1 Which computer component is considered the nerve center of the computer system and is

responsible for processing all of the data within the machine ?

RAM

CPU

video card

sound card

operating system

Q.2 What are two advantages of purchasing a preassembled computer ? (Choose two.)

usually a lower cost

exact components may be specified

extended waiting period for assembly

adequate for performing most general applications

suited for customers with special needs

Q.3 A user plans to run multiple applications simultaneously on a computer. Which computer
component is essential to accomplish this ?

RAM

NIC

video card

sound card

storage device

Q.4 Which adapter card enables a computer system to exchange information with other
systems on a local network ?

modem card

controller card

video card

sound card

network interface card

Q.5 What is the main storage drive used by servers, desktops, and laptops ?

tape drive
 hard drive

optical drive (DVD)

floppy disk drive

Q.6 Which component is designed to remove high-voltage spikes and surges from a power line
so that they do not damage a computer system ?

CPU

surge suppressor

motherboard

hard drive

Q.7 What are two examples of output peripheral devices ? (Choose two.)

printer

speakers

flash drive

external DVD

external modem

Q.8 What two functions does a UPS provide that a surge protector does not ? (Choose two.)

protects the computer from voltage surges

provides backup power from an internal battery

protects the computer from sudden voltage spikes

gives the user time to phone the electrical company

gives the user time to safely shut down the computer if the power fails

provides backup power through a generator provided by the wall outlet

Q.9 What is a word processor ?

It is a physical computer component.

It is a program designed to perform a specific function.

It is a program that controls the computer resources.

It is a functional part of an operating system.

Q.10 What is the purpose of the ASCII code ?

translates bits into bytes

interprets graphics digitally

translates digital computer language into binary language

represents letters, characters, and numbers with bits

Q.11 Why do servers often contain duplicate or redundant parts ?

Servers require more power and thus require more components.

Servers should be accessible at all times.

Servers can be designed as standalone towers or rack mounted.

Servers are required by networking standards to have duplicate parts.

Q.12 What are two benefits of hooking up a laptop to a docking station ? (Choose two.)

Mobility is increased.

An external monitor can be used.

Alternate connectivity options may be available.

The keyboard can be changed to a QWERTY-style keyboard.

More wireless security options are available.

Q.13 Applications can be grouped into general use software or industry specific software. What
are two examples of industry specific software ? (Choose two.)

CAD

presentation

spreadsheet

word processing

medical practice management

contacts/scheduling management

Q.14 Which three terms describe different types of computers ? (Choose three.)

operating system

network

laptop
 desktop

Windows

mainframe

Q.15 How is a server different from a workstation computer ?

The server works as a standalone computer.

The server provides services to clients.

The workstation has fewer applications installed.

The workstation has more users who attach to it.

Q.16 How many values are possible using a single binary digit ?

16

Q.17 What measurement is commonly associated with computer processing speed ?

bits

pixels

hertz

bytes

Q.18 What can be used to prevent electrostatic discharge (ESD) ?

dry and non humid conditions

carpeted floor

grounding strap

uncluttered work space

Q.19 If a peripheral device is not functioning, what are three things you should do to solve the
problem ? (Choose three.)
 Use the testing functionality on the peripheral itself, if available.

Verify that all cables are connected properly.

Disconnect all cables connected to the computer except those connected to the peripheral.

Ensure that the peripheral is powered on.

Disconnect the peripheral and verify that the computer is operating normally.

Reload the computer operating system.

Q.20 Which two steps should be performed when installing a peripheral device ? (Choose two.)

Download and install the most current driver.

Connect the peripheral using any cable and any available port on the computer.

Connect the peripheral using an appropriate cable or wireless connection.

Test the peripheral on another machine before installing it on the one where it will be
used.

Check the computer documentation to see if the peripheral vendor is compatible with the
PC vendor.

Q.21 In newer operating systems, how are system resources assigned by default when
components are installed ?

manually assigned by the operating system

manually assigned by the administrator

statically assigned by the component to a preset resource

dynamically assigned between the component and the o

1 Which statement is true about installing an operating system on computers in a

networked environment?

The computer name must be unique for all computers on the same network.
The operating system must be the same on all computers on the same network.
The amount of installed RAM must be the same on all computers on the same network.
The operating system must have the latest patch applied during the installation or it will
not participate in the network.
2 What two items are available from the About Windows option through the Windows
Explorer Help menu? (Choose two.)

a list of troubleshooting links

the end-user license agreement
a list of installed hardware devices
the date of the last Windows update
the operating system version number
a list of terms with links to definitions

3 Which two items must be unique to each computer and cannot be duplicated on a
network? (Choose two.)

partition
file system
computer name
IP address
operating system

4 What occurs when computers are configured to receive their network configurations
dynamically?

Each computer receives a permanent IP address.

