MCET – NMAT FLT 1

Answers and Explanations

1 3 2 1 3 2 4 3 5 5 6 2 7 3 8 1 9 4 10 2
11 1 12 2 13 3 14 1 15 4 16 5 17 5 18 2 19 1 20 3
21 4 22 1 23 5 24 2 25 3 26 5 27 2 28 4 29 3 30 5
31 5 32 4 33 2 34 5 35 4 36 2 37 2 38 5 39 2 40 4
41 4 42 1 43 4 44 2 45 4 46 3 47 2 48 1 49 4 50 5
51 5 52 2 53 1 54 3 55 4 56 2 57 5 58 1 59 5 60 3
61 2 62 4 63 3 64 5 65 2 66 1 67 2 68 1 69 5 70 4
71 5 72 1 73 5 74 5 75 4 76 3 77 3 78 4 79 1 80 2
81 3 82 4 83 1 84 2 85 5 86 4 87 3 88 2 89 1 90 2
91 2 92 1 93 3 94 4 95 5 96 5 97 2 98 3 99 1 100 4
101 1 102 5 103 2 104 3 105 4 106 2 107 4 108 1 109 3 110 2
111 2 112 3 113 1 114 2 115 5 116 1 117 2 118 1 119 4 120 3

MY PERFORMANCE

Total Time Taken Total Correct Incorrect Net

Questions (Min) Attempts Attempts Attempts Score

Reading Comprehension
Sec I 32
and English Usage
Quantitative Ability and
Sec II 48
Data Interpretation
Intelligence and
Sec III 40
Logical Reasoning
TOTAL 120 120

