p2
m

H
= 2kx1 + kx2 ,
x1
H
=
= 2kx2 + kx1 .
x2

p1 =
p2

Problem 2: Do exercise 2.7.2 of the text.


Solution:

(i):
 X

X  qi qj
qi qj
qi
qj
{qi , qj } :=

=
0 0
=0
qk pk
pk qk
qk
qk
k
k
 X

X  pi pj
pi pj
pj
pi

=
0

0 = 0
{pi , pj } :=
qk pk
pk qk
pk
pk
k
k
 X
X  qi pj
qi pj
{qi , pj } :=

=
(ik jk 00) = ij ,
qk pk
pk qk
k

and
 X

X  qi H
qi H
H
H
H
{qi , H} :=

=
ik
0
=
= qi ,
qk pk
pk qk
pk
qk
pi
k
k
 X

X  pi H
pi H
H
H
H
{pi , H} :=

=
0
ik
=
= pi ,
qk pk
pk qk
pk
qk
qi
k

where in the last steps I used Hamiltons equations.


(ii): The Hamiltonian given is H = p2x + p2y + ax2 + by 2 .

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If a = b, H has a

symmetry under simultaneous rotations in the x-y and px -py planes, under which `z (the
generator) is conserved. Therefore {`z , H} = 0.
We check this as follows:

X  `z H
`z H
`z H
`z H
`z H
`z H
{`z , H} =

.
qk pk
pk qk
x px
y py
px x
py y
k

But
H
= 2pk ,
pk


`z
(xpy ypx )
`z
`z
=
=
,
= (y , x) ,
pk
pk
px
py



H
H
H
=
,
= (2ax , 2by) ,
xk
x
y


`z
`z
`z
=
,
= (py , px ) ,
qk
x
y

so
{`z , H} = py 2px + (px )2py (y)2ax x2by = 2xy(a b)
which vanishes if a = b.

Problem 3: Do exercise 2.8.1 of the text.


Solution:

Since g = p1 + p2 , it generates the infinitesimal transformations


g
= +,
p1
g
x2 = +
= +,
p2

g
= 0,
x1
g
p2 = 
= 0.
x2
p1 = 

x1 = +

So, to order , these give the canonical transformations xi x


i (xj , pj ) and pi pi (xj , pj )
with
x
1 = x1 + ,

p1 = p1 ,

x
2 = x2 + ,

p2 = p2 ,

which is precisely a spatial translation of the whole system by an amount .

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Physics 710-711-712

November 16, 2009

Problem Set 5
Problem 1: Do exercise 4.2.1 of the text.
(1)
The possible outcomes are Lz = {1, 0, 1}, which are the eigenvalues of Lz .

Solution:

(2)
Lz |i = 1 |i implies

Solution:


1
|i = 0 .
0
(Note that I have normalized |i!)

Then



0 1 0
1
 0
 1
1
hLx i = h|Lx |i = 1 0 0 1 0 1 0 = 1 0 0 1 = 0.
2
2
0 1 0
0
0



0 1 0
0 1 0
1
0


1
1
1
2
2

hLx i = h|Lx |i = 1 0 0
0 1 0 1 = .
1 0 1
1 0 1
0 =
2
2
2
0 1 0
0 1 0
0
0
s 
q
1
1
2
Lx =
hL2x i hLx i =
02 = .
2
2

(3)
Solution:

The characteristic equation for Lx is

0
12

0 = det(Lx ) = det 12 12 = 3 ,
1
0

{1, 0, 1}.

The corresponding eigenvectors, |i, then satisfy

12
a + b2
0 a

0 = (Lx )|i = 12 12 b = a2 b + c2
1
b a
c

0
2
2
where we have parameterized the components
of |i by (a b c). For = 1, we can solve

for b and c in terms of a, giving b = 2a and c = a. We then determine a by normalizing


| = 1i:

a
| = 1i = 2a ,
a

1 = h = 1| = 1i = a

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2a


a 2a = 4|a|2 ,
a

a=

1
2

(where I have chosen the arbitrary phase to be 1).


= 0 and = 1, gives


1
1

1
1
| = 0i = 0 ,
| = 1i = 2 ,
2
2
1
1

Thus, and doing the same thing for

1
| = 1i = 2 .
2
1

(4)
Solution: The possible outcomes are Lx = {1, 0, 1}, which are the eigenvalues of Lx .
|i is the normalized eigenstate of Lz with eigenvalue Lz = 1, which is

0
|i = 0 .
1
So (here P stands for "probability of"):
2

 0
1

P(Lx = 1)
1 0 = ,
4
1

2

0


1
1
2

P(Lx = 0) = |h = 0|i| = 1 0 1 0 = ,
2
2
1

2

0


1
1
2
P(Lx = 1) = |h = 1|i| = 1 2 1 0 = .
2
4

1


1

= |h = 1|i| = 1
2
2

2

(5)
Solution:

1
L2z = 0

the possible outcomes are L2z = {0, 1}.

1
An eigenbasis of the L2z = 1 eigenspace is {|ai, |bi} with


1
0

|ai = 0 ,
|bi = 0 .
0
1
Therefore, upon measuring L2z = 1, the state collapses to
|i | 0 i =

(|aiha| + |bihb|)|i
.
|(|aiha| + |bihb|)|i|

But

1

[|aiha| + |bihb|] |i =
0 1
0


0


0 + 0 0
1




1
1
0
1
 1
1
1
1

= 0
+ 0 =
1
1
0 ,
2
2
2
2
0
1
2
2

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has norm

v
u
u
u1
t 1
2

1
1
3

=
,
0
2
0

2
2
2

so


1
1
1
1
1
0 = 0 .
| 0 i =
3/2 2
3
2
2
The probability of L2z = +1 is
P(L2z = 1)

= h| (|aiha| + |bihb|) |i = |ha|i|2 + |hb|i|2



2
2




1
1
 1
 1
1 1
3


= 1 0 0
1 + 0 0 1 1 = + = .