A network administrator enters information on each computer.
Each computer requests configuration information from a server.
An NIC automatically provides configuration information to the computer and stores that
configuration information.

5 Which Windows file system is more likely to be used in an enterprise-level

environment?

ext2
ext3
NTFS
FAT16
FAT32

6 Windows XP has a known problem with specific Intel processors. What is the best
course of action to take in this situation?

Power off the computer and reinstall the CPU.

Delete Windows XP and perform a clean install.
Reinstall Windows XP to the same hard drive partition.
Reinstall Windows XP to a different hard drive partition.
Download and install the Windows patch that fixes this problem.
Replace the Intel processor with one that is approved by Microsoft.

7 Which two statements are true about drive partitions? (Choose two.)

Partitions are necessary in multi-boot installations.

A hard drive can be divided into an operating system partition and a data partition.
User data is never overwritten when a drive is partitioned.
A disk partition is a defined section of an operating system.
Each partition requires a different file system type.

8 Which three pieces of information must be specified on a computer to allow that

computer to send and receive information across networks? (Choose three.)

IP address
subnet mask
closest server
default gateway
operating system
network card manufacturer

9 What are three characteristics of an operating system that is released under the GPL
(GNU Public License)? (Choose three.)
full access to source code
software often available free
structured development cycle
can be expensive to purchase
limits what end-user can do with code
support normally user-based and often free

10 What Explorer menu option is used to determine the Windows XP version installed on
a computer?

Edit
Help
View
Tools
Favorites

11 What is the purpose of a default gateway?

physically connects a computer to a network

provides a permanent address to a computer
identifies the network to which a computer is connected
identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the
rest of the network
identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices
on other networks

12 Which operating system patch installation method is used when a user is notified of a
security update for remotely accessing a computer, but wishes not to install this patch?
manual
automatic
semi-automatic
prompt for permission

13 An operating system is severely damaged. All data on the partition needs to be

deleted, and all application software must be reinstalled. Which installation method
should be used to correct the problem?

clean install
upgrade
multi-boot
virtualization

14 Which method of interacting with an operating system involves typing commands at a

command prompt?

CLI
GUI
redirector
kernel translator

15 Which three resource specifications are given by the manufacturer to ensure that an
operating system performs as designed? (Choose three.)

type of keyboard
printer requirements
required video memory
required hard disk space
processor type and speed
recommended amount of RAM

16 The Lesson TaskMaster application from ChalkBoard has a problem. Every time the
software is installed and loaded on a Windows XP-based Dell computer, and the moment
something is typed followed by a tab, two tabs are inserted instead of one. What would be
the best solution to this problem?

Uninstall and then reinstall Lesson TaskMaster.

Download, install, and apply a patch from Dell.
Download, install, and apply a patch from Microsoft.
Download, install, and apply a patch from ChalkBoard.

17 Which two statements should be included in a pre-installation checklist when

upgrading an operating system? (Choose two.)

Verify that the hardware resources have multiple partitions.

Verify that the hardware resources meet or exceed the published minimum requirements.
Complete a full backup of all important files and data.
Overwrite any data currently contained on the drive to remove all contents.
Verify that the hardware resources are certified to work with the existing operating
system prior to upgrading.

18 What are two ways that a user can interact with an operating system shell? (Choose
two.)

CLI
OS
GUI
NIC
kernel

19 Which Windows XP Automatic Update option allows you to select the time when a
Windows update is executed?

Automatic (recommended).
Install updates from the Windows Update web site.
Notify me but don’t automatically download or install them.
Download updates for me, but let me choose when to install them.
20 A computer in the Advanced Technology Center computer room on the second floor,
room number 217, has the computer name ATC_217_7. What fact is true about the
computer name?

The name is dynamically assigned by the DNS server.

The name is required to allow connectivity to the DHCP server.
The name must include the floor number to support the SLA agreement.
The names of all devices in a workgroup must be the same to allow LAN connectivity.
The name makes it easier for users to reference the device when connecting to it to share
resources.

perating system

Q.1 Which term is used to describe the process of placing one message format into another
format so that the message can be delivered across the appropriate medium?

flow control

encapsulation

encoding

multicasting

access method
Q.2 Refer to the graphic. Five PCs are connected through a hub. If host H1 wants to reply to a
message from host H2, which statement is true?

H1 sends a unicast message to H2, but the hub forwards it to all devices.

H1 sends a unicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.

H1 sends a broadcast message to H2, and the hub forwards it to all devices.

H1 sends a multicast message to H2, and the hub forwards it directly to H2.