Check detailed analysis of this test at

http://www.careerlauncher.com/sis
FLT-1009/10
MCET / NMAT FLT – 1 Page 1
1. 3 ‘Regard’ and ‘esteem’ are synonyms which mean to
respect and admire someone. ‘Ambivalence’ means
‘uncertain’. Since they are also synonyms, so (3) is
the answer.
2. 1 As ‘wobble’ is a way of walking, similarly ‘giggle’ is a
manner of laughing.
3. 2 ‘Oncology’ is the study of cancer and ‘neurology’ is
the study of nerves.
4. 3 ‘Amnesia’ affects memory and ‘conjunctivitis’ is a
disease affecting eye.
5. 5 ‘Pod’ is a collective noun used for ‘assassins’ and
‘paradise’ is the collective noun used for elephants.
6. 2 B is the opening statement and introduces the subject,
A furthers the topic. AD form a mandatory pair, C is the
conclusion, the clue lies in the word ‘consequently’.
7. 3 B mentions the subject of the paragraph with D
extending the idea. BD forms a mandatory pair A
discusses the work further and C concludes it.
8. 1 D is the opener because it mentions the railway train
which is being talked about in the sentences. C takes
the subject further by describing what is special about
the train. A brings in the chronology and B is the
conclusion.
9. 4 B is the opener, D takes it forward, DA forms a
mandatory pair and C describes it further.
10. 2 B is the obvious opener, since it gives the full name.
A begins with a common noun linking it with B. D takes
it further and C forms the conclusion.
11. 1 A flight attendant’s service.
12. 2 That was a ‘point’ of time.
13. 3 Turmoil ‘within’ me is the right usage.
14. 1 The issues were ‘intense’.
15. 4 ‘Psychology’ fits into the understanding process of
the author.
16. 5 This is a pronoun agreement question. The subject of
the sentence is tapirs; therefore, the pronoun that
refers to the subject must be plural. The answer,
therefore, must be (4) or (5). Choice d contains a new
pronoun agreement error, because they is plural and
volatile creature is singular. Choice (3) has no
pronoun at all. The best answer is (5).
17. 5 A singular noun ‘the bio-tech start-up’ needs a singular
pronoun. That eliminates choice (1), (2), and (3). To
Page 2
choose between (4) and (5), look for a new error.
Choice (4) uses both words previously and in the
past, creating a redundancy error. The best answer
is (5).
18. 2 The phrase not only must also be followed by but
also in order to complete the sentence properly. The
answer must therefore be either (2) or (3). Choice (3)
lacks parallel structure in the words anticipate or
proceeding. When correctly structured, this
sentence should read business leaders not only
anticipate…but also proceed… This makes (2)
the correct answer choice.
19. 1 When it comes to money, you use less if you are
referring to the total amount. This would get you down
to choices (1) and (5). Acceptances, however, can
be counted, so in the second half of the underlined
portion of the underlined sentence, you would use
fewer (5) uses as few incorrectly. The best answer
is (1).
20. 3 Look at the parallel structures. The second half of the
sentence contains three actions: breaking,
stretching, and…received. It should be receiving.
The answer is (3).
21. 4 Refer to 4th para, 1st line. Although the other options
are true but they do not answer the question as they
are fundamentally important than the basic nature of
organizations ass.
22. 1 Refer to para 3, first line. Choice (1) is the answer;
other options cannot be correctly derived from the
passage.
23. 5 Choice (5) forms the best answer because the
passage is talking about the role of a manager in
bringing about a change.
24. 2 The passage describes how a manager brings about
changes in an organisation leading to the success of
the organisation.
25. 3 Refer to para 2, seventh line.
26. 5 Refer to the lines “these functions ... as the key to
them” in the 3rd para.
27. 2 Refer to 4th para, 3rd and 4th line, all except fundamentals
are mentioned.
28. 4 Refer to 4th paragraph, 6th line.
29. 3 It is clearly mentioned in the first line of the fourth
paragraph. There was no pressure from internal
forces so (2) and (4) are incorrect.
MCET / NMAT FLT – 1
30. 5 Refer to the last line of the second last paragraph, it 36. 2 Let x km be the whole distance. Then, average speed
says that it may take 5 to 10 years to stebilize the of Gopal for the whole journey
situation. So it cannot be said that the situation cannot
be improved. Refer to the second line of the x 4 × 60
= = = 30 km/hr
8th paragraph. “The country’s new officials and army x x x 4+2+2
4 4 2
chief ... fight then”. It clearly states that Afghanistan’s  + + 
leaders are willing to fight. There is no mention of the 15 30 60
US military chief’s willingness to fight. So both (2) and
(3) are not mentioned making (5) the correct answer
option. 5
37. 2 In I alloy: A = 48 × = 30 kg and B = 18 kg
8
31. 5 It cannot be inferred from the passage that curbing
the fighting in Southern Afghanistan is more important 4
In II alloy: A = 54 × = 24 kg and B = 30 kg
than curbing the fighting in other parts of the nation. 9
All other options can be inferred from the passage.
30 + 24 54 9
Ratio of A and B in III alloy = = = i.e. 9 : 8
32. 4 The author is disappointed with what US has done, 18 + 30 48 8
but he is not frustrated, nor is he despaired. The first
two lines of the passage mention the author’s 38. 5 Total score of the student in five subjects
disappointment and it is validated through out the
passage. 500
= 65% of (5 × 100) = 65 × = 325
100
65
33. 2 In 120 L solution, alcohol = 120 × = 78 L and Let 3x, 4x, 5x, 6x and 7x be the marks scored in
100
5 subjects, then
water = 120 – 78 = 42 L 3x + 4x + 5x + 6x + 7x = 325
Let x L of water be added. Then,
⇒ 25x = 325 ⇒ x = 13
78 30 78 3 Therefore, marks scored by the student in 5 subjects
= ⇒ =
42 + x 70 42 + x 7 are 39, 52, 65, 78 and 91.
Hence, his second highest marks = 78.
⇒ 126 + 3x = 546 ⇒ x = 140 L
39. 2 Let 100 be the number of oranges, then
34. 5 Since first and second variety of rice are mixed in He sells 70% oranges i.e. 70 oranges, therefore
equal proportions, therefore their average price. remaining oranges = 100 – 70 = 30
He gives 60% of 30 i.e. 18 oranges to another fruit
= Rs. 30 + 35 = Rs. 32.50 seller, therefore remaining oranges = 30 – 18 = 12
2
He gives 50% of 12 i.e. 6 oranges to his children,
Therefore, the mixture is formed by mixing two varieties therefore remaining oranges = 12 – 6 = 6
in the ratio (2 + 2) : 3 i.e. 4 : 3. Hence, he gives 6 oranges i.e. 6% of his oranges to
Let price of third variety of rice be Rs. x per kg. baggers.
Then, applying Alligation:
3 2 .5 0 x 40. 4 Let x be the total number of employees in the
organization,
Number of female workers = 0.8 × 0.15x = 0.12x
40 Number of female officers = 0.2 × 0.3x = 0.06x
Therefore, 0.18x = 72 ⇒ x = 400
x – 40 7.5 0 Hence, number of male officers = 400 × 0.2 × 0.7 = 56

