ESI Nursing job exam question papers

1. The most common pathogenic mechanism of acute pancreatitis is

Auto digestion of the pancreas.
2. What does the nurse monitors for, in a patient with Acute Renal Failure?
Pulmonary edema and ECG changes.
3. A disease caused by Treponema pallidum is
Syphilis.
4. Which of the following is an important nursing intervention for a patient with Cushing
Syndrome?
(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery (b) Observe for hypotension
(c) Protect from infection (d) Restrict carbohydrate intake.
Ans: Protect from infection.
5. Involvement of which of the following structures will lead to right-sided hemiplegia and
aphasia?
(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery (b) Vertebral Artery (c) Brain stem
(d)Right Middle Cerebral Artery.
Ans: Left Middle Cerebral Artery
6. Which one of the following is a common response expected in a patient with stroke, to the
change in body image?
(a)Denial (b) Dis association (c) Delusion (d) Depression.
Ans: Depression.
7. A patient with early osteoporosis must be advised toStop smoking
8. For doing nasotracheal suctioning, during which of the following patient activities, the
catheter should be inserted?
(a)Swallowing (b) Inhaling (c) Exhaling (d) Retching

Ans: Inhaling
9. The simple most effective method for reducing the risks of stasis of pulmonary secretions
isTwo hourly position change.
10. What is cyanosis?
Blue discoloration of skin.
11. The period from conception to birth is denoted as
Prenatal
12. Role of nursing is having charge of somebodys health Whose vision is this?
Florence Nightingale
13. Which of the following developmental stage corresponds to infancy?
(A) Trust Vs Mistrust (b) Autonomy Vs Shame (c) Initiative Vs Guilt (d) Industry Vs
Inferiority.
Ans: Trust Vs Mistrust
14. Who proposed the nursing theory of self-care deficit?
Dorothea orem
15. The head circumference of a normal infant is
33-35 cm
16. The leading cause of death in adolescence is
Accidents
17. The legal definition of death that facilitates organ donation is, cessation of
Function of brain
18. The body temperature at which tissues and cells can best function is
36-38o C
19. Men have a higher Basal Metabolic Rate because, their body contains more-Testosterone
20. The mechanism by which body loses heat to the environment, without having direct

contact is --?
Radiation
21. Which of the following structures controls heat loss?
(a) Anterior pituitary (b) Posterior pituitary (c) Posterior hypothalamus (d) Anterior
hypothalamus
22. Exposure of the body to subnormal temperature can lead to
Frost-bite
23. What is the effect of an antipyretic?
Reduce fever
24. The volume of blood pumped by the heart during one minute is called.
Cardiac output
25. What is the normal pulse rate of an infant?
120-160
26. The phase of respiration in which gases move in and out of the lungs is .
Ventilation
27. What is the normal partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood? (mm Hg)
35-45
28. What is the equipment that indirectly measures arterial oxygen saturation?
Pulse Oximeter
29. What is the term used to denote regular, abnormally slow respirations?
Bradypnea
30. What technique of assessment helps to determine ketoacidosis?
Olfaction
31. Inflammation of skin at base of nail is?
Paronychia
32. The condition in which both eyes do not focus on an object simultaneously is known as?

Strabismus
33. The most effective way to break the chain of infection is by?
Hand hygiene
34. How many drops in a standard drip set makes one ml.?
15
35. The prescription orders 0.125 mg digoxin orally. Tablets containing 0.25 mg is available.
How many tablets will you administer?
1/2
36. A patient who is receiving intravenous fluids develops tenderness, warmth, erythema and
pain at the infusion site. Which of the following conditions will you suspect?
(a) Sepsis (b) Infiltration (c) Fluid overload (d) Phlebitis
Phlebitis
37. When providing oral hygiene to an unconscious patient, care must be taken to prevent?
Aspiration
38. What is the intrinsic rate of the normal A-V node?
40-60 per minute
39. Which of the following structures is the pacemaker of the heart?
(a) S-A node (b) Septum (c) A-V node (d) Bundle of His
Ans: S-A node
40. The prescription is for two tablespoons of milk of magnesia. How many ml. will you
give?
30 ml
41. Which of the following is intravascular fluid?
(a) Lymph (b) Pleural fluid (c) Plasma (d) Synovial fluid_Ans: Plasma
42. If the serum potassium level is less than normal, the condition is known as
Hypokalemia

43. What electrolyte abnormality is likely to develop in a patient with vomiting?

Hypokalemia
44. How much sodium is normally present in the extra cellular fluid? (in MEq/L).
135-145
45. What is the primary cause of hyperkalemia?
Renal failure
46. Which of the following is an isotonic solution?
(a)Lactated Ringers (b) Half Normal Saline (c) One-third Normal Saline
(d) Mannitol
Ans: Lactated Ringers
47. Thousand ml. of Normal Saline is to be infused in 8 hours. What should be the rate of
flow per minute?
30 drops
48. A patient admitted with vomiting, has the following arterial blood gas levels-pH 7.30;
PaCO2 36 mm Hg; Pa O2 92mm Hg; and HCO3 18; what is the acid-base imbalance that is
present?
Metabolic acidosis
49. Which of the following is a first-line drug used for pain management?
(a)Acetaminophen (b) Clonidine (c) Morphine (d) Ketamine
Ans: Acetaminophen
50. Which of the following is the organism that causes peptic ulcer disease?
(a) Staphylococcus (b) Coryne bacterium (c) Helicobacter pylori
(d) Streptococcus.
Ans: Helicobacter pylori
51. Which of the following nutrients helps for tissue repair?
(a)Vitamin (b) Fat (c) Carbohydrate (d) Protein
Ans: Protein

52. Microscopic examination of urine reveals elevated levels of red blood cells. What does it
indicate?
Damage to Glomeruli.
53. Which of the following patient activities helps to relax the external anal sphincter, while
administering enema?
(a)Separating the buttocks (b) Lubricating the catheter tip
(c)Inserting the catheter slowly (d) Breathing out through the mouth.
Ans: Breathing out through the mouth.
54. What length of the catheter tip should be inserted into the rectum, for giving enema to an
adult patient?
7.5-10 cm
55. The stool discharged from an ostomy is called?
Effluent
56. Which of the following is the best method to confirm placement of the nasogastric tube:
(a) Checking patients ability to talk (b) Aspiration of intestinal content
(c) Introducing air and auscultating (d) X-ray of chest and abdomen
Ans: X-ray of chest and abdomen
57. Which of the following is a common cause of orthostatic hypotension in a bedridden
Patient?
(a)Increased autonomic response (b) Decreased circulating blood volume
(c) Increased cardiac output (d) Decreased blood pooling_Ans: Decreased circulating blood
volume.
58. Which of the following body parts has a condyloid joint?
(a) Shoulder (b) Elbow (c) Wrist (d) Forearm
Ans: Wrist
59. Who was the first president of the International Council of Nurses?
Fenwick

60. Which of the following minerals should be taken by a child suffering from rickets?
(a)Potassium (b) Calcium (c) Sodium (d) Iron
Ans: Calcium
61. Who introduced antiseptic spray during surgery?
Joseph Lister
62. A large infection made up of several boils is known as :
Carbuncle
63. Which of the following drugs will be administered to treat anaphylaxis?
(a) Atropine (b) Sodium bicarbonate (c) Digoxin (d) Epinephrine
Ans: Epinephrine
64. Which of the following is a vesicant drug?
(a)Dactinomycin (b) Morphine (c) Azithrocin (d) Voveran
Ans: Dactinomycin
65. Pain caused by damage to somatic tissue is known as
Nociceptive
66. Which of the following immunoglobulin are responsible for anaphylactic reactions?
(a) IgA (b) IgE (c) IgM (d) IgG
Ans: IgE
67. The separation and disruption of previously joined wound edges is termed as?
Dehiscence
68. What types of dressing is Duoderm?
Hydrocolloid.
69. The role of the complement system in opsonization affects which response of the
inflammatory process?
Cellular.
70. Contractures frequently occur after burn healing because of .?