Q.3 Which two statements concerning networking standards are true? (Choose two.)

adds complexity to networks

encourages vendors to create proprietary protocols

provides consistent interconnections across networks

ensures that communications work best in a single-vendor environment

simplifies new product development

Q.4 What does the 100 mean when referencing the 100BASE-T Ethernet standard?

type of cable used

type of data transmission

speed of transmission

type of connector required

maximum length of cable allowed

Q.5 Which address does an NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?

source IP address

source MAC address

destination IP address

destination MAC address

source Ethernet address

Q.6 Which type of address is used in an Ethernet frame header?

logical addresses only

IP addresses only

MAC addresses only

broadcast addresses only

Q.7 What is the function of the FCS field in an Ethernet frame?

detects transmission errors

provides timing for transmission

contains the start of frame delimiter

indicates which protocol will receive the frame

Q.8 What is the purpose of logical addresses in an IP network?

They identify a specific NIC on a host device.

They are used to determine which host device accepts the frame.

They provide vendor-specific information about the host.

They are used to determine the network that the host is located on.

They are used by switches to make forwarding decisions.

Q.9 Which device accepts a message on one port and always forwards the message to all
other ports?

modem

switch

router
 hub

Q.10 Which two networking devices are used to connect hosts to the access layer? (Choose
two.)

router

hub

switch

server

computer

Q.11 Host A needs to learn the MAC address of Host B, which is on the same LAN segment. A
message has been sent to all the hosts on the segment asking for the MAC address of Host B.
Host B responds with its MAC address and all other hosts disregard the request. What protocol
was used in this scenario?

ARP

DHCP

DNS

WINS

Q.12 A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is currently not in the
MAC table. What action does the switch perform?

It drops the frame.

It sends out an ARP request looking for the MAC address.

It floods the frame out of all active ports, except the origination port.

It returns the frame to the sender.

Q.13 What is a benefit of having a router within the distribution layer?

prevents collisions on a local network

keeps broadcasts contained within a local network

controls which hosts have access to the network

controls host-to-host traffic within a single local network

Q.14 Refer to the graphic. What does the router do after it determines that a data packet from
Network 1 should be forwarded to Network 2?

It sends the data packet as it was received.

It reassembles the frame with different MAC addresses than the original frame.

It reassembles the data packet with different IP addresses than the original data packet.

It reassembles both the packet and the frame with different destination IP and MAC
addresses.

Q.15 Which table does a router use to make decisions on where a data packet is to be sent?

ARP table

routing table

network table

forwarding table

Q.16 If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on
communications?

The host is unable to communicate on the local network.

The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to
communicate with hosts on remote networks.

The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to
communicate with hosts on the local network.

There is no impact on communications.

Q.17 What device is typically used as the default gateway for a computer?

a server hosted by the ISP

the router interface closest to the computer

a server managed by a central IT department

the switch interface that connects to the computer

Q.18 If a router receives a packet that it does not know how to forward, what type of route
must be configured on the router to prevent the router from dropping it?

dynamic route

default route

destination route

default destination

Q.19 Which two items are included in a network logical map? (Choose two.)

naming scheme

IP addressing scheme

length of cable runs

physical location of networking devices

specific layout of interconnections between networking devices and hosts

Q.20 An integrated router can normally perform the functions of which two other network
devices? (Choose two.)

NIC

switch

e-mail server

application server

wireless access point

Q.21 What is a reason for disabling simple file sharing?

It enables the user to map a remote resource with a local drive.

It enables the user to share all files with all users and groups.

It enables the user to share printers.

It enables the user to set more specific security access levels.

Q.1 Which definition describes the term Internet?

a group of PCs connected together on a LAN

a group of PCs connected together by an ISP

a network of networks that connects countries around the world

a worldwide collection of networks controlled by a single organization

Q.2 What type of connection point is a point of presence (POP)?

between a client and a host

between two local networks

between a computer and a switch

between an ISP and a home-based LAN

Q.3 What is the term for the group of high-speed data links that interconnect ISPs?

Internet LAN

ISP backbone

Internet gateways

Internet providers

Internet backbone

Q.4 Which device can act as a router, switch, and wireless access point in one package?

hub

bridge

modem

repeater

ISR

Q.5 What are three characteristics of business class ISP service? (Choose three.)

fast connections

extra web space

free Windows upgrade

cheapest cost available to all users

additional e-mail accounts

replacement hardware at no cost

Q.6 What is a major characteristic of asymmetric Internet service?

Download speeds and upload speeds are equal.

Download speeds are slower than upload speeds.

 Upload speeds and download speeds are different.

Upload speeds and download speeds are irrelevant.

Q.7 Which three elements are required to successfully connect to the Internet? (Choose
three.)

an IP address

file sharing enabled

a network connection

server services enabled

access to an Internet service provider

an address obtained directly from the RIR

Q.8 What term describes each router through which a packet travels when moving between
source and destination networks?

NOC

ISP

hop

segment

Q.9 What does the tracert command test?