2
2
4
2
4


2
2

If we measured Lz the posible outcomes are the eigenvalues Lz , {0, 1}, with probabilities

2





 0 2
 1
1
1


P(Lz = 1) =
1 0 0 | i = 1 0 0 0 = .
3
3
2
P(Lz = 0)


= 0

P(Lz = 1)


= 0



 0 2 1

0 | i = 0
3



 0 2 1
1 | i = 0
3

2

 1

0 0 = 0.
2
2

 1
2
1 0 = .
3
2

(6)
Solution:

In the Lz eigenbasis

1
|Lz = 1i = 0 ,
0


0
|Lz = 0i = 1 ,
0


0
|Lz = 1i = 0 ,
1

write the unknown state as



a

|i = b .
c
Then
1
P(Lz = 1) =
4

P(Lz = 1) =

1
2

P(Lz = 1) =

1
4

2

 a

b = |a|2 ,
0 0
c

2

a


2
= |hLz = 0|i| = 0 1 0 b = |b|2 ,

c

2



 a
2

= |hLz = 1|i| = 0 0 1
b = |c|2 .

c



2
= |hLz = 1|i| = 1

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The most general solution to these three equations is then


a=

1
b = ei2 ,
2

1 i1
e ,
2

c=

1 i3
e ,
2

for some arbitrary phases i , which gives the desired answer.


The i phase factors are not irrelevant. For example

P(Lx = 0)

i1 2
i

2
e 1
 1 e i
ei3
2 =

0 1
2e
2 2 2 2

2

ei3

 1
1 ei(3 1 ) ei(3 1 ) + 1
ei3 =
8



1
2
= |h = 0|i| = 1
2
=
=


1 i1
e ei3 ei1
8
1
(1 cos(3 1 )) ,
4

so something measurable (a probability) depends on the difference of the phases.

Problem 2: Do exercise 4.2.2 of the text.


Solution:
Z

hP i = h|P |i =
dxh|xihx|P |i



Z
Z
d(x)
d

(x) = i~
dx (x)
=
dx (x) i~
dx
dx

Z


i~
i~
d

=
(x)2 = 2 = 0
dx
2 dx
2
if 0 as |x| .
Alternatively, use the k-basis:
Z
Z
hP i = h|P |i =
dkh|kihk|P |i =

But

since (x) is real.

1
(k) =
2

dx eikx (x),

dx eikx (x) = (k)

So
Z
hP i =

dk ~k (k)(k) =

dk ~k (k)(k).

1
(k) = hk|i =
dx hk|xihx|i =
2

therefore

dk ~k h|kihk|i =

dk ~k(k)(k).

and under the change of variables k k, this becomes


Z
hP i =
dk ~(k)(k)(k) = hP i,

and so hP i = 0.

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Problem 3: Do exercise 2.4.3 of the text.


Solution:
Z

E
D

=
eip0 x/~ P eip0 x/~


E Z 


d  ip0 x/~

dx eip0 x/~ (x) (i~)
dx heip0 x/~ |xihx|P eip0 x/~ =
e
(x)
dx



Z
ip
d
0 ip0 x/~
= i~
dx (x)eip0 x/~
e
(x) + eip0 x/~
~
dx

Z
Z
d
dx (x)
dx (x) p0 (x) i~
=
dx


 Z
Z
dx h|xihx|P |i = p0 h|i + h|P |i = p0 + hP i.
dx h|xihx|i +
= p0

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Problem 2
In[3]:=

Psi@x_, t_D := HPi H ^ 2 + hbar ^ 2 t ^ 2 Hm ^ 2 ^ 2LLL ^ H1 2L


Exp@HHx Hp0 mL tL ^ 2L H ^ 2 + hbar ^ 2 t ^ 2 Hm ^ 2 ^ 2LLD;
PlotAEvaluate@Table@Psi@x, tD . 8p0 1, 1, hbar 1, m 1<,
8t, 0, 14<DD, 8x, 20, 50<,
AxesLabel 9"x", "HxL2 "=, PlotRange AllE

yHxL2

0.5

0.4

0.3

Out[4]=

0.2

0.1

-20

-10

x
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Physics 710-711-712

December 4, 2009

Problem Set 7
Problem 1: Exercise 5.3.1
The Hamiltonian is

1 2
P + Vr (X) iVi
2m
where Vr is a real function and Vi a real constant. Therefore
H=

H =

1 2
1
(P )2 + Vr (X ) (i) Vi =
P + Vr (X) + iVi 6= H,
2m
2m

so H is not Hermitian.
Derivation of the continuity equation. Schrodingers equation and its complex conjugate in this case read

~2 2
=
+ Vr iVi ,
t
2m

~2 2
i~
=
+ Vr + iVi .
t
2m
i~

Multiplying the first by and teh second by and taking the difference, then dividing
by i~ gives
P
~ ~j 2 Vi P,
=
t
~
~ )/(2mi)
~
where, as before, P = ||2 and ~j = ~(
are the probability density
~ ~j term vanishes (by
and current, respectively. Integrating this over all space, the
the divergence theorem, since we assume ~j 0 at infinity), giving
2
dP
= Vi P,
dt
~
R
where P = d3 xP is the total probability. (I can pull Vi out of the integral since it is
assumed constant in the problem.) Integrating this differential equation gives
P(t) = P(0) e2Vi t/~ .

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Problem 2: Exercise 5.3.4


With primes denoting derivative with respect to x,
j :=
=

~
[ 0 ( )0 ]
2mi
~  ixp/~
(A e
+ B eixp/~ )(Aeixp/~ + Beixp/~ )0
2mi

(Aeixp/~ + Beixp/~ )(A eixp/~ + B eixp/~ )0
1  ixp/~
(A e
+ B eixp/~ )(ipAeixp/~ ipBeixp/~ )
2mi

(Aeixp/~ + Beixp/~ )(ipA eixp/~ + ipB eixp/~ )
p  2
|A| + AB e2ixp/~ A Be2ixp/~ |B|2
2m

+ |A|2 + A Be2ixp/~ AB e2ixp/~ |B|2

p 2
|A| |B|2 .
m

Problem 3: Exercise 5.4.2


(a) For x < 0, V = 0, so the general
is < =
solution of the energy eigenstate equation
ikx
ikx
ikx
Ae + Be
where ~k = 2mE. Similarly, for x > 0, > = Ce + Deikx .
Scattering boundary conditions means we set D = 0 (no incoming particles from
x = +).
Now we need to figure out the boundary conditions at x = 0. Look at the
time-independent Schrodinger equation,

~2 00
+ V0 a(x) = E.
2m

(1)

Since the potential has an infinite jump in it, will be continuous, but 0 may
have a finite jump. To see how big the 0 jump is, integrate (1) from x =  to
x = + to get
Z 
~2 0
0
[ () ()] + V0 a(0) = E
dx .
2m

In the limit as  0, the right hand side vanishes since is continuous, from
which we learn that
0
0
(0) <
(0) = (2maV0 /~2 )(0).
>

Applying this boundary condition along with continuity of to < and >
gives the two conditions
A+B = C
ikC ikA + ikB = (2maV0 /~2 )C.