x − 40 4 41. 4 Interest earned from Salim – Interest paid back to bank

∴ = ⇒ 3x – 120 = 30 ⇒ x = Rs.50 per kg.
7.50 3 = Rs.688

 12 
2 
35. 4 Let x km/hr be the speed of the stream. Then, 20000 ×  1 +  − 1 – 20000 × R × 2 = 688
 100   100
(5.25 − x ) × 6 = (5.25 + x ) × 4
⇒ 15.75 – 3x = 10.50 + 2x ⇒ 20000 x 0.2544 – 400R = 688
⇒ x = 1.05 km/hr ⇒ 5088 – 688 = 400R
4400
⇒R = = 11%
400

MCET / NMAT FLT – 1 Page 3

42. 1 Let he invested Rs. x in bank A and Rs. (25,000 – x) in
1
bank B, then EC = 8 × = 2 cm
Interest earned by him from bank A as simple interest 4

x×8×2 1
= Rs. = Rs. 0.16 x Area of triangle ECB = × 8 × 2 = 8 cm 2
100 2
Interest earned by him from bank B as compound Area of triangle DEB = Area of triangle DCB – Area of
triangle ECB
 10 
2 
interest = Rs. (25000 − x )  1 +  − 1 =
64
− 8 = 24 cm
2
 100   2

= 25000 × 0.21 − 0.21x Area of ∆DEB 24 3

∴ = = i.e. 3 : 8.
∴ Rs. 0.16x + Rs. (25,000 × 0.21 – 0.21x) Area of sq. ABCD 64 8
= Rs. 4,750
⇒ 0.05x = 5250 – 4750
46. 3
⇒ 0.05x = 500 A
⇒ x = Rs.10,000
Hence, he was invested Rs. 10,000 in bank A.

43. 4 Let the cost of the hen be Rs.x , then cost of goat will D
be Rs.(5,500 – x).
15 % of (5500 – x) – 40 % of x = 7 % of 5500 E

15 40 5500
⇒ (5500 − x ) × − x× = 7×
100 100 100 B C
1 6 cm
⇒ 825 - 0.15x – 0.40x = 385
⇒ 0.55x = 825 – 385 = 440 AB = AC = BC = 16 cm
⇒ x = Rs.800 (Since ABC is an equilateral triangle)
Since CD is perpendicular to AB.
Hence, the cost of the hen is Rs.800.
Therefore, D will be mid-point of AB.
BD = 8 cm
44. 2 Let the cost price of the T.V. set be Rs. 100 and mark
In triangle BDC,
price be Rs. x.
When the shopkeeper sells at a discount of 40%, then CD = 162 − 82 = 8 3 cm
x – 40% of x = 100 – 16% of 100
⇒ x – 0.4x = 100 - 16 If E is the mid point of CD, then DE = 4 3 cm
⇒ 0.6x = 84 In triangle DEB,
⇒ x = Rs.140
( )
2
When the shopkeeper sells at a discount of 25%, then BE = 82 + 4 3 = 4 7 cm
Selling price = Rs.140 – Rs.25% of 140
= Rs.140 – Rs.35 = Rs.105 47. 2 Radius of sphere = 6 cm
Since cost price of the T.V. set = Rs.100 Let the height and radius of the cone be 4x and x.
Therefore, profit percentage = 5%
Then,

A 8 cm B 4 1
45. 4 π × 63 = π × x 2 × 4 x
3 3
[Volume of sphere = Volume of cone]
8 cm ⇒ x 3 = 63 ⇒ x = 6
Height of cone = 4 × 6 = 24 cm and radius = 6 cm.