NIC functionality

the ISP bandwidth

the network path to a destination

the destination application functionality

Q.10 What type of end-user connectivity requires that an ISP have a DSLAM device in their
network?

analog technology

cable modem technology

digital subscriber line technology

wireless technology

Q.11 Why would an ISP require a CMTS device on their network?

 to connect end users using cable technology

to connect end users using analog technology

to connect end users using wireless technology

to connect end users using digital subscriber line technology

Q.12 Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?

STP

UTP

coax

fiber

Q.13 Refer to the graphic. What type of cabling is shown?

STP

UTP

coax

fiber

Q.14 Which two places are most appropriate to use UTP cabling? (Choose two.)

between buildings

in a home office network

 where EMI is an issue

in a cable TV network

inside a school building

in a manufacturing environment with hundreds of electrical devices

Q.15 What does adherence to cabling standards ensure?

data security

no loss of signal

no electromagnetic interference

reliable data communications

Q.16 Refer to the graphic. What type of cable is shown?

crossover

eight coax channels

multimode fiber

single-mode fiber

straight-through

Q.17 What connector is used to terminate Ethernet unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling?

ST

BNC

RJ-11

RJ-45

Q.18 Which two characteristics describe copper patch panels? (Choose two.)

uses RJ-11 jacks

 uses RJ-45 jacks

supports only data transmissions

allows quick rearrangements of network connections

forwards transmissions based on MAC addresses

Q.19 What are two advantages of cable management? (Choose two.)

requires no preplanning

aids in isolation of cabling problems

protects cables from physical damage

provides compliance with future standards

provides a short-term solution for cable installation

Q.20 What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose
two.)

installing cables in conduit

having improper termination

losing light over long distances

installing low quality cable shielding

using low quality cables or connectors

Q.21 What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling?
(Choose three.)

pinouts

cable lengths

connector color

connector types

cost per meter (foot)

tensile strength of plastic insulator

Q.1 How large are IPv4 addresses?

8 bits

16 bits

32 bits
 64 bits

128 bits

Q.2 Refer to the graphic. A user at the workstation cannot connect to the server. All cables
have been tested and are working and all devices have IP addressing. However, the user
cannot ping the server. What is causing the problem?

The router interface does not have a default gateway.

The switch does not have an IP address and default gateway.

The workstation and server are on different logical networks.

The workstation does not know the MAC address of the switch.

Q.3 Which part of an IP address identifies a specific device on a network?

first two octets

third and fourth octets

network portion

host portion

only the fourth octet

Q.4 Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which
network does the host belong?

172.32.65.0

172.32.65.32

172.32.0.0

172.32.32.0
Q.5 Which default subnet mask provides the most host bits?

255.0.0.0

255.255.0.0

255.255.255.0

255.255.255.252

Q.6 How many bits are available for Class B host IP addresses using a default subnet mask?

16

24

Q.7 How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet
mask?

254

255

256

510

511

512

Q.8 Assuming a default mask, which portion of the IP address 175.124.35.4 represents the
host?

175.124

35.4

.4

124.35.4

175.124.35

Q.9 Which of the following are private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

10.1.1.1
 172.32.5.2

192.167.10.10

172.16.4.4

192.168.5.5

224.6.6.6

Q.10 What destination IP address is used in a unicast packet?

a specific host

a group of host

the default gateway

the network broadcast address

Q.11 What is the destination MAC address in a multicast Ethernet frame?

the MAC address of the sending host

the MAC address of the destination hos

an address that begins with 01-00-5E in hexadecimal

a 48-bit hexadecimal address expressed as FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

Q.12 Yvonne is talking to her friend on the phone. What type of message is this?

broadcast

simulcast

multicast

unicast

Q.13 What information must be included within a unicast message for it to be delivered on an
Ethernet network?

MAC and IP addresses for the default router

IP address and subnet mask of the default gateway

MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a destination grou

MAC and IP addresses that correspond to a specific destination host

Q.14 A PC obtains its IP address from a DHCP server. If the PC is taken off the network for
repair, what happens to the IP address configuration?
 The configuration is permanent and nothing changes.

The address lease is automatically renewed until the PC is returned.

The address is returned to the pool for reuse when the lease expires.

The configuration is held by the server to be reissued when the PC is returned.

Q.15 Which type of server dynamically assigns an IP address to a host?

ARP

DHCP

DNS

RARP

Q.16 Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)

The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).

The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.

The message comes from a server offering an IP address.

The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.

All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.

Only the DHCP server receives the message.

Q.17 Refer to the graphic. A host connects to a Linksys integrated router that is also a DHCP
server and receives an IP address from it. Which address does the host need to access the ISP
and the Internet?