Excess fibrous tissue formation.

71. Association between HLA antigens and diseases is most commonly found in what disease
conditions?
Autoimmune diseases.
72. What is the most common cause of secondary immunodeficiencies?
Drugs
73. If a person is having an acute rejection of a transplanted organ, which of the following
drugs would most likely to be used?
(a)Tacrolimus (b) Cyclosporine (c) Cellcept (d) Daclizumab.
Ans: Daclizumab.
74. The primary difference between benign and malignant neoplasm is the .
Characteristic of tissue invasiveness.
75. If the blood plasma has a higher osmolality than the fluid within a red blood cell, the
mechanism involved in equalizing the fluid concentration is?
Osmosis.
76. Which of the following symptoms should be watched for in a patient receiving a loop
diuretic?
(a)Restlessness and agitation (b) Paresthesias. (c)Increased blood pressure
(d)Weak irregular pulse.
Ans: Weak irregular pulse.
77. Which of the following should be watched for in a patient who has just undergone a total
thyroidectomy?
(a)Weight gain (b) Depressed reflexes (c) Positive chvostek sign (d) Personality changes.
Ans: Positive chvostek sign
78. Which of the following surgical procedures involves removal of a body organ?
(a) Tracheostomy (b) Laparotomy (c) Mammoplasty (d) Mastectomy.
Ans: Mastectomy.

79. The cause of arcus senilis is?

Cholesterol deposits.
80. What is the cause of presbyopia?
Inflexible lens.
81. The most appropriate technique to assess skin for temperature and moisture is .
Palpation
82. Complete absence of melanin pigment in patchy areas on a patients hand is described as
..
Vitiligo
83. What instruction will you give to a patient after a chemical peel?
Avoid sun exposure
84. Childhood atopic dermatitis is commonly seen in which body area?
Antecubital space.
85. Which of the following parameters is commonly used to assess adequacy of fluid
replacement in a patient with burns?
Urine output.
86. Which of the following is an earliest manifestation of inadequate oxygenation?
(a) Diaphoresis (b) Cyanosis (c) Restlessness (d) Hypotension
Ans: Restlessness
87. A diagnostic procedure which involves removal of pleural fluid for analysis is :
Thoracentesis.
88. Which of the following helps to identify flail chest in a patient with chest trauma:
(a)Multiple rib fractures seen in X-ray. (b)Decreased movement of chest wall
(c)Tracheal deviation (d) Paradoxic chest movement during respiration.
Ans: Paradoxic chest movement during respiration.
89. Which of the following is an intervention for a patient with chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease?

(a) Pursed-lip breathing (b) Chronic steroid therapy (c) High flow oxygen
(d)High Carbohydrate diet
Ans: Pursed-lip breathing
90. Which of the following is a normal finding obtained during a lymph node palpation?
(a) Hard, fixed node (b) Firm, mobile node (c) Enlarged tender nodes
(d)Hard, nontender nodes
Ans: Firm, mobile node
91. Which is the most common type of leukemia seen in older adults?
Chronic lymphocytic.
92. The blood vessel that brings blood to the right atrium is .
Inferior Venae Cavae
93. Which of the following conditions is caused by elevated intra ocular pressure?
(a)Glaucoma (b) Cataract (c) Strabismus (d) Myopia.
Ans: Glaucoma.
94. Which of the following is the most common pathologic finding in individuals at risk for
sudden cardiac death?
(a)Aortic valve disease (b) Mitral valve disease
(c) Left ventricular dysfunction (d) Atherosclerotic heart disease
Ans: Atherosclerotic heart disease
95. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for the use of fibrinolytic therapy?
(a) Current use of anticoagulants (b) Severe liver disease
(c) Suspected aortic dissection (d) Active peptic ulcer disease
Ans: Suspected aortic dissection
96. Which of the following drugs provide relief of anxiety and decreases both preload and
after load?
(a) Amrinone (b) Morphine sulphate (c) Furosemide

(d)Dobutamine
Ans: Morphine sulphate
97. In a normal sinus rhythm, the measurement of an S.T.segment is ..?
0.12 seconds
98. The ECG monitor of a patient admitted with myocardial infarction shows ventricular
bigeminy. What is the nurses responsibility in this situation?
Assess the patients response
99. What is the usual treatment of Rayanauds Phenomenon?
Calcium Channel blockers.
100. A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of diarrhea with dehydration. What could be the
cause of increased peristalsis resulting in diarrhea?
Parasympathetic stimulation.
Staff Nurse Exam RRB Biology Objective Solved Questions
Staff Nurse Exam RRB Biology Objective Solved Questions
RRB exam for staff nurses Free Online model question paper
1. Earth originated in the past
(a) 4.6 billion years
(b) 1.6 billion years
(c) 7.6 billion years
(d) 86 billion years
Ans. (a)
2. The scientist related with the theory of spontaneous generation and experiments with swannecked flasks is
(a) Van Helmont
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Miller
(d) Haeckel
Ans. (b)
3. External protective tissues of plants are
(a) Cortex and epidermis
(b) Pericycle and cortex
(c) Epidermis and cork
(d) Pericycle and cork
Ans. (c)
4. Bulliform cells are4esent
(a) In upper epidermis of dicot leaves
(b) In lower epidermis of monocot leaves
(c) In upper epidermis of monocot leaves
(d) In dicot stem

Ans. (c)
5. Who said that organism develop from pre-existing organism?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Morgan
(d) Oparin
Ans. (b)
6. Which of the following gases was not present in free form at the time life originated on the
earth?
(a) Methane
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Ammonia
(d) Oxygen
Ans. (d)
7. The simple organic compounds that may have first evolved in the direction of origin of life
on Earth may have been
(a) Protein and amino acid
(b) Protein and nucleic acid
(c) Urea and nucleic acid
(d) Urea and amino acid
Ans. (b)
8. STANLEY MILLER conducted an experiment to demonstrate that simple organic
molecules like acids could be produced if an electric discharge is passed through a mixture of
such gases as might have been present in the atmosphere of early earth. The gaseous mixture
he used in the experiment comprised
(a) Methane, ammonia, hydrogen, water vapours
(b) Methane, nitrogen, hydrogen, water vapours
(c) Ammonia, carbon dioxide, nitrogen, water vapours
(d) Methane, ammonia, nitrogen, water vapours
Ans. (a)
9. The first genetic material was most likely
(a) a DNA polymer
(b) a DNA oligonucleotide
(c) a protein
(d) an RNA polymer
Ans. (d)
10. Study of fossils is known as
(a) Palaeobotany
(b) Palaeontology
(c) Anatomy
(d) Ornithology
Ans. (b)
11. The youngest layer of secondaryh1oem in woody dicot stem is located
(a) Just outside the vascular cambium
(b) Just on the inner side of cambium
(c) Between periderm and primary cortex
(d) Just outside pith
Ans. (a)
12. The wall of cork cells is mostly impregnated with
(a) Cutin