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Dividing through by A, and solving for B/A and C/A gives B/A = maV0 /(ik~2
maV0 ) and C/A = ik~2 /(ik~2 maV0 ). Since R = |B/A|2 and T = |C/A|2 , we
get
k 2 ~4
m2 a2 V02
,
T
=
.
R= 2 4
k ~ + m2 a2 V02
k 2 ~4 + m2 a2 V02
(b) Call x < a region I, |x| < a region II, and x > a region III. Then solving for the
energy eigenstates, ~ 00 = 2m(E V (x)), of energy 0 < E V0 in each region
ikx
x
gives I = Ae
+ Beikx , II = Ce
+ Dex , and III = Eeikx + F eikx ,
p
with ~ = 2m(V0 E) and ~k = 2mE. Scattering boundary conditions
means we set F = 0 (no incoming particles from x = +). The incoming wave
has amplitude A, the reflected has amplitude B, the transmitted amplitude E.
Therefore R = |B/A|2 and T = |E/A|2 , so we only need to solve for B/A and
E/A.
The boundary conditions at x = a are that and 0 are continuous, implying
Aeika + Beika
ikAeika ikBeika
Eeika
ikEeika

=
=
=
=

Cea + Dea ,
Cea + Dea ,
Cea + Dea ,
Cea + Dea .

Dividing by A and eliminating C/A and D/A gives


e2iak (e4a 1)(k 2 + 2 )
B
=
,
A
(e4a 1)(k 2 2 ) + 2i(e4a + 1)k
4ie2a(ik) k
E
=
,
A
(e4a 1)(k 2 2 ) + 2i(e4a + 1)k
so
R=

(e4a 1)2 (k 2 + 2 )2
,
(e4a 1)2 (k 2 2 )2 + 4(e4a + 1)2 k 2 2

and T = 1 R.

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Physics 711

January 15, 2010

Problem Set 8
Problem 1: Exercise 7.3.1
P
n
00
2
Plug the power series expansion =
n=0 cn y into the equation +(2y ) = 0
to get

X


cn n(n 1)y n2 + (2 y 2 )y n = 0.
n=0

Shift n n + 2 in the first term, and n n 2 in the third term to get

y n [(n + 2)(n + 1)cn+2 + 2cn cn2 ] = 0

n=0

with the convention that


c2 = c1 = 0.
This implies
cn+2 =

cn2
2cn

(n + 1)(n + 2) (n + 1)(n + 2)

for all n 0.

Problem 3: Exercise 7.3.7


In the momentum basis |i (p), P p, and X i~(d/dp), so the energy
eigenvalue equation


1 2 m 2 2
P +
X |Ei = E|Ei
2m
2
becomes

1 2
m 2 2 00
p (p)
~ (p) = E(p).
2m
2
Compare this to the position-basis equation
m 2 2
1 2 00
x (x)
~ (x) = E(x).
2
2m
These are the same equations with the substitutions x p and m 1/(m 2 ).

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Problem 2: Exercise 7.3.5

dx n (x)xn (x)

hn|X|ni =

Z
=

since x is odd and n2 (x) is even.

d
dx n (x)(i~) n (x)
dx

i~
= n2 = 0
2
Z

h1|X |1i =

dx xn2 (x) since n (x) is real

= 0
hn|P |ni =

dx 1 x2 1 =

Z
2  m 3/2

Z
= (i~)

dx n n0

i~
=
2

dx (n2 )0

since n 0 as |x| .
 m 1/2 Z
4~

dx x


2x

 m 1/2 2

2 /~

emx


2 m 3/2 3  m 5/2
=
4
~
~

=
dx x4 emx /~
~

3~
=
.
2m
Z
 m 3/2 Z

00
2
2
2

2 00
2 2
h1|P |1i =
dx 1 (i~) 1 = ~
dx xemx /2~ xemx /2~
~

Z


 h m 
i

3/2
m
m
2
2
dx x2
x2 3 emx /~
= ~2
~
~
~





2 m 5/2
3 m 3/2
3m~
.
= ~2
(1)
=
4
~
2
~

= h0|X |0i =

= h0|P |0i = ~

X P =

2 mx2 /~

dx x e

 m 1/2  m 3/2
~
=
=
.
~
2
~
2m

Z

00
m
2
2
dx emx /2~ emx /2~
~
 m 3/2 Z  m

2
2
dx
x 1 emx /~
~
~


 m 3/2
m~
m 1/2
(1)
=
.
~
2
~
2

~2

2
~
=

m
~

r
~
m~
~

= .
2m
2
2

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Physics 828: Homework Set No. 3


Due date: Friday, January 27, 2011, 1:00pm
in PRB M2043 (Biao Huangs office)
Total point value of set: 60 points + 10 bonus points
Problem 1 (20 pts.): Exercise 10.3.5 (Shankar, p. 278)
Problem 2 (10 pts.): Exercise 10.3.6 (Shankar, p. 278)
Problem 3 (5 pts.): Exercise 11.2.2 (Shankar, p. 283)
Problem 4 (5 pts.): Exercise 11.4.1 (Shankar, p. 300)
Problem 5 (5 pts.): Exercise 11.4.2 (Shankar, p. 300). If you correctly derive in closed
you receive 10 bonus points.
form the explicit expression for [P , H]
Problem 6 (10 pts.): Exercise 11.4.3 (Shankar, p. 300)
Problem 7 (5 pts.): Exercise 11.4.4 (Shankar, p. 300)

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Physics 828

Sketch of Solution to Set 2

Shankar 12.3.7
(1) The two-dimensional harmonic oscillator is obviously invariant under rotations
about the z-axis: the magnitude of the position and momenta are unaltered by rotations around the z-axis. Therefore, the Hamiltonian commutes with the generator of
rotations about the z-axis, Lz .
(2) So we write (, ) = eim REm () where m is an integer, positive or negative.
In two dimensions since we know the Laplacian we have

h
2
1 0
00
REm

+ REm
2

1
h
m2
+ 2 2
2
2
2

REm () = EREm .