IP address of the destination host

public gateway IP address of the ISP

external IP address of the integrated router that connects to the ISP

internal IP address of the integrated router that connects to the local network
Q.18 Which statement is true concerning private IP addresses?

ensures that two networks separated by the Internet use unique IP network numbers

allows internal hosts to communicate with servers across the Internet

solves the issue of a finite number of available public IP addresses

allows for ISPs to be able to quickly determine network location

Q.19 What is one of the purposes of NAT?

filters network traffic based on IP address ranges

prevents external users from detecting the IP addresses used on a network

inspects traffic that might be harmful or used in an attack against the network

translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names

Q.20 Which two statements describe packets that are sent through a Linksys integrated router
using NAT? (Choose two.)

Packets that are sent to any destination need to be translated.

Packets that are sent to hosts on the same network need to be translated.

Packets that are sent to a destination outside the local network need to be translated.

Packets that are sent to a destination outside a local network do not need to be
translated.

Packets that are sent between hosts on the same local network do not need to be
translated.

Q.21 Refer to the graphic. NAT and DHCP are installed on the Linksys integrated router. Which
IP address is most likely to be assigned to the local computer, Host1?

10.0.0.17
 128.107.1.2

192.135.250.0

209.165.201.1
Q.1 A user types www.cisco.com into a web browser address textbox. What does
www.cisco.com represent?

the IP address of a web server

a physical network address

the closest router interface to the source

the source IP address in the data transmission

Q.2 What type of server would use IMAP?

DNS

DHCP

e-mail

FTP

Telnet

web

Q.3 Which type of server would most likely be used first by a network client in a corporate
environment?

DNS

DHCP

e-mail

FTP

Telnet

web

Q.4 Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?

TCP

SMTP

UDP

SNMP
Q.5 Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)

UDP

FTP

IP

SMTP

TCP

Q.6 Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

Application

Physical

Internet

Network Access

Presentation

Q.7 You are creating a network-based video game. What influences your decision about which
transport protocol to use for the application?

UDP will not disrupt the game to retransmit dropped packets.

TCP provides extra acknowledgements that will ensure smooth video delivery.

Both TCP and UDP can be used simultaneously to ensure speed and guaranteed delivery.

Both TCP and UDP may slow transmission and disrupt game operation, so no transport
protocol should be used.

Q.8 Whenever e-mail clients send letters, what device is used to translate the domain names
into their associated IP addresses?

Uniform Resource Locator

Network redirector server

SNMP server

DNS server

Q.9 Which application is most likely used to translate www.cisco.com to 198.133.219.25?

DHCP

DNS
 FTP

HTTP

POP

SMTP

Q.10 Refer to the graphic. Which protocol is used to access this website?

IM

FTP

HTTP

SNMP

VoIP

Q.11 Which port number is used by SMTP?

20

21

25

26

110

Q.12 Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?

FTP
 HTTP

TFTP

SMTP

POP

SNMP

Q.13 What client software enables logged in users to communicate with other logged in users
in real time?

blog

e-mail

web mail

instant messaging

Q.14 An Internet server is running both FTP and HTTP services. How does the server know
which of these applications should handle an incoming segment?

The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.

The data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.

The segment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.

The source port number is associated with one of these well known server applications.

Q.15 What term is used to describe how TCP/IP protocols are layered and interact to format,
address, and transmit information across a network?

protocol hierarchy

protocol modeling

protocol stack

protocol layering

Q.16 What three items are contained in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.)

source IP address

source MAC address

destination IP address

destination MAC address

error-checking information
Q.17 What information is contained in an IP header?

source and destination IP addresses

source and destination MAC addresses

only destination IP and MAC addresses

both source and destination IP and MAC addresses

Q.18 Cabling issues are associated with which OSI layer?

Q.19 A device receives an Ethernet frame and recognizes the MAC address as its own. What
does the device do to the message to get to the encapsulated data?

removes the IP header

removes the TCP header

passes data to the application layer

removes the Ethernet header and trailer

Q.20 A client has decoded a frame and started the de-encapsulation process. In which order
does the de-encapsulation process occur?

1) remove IP header
2) remove Ethernet header and trailer
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application

1) add TCP header to data

2) add an IP header
3) add frame header and trailer
4) encode the frame into bits

1) remove Ethernet header and trailer

2) remove IP header
3) remove TCP header
4) pass data to the application

1) add TCP header to data

2) add Ethernet header and trailer
3) add an IP header
4) encode the frame into bits
Q.21 What is an advantage of the use of layers in the OSI reference model?

It breaks network communications into larger parts.

It increases complexity.

It prevents changes in one layer from affecting other layers.

It requires the use of single-vendor equipment for hardware and software

communications.