(b) Suberin
(c) Lignin
(d) Hemicellulose
Ans. (b)
13. Cork cells are
(a) Photosynthetic
(b) Elongated and participate in movement
(c) Meristematic
(d) Dead
Ans. (d)
14. Dendrochronology is the study of
(a) Height of a tree
(b) Age of a tree by counting the number of annual rings in the main stem
(c) Diameter of a tree
(d) Age of tree by counting the number of leaves in the main stem
Ans. (b)
15. The best method to determine the age of tree is
(a) To measure its diameter
(b) To count the number of leaves
(c) To count the number of annual rings in the main stem at the base
(d) To measure its height
Ans. (c)
16. If the sign was nailed to the side of a tree 5 above the ground in 1997 how high would
the sign be in 2007 if the tree grew 4 taller each year?
(a) 5 high
(b) 8 high
(c) 4 8
(d) 94
Ans. (a)
17. Famous palaeobotanist of India was
(a) P. Maheshwari
(b) S.R. Kashyap
(c) B.P. Pal
(d) B. Sahni
Ans. (d)
18. Which types of tissue form the thin surface for the gas exchange in the lungs?
(a) Epithelial
(b) Connective
(c) Nervous
(d) Muscle
Ans. (a)
19. Safranin stains which element of the tissues?
(a) Starch elements
(b) Lignified elements
(c) Bast
(d) Protein elements
Ans. (b)
20. Which were dominant in Mesozoic?
(a) Dinosaurs
(b) Gymnosperms

(c) Fishes
(d) Mammals
Ans. (a)
21. Endothelium of the inner surface of blood vessels in vertebrates is
(a) Simple squamous epithelium
(b) Columnar epithelium
(c) Cuboidal epithelium
(d) Ciliated cells
Ans. (a)
22. The epithelium best adapted for a body surface subject to abrasion is
(a) Simple squamous
(b) stratified squamous
(c) stratified columnar
(d) Simple cuboidal
Ans. (b)
23. The Golden age of Reptiles was
(a) Late Paleozoic
(b) Cenozoic
(c) Mesozoic
(d) Proterozoic
Ans. (c)
24. In man thickest skin is found in
(a) Palm
(b) Thigh
(c) Sole
(d) Thumb
Ans. (c)
25. The fossil remains of Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between
(a) Amphibians
(b) Reptiles and birds
(c) Fish and amphibians
(d) Reptiles and mammals
Ans. (a)
ESIC staff nurse entrance exam model question paper : Biology
ESIC staff nurse entrance exam model question paper :Biology
Nursing Aptitude Test Free Sample Questions
1. Which of the following set is the evidence of evolution?
(a) Homologous and vestigial organs
(b) Analogous and vestigial organs
(c) Homologous and analogous organs
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)
2. Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a bat?
(a) The arm of a human
(b) The wing of a butterfly
(c) The tail of a fish
(d) The dorsal fin of a shark
Ans. (a)
3. Which one of the following sets of structures includes only analogous organs?
(a) Wings of butterfly, housefly and bat

(b) Hind legs of horse

(c) Hands of man, monkey and kangaroo
(d) Mandibles of cockroach, mosquito and honeybee
Ans. (a)
4. Which of the following set represents all vestigial structures in the human body?
(a) Vermiform appendix, body hair and cochlea
(b) Wisdom teeth, coccyx and patella
(c) Coccyx, vermiform appendix and muscles of ear pinna
(d) Body hair, muscles of ear pinna and atlas vertebra
Ans. (c)
5. The earliest animal to have been domesticated by man most likely the
(a) Horse
(b) Pig
(c) Dog
(d) Cow
Ans. (c)
6. Presence of gill slits in the embryo of all vertebrates supports the theory of
(a) Organic evolution
(b) Recapitulation
(c) Metamorphosis
(d) Biogenesis
Ans. (b)
7. Appearance of ancestral characters in the new borne, such as tail, multiple mammae, etc.,
are known as
(a) Homologous
(b) Analogous
(c) Atavistic
(d) Vestigial
Ans. (c)
8. Evolution is defined as
(a) History of race
(b) Development of race
(c) History and development of race with variations
(d) Progressive history of race
Ans. (c)
9. The book named Philosophic zoologique was published in 1809 and was written by:
(a) Mendel
(b) Darwin
(c) De Vries
(d) Lamarck
Ans. (d)
10. Penguin is a bird that lost the use of its wings by not flying. Such a statement would
express the views of
(a) Darwin
(b) Wallace
(c) Lamarck
(d) Huxley
Ans. (c)
11. A scientist kept 80 generations of Drosophila in darkness, even after that the flies had
normal eyes. This disapproves law of

(a) Natural selection

(b) Acquired characters
(c) Use and disuse
(d) Synthetic theory
Ans. (b)
12. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared
nor shortened showing that
(a) Darwin was correct
(b) Tail is an essential organ
(c) Mutation theory is wrong
(d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters
Ans. (d)
13. What did CHARLES DARWIN publish in 1859?
(a) Origin of Species by Natural selection
(b) Species plantarum
(c) Philosophie Zoologique
(d) De Naturien Familien
Ans. (a)
14. The book Descent of Man and Selection in Relation to Sex was written by:
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) J.B. Lamarck and C. Darwin
(c) F.B. Sumner and E. Darwin
(d) Robert Brown
Ans. (a)
15. Darwin worked on Galapagos finches. The number of species of these finches is
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 11
Ans. (c)
16. Which one of the following evolutionists proposed the theory of evolution similar to
Charles Darwins?
(a) Alfred Russell Wallace
(b) Erasmus Darwin
(c) Thomas Godfrey
(d) Thomas Robert Malthus
Ans. (a)
17. The ultimate source of organic variation is
(a) natural selection
(b) sexual reproduction
(c) hormonal action
(d) mutations
Ans. (d)
18. World environment day is
(a) 5th June
(b) 28th February
(c) 5th August
(d) 28th April
Ans. (a)
19. Tendon connects

(a) Cartilage with muscles

(b) Bone with muscles
(c) Ligament with muscles
(d) Bone with bone
Ans. (b)
20. Sewage infection of water will be demonstrated by cysts of
(a) Entamoeba
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Pseudomonas
(d) Leishmania
Ans. (a)
21. Which type of tissue forms glands?
(a) Epithelial
(b) Connective
(c) Nervous
(d) Muscle
Ans. (a)
22. Eutrophication leads to death of fish due to
(a) Increased O2 content
(b) increased algae content
(c) decreased algae content
(d) Decreased O2 content
Ans. (d)
23. Sebaceous glands are found in
(a) Dermis of skin of mammals
(b) Epithelium of stomach of frog
(c) Epithelium of intestine of frog
(d) Epidermis of skin of mammals
Ans. (a)
24. Minamata disease is a pollution-related disease, which results from
(a) Release of human organic waste into drinking water
(b) Accumulation of arsenic into atmosphere
(c) Release of industrial waste mercury into fishing water
(d) Oil spills into sea
Ans. (c)
25. Which type of tissue forms the framework of the external ear?
(a) Epithelial
(b) Connective
(c) Muscle
(d) Nervous
Ans. (b)
26. The respiration is carried on by
(A) Kidneys
(B) Brain
(C) Intestine
(D) Lungs
Ans (D)
27. Which is the outer protective cover of the body?
(A) Skeleton
(B) Hair