For small assuming that REm () k (derivatives decrease the power by unity
increasing its importance for small etc.) we can neglect the potential energy term
and the constant term on the right-hand side. Thus we have
00
REm
+

0
m2
REm
2 REm [k(k 1) + k] = m2 k 2 = m2 .

For the wave function to be normalizable, for


0
limit k 0. Thus we have REm () |m| .

R
0

2
d REm
() to be finite at the lower

(3) For large , terms with inverse powers of including the centrifugal term and
also the constant term on the right-hand side can be neglected. So we have
2 2 2
REm ;
h
2
this is identical to the one-dimensional oscillator equation. See the careful analysis on
page 191. Up to powers of the solution is1
00
REm
=

REm () e 2h .
So we write as instructed
1

2

2 2
00
e 2h and REm
1 +
e 2h .
=
h
h
h
00
Thus we can neglect the constant term in R and recover the solution. One can use this to check
that terms we have neglected are indeed small compared to the terms we have retained. When you
neglect terms it is a good idea to substitute the solution you have obtained and check that the terms
you have neglected are indeed smaller.
0
REm
=

185

REm () = Um () |m| e 2h .
(4) Use the dimensionless variable = hE and y 2 =
equation by h
we have dropping the annoying subscripts
"

d2
1 d
m2
+

dy 2
y dy
y2

2
.
h

Dividing the radial

1
+ y 2 R(y) = R(y) .
2

(5) We do the substitution and do elementary calculus and obtain the result given:
"
00

U +

2|m| + 1
y

2y U 0 + (2 2|m| 2) U = 0 .

r
r
(6) We substitute U (y) =
r=0 Cr y and collect the coefficient of y . The second
derivative reduces the power by two and so we use the Cr+2 term etc.

(r + 2)(r + 1)Cr+2 + (2|m| + 1)(r + 2)Cr+2 2rCr + (2 2|m| 2)Cr = 0


yielding a two-term recursion relation.
(7) We write this as
(2( |m| r 1)
Cr+2
=
.
Cr
(r + 2)(2|m| + r + 2)
First if C0 is given C2 and the other even terms can be computed. As r we have
2
Cr+2
.
Cr
r
2

This implies that U (y) grows as ey which overwhelms the ey /2 in R pushing it out
of the Hilbert space. So the series must terminate. Thus the boundary condition at
infinity leads as usual to energy quantization.
What about the odd terms? A series only with odd terms (set C0 = 0 so that all even
terms vanish) is inconsistent since then U (y) y for small y and thus R() |m|+1
inconsistent with our earlier result in (2). This appears to be suggested as an argument. What if one starts with C0 and C1 non-zero? Substituting into the equation for
U we find that the (1/y)(dU/dy) leads to the term C1 /y and there is no other source
of y 1 terms. Thus C1 = 0 and therefore, all odd terms vanish.

186

Therefore, we have r = 2k and the termination of the series condition yields


= 1 + r + |m| = |m| + 2k + 1 (n + 1)
with k = 0, 1, , 2, .
(8) Since |m| = n 2k for a given n (i.e., for a given energy) the maximum value
of m is n which occurs for k = 0, The azimuthal quantum number m decreases by steps
of 2 until m reaches the value n. It is easy to se that there are n + 1 allowed values
of m yielding a degeneracy of n + 1. In Cartesian coordinates the energy is nx + ny + 1
in units of h
. So the degeneracy corresponds to the number of ways in which we can
choose two non-negative integers to add up to n. We can choose nx to be any integer
from 0 to n and ny = n nx . This yields the same degeneracy.
Shankar 12.6.1
(1) Since there is no angular dependence ` = 0.
(b) We have R(r) er/a0 and for large r (retaining only the dominant terms)

h
2 00
R = ER(r) .
2m
2

Substituting the given form we obtain E = 2ma


2 .
0

(c) Clearly the R00 term and the energy term cancel for all r. If the equation is
valid for all r we must have
h
2 2 0
R + V (r) R(r) = 0 .

2m r
Substituting R(r) = er/a0 we obtain
h
2
h
2
+ V (r) = 0 V (r) =
.
ma0 r
ma0 r
Shankar 13.1.1 and 13.1.3 You should be able to fill in the steps. Here are some
steps dropping some subscripts for notational simplicty.
v =

Ck k+`+1 .

k=0

187

Substituting into

00

v 2v +

`(` + 1)
e2

v = 0

(1)

we extract the coefficient of k+l carefully. Since two derivatives reduce the power of
by two we should start from the term with k+`+2 with coefficient Ck+1 for the first
term and similarly for the last term. For the second and third terms which reduce the
power of by unity we can start with the k+`+1 term with coefficient Ck . Thus we
have
(k + ` + 2)(k + ` + 1)Ck+1 2(k + ` + 1)Ck + e2 Ck `(` + 1)Ck+1 = 0
which yields

Since 2 =

q 2 + 2(k + ` + 1)
Ck+1
=
Ck
(k + ` + 2)(k + ` + 1) `(` + 1)
2m
2W
h

(2)

(3)

from 13.1.9. For the numerator to vanish we have


e4 2 =

2me2
= 4(k + ` + 1)2 .
2
h
E

This yields 13.1.14.


Mathematical aside: Here is a different representation using classical mathematP
k
ical physics. Note that the function L()
k=0 Ck obeys the equation
L00 () + [ 2(` + 1) 2 ]L0 () + (q 2 2(` + 1))L() = 0 .
Substituting q 2 = 2n (where n is an integer eventually) we have
1 00
L + [ (` + 1) ]L0 + (n (` + 1))L = 0 .
2
Let z = 2 we have
z

d2 L
dL
+ [2(` + 1) z]
(` + 1 n)L = 0 .
2
dz
dz

We know (with a good mathematical methods course) that the general solution to
zw00 + (c z) w0 aw = 0
is given by the confluent hypergeometric function w = 1 F1 (a; c; z). Thus we find that
the solution L() is 1 F1 (`+1n; 2`+2; 2) . The particular terminating (for integer n)
4

188

confluent hypergeometric function can be related to the associated Laguerre polynomial.