48. 1 Let R be the radius of the circular park, then

D 6 cm E 2 cm C 22
2× × R = 132
2 7
Area of the square ABCD = 64 cm
Side of the square ABCD = 8 cm ⇒ R = 21 m
DE : EC = 3 : 1

Page 4 MCET / NMAT FLT – 1

 Area of path =
22
7 (
212 − 172 =)22
7
× 38 × 4 cm2 54. 3 On 1st day the part of work completed =
1
+
1
=
10 20 20
3

22 1 1 1
The cost of leveling the path = Rs. × 38 × 4 × 14 On 2nd day the part of work completed = + =
7 20 30 12
= Rs. 6,688.
1 1 2
On 3rd day the part of work completed = + =
30 10 15
49. 4 Volume of cubical tank = 6 × 6 × 6 = 216 m3 In three days part of work completed
22
× (3 ) × 7 = 198 m3 3 1 2 11
2
Volume of cylindrical tank = = + + =
7 20 12 15 30
3000 22
Cost of filling cylindrical tank = Rs. × 198 In 6 days part of work completed =
216 30
= Rs. 2,750.
22 8
50. 5 From the divisibility rule of 4, the last two digits of a Remaining work = 1– =
number must be divisible by 4. Between 00 to 96, 30 30
th
25 numbers are there which are divisible by 4. Now, On 7 day, part of work remained
rest of the three digits can be placed in 9 × 10 × 10
8 3 16 9 7
ways.
2
= – = – =
Total number of ways = 25 × 9 × (10) 30 20 60 60 60
th
On 8 day, part of work remained
51. 5 Total number of ways of arranging the word
7 1 7 5 2 1 2 1
= – = – = = Q >
‘NECESSARY’ = 9! 60 12 60 60 60 30 15 30
= 30 × 42 × 72 = 90720
2! × 2! ∴ The work will be completed on 9th day by C and A.
Total number of ways of re-arranging the word
= 90720 – 1 = 90719 55. 4 Let us assume that the work can be completed in
n days. Thus,
52. 2 Number of people who work
6 n–8 n n–8 n 1
= 0.37 × 0.76 + 0.63 × 0.54 = 0.6214 + + =1 ⇒ + =
12 36 54 36 54 2
0.6214 ≡ 124280
1 ≡ 2,00,000 3n – 24 + 2n 1
⇒ =
Hence, the total population of the town was 2,00,000. 108 2
⇒ 5n = 54 + 24 = 78
53. 1 Y Z 3 days
⇒ n = 15
Ratio of working capacity : 1 : 2 5
Ratio between the number of
2 : 1 56. 2 Let the number of candies with Abhi, John and Priyanka
days taken :
be A, J and P respectively.
Let us assume that the time taken by Y and Z alone to Total number of candies taken away from them
complete the work be 2x days and x days = 10 + 15 + 20 = 45
respectively. Thus, time taken by X to complete the Remaining number of candies = 220 – 45 = 175
work alone = (x + 1) days These candies are in the ratio of 7:11:17.
Number of candies with John and Priyanka put
1 1 1 3 3 1 3
+ + = ⇒ + =
x x + 1 2x 4 2x x + 1 4 together =
28
× 175 = 140
⇒ 3x – 7x – 6 = 0
2 35
⇒ (3x + 2)(x – 3) = 0 Total number of candies with John and Priyanka put
⇒x=3 together initially = 140 + 35 = 175
{Because x cannot be (-)ve}
Hence, X alone can complete the work in 3 + 1 57. 5 Number of people under 30 years of age cannot be
= 4 days determined because the data given is of respondents
whose age is above 15 years but no information is
given regarding the people between the age group of
above 5 to 15 years.

MCET / NMAT FLT – 1 Page 5

58. 1 Total respondents in the age group above 20 till 65. 2 Average production of wheat in the given interval
30 = 66
65 + 55 + 55 + 60 + 70 + 75
Number of respondents whose favourite actor is
SK = 24 6