(C) Skin
(D) None of these
Ans (C)
28. Which collects the blood from the organs?
(A) Arteries
(B) Veins
(C) Lungs
(D) Nerves
Ans (B)
29. Which removes waste materials from the body?
(A) Kidneys
(B) Lungs
(C) Heart
(D) Brain
Ans (A)
30. Which of the following is well developed and functional in grazing animals?
(A) Appendix
(B) Liver
(C) Duodenum
(D) Rectum
Ans (A)
31. How many teeth will the children have?
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 28
(D) 20
Ans (D)
32. What is inner lining of the alimentary canal called ?
(A) oesophagus
(B) Mucous membrance
(C) Muscle
(D) Muscular
Ans (B)
33. Which of the following is not a part of the alimentary canal?
(A) Mouth
(B) Stomach
(C) Small intestine
(D) lungs
Ans (D)
34. Liver and pancreas are the ________ glands.
(A) blood clear
(B) digestive
(C) breathing
(D) none of these _Ans (B)
35. _________ is a sticky substance in saliva and provides easy movement for food.
(A) Insulin
(B) Amylase
(C) Mucin
(D) none of these
Ans (C)

36. Nose opens at the uuper end of _____ through a pair of internal nostrils.
(A) Larnyx
(B) Trachea
(C) Pharnyx
(D) none of these
Ans (C)
37. Which of the following is a long tube and wind pipe?
(A) Bronchi
(B) Nasal canal
(C) Pharnyx
(D) Trachea
Ans (D)
38. How many lungs are present in the human body?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) none of these
Ans (B)
39. The lungs are covered by two membrances called as _______
(A) Veins
(B) Air sacs
(C) pleura
(D) none of these
Ans (C)
40. The normal temperature of a human body is _____
(A) 98.4C
(B) 98.4F
(C) 99.0C
(D) 99.0F
Ans (B)
41. What is the temperature of boiling water?
(A) 100C
(B) 32C
(C) 180F
(D) 32F
Ans (A)
42. Units which can be expressed in terms of two or more fundamental units of mass or
called____ units
(A) Derived
(B) defined
(C) undefined
(D) underived _Ans (A)
43. The mean distance of sun from the earth is called
(A) Astronomical units
(B) Lightyear
(C) Astrological units
(D) Angstroms
Ans (A)
44. One nano metre =
(A) 10A

(B) 11A
(C) 12A
(D) 10.5A
Ans (A)
45. Which of the following is known as acqua gold
(A) Sulphuric acid
(B) Nitric Acid
(C) Hydrochloric Acid
(D) Ammonia WRONG 3 2
46. The force is the product of _____
(A) velocity and acceleration
(B) the speed and acceleration
(C) mass and speed
(D) mass and acceleration
Ans (D)
47. Root part is represented in a mature emryo by
(A) plumule
(B) radicle
(C) chalaza
(D) cotyledons
Ans (B)
48. Bone deformities occur due to the excessive intake of
(A) phosphorus
(B) potassium
(C) fatti acid
(D) fluorine
Ans (D)
49. Excess of fat in the body is stored in
(A) Adipose tissue
(B) Acrosome
(C) Connective tissue
(D) Bone marrow
Ans (A)
50. Disease caused by HIV virus is
(A) mumps
(B) plague
(C) AIDS
(D) tuberculosis
Ans (C)
51. When caring for a client with continuous bladder irrigation, the nurse should,
a) Record output every hour
b) Monitor urinary speific gravity
c) Subtract irrigant from output to determine urine volume
d) Include irrigating solution in any 24 hour urine tests order
52.The nurse can prevent the contamination from Mrs. Jacinta's retention catheter by:
a) Irrigating the catheter
b) Perineal cleansing
c) Encouraging fluids
d) Cleansing around the meatus periodically
53. The major reasons for treating severe emotional disorders with tranquilizers is to;

a) Reduce the neurotic syndrome

b) Prevent secondary complication
c) Make the client amenable to physiotherapy
d) Prevent destructiveness by the client
54. The most important factor in rehabilitation of a client addicted to alcohol is;
a) The Clients emotional or motivational readiness
b) The availability of community resources
c) The qualitative level of the clients physical state
d) The accepting attitude of client's family
55. Which of the following activities would cause her a risk in the increase of intracranial
pressure?
a) Exercise
b) Coughing
c) Turning
d) Sleeping
56. Which of the following drug may be given to reduce increase intracranial pressure?
a) Mannitol
b) Scopalamine
c) Lanoxin
d) Calmpose
57. Which of the following is a form of active, focused, emotional environmental first aid for
patients in crisis?
a) Attitude therapy
b) Psychotherapy
c) Re motivation technique
d) Crisis intervention
58. The major treatment for ascities calls for;
a) Increased potassium
b) High protein
c) Restricted fluids
d) Restricted sodium
59. The major influence of eating habits of the early school-aged child is;
a)Spoon feeding
b) Availability of food selections
c) Smell and appearance of food
d) Example of parents at meal time

SOLVED PAPER OF STAFF NURSE IN HEALTH SERVICES DEPT (CATEGORY NO:

224/2009)

1. The most common pathogenic mechanism of acute pancreatitis is

Auto digestion of the pancreas.

2. What does the nurse monitors for, in a patient with Acute Renal Failure?
Pulmonary edema and ECG changes.

3. A disease caused by Treponema pallidum is

Syphilis.

4. Which of the following is an important nursing intervention for a patient with

Cushing Syndrome?
(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery (b) Observe for hypotension
(c) Protect from infection (d) Restrict carbohydrate intake.

Ans: Protect from infection.

5. Involvement of which of the following structures will lead to right-sided

hemiplegia and aphasia?
(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery (b) Vertebral Artery (c) Brain stem
(d)Right Middle Cerebral Artery.

Ans: Left Middle Cerebral Artery

6. Which one of the following is a common response expected in a patient with

stroke, to the change in body image?
(a)Denial (b) Dis association (c) Delusion (d) Depression.

Ans: Depression.

7. A patient with early osteoporosis must be advised toStop smoking

8. For doing nasotracheal suctioning, during which of the following patient

activities, the catheter should be inserted?
(a)Swallowing (b) Inhaling (c) Exhaling (d) Retching
Ans: Inhaling

9. The simple most effective method for reducing the risks of stasis of pulmonary
secretions isTwo hourly position change.

10. What is cyanosis?

Blue discoloration of skin.

11. The period from conception to birth is denoted as

Prenatal

12. Role of nursing is having charge of somebodys health Whose vision is this?
Florence Nightingale

13. Which of the following developmental stage corresponds to infancy?

(A) Trust Vs Mistrust (b) Autonomy Vs Shame (c) Initiative Vs Guilt (d) Industry Vs
Inferiority.

Ans: Trust Vs Mistrust

14. Who proposed the nursing theory of self-care deficit?

Dorothea orem

15. The head circumference of a normal infant is

33-35 cm

16. The leading cause of death in adolescence is

Accidents
17. The legal definition of death that facilitates organ donation is, cessation of
Function of brain

18. The body temperature at which tissues and cells can best function is
36-38o C
19. Men have a higher Basal Metabolic Rate because, their body contains moreTestosterone

20. The mechanism by which body loses heat to the environment, without having
direct contact is --?
Radiation
21. Which of the following structures controls heat loss?
(a) Anterior pituitary (b) Posterior pituitary (c) Posterior hypothalamus (d)
Anterior hypothalamus
22. Exposure of the body to subnormal temperature can lead to
Frost-bite

23. What is the effect of an antipyretic?

Reduce fever
24. The volume of blood pumped by the heart during one minute is called.
Cardiac output

25. What is the normal pulse rate of an infant?

120-160
26. The phase of respiration in which gases move in and out of the lungs is .
Ventilation

27. What is the normal partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood? (mm
Hg)
35-45
28. What is the equipment that indirectly measures arterial oxygen saturation?
Pulse Oximeter