Shankar 13.3
We are considering the case n = 2 and ` = 1 and thus k = 0 in the notation of the
4
from 13.1.4 and form 13.1.6
text. So we have W = me
8
h2
s

me2
r
2mW
r
=
2
2 r =
2a0
h
h

using 13.1.24. From 13.1.10 since k = 0 and ` = 1 we have v = C0 2 and thus


R(r) =

U (r)
r
= C e 2a0 r
r
q

3
cos from 12.5.39 which is
where C is an overall constant. We know that Y10 = 4
r/(2a0 )
normalized. So all we need is that Ce
r is notmalized when integrated over the
radial coordinate. We have

Z
0

ar

dr r2 r2 e

= C 2 24 a50 .

1
Thus C = 24a
3 1/a0 and including the normalization from the spherical harmonic
0
yields the quoted answer.

Shankar 13.5
Since we are asked to compute hi for stationary states |n`mi its time derivative
vanishes. Thus we have h[, H]i = 0 by Ehrenfests theorem. So we compute the
~ P~ as ordered. We calculate (using the summation convention)
commutator for = R

Pi Pi
Rj P j ,
2m

Pi Pi
P~ P~
= Rj ,
Pj = 2ih
= 2ih T .
2m
2m

We have used
[Rj , Pi Pi ] = Pi [Rj , Pi ] + [Rj , Pi ]Pi = 2ih Pj .
We consider the potential energy term next:

[Rj Pj , V (R)] = Rj [Pj , V (R)] = Rj


5

189

d
V (R) .
i
h
dRj

Note that [Pi , V (R)] can be evaluated in the coordinate representation (in Cartesian
coordinates) by acting on a function f (r):

~ V.
~
[Pi , V (r)]f (r) = i
h
V (r)f (r) V (r)
V (r)f (r) = ih
V (r) = i
hR
ri
ri
ri
Thus we can write formally [Pi , V (R)] = ihV (R)/Ri . So we need to evaluate
~ V
~ (R). In the coordinate representation using spherical coordinates for central
R
potentials this is just rV 0 (r). For the Coulomb potential we obtain V (r) and including
the factor of ih we obtain ih V (r). Substituting into the basic relation we have
h2T + V i = 0
as asserted. If V (R) Rn , rV 0 (r) = nV and thus we obtain hT i =

190

n
2

hV i.

Physics 710

March 12, 2010

Problem Set 15
Problem 12.6.1: E = Aer/a0 .
(1) No (, )-dependence implies E Y00 , so we must have ` = 0 and m = 0.
(2) Therefore E = RE,`=0 = 1r UE,0 which satisfies eqn. (12.6.5) with ` = 0:
(rE )00 +

2
[E V (r)](rE ) = 0.
~2

(1)

As r , V (r) 0, which implies in this limit (rE )0 = A(1 ar0 )er/a0


(A/a0 )rer/a0 , so (rE )00 (A/a20 )rer/a0 . Therefore, eqn. (1) reads in this
limit
A r/a0
2E
= 2 Arer/a0 ,
re
2
a0
~
from which it follows that
~2
E=
.
2a20
(3) Now plug E into (1) and use (rE )00 = A( a20 + ar2 )er/a0 to get
0




2
r
~2
2
r/a0
A + 2 e
V (r) Arer/a0 = 0,
+ 2
a0 a0
~
2a20
which gives
V (r) =

~2
.
a0 r

Problem 12.6.4:
R
(1) 3 (r r0 ) is defined by the property that d3 r 3 (r r0 )f (r) = f (r0 ). So simply
check:
Z
1
r2 dr sin dd 2
(r r0 )( 0 )( 0 )f (r, , )
r sin
Z
= drdd(r r0 )( 0 )( 0 )f (r, , ) = f (r0 , 0 , 0 ).

1
(2) If r 6= 0 then 2 ( 1r ) = r12 r
(r2 r
( r ))+(angular parts) = r12 r
(r2 ( 1
)) = r12 r
(1) =
r2
0. When r = 0 the above calculation breaks down since terms are singular
So consider an Rarbitrary
R 3there.
R continuous function f (r) and the integral

d x2 ( 1r )f (r) = lim0 0 r2 dr d2 ( 1r )f (r), since 2 ( 1r ) = 0 for r > 0.
Then, integrating by parts we get
 
 
  
Z
Z 
Z
  1 
1
1
3
2
2
~
~
~
~
d x
f (r) = lim
r dr d f (r)
f (r)
.
0 0
r
r
r

191

~ = rb + b1 + b 1 , implying
Now recall that in spherical coordinates
r
r
r sin
~
r/r2 , so
that (1/r)
= rb (1/r) = b
r

 
 
 
Z
Z 
Z
 1
1
f
2
3
2
~ b
~
r dr d
f = lim
r 2 + rbf
.
d x
0 0
r
r
r2
~ = (f /r)|r=0 =
The second term on the right side vanishes, because as  0, rbf
const., so:
Z 
Z
Z
Z 

 1
1
2
2
~
lim
r dr d rbf 2 = const. lim
r dr d 2 = const. lim 4 = 0.
0 0
0 0
0
r
r
Therefore,




 
Z 
Z
Z
Z

f
f
1
2
2
3
2
~ b
r 2
r dr d
r 2 = lim dr rb b
f = lim
d x
0 0
0
r
r
r
r=

Z
Z
= lim d f |r= = f (0) lim
d = f (0) lim 4
0

0

0

= 4f (0).
R 3
~ g =
In
the
second
step
I
used
the
divergence
theorem
which
states
d x~
R
R
2
d an
b~g where R is any region, R is its boundary, n
b is the normal unit vector
R
2
to R (pointing out of R) and d a is the surface area element. In our case
R = {r < }, d2 a = d, n
b = rb, and ~g = b
rR(f /r2 ). Thus we have shown that
2 (1/r) = 0 for r 6= 0 and for any f (~r) that d3 x2 (1/r)f = 4f (0). This is
the definition of the delta function, so
 
1
2

= 4 3 (r).
r
Problem 12.6.9: Since ` = 0, = R(r)Y00 (, ) = R(r). So the radial equation
becomes, with (r) = (1/r)U (r),
r
 2

d
2(E + V0 )
2
+
k
U
=
0
r

r
,
k

,
in
0
dr2
~2
r

 2
d
2E
2 Uout = 0
r r0 ,

,
2
dr
~2
where k and are defined to be the positive root. The solutions of these equations are
e cos kr,
Uin = A sin kr + A
e +r .
Uout = Ber + Be

192

e = 0, and Uout 0
The boundary conditions are that Uin 0 at r = 0, implying A
e
at r = , implying that B = 0. The matching conditions at r = r0 are the continuity
of and its first derivative:
in = out
0
0
in
= out

Uin = Uout |r=r0 ,


(Uin /r)0 = (Uout /r)0 |r=r0 .