24 380
Required percentage value = × 100 = 36.36% = ≈ 63.33 million tonnes
66 6
Percentage of respondents whose favourite actor Average production of sugar cane in the given interval
is other than SK = 100% – 36.36% = 63.64%
45 + 60 + 50 + 55 + 75 + 65
59. 5 The answer to the question cannot be determined
because with the data of a certain number of people 6
we cannot conclude that who will cap the title. 350
= ≈ 58.33 million tonnes
6
60. 3 Total number of people surveyed
= 120 + 66 + 66 + 155 = 407 Difference = 63.33 – 58.33 = 5 million tonnes or 5000
Total number of respondents in the age group above thousand tonnes
20 till 30 = 66
66. 1 Growth in production of rice in year 2006-07
66
Required percentage value = × 100 = 16.21% 80 − 65
407 = × 100 ≈ 23.1%
65
61. 2 Total number of respondents who like AB Production of rice in year 2007-08
= 12 + 8 + 53 = 73 = 80 × 1.231 = 98.48 million tonnes
Total number of respondents who like AK
= 14 + 10 + 10 = 34 67. 2 National pollution level in the year 2001
73 − 34  54 + 28 + 26 + 7 + 37 + 25 + 33 + 36 + 32 + 81 + 118 
Required percentage value = × 100 ≈ 114%
34  
+ 19 + 27 + 9 + 44
= 
15
62. 4 Percentage increase in production in year 2002-03
185 − 165 576
= × 100 = 12.12% = = 38.4µg / m3
165 15
Percentage increase in production in year 2005-06 National pollution level in the year 2007

210 − 165  18 + 7 + 26 + 23 + 9 + 39 + 18 + 7 + 11

= × 100 = 27.27%  
165 + 36 + 25 + 19 + 28 + 8 + 44
= 
Percentage increase in production in year 2006-07 15
220 − 210 318
= × 100 = 4.76% = = 21.2µg / m3
210 15
Hence, in year 2005-06 percentage increase in
production is maximum. 38.4 – 21.2
Percentage decrease = ×100 ; 45%
38.4
63. 3
68. 1 From the given table, the 3 cities are Singrauli, Ratlam
64. 5 Production of agricultural products in year 2002-03 and Bhadravati eveidently.
= 185 million tonnes
Production of Sugar cane is maximum in year 69. 5 From the given table it is clearly evident that it happen
2005-06. 33 times. (If any city moves from rural pollution level to
Production of agricultural products in year 2005-06 urban pollution level, then it is couriered as a transition.)
= 210 million tonnes
185
Percentage value = × 100 ≈ 88.09%
210

Page 6 MCET / NMAT FLT – 1

 73. 5 We have x = 2y + z and x ≤ 8, where x, y, z are natural
numbers.
City 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007
Statement I:
Singrauli 54 57 59 64 53 30 18
Kala Amb 28 37 37 19 19 12 7 x z y
Parwanoo 26 14 11 20 26 40 26 8 4 2
Mandi 8 6 1
7 4 10 41 24 41 23
Godindgarh 7 5 1
Vapi 37 35 31 37 23 13 9 7 3 2
Ankleshwar 25 19 25 26 35 41 39 6 4 1
Chembur 33 40 66 25 21 13 18 5 3 1
Tarapur 36 21 29 11 12 9 7
There is no unique value of y. Therefore from statement
Pali 32 32 31 23 24 20 11
I alone we cannot answer the question.
Rantlam 81 55 26 30 46 36 36
Statement II:
Jodhpur 118 114 93 52 17 19 25
Korba 19 27 18 18 19 20 19 x z y
Najafgarh 27 17 18 37 22 28 28 8 2 3
Manali 9 32 19 18 25 16 8 7 1 3
Bhadravati 44 27 36 47 39 33 44 7 3 2
6 2 2
5 3 1
70. 4 From the given condition we can conclude that:
Total number of factories + Total number of vehicles There is no unique value of y. Therefore from statement
= Total pollution II alone we cannot answer the question.
Let the total number of factories and total number of From both statements I and II, at x = 7 and z = 3 we get
vehicles be x and y respectively. y = 2. Also at x = 5 and z = 3 we get y = 1.
0.95x + 0.55y = 30 Hence, using both statements together we cannot
⇒ 95x + 55y = 3000 ⇒ 19x + 11y = 600 find the unique value of y.
(600 – 19x )
⇒ y= 74. 5 From statement I: B < A < E
11
The possible solution to the equation is: C+B+D B+D
From statement II: C = ⇒C=
(9, 39), (20, 20) and (31, 1). 3 2
But according to the given condition number of Combining both statements: We cannot find who is
vehicles is greater than the number of factories which tallest.
is possible in only one case i.e. (9, 39) Hence, using both statements together we cannot
Hence, total number of vehicles and factories will be find the answer.
9 + 39 = 48
75. 4 Let k be the divisor. Then, N = kx + 22 ...(i)
71. 5 As the average pollution is maximum in the year 2001, Statement I: 2N = ky + 13 ...(ii)
hence, the maximum number of vehicles must be in From (i) and (ii), we get 2kx + 44 = ky + 13
that year.
⇒ k(y – 2x) = 31
By hit and trial, taking x = 1 and y = 3, we get k = 31
72. 1 Statement I: Let the present age of Hariram = x years,
From statement I alone we can answer the question.
then his wife’s age = 0.85x years
Statement II: 3N = kz + 37 ...(iii)
Therefore, ratio of their present ages = x : 0.85x
From (i) and (iii), we get 3kx + 66 = kz + 37
= 20 : 17.
From statement I alone we can answer the question. ⇒ k(z – 3x) = 29
Statement II: Present ratio of their ages = 10y + 5 : 9y By hit and trial, taking x = 1 and z = 4, we get k = 29
+ 5. Since y is unknown, therefore From statement II alone we can answer the question.
we cannot find the present ratio. Hence, by using any one of the statement we can
From statement II alone we cannot answer the question. answer the question.