Q.22 What is the correct order of the layers of the OSI reference model, starting at the lowest
layer and working up the model?

data link, physical, transport, network, presentation, session, application

physical, data link, network, session, transport, presentation, application

physical, data link, network, transport, presentation, session, application

physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, application

application, session, presentation, transport, data link, network, physical

Q.1 Why is IEEE 802.11 wireless technology able to transmit further distances than Bluetooth
technology?

transmits at much lower frequencies

has higher power output

transmits at much higher frequencies

uses better encryption methods

Q.2 What are three advantages of wireless over wired technology? (Choose three.)

more secure

longer range

anytime, anywhere connectivity

easy and inexpensive to install

ease of using licensed air space

ease of adding additional devices

Q.3 What are two benefits of wireless networking over wired networking? (Choose two.)

speed

security
 mobility

reduced installation time

allows users to share more resources

not susceptible to interference from other devices

Q.4 A technician has been asked to provide wireless connectivity to the wired Ethernet
network of a building. Which three factors affect the number of access points needed? (Choose
three.)

the size of the building

the number of solid interior walls in the building

the presence of microwave ovens in several offices

the encryption method used on the wireless network

the use of both Windows and Appletalk operating systems

the use of shortwave or infrared on the AP

Q.5 Why is security so important in wireless networks?

Wireless networks are typically slower than wired networks.

Televisions and other devices can interfere with wireless signals.

Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.

Environmental factors such as thunderstorms can affect wireless networks.

Q.6 What does the Wi-Fi logo indicate about a wireless device?

IEEE has approved the device.

The device is interoperable with all other wireless standards.

The device is interoperable with other devices of the same standard that also display the
Wi-Fi logo.

The device is backwards compatible with all previous wireless standards.

Q.7 Which statement is true concerning wireless bridges?

connects two networks with a wireless link

stationary device that connects to a wireless LAN

allows wireless clients to connect to a wired network

increases the strength of a wireless signal

Q.8 Which WLAN component is commonly referred to as an STA?

cell

antenna

access point

wireless bridge

wireless client

Q.9 Which statement is true concerning an ad-hoc wireless network?

created by connecting wireless clients in a peer-to-peer network

created by connecting wireless clients to a single, centralized AP

created by connecting multiple wireless basic service sets through a distribution system

created by connecting wireless clients to a wired network using an ISR

Q.10 Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu option of a Linksys integrated router, what
does the Network Mode option Mixed mean?

The router supports encryption and authentication.

The router supports both wired and wireless connections.

The router supports 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n devices.

The router supports connectivity through infrared and radio frequencies.

Q.11 Refer to the graphic. In the Wireless menu of a Linksys integrated router, what
configuration option allows the presence of the access point to be known to nearby clients?

Network Mode

Network Name (SSID)

Radio Band

Wide Channel

Standard Channel

SSID Broadcast

Q.12 Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)

tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs

consists of a 32-character string and is not case sensitive

responsible for determining the signal strength

all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID

used to encrypt data sent across the wireless network

Q.13 Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)

Wireless networks offer the same security features as wired networks.

Wardriving enhances security of wireless networks.

With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.

Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.

An attacker needs physical access to at least one network device to launch an attack.

Q.14 What type of authentication does an access point use by default?

 Open

PSK

WEP

EAP

Q.15 Which statement is true about open authentication when it is enabled on an access
point?

requires no authentication

uses a 64-bit encryption algorithm

requires the use of an authentication server

requires a mutually agreed upon password

Q.16 What are two authentication methods that an access point could use? (Choose two.)

WEP

WPA

EAP

ASCII

pre-shared keys

Q.17 What is the difference between using open authentication and pre-shared keys?

Open authentication requires a password. Pre-shared keys do not require a password.

Open authentication is used with wireless networks. Pre-shared keys are used with wired
networks.

Pre-shared keys require an encrypted secret word. Open authentication does not require a
secret word.

Pre-shared keys require a MAC address programmed into the access point. Open
authentication does not require this programming.

Q.18 What term describes the encoding of wireless data to prevent intercepted data from
being read by a hacker?

address filtering

authentication

broadcasting
 encryption

passphrase encoding

Q.19 What access-point feature allows a network administrator to define what type of data can
enter the wireless network?

encryption

hacking block

traffic filtering

MAC address filtering

authentication

Q.20 What are the two WEP key lengths? (Choose two.)

8 bit

16 bit

32 bit

64 bit

128 bit

Q.21 Complete the following sentence: WEP is used to ______ , and EAP is used to _____
wireless networks.

encrypt; authenticate users on

filter traffic; select the operating frequency for

identify the wireless network; compress data on

create the smallest wireless network; limit the number of users on

Q.1 Identify three techniques used in social engineering. (Choose three.)

fishing

vishing

phishing

spamming

pretexting

junk mailing

Q.2 During a pretexting event, how is a target typically contacted?

 by e-mail

by phone

in person

through another person

Q.3 While surfing the Internet, a user notices a box claiming a prize has been won. The user
opens the box unaware that a program is being installed. An intruder now accesses the
computer and retrieves personal information. What type of attack occurred?

worm

virus

Trojan horse

denial of service

Q.4 What is a major characteristic of a Worm?

malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs

tricks users into running the infected software

a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event

exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network

Q.5 A flood of packets with invalid source-IP addresses requests a connection on the network.
The server busily tries to respond, resulting in valid requests being ignored. What type of
attack occurred?