(2)
(3)

Eqn. (2) implies A sin kr0 = Ber0 , or,


B = A sin kr0 er0 .
Eqn. (3) implies

d
[(A/r) sin kr
dr

(4)

(B/r)er ]r=r0 = 0, which gives

A
B r0
Ak
B
= 0.
sin kr0 +
cos kr0 + 2 er0 +
e
2
r0
r0
r0
r0

Plugging (4) into this gives (Ak/r0 ) cos kr0 + (A/r0 ) sin kr0 = 0, or
tan kr0 =

k
,

(5)

which is what we wanted to show.


If V0 < 2 ~2 /(8r02 ) and V0 < E < 0 (for a bound state), then k 2 = 2
(E + V0 ) <
~2
2 2 2
2
2
2
~ /(8r0 ) = /(4r0 ). Thus 0 < kr0 < (/2), which implies that tan kr0 < 0.
~2
On the other hand, by definition, k/ > 0. So there is no solution to eqn. (5).

193

194

195

196

197

Physics 710-712

April 2, 2010

Problem Set 16
Problem 13.3.1: To say the pion has a range of ' 105 angstroms is to say that
a single pion can be localized on this scale: X . From the uncertainty principle
X P & ~, we then deduce P & ~/. Since we assume is the smallest scale
on which we can localize the pion, it is plausible that the inequality is saturated, so
P P ~/. The relation between the energy and momentum is (from special
relativity) E 2 = m2 c4 + c2 P 2 m2 c4 + c2 ~2 /2 . Now, for the notion of a single
2
pion to exist, we must have E . 2mc
. (See discussion in text on p. 363). So

4m2 c4 & m2 c4 + c2 ~2 /2 , or mc2 & c~/( 3). Again, since is the smallest scale, it is
plausible that the inequality is saturated, giving

2000 eV A
c~
mc
100 MeV.
3
1.7 105 A
2

(In reality m c2 = 140 MeV.)


Problem 13.3.2: Since the kinetic energy is T = 200 eV  0.5 MeV ' mc2 , the
2
2 2
2
electron
is non-relativistic, so we can use T = p /(2m) = (p c )/(2mc ) which implies
pc = 2mc2 T . Then

2~c
2~c
2~
2(2000 eV A)
2
=
=
'1A.
=
'p
=
A
p
pc
10
(0.5 106 eV)(200 eV)
2mc2 T
Problem 13.3.3: Recalling En = Ry/n2 ' 13eV/n2 , we have
P (n = 2)
5
= 4e(E2 E1 )/kT = 4e[(1/4)(1)]13 eV/(kB T ) ' 4e10 /(T /K)
P (n = 1)
where I used (kB /eV) 9 105 K1 . So it is clear that we need T & 105 K so that
the exponent is not very small. For example, if T = 6000 K, then
P (n = 2)
5
' 4e10 /(6000) ' 4e16 2 107  1.
P (n = 1)

198

199

200

201

202

203

204

205

206

207

208

209

210

211

212

213

214

215

216

217

218

219

220

221

222

223

224

225

226

227

228

229

230

231

232

233

234

235

236

237

238

239

240

241

242

243

244

245

246

247

248

249

250

251

252

253

254

255

256

257

258

259

260

Physics 710-712

May 14, 2010

Problem Set 21
Problem 17.2.1: With H 0 =
p
X = ~/(2m)(a + a ), we have:
(1):
En1 = hn|H 1 |ni =

1
P2
2m

+ 12 m 2 X 2 and H 1 = X 4 , and using that

~2
hn|(a + a )4 |ni
4m2 2

~2
hn|(a2 a2 + aa aa + a a2 a + aa2 a + a aa a + a2 a2 )|ni
4m2 2
~2
=
hn|(6a2 a2 12aa + 3)|ni
4m2 2
~2
{6hn + 2|(n + 1)(n + 2)|n + 2i 12hn + 1|(n + 1)|n + 1i + 3hn|ni}
=
4m2 2
~2
3~2
=
{6(n
+
1)(n
+
2)

12(n
+
1)
+
3}
=
(2n2 + 2n + 1),
4m2 2
4m2 2
=

where in the first line we dropped the zero superscripts from the unperturbed eigenstates; in the second line we kept only terms with equal numbers of as
and a s; in the

third line we used [a, a ] = 1; and in the fourth line we used a |ni = n + 1|n + 1i.
(2): For any finite value of , as n gets large
~2 n2 /(m2 2 )
En1
~

n2 2 3  1.
E
~
m
Physically, at large x, no matter how small is,
V (x) =

m 2 2
x + x4 x4
2

for 6= 0.
~ = S
~B
~ = H 0 + H 1 with H 0 = B0 Sz and
Problem 17.2.2: H = ~B
1
0
0
H = BSx . The H eigenvalues are E = B0 ~/2 with eigenstates |i0 , the Sz
eigenstates. Then
E1 = h|0 H 1 |i0 = Bh|0 Sx |i0 =

B
h|0 (S+ + S )|i0 = 0,
2

and
|h|0 H 1 |i0 |2
2 B 2 |h|0 (S+ + S )|i0 |2
=
0
E0 Em
E0 E0
4
B0 ~
m
q
B 2
B 2
~B 2
=
|h|0 S |i0 |2 =
|h|0 ~ ( 12 ( 12 ))( 32 ( 12 ))|i0 |2 =
,
4B0 ~
4B0 ~
4B0