MCET / NMAT FLT – 1 Page 7

76. 3 Statement I: Profit = 20% of selling price. Therefore,
83. 1
cost price = 80% of selling price
Statement II: Cost price = 120% of 80% of selling price C
= 96% of selling price D H D = D a niel
Combining both statements I and II, we get C = C ricketer
New profit = 20% of selling price – Rs.60 H = H o ckey P laye r
Selling price – cost price = 20% of selling price
– Rs.60 Hence, option (1) can be concluded.
Selling price – 96% of selling price = 20% of selling
price – Rs.60
Selling price = 116% of selling price – Rs.60 84. 2

100
= Rs. 60 × = Rs.375 B C = C ricket P la yers
16 C S S = S ing ers
Hence, using both statements together we can answer B = B o ys
the question.

77. 3 The pattern follows as Hence, option (2) can be concluded from this diagram.

13 , 13 + 23 , 13 + 23 + 33 , 13 + 23 + 33 + 43 and so on.
85. 5
Therefore, 442 is wrong term. It should be
E C = C ro w
13 + 23 + 33 + 43 + 53 + 63 = 441 . C B B = Bird
E = Ea ts
78. 4 The pattern follows as

32 , 52 , 72 , 82 , 112 , 132 and 172 i.e. squares of prime Thus, option (5) can be concluded.
numbers except 64, which is
square of 9, that is not a prime number. 86. 4 The opening line of the passage talks about the notion
Hence, 64 is the wrong term. about great writers. Now the entire passage talks of
reasons as to why a writer cannot become great by
79. 1 The pattern follows as: staying in the academic circles. The passage says
2nd term = (1st term + 1) × 1 that a writer is not exposed to the everyday happenings
3rd term = (2nd term + 2) × 2 in one’s life in the academic circle and this hampers
4th term = (3rd term + 3) × 3 and so on. his greatness. Therefore, it is evident that the author
Hence, 186 is wrong term. It should be 196. believes that an intuitive grasp of the emotions of
everyday life is necessary to become great.
80. 2 Difference between the consecutive terms is 87. 3 The passage talks of the new practice among
decreasing by 5. organizations that aims at taking care of the employees’
Hence, 156 is wrong term. It should be 157. well being in terms of physical fitness, stress
management etc. The passage says that keeping this
in mind, the organizations have introduced programmes
81. 3 that help the employee to maintain good health and at
C P B = P la yb all the same time help the employer in terms of increased
K C = C ricketers productivity and less insurance coverage. To
PB
K = K rish strengthen this conclusion, option c is the best answer.
The purpose of the employer will only be met if regular
exercise keeps their employees healthy and provides
Hence, you can conclude that option (3) is correct. them with increased productivity.
88. 2 The main statement establishes a relation between
82. 4 the two different instances. It talks of people’s belief
that witnessing violence in movies discharges
L aggressive energy. The passage tries to draw a parallel
H D = D o nkey
D asking whether a similar feeling is experienced while
L = L io n
H = H a ir seeing someone else eat. The answer is obviously
no. A similar relation is established in option b. It says
that some people think that economists can control
Hence, you can conclude that option (4) is the correct inflation. A similar argument is made as to whether a
one i.e., donkeys have hair. meteorologist can make the sun shine. The answer