Trojan horse

brute force

ping of death

SYN flooding

Q.6 What type of advertising is typically annoying and associated with a specific website that
is being visited?

adware

popups

spyware

tracking cookies
Q.7 What is a widely distributed approach to marketing on the Internet that advertises to as
many individual users as possible via IM or e-mail?

brute force

spam

spyware

tracking cookies

Q.8 What part of the security policy states what applications and usages are permitted or
denied?

identification and authentication

remote access

acceptable use

incident handling

Q.9 Which statement is true regarding anti-virus software?

Only e-mail programs need to be protected.

Only hard drives can be protected.

Only after a virus is known can an anti-virus update be created for it.

Only computers with a direct Internet connection need it.

Q.10 Which two statements are true concerning anti-spam software? (Choose two.)

Anti-spam software can be loaded on either the end-user PC or the ISP server, but not
both.

When anti-spam software is loaded, legitimate e-mail may be classified as spam by

mistake.

Installing anti-spam software should be a low priority on the network.

Even with anti-spam software installed, users should be careful when opening e-mail
attachments.

Virus warning e-mails that are not identified as spam via anti-spam software should be
forwarded to other users immediately.

Q.11 What term is used to describe a dedicated hardware device that provides firewall
services?
 server-based

integrated

personal

appliance-based

Q.12 Which acronym refers to an area of the network that is accessible by both internal, or
trusted, as well as external, or untrusted, host devices?

SPI

DMZ

ISR

ISP

Q.13 Which statement is true about port forwarding within a Linksys integrated router?

Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is permitted. All other traffic
is denied.

Only external traffic that is destined for specific internal ports is denied. All other traffic is
permitted.

Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is permitted. All other traffic
is denied.

Only internal traffic that is destined for specific external ports is denied. All other traffic is
permitted.

Q.14 To which part of the network does the wireless access point part of a Linksys integrated
router connect?

DMZ

external

internal

a network other than the wired network

Q.15 Refer to the graphic. What is the purpose of the Internet Filter option of Filter IDENT
(Port 113. on the Linksys integrated router?

to require a user ID and password to access the router

to prevent outside intruders from attacking the router through the Internet

to require a pre-programmed MAC address or IP address to access the router

to disable tracking of internal IP addresses so they cannot be spoofed by outside devices

Q.16 What statement is true about security configuration on a Linksys integrated router?

A DMZ is not supported.

The router is an example of a server-based firewall.

The router is an example of an application-based firewall.

Internet access can be denied for specific days and times.

Q.17 What environment would be best suited for a two-firewall network design?

a large corporate environment

a home environment with 10 or fewer hosts

a home environment that needs VPN access

a smaller, less congested business environment

Q.18 What is one function that is provided by a vulnerability analysis tool?

It provides various views of possible attack paths.

It identifies missing security updates on a computer.

It identifies wireless weak points such as rogue access points.

 It identifies all network devices on the network that do not have a firewall installed.

It identifies MAC and IP addresses that have not been authenticated on the network.

Q.19 Many best practices exist for wired and wireless network security. The list below has one
item that is not a best practice. Identify the recommendation that is not a best practice for
wired and wireless security.

Periodically update anti-virus software.

Be aware of normal network traffic patterns.

Periodically update the host operating system.

Activate the firewall on a Linksys integrated router.

Configure login permissions on the integrated router.

Disable the wireless network when a vulnerability analysis is being performed.

Q.20 What best practice relates to wireless access point security?

activation of a popup stopper

a change of the default IP address

an update in the antivirus software definitions

physically securing the cable between the access point and client

Q.21 Refer to the graphic. In the Linksys Security menu, what does the SPI Firewall Protection
option Enabled provide?

It prevents packets based on the application that makes the request.

It allows packets based on approved internal MAC or IP addresses.

 It requires that packets coming into the router be responses to internal host requests.

It translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

Q.1 What should a network administrator do first after receiving a call from a user who cannot
access the company web server?

Reboot the web server.

Replace the NIC of the computer.

Ask the user to log off and log on again.

Ask the user what URL has been typed and what error message displays.

Q.2 A customer called the cable company to report that the Internet connection is unstable.
After trying several configuration changes, the technician decided to send the customer a new
cable modem to try. What troubleshooting technique does this represent?

top-down

bottom-up

substitution

trial-and-error

divide-and-conquer

Q.3 Only one workstation on a particular network cannot reach the Internet. What is the first
troubleshooting step if the divide-and-conquer method is being used?

Check the NIC, and then check the cabling.

Check the workstation TCP/IP configuration.

Test all cables, and then test layer by layer up the OSI model.