29. What is the term used to denote regular, abnormally slow respirations?
Bradypnea

30. What technique of assessment helps to determine ketoacidosis?

Olfaction

31. Inflammation of skin at base of nail is?

Paronychia

32. The condition in which both eyes do not focus on an object simultaneously is
known as?
Strabismus
33. The most effective way to break the chain of infection is by?
Hand hygiene

34. How many drops in a standard drip set makes one ml.?
15

35. The prescription orders 0.125 mg digoxin orally. Tablets containing 0.25 mg is
available. How many tablets will you administer?
1/2

36. A patient who is receiving intravenous fluids develops tenderness, warmth,

erythema and pain at the infusion site. Which of the following conditions will you
suspect?
(a) Sepsis (b) Infiltration (c) Fluid overload (d) Phlebitis
Phlebitis
37. When providing oral hygiene to an unconscious patient, care must be taken
to prevent?
Aspiration
38. What is the intrinsic rate of the normal A-V node?
40-60 per minute
39. Which of the following structures is the pacemaker of the heart?
(a) S-A node (b) Septum (c) A-V node (d) Bundle of His
Ans: S-A node

40. The prescription is for two tablespoons of milk of magnesia. How many ml.
will you give?
30 ml
41. Which of the following is intravascular fluid?
(a) Lymph (b) Pleural fluid (c) Plasma (d) Synovial fluid
Ans: Plasma

42. If the serum potassium level is less than normal, the condition is known as
Hypokalemia

43. What electrolyte abnormality is likely to develop in a patient with vomiting?

Hypokalemia

44. How much sodium is normally present in the extra cellular fluid? (in MEq/L).
135-145

45. What is the primary cause of hyperkalemia?

Renal failure
46. Which of the following is an isotonic solution?
(a)Lactated Ringers (b) Half Normal Saline (c) One-third Normal Saline
(d) Mannitol
Ans: Lactated Ringers

47. Thousand ml. of Normal Saline is to be infused in 8 hours. What should be the
rate of flow per minute?
30 drops
48. A patient admitted with vomiting, has the following arterial blood gas levelspH 7.30; PaCO2 36 mm Hg; Pa O2 92mm Hg; and HCO3 18; what is the acid-base
imbalance that is present?
Metabolic acidosis
49. Which of the following is a first-line drug used for pain management?
(a)Acetaminophen (b) Clonidine (c) Morphine (d) Ketamine
Ans: Acetaminophen
50. Which of the following is the organism that causes peptic ulcer disease?
(a) Staphylococcus (b) Coryne bacterium (c) Helicobacter pylori
(d) Streptococcus.
Ans: Helicobacter pylori

51. Which of the following nutrients helps for tissue repair?

(a)Vitamin (b) Fat (c) Carbohydrate (d) Protein

Ans: Protein

52. Microscopic examination of urine reveals elevated levels of red blood cells.
What does it indicate?
Damage to Glomeruli.
53. Which of the following patient activities helps to relax the external anal
sphincter, while administering enema?
(a)Separating the buttocks (b) Lubricating the catheter tip
(c)Inserting the catheter slowly (d) Breathing out through the mouth.

Ans: Breathing out through the mouth.

54. What length of the catheter tip should be inserted into the rectum, for giving
enema to an adult patient?
7.5-10 cm

55. The stool discharged from an ostomy is called?

Effluent

56. Which of the following is the best method to confirm placement of the
nasogastric tube:
(a) Checking patients ability to talk (b) Aspiration of intestinal content
(c) Introducing air and auscultating (d) X-ray of chest and abdomen

Ans: X-ray of chest and abdomen

57. Which of the following is a common cause of orthostatic hypotension in a

bedridden Patient?
(a)Increased autonomic response (b) Decreased circulating blood volume
(c) Increased cardiac output (d) Decreased blood pooling

Ans: Decreased circulating blood volume.

58. Which of the following body parts has a condyloid joint?

(a) Shoulder (b) Elbow (c) Wrist (d) Forearm

Ans: Wrist
59. Who was the first president of the International Council of Nurses?
Fenwick

60. Which of the following minerals should be taken by a child suffering from
rickets?
(a)Potassium (b) Calcium (c) Sodium (d) Iron
Ans: Calcium
61. Who introduced antiseptic spray during surgery?
Joseph Lister
62. A large infection made up of several boils is known as :
Carbuncle

63. Which of the following drugs will be administered to treat anaphylaxis?

(a) Atropine (b) Sodium bicarbonate (c) Digoxin (d) Epinephrine
Ans: Epinephrine

64. Which of the following is a vesicant drug?

(a)Dactinomycin (b) Morphine (c) Azithrocin (d) Voveran
Ans: Dactinomycin

65. Pain caused by damage to somatic tissue is known as

Nociceptive

66. Which of the following immunoglobulin are responsible for anaphylactic

reactions?
(a) IgA (b) IgE (c) IgM (d) IgG
Ans: IgE

67. The separation and disruption of previously joined wound edges is termed
as?
Dehiscence

68. What types of dressing is Duoderm?

Hydrocolloid.
69. The role of the complement system in opsonization affects which response of
the inflammatory process?
Cellular.

70. Contractures frequently occur after burn healing because of .?

Excess fibrous tissue formation.

71. Association between HLA antigens and diseases is most commonly found in
what disease conditions?
Autoimmune diseases.
72. What is the most common cause of secondary immunodeficiencies?
Drugs

73. If a person is having an acute rejection of a transplanted organ, which of the

following drugs would most likely to be used?
(a)Tacrolimus (b) Cyclosporine (c) Cellcept (d) Daclizumab.

Ans: Daclizumab.

74. The primary difference between benign and malignant neoplasm is the .
Characteristic of tissue invasiveness.

75. If the blood plasma has a higher osmolality than the fluid within a red blood
cell, the mechanism involved in equalizing the fluid concentration is?
Osmosis.

76. Which of the following symptoms should be watched for in a patient receiving
a loop diuretic?
(a)Restlessness and agitation (b) Paresthesias. (c)Increased blood pressure
(d)Weak irregular pulse.

Ans: Weak irregular pulse.

77. Which of the following should be watched for in a patient who has just
undergone a total thyroidectomy?
(a)Weight gain (b) Depressed reflexes (c) Positive chvostek sign (d) Personality
changes.

Ans: Positive chvostek sign

78. Which of the following surgical procedures involves removal of a body organ?
(a) Tracheostomy (b) Laparotomy (c) Mammoplasty (d) Mastectomy.
Ans: Mastectomy.
79. The cause of arcus senilis is?
Cholesterol deposits.

80. What is the cause of presbyopia?

Inflexible lens.

81. The most appropriate technique to assess skin for temperature and moisture
is .
Palpation
82. Complete absence of melanin pigment in patchy areas on a patients hand is
described as ..
Vitiligo

83. What instruction will you give to a patient after a chemical peel?
Avoid sun exposure
84. Childhood atopic dermatitis is commonly seen in which body area?
Antecubital space.

85. Which of the following parameters is commonly used to assess adequacy of

fluid replacement in a patient with burns?
Urine output.

86. Which of the following is an earliest manifestation of inadequate

oxygenation?
(a) Diaphoresis (b) Cyanosis (c) Restlessness (d) Hypotension

Ans: Restlessness

87. A diagnostic procedure which involves removal of pleural fluid for analysis is :

Thoracentesis.

88. Which of the following helps to identify flail chest in a patient with chest
trauma:
(a)Multiple rib fractures seen in X-ray. (b)Decreased movement of chest wall

(c)Tracheal deviation (d) Paradoxic chest movement during respiration.

Ans: Paradoxic chest movement during respiration.