E2 =

X0 |h|0 H 1 |mi0 |2

261

and
|i0 =

X0 |mi0 hm|0 H 1 |i0


0
E0 Em

B |i0 h|0 S |i0


|i0 h|0 H 1 |i0
B
=

|i0 ,
0
0
E E
2
B0 ~
2B0

where we used that h|0 S |i0 = ~, as computed in the previous equation. Therefore


B0 ~
B2
B0 ~ B 2 ~
0
1
2
3
,

=
1+
E = E + E + E + O(B ) =
2
4B0
2
2B02
and

B
|i0 .
2B0
p
~ where
bS,
Now compare to the
exact
answer.
H
=
(B
B02 + B 2 n
0 Sz + BSx ) =
p
2
2
~ are ~/2 with eigenvectors |i
n
b = (B0 b
k + Bb)/ B0 + B . The eigenvalues of n
b S
with
|i = |i0 + |i1 + O(B 2 ) = |i0

|+i = cos 2 ei/2 |+i0 + sin 2 ei/2 |i0 ,

|i = sin e

i/2

|+i + cos e

i/2

(1)
0

|i ,

where |i0 are the Sz eigenvectors. Eqn. (1) can be rewritten as


|i = cos 2 ei/2 |i0 sin 2 ei/2 |i0 ,
and
r

1 + cos
=
2

1 + nz
=
2

1 cos
=
2

1 nz
2

cos 2 =
sin

sp

B02 + B 2 + B0
p
= 1 + O(B 2 ),
2
2
2 B0 + B
sp
B02 + B 2 B0
B
p
=
+ O(B 3 ),
=
2
2
2B0
2 B0 + B

and = 0, since n
b is in the x-z plane. This implies
|i = |i0

B
|i0 + O(B 2 ),
2B0

in agreement with the perturbation theory result. Similarly, the exact eigenvalues are
~
E =
2


1/2


q
~B0
B2
~B0
B2
4
2
2
B0 + B =
1+ 2
=
1+
+ O(B ) ,
2
B0
2
2B02

again in agreement with the perturbation theory result.

262

Problem 17.3.2: H = ASz2 + B(Sx2 Sy2 ) on the spin-1 Hilbert space. In the Sz
basis, |mi (m = 1, 0), we have

0 1 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
i~
~
Sy = 1 0 1
S z = ~ 0 0 0 ,
Sx = 1 0 1 ,
2 0 1 0
2 0 1
0
0 0 1
(see p. 328 of the text). This implies

A 0 B
H = ~2 0 0 0 .
B 0 A

(2)

Clearly

0
|mi = |0i = 1
0
is the eigenvector with E = 0. So we only need to look at the |mi = |1i subspace
where H = H 0 + H 1 with




1 0
0 1
0
2
1
2
H =~ A
,
H =~ B
on the |mi = {|1i} subspace.
0 1
1 0
H 0 is degenerate: H 0 |mi = ~2 A|mi for m = 1. The basis stable under H 1 is the one
which diagonalizes H 1 . Since

   

 
 
0 1
1
1
0 1
1
1
=
and
=
,
1 0
1
1
1 0
1
1
the eigenvectors of H 1 are

1 1 (|1i + |1i)
2


1 1 (|1i |1i) .
2


To order O(B), the energy shifts of 1 and 1 are

 

1
 0 1
1
1 1
1
2


= ~2 B,
E1 = 1 H 1 = ~ B 1 1
1 0
1
2
2

 


 0 1
1
1
1
1
= ~2 B.
E1
= 1 H 1 1 = ~2 B 1 1
1 0
1
2
2
and

So, the eigenvalues, to O(B), are


E1 = ~2 (A + B),

E1 = ~2 (A B),

E0 = 0.

Compare this to the exact eigenvalues of (2) given by 0 = det(H ) = (~2 (B A) +


)(~2 (B + A) ), which implies = {0, ~2 (A B), ~2 (A + B)}. So, the O(B) results
are exact.

263

264

265

266

267

268

269

270

271

272

273

274

275

276

277

278

Physics 710-712

May 26, 2010

Problem Set 22
Problem 18.2.2: To first order, the amplitude d2`m () for the atom to be in the
|n = 2, `, mi state is
Z
i
2
2
h2`m|(eEZ)|100iet / ei21 t dt
d2`m () =
~
~ = eZEet2 / 2 . Here 21 = (E2 E1 )/~, which from
since the potential H 1 (t) = ~E
now on well just call . So we need to evaluate h2`m|Z|100i. Z is a component
of a vector irreducible tensor operator, Z = T10 , so by angular momentum selection
rules, only the h210|Z|100i matrix element is non-vanishing. This matrix element is
easily evaluated using the wave functions for the the |210i and |100i states, and that
Z = r cos :

1/2 


1/2
Z
Z
1
r r/2a0
1
2
er/a0
r dr d 5 3
e
cos (r cos )
h210|Z|100i =
3
2
a
a
a
0
0
0
0
 Z

Z 1
1
dr r4 e3r/2a0 5/2 4
d(cos ) cos2
= 2
2 a0
0
1

5 Z

2 2a0
1
= 2
d 4 e 5/2 4 = 215/2 35 a0 .
3
3
2 a0
0
Therefore

Z
i
2
2
15/2 5
d2`m () = `1 m0
eE2 3 a0
et / eit dt
~




ieE
2 2
= `1 m0
215/2 35 a0 2 e /2 ,
~


and so the probability for the transition is


 2  15 2 
X
eE
2 a0
2 2
2
P (n=2) =
|d2`m | =
2 e /2 .
10
~
3
`,m
This answer does not depend on the electron spin: since Sz is conserved by H 0 and
H 1 , there is still only a single final state it can go into.
Problem 18.2.4: The kinetic energy of the emitted electron is 16 keV = 12 mve2 =
1
mc2 (ve /c)2 = 21 (511keV)(ve /c)2 , which implies that ve /c 1/4. Therefore the time,
2
, for emission is a0 /ve = (a0 /c)/(ve /c) 4a0 /c, since the typical size of the
1s electron orbit is r a0 , the Bohr radius. In comparison, the characteristic time
scale of the 1s electron, T , is T a0 /vs = (a0 /c)/(vs /c) = (a0 /c)/ 140a0 /c, since