Attempt to Telnet, and then test layer by layer down the OSI model.

Q.4 Which two troubleshooting techniques are suitable for both home networks and large
corporate networks? (Choose two.)

having a backup ISR

running network monitoring applications

documenting the troubleshooting process

keeping a record of system upgrades and software versions

keeping spare switches, routers, and other equipment available

Q.5 Identify two physical-layer network problems. (Choose two.)

 hardware failure

software configuration

devices not able to ping

loose cable connections

device driver configuration

Q.6 Which ipconfig command requests IP configuration from a DHCP server?

ipconfig

ipconfig /all

ipconfig /renew

ipconfig /release

Q.7 What command is used to determine the location of delay for a packet traversing the
Internet?

ipconfig

netstat

nslookup

ping

tracert

Q.8 What command is used to determine if a DNS server is providing name resolution?

ipconfig

netstat

nslookup

tracert

Q.9 Which troubleshooting method begins by examining cable connections and wiring issues?

top-down

bottom-up

substitution

divide-and-conquer
Q.10 A technician suspects that a Linksys integrated router is the source of a network
problem. While troubleshooting, the technician notices a blinking green activity LED on some
of the ports. What does this indicate?

Self-diagnostics have not completed.

The power supply is the source of the problem.

The ports are operational and are receiving traffic.

The ports are operational, but no traffic is flowing.

There are no cables plugged into those ISR ports.

The ports have cables plugged in, but they are not functional.

Q.11 A PC is plugged into a switch and is unable to connect to the network. The UTP cable is
suspected. What could be the problem?

A straight-through cable is being used

The connectors at both ends of the cable are RJ-45.

The RJ-45 connectors are crimped onto the cable jacket.

A crossover cable is being used.

Q.12 Refer to the graphic. What configuration is incorrect in the network shown?

The host IP address is incorrect.

The host subnet mask is incorrect.

The host default gateway is incorrect.

The wired connection is the wrong type of cable.

The Linksys integrated router does not support wireless.

Q.13 Which three settings must match on the client and access point for a wireless connection
to occur? (Choose three.)
 SSID

authentication

MD5 checksum

antennae type

encryption key

MAC address filters

Q.14 A technician is troubleshooting a security breach on a new wireless access point. Which
three configuration settings make it easy for hackers to gain access? (Choose three.)

configuring NAT

broadcasting the SSID

using open authentication

enabling MAC address filters

using the default internal IP address

using DHCP to provide IP addresses

Q.15 Refer to the graphic. The wireless host cannot access the Internet, but the wired host
can. What is the problem?

The host WEP key is incorrect.

The host IP address is incorrect.

The host subnet mask is incorrect.

The host default gateway is incorrect.

 The integrated router internal IP address is incorrect.

The integrated router Internet IP address is incorrect.

Q.16 Refer to the graphic. What configuration is incorrect in the network shown?

The host IP address is incorrect.

The host subnet mask is incorrect.

The host default gateway is incorrect.

The wired connection is the wrong type of cable.

The Linksys integrated router does not support wireless.

Q.17 When acting as a DHCP server, what three types of information can an ISR provide to a
client? (Choose three.)

physical address

MAC address

default gateway

static IP address

dynamic IP address

DNS server address

Q.18 What two items could be checked to verify connectivity between the router and the ISP?
(Choose two.)

router status page

wireless card settings

router operating system version

local host operating system version

 connectivity status as indicated by LEDs

Q.19 A technician is unsuccessful in establishing a console session between a PC and a Linksys

integrated router. Both devices have power, and a cable is connected between them. Which
two troubleshooting steps could help to diagnose this problem? (Choose two.)

Ensure the correct cable is used.

Ensure the SSID is the same on both devices.

Ensure both devices have the same IP address.

Ensure both devices have different subnet masks.

Ensure the encryption type on both devices match.

Ensure the link status LED on the integrated router is lit.

Q.20 Network baselines should be performed in which two situations? (Choose two.)

after the network is installed and running optimally

after a virus outbreak is discovered on the network

after major changes are implemented on the network

after several computers are added to the network

at the end of the work week

Q.21 Typically, help desk personnel assist end users in which two tasks? (Choose two.)

identifying when the problem occurred

determining if other users are currently logged into the computer

updating network diagrams and documentation

implementing the solution to the problem

running a network baseline test

determining the cost of fixing the problem

Q.22 How does remote-access software help in the troubleshooting process?

Remote access uses a live chat feature.

Users have to be present so that they can view LEDs and change cables if necessary.

Diagnostics can be run without a technician being present at the site.

FAQs can be consulted more easily.

Q.23 Which two items should be added to the documentation following a troubleshooting
event? (Choose two.)

final resolution

repetitive measures

number of people involved in the problem

accurate current network infrastructure diagrams

results of successful and unsuccessful troubleshooting steps