89. Which of the following is an intervention for a patient with chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease?
(a) Pursed-lip breathing (b) Chronic steroid therapy (c) High flow oxygen
(d)High Carbohydrate diet
Ans: Pursed-lip breathing
90. Which of the following is a normal finding obtained during a lymph node
palpation?
(a) Hard, fixed node (b) Firm, mobile node (c) Enlarged tender nodes
(d)Hard, nontender nodes

Ans: Firm, mobile node

91. Which is the most common type of leukemia seen in older adults?
Chronic lymphocytic.

92. The blood vessel that brings blood to the right atrium is .
Inferior Venae Cavae
93. Which of the following conditions is caused by elevated intra ocular pressure?
(a)Glaucoma (b) Cataract (c) Strabismus (d) Myopia.
Ans: Glaucoma.

94. Which of the following is the most common pathologic finding in individuals
at risk for sudden cardiac death?
(a)Aortic valve disease (b) Mitral valve disease
(c) Left ventricular dysfunction (d) Atherosclerotic heart disease
Ans: Atherosclerotic heart disease

95. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for the use of

fibrinolytic therapy?
(a) Current use of anticoagulants (b) Severe liver disease
(c) Suspected aortic dissection (d) Active peptic ulcer disease
Ans: Suspected aortic dissection

96. Which of the following drugs provide relief of anxiety and decreases both
preload and after load?
(a) Amrinone (b) Morphine sulphate (c) Furosemide
(d)Dobutamine

Ans: Morphine sulphate

97. In a normal sinus rhythm, the measurement of an S.T.segment is ..?

0.12 seconds

98. The ECG monitor of a patient admitted with myocardial infarction shows
ventricular bigeminy. What is the nurses responsibility in this situation?
Assess the patients response

99. What is the usual treatment of Rayanauds Phenomenon?

Calcium Channel blockers.

100. A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of diarrhea with dehydration. What

could be the cause of increased peristalsis resulting in diarrhea?
Parasympathetic stimulation.

1. Which of the following set is the evidence of evolution?

(a) Homologous and vestigial organs
(b) Analogous and vestigial organs
(c) Homologous and analogous organs
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)
2. Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a
bat?
(a) The arm of a human
(b) The wing of a butterfly
(c) The tail of a fish
(d) The dorsal fin of a shark
Ans. (a)
3. Which one of the following sets of structures includes only analogous organs?
(a) Wings of butterfly, housefly and bat
(b) Hind legs of horse
(c) Hands of man, monkey and kangaroo
(d) Mandibles of cockroach, mosquito and honeybee
Ans. (a)
4. Which of the following set represents all vestigial structures in the human
body?
(a) Vermiform appendix, body hair and cochlea
(b) Wisdom teeth, coccyx and patella
(c) Coccyx, vermiform appendix and muscles of ear pinna
(d) Body hair, muscles of ear pinna and atlas vertebra
Ans. (c)
5. The earliest animal to have been domesticated by man most likely the
(a) Horse
(b) Pig
(c) Dog
(d) Cow
Ans. (c)

6. Presence of gill slits in the embryo of all vertebrates supports the theory of
(a) Organic evolution
(b) Recapitulation
(c) Metamorphosis
(d) Biogenesis
Ans. (b)
7. Appearance of ancestral characters in the new borne, such as tail, multiple
mammae, etc., are known as
(a) Homologous
(b) Analogous
(c) Atavistic
(d) Vestigial
Ans. (c)
8. Evolution is defined as
(a) History of race
(b) Development of race
(c) History and development of race with variations
(d) Progressive history of race
Ans. (c)
9. The book named Philosophic zoologique was published in 1809 and was
written by:
(a) Mendel
(b) Darwin
(c) De Vries
(d) Lamarck
Ans. (d)
10. Penguin is a bird that lost the use of its wings by not flying. Such a statement
would express the views of
(a) Darwin
(b) Wallace
(c) Lamarck
(d) Huxley
Ans. (c)
11. A scientist kept 80 generations of Drosophila in darkness, even after that the
flies had normal eyes. This disapproves law of
(a) Natural selection
(b) Acquired characters
(c) Use and disuse
(d) Synthetic theory
Ans. (b)
12. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither

disappeared nor shortened showing that

(a) Darwin was correct
(b) Tail is an essential organ
(c) Mutation theory is wrong
(d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters
Ans. (d)
13. What did CHARLES DARWIN publish in 1859?
(a) Origin of Species by Natural selection
(b) Species plantarum
(c) Philosophie Zoologique
(d) De Naturien Familien
Ans. (a)
14. The book Descent of Man and Selection in Relation to Sex was written by:
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) J.B. Lamarck and C. Darwin
(c) F.B. Sumner and E. Darwin
(d) Robert Brown
Ans. (a)
15. Darwin worked on Galapagos finches. The number of species of these finches
is
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 11
Ans. (c)
16. Which one of the following evolutionists proposed the theory of evolution
similar to
Charles Darwins?
(a) Alfred Russell Wallace
(b) Erasmus Darwin
(c) Thomas Godfrey
(d) Thomas Robert Malthus
Ans. (a)
17. The ultimate source of organic variation is
(a) natural selection
(b) sexual reproduction
(c) hormonal action
(d) mutations
Ans. (d)
18. World environment day is
(a) 5th June

(b) 28th February

(c) 5th August
(d) 28th April
Ans. (a)
19. Tendon connects
(a) Cartilage with muscles
(b) Bone with muscles
(c) Ligament with muscles
(d) Bone with bone
Ans. (b)
20. Sewage infection of water will be demonstrated by cysts of
(a) Entamoeba
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Pseudomonas
(d) Leishmania
Ans. (a)
21. Which type of tissue forms glands?
(a) Epithelial
(b) Connective
(c) Nervous
(d) Muscle
Ans. (a)
22. Eutrophication leads to death of fish due to
(a) Increased O2 content
(b) increased algae content
(c) decreased algae content
(d) Decreased O2 content
Ans. (d)
23. Sebaceous glands are found in
(a) Dermis of skin of mammals
(b) Epithelium of stomach of frog
(c) Epithelium of intestine of frog
(d) Epidermis of skin of mammals
Ans. (a)
24. Minamata disease is a pollution-related disease, which results from
(a) Release of human organic waste into drinking water
(b) Accumulation of arsenic into atmosphere
(c) Release of industrial waste mercury into fishing water
(d) Oil spills into sea
Ans. (c)

25. Which type of tissue forms the framework of the external ear?
(a) Epithelial
(b) Connective
(c) Muscle
(d) Nervous
Ans. (b)

1. It appears that a patient is about to throw a flower pot across the room. A nurse calls Mr.
Smith, put the flower pot down. She could call What are you doing, tell me immediately? For
which of the following reasons is the first remark most valuable in this situation?
1. She says Mr. Smiths name so that he knows that she is speaking to him
2. She is clear and concise about what she wants him to do
3. She is clear, concise and states his name ()
4. A command is always responded to more quickly than a question
2. Fallopian Tube is lined by
1. Columnar Epithelium
2. Stratified Epithelium
3. Ciliated Epithelium ()
4. Germinal Epithelium
3. For proper emotional development which of the following be avoided
1. Unhealthy criticism
2. Unfavourable comparison
3. Overdomination on childs personality
4. All of the above ()
4. Surgery done to remove lesions that are likely to develop into cancer is known as
1. Diagnostic
2. Palliative
3. Prophylactic ()
4. Reconstructive
5. Which of the following is most likely to occur if a person is very angry?
1. A drop in temperature and pulse
2. A drop in pulse and blood pressure
3. A rise in pulse and blood pressure ()
4. None of the above
6. The most common symptom of pulmonary embolism is:
1. Fever
2. Chest pain
3. Hemoptysis ()
4. Dyspnea
7. The brunt of illness in Schizophrenia, is on
1. Cognition ()
2. Affect
3. Conation
4. Consciousness