279

the typical velocity of an electron bound in the hydrogen atom is vs /c = , the fine
structure constant. Therefore, T  , and the sudden approximation is appropriate.
In the sudden approximation, right after emission the 1s electron will be in the same
state, the |100i(Z=1) state of hydrogen. Therefore, the amplitude for the electron to be
in the |100i(Z=2) state of (He3 )+ is given by the overlap
Z
(Z=2) h100|100i(Z=1)

Z3
a30

1/2

rZ/a0

r dr d
e
Z
23/2 2 3r/a0
27/2
= 4 3
r dre
=
a0 0
a30

1/2
1

er/a0
a30
 a 3 Z
0
2 de = 29/2 33 ,
3
0


where in the first line Z = 2 and I used the fact that under changing the hydrogen
nucleus charge from 1 to Z, all that changes is a0 a0 /Z.
Finally, (Z=2) h16, 3, 0|100i(Z=1) = 0 since ` = 3 states are orthogonal to ` = 0 ones
(and the radial part, and therefore Z, does not affect this).

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Problem S18.4.3 (Shankar, page 494):


(1)

Show that a gauge transformation on potentials 0 and A 0 using


t

0( r , t ) = c (r , t )dt
gives 1( r , t ) = 0 and A1(r , t ) = A 0 0
Solution:

(2)

(1.1)

This is problem 1 of HW8.

Show that if we transform once more to 2 and A 2 using


1=

1 i A1(r , t ) 3
d r
4 r r

(1.2)

then i A 2 (r , t ) = 0 .
Solution:

Using equation (18.4.12) from Shankar ( A = A ),we have


i A1 (r , t ) 3
1

A2 (r , t ) = A1 (r , t ) +
d r

4
r r

(1.3)

Note that the integrand is the gradient of a scalar function, which produces a vector. If
we now take the divergence of this, we get
i A1 (r , t ) 3
1
i A2 (r , t ) = i A1 (r , t ) +
2
(1.4)
d r

4
r r
Since the only r-dependence in the integrand comes from the denominator, we can use
the identity
2 (1/ r r ) = 4 3 ( r r )
(1.5)
Substituting this into (1.4) and doing the integrals over d 3r gives
1
i A2 (r , t ) = i A1 (r , t ) +
[ 4i A1 (r , t )]r=r = i A1 (r , t ) i A1 (r , t ) = 0
4

(3)

(1.6)

Verify that 2 is also zero using i E0 = 0 .

Solution:

2 (r , t ) = 1 +

1
1 i A1 (r , t ) 3
= 1
d r

c t
4 c t r r

Incorporating the results of part (1), this becomes

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(1.7)

A (r , t )

i 0
+ c0 ( r , t )

1
1
t
d 3 r
= 0
2 (r , t ) = 1 +

4 c t
c t
r r

(1.8)

1 i cE0 ( r , t ) 3
=
d r

4 c t
r r

If we are in free space, so = 0 (a condition that was implied but not explicitly stated),
then Maxwells first equation tells us that the numerator of the integrand is zero; so
2 (r , t ) = 0 .

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Physics 215C Homework #1 Solutions


Richard Eager
Department of Physics
University of California; Santa Barbara, CA 93106

Shankar 20.1.1
Derive the continuity equation
P
+j =0
t
where P = and j = c
The Dirac equation takes the equivalent forms

|i
= c P + mc2 |i
t


i

= c mc2
t
~

i~

The conjugate equation is



=
t


c +


i
mc2
~


P
=
+

t
t
t

= c + ( )
j = c +

Adding both equations together yields the desired result


P
+j =0
t
Both terms in the Hamiltonian, c P and mc2 are Hermitian, so where did
the relative minus sign come from? To show that P is a Hermitian operator you
need to integrate by parts. If you are working with the L2 inner product you
can drop boundary terms, but when working locally to derive the continuity
equation we dont integrate by parts and get a relative minus sign.

1
317

2
Show that the probability current j of the previous exercise reduces in the nonrelativistic limit to Eq.(5.3.8) [which is the same as Sakurai Eq.(2.4.16)].


0

The probability current j = c and =


We can write the wave
0
 

function =
in terms of its relativistic and non-relativistic components,

and respectively.

 
 0

j = c
(0.1)
0


= c +
(0.2)
In the non-relativistic limit (20.2.13)

2mc

p
p
+(
)
2m
2m
which is the non-relativistic current (5.3.8)
j =

j=

~
( )
2mi

from the identification p = i~.

Shankar 20.2.1
Show that
=
where = P

iq~
B
c

qA
c .

=P P

qA
qA qA qA
P P
+

c
c
c
c

q
= (A P + P A)
c
iq~
=
(A + A)
c

The simplest way to manipulate operators is to act on a test function


iq~
iq~
(A + A) =
(A + (A))
c
c
iq~
(A + ()A + ( A))
=
c
iq~
=
( A)
c
iq~
=
B
c
Therefore
=

2
318

iq~
B
c

Shankar 20.1.1
Solve for the 4 spinors w that satisfy Shankar Eq. 20.3.3. You may assume that
the 3- momentum p~ is along the z-axis. Normalize them to unity, and show that
they are mutually orthogonal.
Equation (20.3.3) is
Ew = ( p + m)w
In terms of the relativistic and non-relativistic components,

   
E m p

0
=
p E + m

0
The
  solutions
  are given in equations (20.3.7) and (20.3.8). Choosing the basis
1
0
and
for and letting p be in the z direction,
0
1

0
p/(E m)
p/(E m)

w
=
w1,3 =
2,4

0
0
1
Orthogonality of the spinors is easy to see using E 2 = p2 + m2 .

5
The five terms in 20.2.28 are

P2
2m
V

Hermitian
Hermitian

P
8m3 c2
i P [P, V ]
4m2 c2
P [P, V ]
4m2 c2

Hermitian
Hermitian
anti-Hermitian

Recall that P is a Hermitian operator, the potential V is assumed to be


Hermitian (for conservation of probability) and the Pauli matrices are Hermitian. The commutator [X, Y ] of two Hermitian operators is anti-Hermitian
since [X, Y ] = (XY ) (Y X) = Y X X Y = Y X XY = [X, Y ].
The cross product of two Hermitian (vector) operators is again Hermitian since
(X Y ) = X Y = X Y.

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