Page 8 MCET / NMAT FLT – 1

 again is obviously no. These are just specialists who 96. 5 97. 2 98. 3 99. 1 100. 4
can analyze and study their expert areas.
89. 1 The passage is about the effect of anti- sea sickness 101. 1 P&Q, P@R, S%R ⇒ P < Q, P ≥ R, S = R
medication on ferry passengers. The observation has ⇒ Q>P≥R =S
been that people who had taken anti-seasickness Conclusion I: Q # R ⇒ Q > R follows.
medication reported more problems relating to
Conclusion II: S % P ⇒ S = P may or may not follow.
seasickness than the ones who didn’t take it. The
conclusion is that the people are better off not taking Hence, only conclusion I follows.
the anti seasickness medication. Now, to weaken the
conclusion, we need an argument contrary to the 102. 5 Y@W, Z$W, X#Z ⇒ Y ≥ W, Z ≤ W and X > Z
stated conclusion. Option a is the best answer as it ⇒ Y ≥ W ≥ Z and X > Z
says that the condition of the people who took the
Conclusion I: Z&Y ⇒ Z < Y may or may not follow.
medication would definitely be worse without taking
it. This clearly implies that the medication is effective Conclusion II: X # W ⇒ X > W does not follow.
and it is better to take the medication in order to avoid Hence, neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.
seasickness to a large extent.
90. 2 The passage talks about manufacturing pencils from 103. 2 M # L, L & N, K%L ⇒ M > L, L < N, K = L
solid graphite and powdered graphite. It says that ⇒ M > L = K and L < N
France sponsored a research that developed methods Conclusion I: N%M ⇒ N = M does not follow.
of manufacture of pencils from powdered graphite at Conclusion II: K&N ⇒ K < N follows.
a time when it was at war with Britain. The existing Hence, only conclusion II follows.
methods of development that were known were with
solid graphite which was mined in Britain. Therefore,
it is evident from the given passage that French 104. 3 G#J, H$J, F&H ⇒ G > J, H ≤ J, F<H
government did not know of any other way of getting ⇒ G>J ≥H>F
solid graphite other than Britain at this point in time and Conclusion I: J#F ⇒ J > F follows.
therefore, it was forced to invent and develop means
Conclusion II: H&G ⇒ H < G follows.
of manufacture of pencil using alternate resources.
Hence, both conclusions follow.
91. 2 Only reducing the price of pulses will not help. People
do not starve only because they cannot afford pulses. 105. 4 T%D, U%C, D@U ⇒ T = D, U = C, D ≥ U
Its because they are too poor to buy basic ration in ⇒ T=D≥U=C
general. Only II is appropriate.
Conclusion I: T#U ⇒ T>U may or may not follow.
92. 1 Only I can help improve the situation. II does not help in
Conclusion II: D%C ⇒ D = C may or may not follow.
solving the problem. Even if the factory owners are
Hence, either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.
fined, it does not ensure that they will refrain from
exploiting workers in future. Only stringent laws can
106. 2 The coding follows as:
ensure the protection of workers’ rights.
C(3) + 2 → E(5)
93. 3 Both the courses of action are logical and helpful. O(15) - 2 → M(13)
M(13) + 2 → O(15)
94. 4 Neither I nor II addresses the problem. Abolishing
P(16) - 1 = → O(15)
income tax or looking for other sources is not the
U(21) + 2 → W(23)
solution to the problem.
T(20) - 2 → R(18)
95. 5 Either I or II follows because ‘not giving too much E(5) + 2 → G(7)
autonomy’ implies that the state government has only Similarly,
limited authority. D(4) + 2 → F(6)
For questions 96 to 100: The family tree is given below. I(9) - 2 → G(7)
A(1) + 2 → C(3)
(M ale) D E (Fe m a le ) M(13) - 1 → L(12)
O(15) + 2 → Q(17)
N(14) - 2 → L(12)
C /F G A F/C
(Fe m ale) (Fe m ale) D(4) + 2 → F(6)
(M ale) (M ale)
Hence, ‘DIAMOND’ is coded as ‘FGCLQLF.
B H
(Fe m ale) (Fe m ale)