8. Which of the following is the best answer to the questions are emotions innate or learn?
1. Learning is important in modifying emotions, but some forms appear to be innate
2. Emotions are entirely innate and develop through maturation
3. Emotions are entirely gained by experience
4. Emotions are not learnt but are probably innate, their expression is learnt by experience.
()
9. Choose the culture that does not consider eye contact impolite when speaking with another.
1. Americans ()
2. Indo - Chinese
3. Asians
4. Native Americans
10. A patient has certain rights concerning data collection, such as the right to know:
1. That selected information will be held confidential
2. Why information is sought
3. How information will be used
4. All of the above ()
11. Tetrahydrocannabinol is a psychomimetic compound, found in
1. Pethidine
2. Marihuana ()
3. LSD
4. Heroin
12. Which of the following is the best definition of psychology?
1. The study and understanding of normal mental functions and behavior ()
2. The study and understanding of abnormal mental functions and behavior
3. Mental processes and physiological studies
4. The science of the physiological studies of the central nervous system
13.What is true about neurotic depression?
1. Best treatment is ECT
2. Usually is bipolar
3. There is no insight
4. Usually associated with anxiety ()
14. The shift in health care delivery from acute care to community based care is primarily the
result of:
1. Tighter insurance regulations
2. Alternate health care delivery systems
3. Changes in federal legislation
4. The interfacing of all three conditions ()
15. Acquired a plastic anemia usually manifests with all except?
1. Purpura
2. Oral ulcers
3. Hepatosplenomegaly ()

4. Fatigue
16. All of the following are features of attention deficit disorder, except
1. Hyper activity
2. Poor attention span
3. Impulsivity
4. Highself-esteem
17.All of the following drugs have antidepressant effect, except:
1. Trifluoperazine
2. Levomepromazine ()
3. MAO inhibitors
4. Amitriptyline
18. The most worrisome adverse effect of epidural opioids is
1. Asytole
2. Bradypnea ()
3. Hypertension
4. Tachycardia
19.Areas where two or more sutures meet are
1. Sutures
2. Fontanelles
3. Vaul ()
4. Segregated
20. An institution is an organised system of social relationships which embodies certain
common values and procedures and meets certain basic needs of the society. This definition
of institution has been given by:
1. H. P. Fairchild
2. P. B. Harton
3. O. L. Sille ()
4. None of the above
21. An analysis of Suzannes diet shows that it does not contain adequate protein. Her daily
protein intake, for a body weight of 13416, should be about
1. 50 g
2. 60 g. ()
3. 40 g.
4. 30 g.
22. The lower border of the symphysis pubis, the lower border of the
sacrum ischial spines and sacro spines ligament are the landmarks of
1. Brim
2. Cavity ()
3. Outlet
4. Inlet
23. In marasmus, there is
1. Protein malnutrition

2. Caloriemalnutrition
3. Both (A) and (B) ()
4. None of these
24. Regression can be most accurately described as:
1. Banishment of unacceptable wishes or ideas from conscious awareness
2. Turning of interests inwards to total pre occupation with self
3. Unconscious efforts to erase a previous painful experience
4. Resumption of behavior typical of an earlier level of development ()
25. How levels of vitamin E in premature baby is associated with
1. Haemolytic anaemia
2. Intraventricular haemorrhage
3. Hyperbnirubinemia
4. All of the above ()
26. Abreaction is
1. Release of emotion, when buried material is brought to surface X is described ()
2. Reaction to sudden life stress, as a survival instinct
3. Same as free association
4. Also called catharsis
27. Anticoagulation with heparin attempts to maintain the partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
at _______ times normal
1. 1.5 to 2.0 ()
2. 1.0 to 1.3
3. 2.0 to 2.5
4. 2.0 to 3.0
28. Which of the following is the best way of handling a conversation in which the client
suddenly becomes silent having been talking happily for five minutes?
1. Terminate the conversation
2. Sit quietly focusing attention on the client ()
3. Explain that if she does not talk it is difficult to help her
4. Ask her why she is not talking
29. Fetal circulation functions fully by
1. 12th week ()
2. 28th week
3. 8th week
4. 6th week
30. Which of the following is not an essential feature of family?
1. A permanent association
2. Oldest association
3. Vocational association ()
4. Cultural association
31. Iron is better absorbed in
1. Ferrous form ()

2. Ferric form
3. No change
4. None of these
32. Which of the following statements about nationality is not correct?
1. Nationality is a spiritual sentiment
2. Nationality is a population held together by certainties as for example, language and
literature, ideas, customs and traditions
3. Nationality is a form of corporate sentiment of peculiar intensity, intimacy and dignity
related to a definite home country
4. Nationality is a body of persons ruled by a definite government ()
33. Differential diagnosis of bed-wetting in childhood includes all, except:
1. Obstructive uropathy
2. Epilepsy
3. Diabetes mellitus
4. Infantile Austism ()
34. While distinguishing class from ,caste one of the sociologists has said, When a class is
some what strictly hereditary we may call it a caste. He is
1. Ogburn
2. Nimkof
3. Cooley ()
4. Macluer
35. To supplement a diet with foods high in potassium, the nurse should recommend the
addition of
1. Milk and yogurt
2. Nuts and legumes
3. Green leafy vegetables
4. Fruits such as bananas and apricots ()
36. During assessment the nurse notes symptoms positively correlated with ARDS that
include:
1. Contraction of the, accessory muscles of respiration.
2. Dysrhythmias and hypotension
3. Tachypnea and tachycardia
4. All of the above ()
37. Which is a nacissistic defense mechanism?
1. Denial ()
2. Sublimation
3. Altrusim
4. Regression
38. Copper containing enzymes include all except.
1. Ferroxidase
2. Superoxide dismutase
3. Cytochrome oxidase
4. Carbonic anhydrase ()

39. Which of the following metabolite can help in selection of correct antidepressant
medication
1. Dopamine
2. VMA
3. 5-HT
4. MHPG ()
ANSWER:
1C
2D
3D
4A
5C
6A
7C
8D
9C
10 D
11 D
12 D
13 A
14 B
15 A
16 D
17 B
18 D
19 A
20 A
21 A
22 A
23 C
24 A
25 C
26 B
27 D
28 A
29 C
30 D
31 C
32 C
33 B
34 D
35 D
36 C
37 D
38 B

39
40
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50

A
D
B
B
A
B
A
B
B
B
D
D

1.Which of the following blood tests is most indicative of cardiac damage?