MCET / NMAT FLT – 1 Page 9

107. 4 The coding follows as: P(16) × 2 → F(6)
S(19) + 5 → X(24) E(5) × 2 → J(10)
P(16) - 3 → M(13) R(18) × 2 → J(10)
O(15) + 5 → T(20) i.e. The respective position values of the letters are
R(18) - 3 → O(15) doubled.
T (20) + 5 → Y(25) Hence, code of ‘WRITINGS’ is ‘TJRNRBNL’.
Similarly,
L(12) + 5 → Q(17) 111. 2 The winner of the tournament will play 4 matches.
After the first round only 8 players are left, after the
A(1) - 3 → X(24)
second round only 4 players are left, after the third
U(21) + 5 → Z(26)
round, only 2 players are left and after the fourth
G(7) - 3 = → D(4) round only 1 player is left.
H(8) + 5 → M(13)
i.e. Each letter of ‘SPORT’ is written as 5 letters forward 112. 3 Total number of triangles in the given figure is
and 3 letters backward alternately and then reversing 5 + 5 = 10.
the order of letters.
Hence, ‘LAUGH’ is coded as ‘MDZXQ’. 113. 1 From the given figures we can conclude that none of
the numbers except 2, 3, 4 and 5 are opposite to 1.
108. 1 The coding follows as: Thus, number 1 is opposite to number 6.
First we reverse the order of the letters of the word
‘PROBLEM’, then it becomes MELBORP. Now we write 114. 2 Resultant of row-I = 54 ÷ 27 = 2, 2 × 17 = 34
2
each letter two letters backward except middle letter Resultant of row-II = 17 + (21) = 458, 458 + 36 = 494
(we write it two letters forward), then it becomes Resultant of two rows = 34 × 494 = 16796
KCJDMPN. Now we reverse the order of first three
letters, then last three letters. It becomes JCKDNPM. 115. 5 Resultant of row-I = 12 + 24 = 36, 36 × 47 = 1692
Similarly, TEACHER → REHCAET → PCFEYCR Resultant of row-II = 84 ÷ 21 = 4, 4 × 5 = 20
→ FCPERCY. Resultant of the two rows = 1692 + 20 = 1712
Hence, ‘TEACHER’ is coded as ‘FCPERCY’.
116. 1 Resultant of row-I = 49 + (13)2 = 49 + 169 = 218, 218 ×
109. 3 The coding follows as: 3 = 654
2
L(12) + 6 → R(18) Resultant of row-II = 83 – 20 = 63, 63 + (5) = 88
A(1) + 5 → F(6) Resultant of two rows = 654 – 88 = 566
W(23) + 4 → A(1)
117. 2 Resultant of row-I = 12 × 13 = 156, 156 + 16 = 172
Y(25) + 3 → B(2)
Resultant of row-II = 90 ÷ 15 = 6, 6 × 5 = 30
E(5) + 2 → G(7) Resultant of two rows = 172 ÷ 30 ⇒ Remainder = 22
R(18) + 1 → S(19)
Now, we interchange the letters as: For questions 118 to 120:
1 ↔ 4, 2 ↔ 5 and 3 ↔ 6. It becomes BGSRFA. Using condition (i) and (vii), we can infer that F is neither a
Similarly, teacher nor a cricketer. Also, they are sitting equidistant
C(3) + 6 → I(9) from each other. Further, using all the conditions except
L(12) + 5 → Q(17) (i) we can conclude that D is a cricketer. Now, using
I(9) + 4 → M(13) the position of D we can place rest of the friends as
given in the diagram below.
E(5) + 3 → H(8)
N(14) + 2 → P(16)
D,
T(20) + 1 → U(21) C ricketer
Now, IQMHPU → HPUIQM C, E
Hence, CLIENT is coded as HPUIQM. A u th or Stud e nt,
B,
110. 2 The coding follows as: D o ctor F, IA S
N(14) × 2 → B(2)
A, G,
E(5) × 2 → J(10)
E ng in ee r P o liticia n
W(23) × 2 → T(20) H,
S(19) × 2 → L(12) Tea ch e r
P(16) × 2 → F(6)
118. 1 119. 4 120. 3
A(1) × 2 → B(2)

Page 10 MCET / NMAT FLT – 1