a. Lactate dehydrogenase
b. Complete blood count
c. Troponin I
d. Creatine kinase
2. How many pairs of chromosomes in man?
a.34
b.40
c.18
d.23
3. Which of the following nutrients helps for tissue repair?
(a)Vitamin
(b) Fat
(c) Carbohydrate
(d) Protein
4. Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy is:
a.. Eclampsia
b.tachycardia
c.bradycardia
d.none of this
5. Which of the followng conditions is most commonly responsible for myocardial
infarction?
a. Aneurysm
b. Heart failure
c. Coronary artery thrombosis
d. Renal failure
6. To maintain adequate cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), which of the following
is true;

a) ICP less than 15 mm of Hg, MAP above 50 mm of Hg /

b) ICP more than 15 mm of Hg, MAP below 50 mm of Hg
c) ICP lmore than 25 mm of Hg, MAP below 70 mm of Hg
d) ICP lmore than 30 mm of Hg, MAP below 40 mm of Hg
7.Most important person in a hospital is
a.doctor
b. nurse
c.patient
d. MD
8. Which of the following symptoms should be watched for in a patient receiving
a loop diuretic?
(a)Restlessness and agitation
(b) Paresthesias.
(c)Increased blood pressure
(d)Weak irregular pulse.
9.. What supplemental medication is most frequently ordered in conjuction with
furosemide (Lasix)?
a. Chloride
b. Digoxin
c. Potassium
d. Sodium
10. Which of the following is the best method to confirm placement of the
nasogastric tube:
(a) Checking patients ability to talk
(b) Aspiration of intestinal content
(c) Introducing air and auscultating
(d) X-ray of chest and abdomen
11. Which of the following diagnostic tools is most commonly used to determine
the location of myocardial damage?
a. Cardiac catheterization
b. Cardiac enzymes
c. Echocardiogram
d. Electrocardiogram
12. If a person is having an acute rejection of a transplanted organ, which of the
following drugs would most likely to be used?
(a)Tacrolimus
(b) Cyclosporine
(c) Cellcept
(d) Daclizumab.
13. Which of the following parameters should be checked before administering

digoxin?
a. Apical pulse
b. Blood pressure
c. Radial pulse
d. Respiratory rate
14. Which of the following minerals should be taken by a child suffering from
rickets?
(a)Potassium
(b) Calcium
(c) Sodium
(d) Iron
15. What is the most common symptom in a client with abdominal aortic
aneurysm?
a. Abdominal pain
b. Diaphoresis
c. Headache
d. Upper back pain
16Which of the following is malignant tumor?
a) Glicoma
b) Neurofibroma
c) Thyroid tumor
d) Kaposi's sarcoma
17. What is the definitive test used to diagnose an abdominal aortic aneurysm?
a. Abdominal X-ray
b. Arteriogram
c. CT scan
d. Ultrasound
18. Which of the following drugs will be administered to treat anaphylaxis?
(a) Atropine
(b) Sodium bicarbonate
(c) Digoxin
(d) Epinephrine
19. Which of the following heart muscle diseases is unrelated to other
cardiovascular disease?
a. Cardiomyopathy
b. Coronary artery disease
c. Myocardial infarction
d Pericardial Effusion
20 A client receiving recieving rifampicin should be taught that the effect of the
drug could cause;

a) Reddish orange color of urine, saliva and sputum /

b) Eighth cranial nerve damage
c) Brain
d) vestibular dysfunction
21.What is the term used to describe an enlargement of the heart muscle?
a. Cardiomegaly
b. Cardiomyopathy
c. Myocarditis
d. Pericarditis
22. Which of the following is a vesicant drug?
(a)Dactinomycin
(b) Morphine
(c) Azithrocin
(d) Voveran
23. Which of the following body parts has a condyloid joint?
(a) Shoulder
(b) Elbow
(c) Wrist
(d) Forearm
24.Most digestive activity occurs in the pyloric region of the stomach. What
hormone stimulates the chief cells to produce pepsinogen?
a. Gastrin
b. Pepsin
c. HCl
d. Insulin
25. What pancreatic enzyme aids in the digestion of carbohydrates?
a. Lipase
b. Trypsin
c. Amylase
d. Chymotrypsin
26. Which of the following drugs provide relief of anxiety and decreases both
preload and after load?
(a) Amrinone (
b) Morphine sulphate (
c) Furosemide
(d)Dobutamine
27. Which of the following is the most common pathologic finding in individuals
at risk for sudden cardiac death?
(a)Aortic valve disease
(b) Mitral valve disease

(c) Left ventricular dysfunction

(d) Atherosclerotic heart disease
28. Which of the following conditions is caused by elevated intra ocular pressure?
(a)Glaucoma
(b) Cataract
(c) Strabismus
(d) Myopia.
29. Which of the following is an earliest manifestation of inadequate
oxygenation?
(a) Diaphoresis
(b) Cyanosis
(c) Restlessness
(d) Hypotension
30. Which of the following surgical procedures involves removal of a body organ?
(a) Tracheostomy
(b) Laparotomy
(c) Mammoplasty
(d) Mastectomy.
31. Which of the following is important when restraining a violent client?
A. Have three staff members present, one for each side of the body and one for
the head.
B. Always tie restraints to side rails.
C. Have an organized, efficient team approach after the decision is made to
restrain the client.
D. Secure restraints to the gurney with knots to prevent escape.
32. Which of the following should be watched for in a patient who has just
undergone a total thyroidectomy?
(a)Weight gain
(b) Depressed reflexes
(c) Positive chvostek sign
(d) Personality changes.
33. Potential postintracranial surgery problems include all but which of the
following?
a. increased ICP
b. extracranial hemorrhage
c. seizures
d. leakage of cerebrospinal fluid
34. Which of the following symptoms should be watched for in a patient receiving
a loop diuretic?
(a)Restlessness and agitation

(b) Paresthesias.
(c)Increased blood pressure
(d)Weak irregular pulse.
35. If breath sounds are only heard on the right side after intubation:
a. Extubate, ventilate for 30 seconds then try again.
b. The patient probably only has one lung, the right.
c. You have intubated the stomach.
d. Pull the tube back and listen again.
36. The most common lethal arrhythmia in the first hour of an MI is:
a. Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia
b. Asystole
c. Ventricular fibrillation
d. First degree heart block.
37. If a person is having an acute rejection of a transplanted organ, which of the
following drugs would most likely to be used?
(a)Tacrolimus
(b) Cyclosporine
(c) Cellcept
(d) Daclizumab.
38. Which of the following is true about verapamil?
a. It is used for wide-complex tachycardia.
b. It may cause a drop in blood pressure.
c. It is a first line drug for Pulseless Electrical Activity.
d. It is useful for treatment of severe hypotension.
39. Which of the following is a vesicant drug?
(a)Dactinomycin
(b) Morphine
(c) Azithrocin
(d) Voveran
40. During the feto-placental circulation, the shunt between two atria is called
a. Ductus venosous
b. Foramen Magnum
c. Ductus arteriosus
d. Foramen Ovale
41. Failure of the Foramen Ovale to close will cause what Congenital Heart
Disease?
a. Total anomalous Pulmunary Artery
b. Atrial Septal defect
c. Transposition of great arteries
d. Pulmunary Stenosis

42. A common problem in children is the inflammation of the middle ear. This is
related to the malfunctioning of the:
a. Tympanic membrane
b. Eustachian tube
c. Adenoid
d. Nasopharynx
43. The first manifestation of inflammation is
A. Redness on the affected area
B. Swelling of the affected area
C. Pain, which causes guarding of the area
D. Increase heat due to transient vasodilation
44. The majority of the digestion processes take place in the
A. Mouth
B. Small intestine
C. Large intestine
D. Stomach
45. Beri beri is caused by the deficiency of which Vitamin?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin C
46. Which of the following is the best source of Vitamin E?
A. Green leafy vegetables
B. Vegetable oil
C. Fortified Milk
D. Fish liver oil
47. When does the heart receives blood from the coronary artery?
A. Systole
B. Diastole
C. When the valves opens
D. When the valves closes
48. Which of the following is more life threatening?
A. BP = 180/100
B. BP = 160/120
C. BP = 90/60
D. BP = 80/50
49 Intelligent quotient ( IQ)level of 20-34 indicates?
a) Mild mental retardation
b) Moderate mental retardation
c) Profound mental retardation
d) Severe mental retardation/
50. Difficult labour is called as
a) Dyspepsia

b) Dysparenia
c) Dyspnoea
d)Dystocia