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a. Specific tooth
b. Mandible or maxilla
d. Posterior tooth
a. Periodontal abscess
b. Irreversible pulpitis
c. Acute apical periodontitis
5. Medical history of coronary heart disease is significant for which of the following
reasons?
6. The best approach for diagnosis of odontogenic pain is which of the following?
a. Radiographic examination
b. Percussion
c. Visual examination
a. Irreversible pulpitis
b. Reversible pulpitis
d. Phoenix abscess
8. A sinus tract that drains out on the face (through skin) is mostly likely from which
of the following?
a. Nonodontogenic pathosis
b. A periodontal abscess
a. Pulpal inflammation
b. Pulpal necrosis
b. Pulpal inflammation
c. Older patient
d. Pulp that has been injured in the past but has recovered
13. In which of the following may a false-negative response to the pulp tester occur?
a. Primarily in anterior teeth
14. The lateral periodontal abscess is best differentiated from the acute apical abscess
by which of the following?
a. Pulp testing
b. Radiographic appearance
c. Location of swelling
d. Probing patterns
15. The acute apical abscess is best differentiated from the acute apical periodontitis
by which of the following?
a. Pulp testing
b. Radiographic appearance
c. Presence of swelling
d. Degree of mobility
16. Chronic apical periodontitis is best differentiated from acute apical periodontitis
by which of the following?
18. The patient in the following illustration reports severe, throbbing pain in the
mandibular right molar region. The pain is exaggerated by cold. Which tooth and which
tissue is likely the source of pain?
a. First molar and pulp
19. Of the following cold-testing agents, which is the least effective in producing a
response?
b. Dicholorodifluoromethane (DDM)
d. Ethyl chloride
c. It is self-limiting.
d. It does not correlate well with the level of pain a patient perceives.
d. Increasing pain
3. In describing the sensory innervation of the dental pulp, which of the following
statements is accurate?
d. The sharp, well-localized pain to cold testing is conducted by both A-delta and C-
fiber stimulation.
b. Lysosomal enzymes
d. Substance P
b. The pain occurs unilaterally but often involves more than one division of the
trigeminal nerve.
c. The pain is characteristically sharp, lasts for several hours, and is induced by a
trigger point.
d. The pain mimics pain of pulpal origin in that thermal sensitivity and tingling is
often encountered just before an attack.
6. A patient complains of dull and constant pain that lasts 3 days on the left side of
the face. The patient notes the pain increases on positional changes, such as bending over
and when jogging. The most likely diagnosis is which of the following?
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Maxillary sinusitis
d. Irreversible pulpitis
7. Which of the following most likely indicates pain that is not of pulpal origin?
a. To identify patients with conditions that would contraindicate root canal treatment
c. To protect the health care team from potential blood-borne pathogens and other
infectious diseases the patient may have
d. For medical and legal protection and to determine if the medical status will affect
the prognosis for root canal treatment
a. The pain is most likely periradicular in origin and likely to persist even when the
necrotic pulp is removed.
e. The pulp of more than one tooth will be involved and the pathosis produce a
synergistic-hyperalgesia response within the central nervous system (CNS).
10. A patient's chief complaint is severe pain from the mandibular, right first molar
(tooth no. 30) when eating ice cream and drinking iced tea. Clinical examination reveals
MOD amalgam restorations in all posterior teeth. The margins appear intact and no
cracks or caries is detected. Pulp testing indicates all teeth in the quadrant are responsive
to electrical-pulp testing. Application of cold fails to reproduce the symptoms. Which of
the following actions should be taken?
a. The patient should be dismissed and asked to return when the symptoms increase
and the pain to cold becomes prolonged.
b. Initiate root canal treatment by performing a pulpotomy or pulpectomy on tooth
no. 30.
d. Remove the restoration in tooth no. 30, place a sedative restoration, and prescribe
a nonsteroidal, anti-inflammatory agent.
11. A patient complains of pain to biting pressure and sensitivity to cold in the
maxillary, left, posterior quadrant that subsides within seconds of removal of the
stimulus. Clinical examination reveals teeth nos. 2 and 3 exhibit occlusal amalgams.
Which of the following test or actions is most appropriate based on the chief complaint?
12. A practitioner refers a patient for root canal treatment. The clinician should obtain
a new preoperative radiograph during which of the following situations?
a. When the film from the referring dentist is more than 1 month old
c. When the film from the referring dentist reveals a radiolucent area that has a
"hanging drop" appearance
13. Which of the following is true regarding the periodontal ligament injection when
treating a tooth with a pulpal diagnosis of reversible pulpitis?
a. There will be a decrease in pulpal blood flow when anesthetic agents with a
vasoconstrictor are used.
14. A patient describes pain on chewing and sensitivity to cold that goes away
immediately with removal of the stimulus. The mandibular, left, second molar (tooth no.
18) exhibits a mesial, occlusal crack. The tooth is caries free, and no restorations are
present. Periodontal probing depths are 3 mm or less. Which of the following statements
is correct?
a. The pulpal diagnosis is normal pulp, and the tooth should be prepared and
restored with a MO-bonded amalgam.
b. The pulpal diagnosis is reversible pulpitis, and the tooth should be restored with a
crown.
c. The pulpal diagnosis is irreversible pulpitis, and root canal treatment should be
performed, a bonded amalgam placed, and a crown fabricated.
d. A radiograph will likely reveal a radiolucent area associated with the mesial root.
15. Treatment of severe, throbbing pain associated with the maxillary, left, first molar
(tooth no. 14) is best managed by which of the following?
a. Pulpotomy
b. Partial pulpectomy
c. Pulpectomy
d. Analgesic agents
16. Which of the following statements regarding leaving a tooth open for drainage in
cases of an acute, apical abscess is accurate?
17. With acute, apical abscess, antibiotic administration is indicated in which of the
following?
b. The incision should be horizontal in the attached gingiva at the base of the
swelling.
c. If drainage occurs with the initial incision, blunt dissection is not necessary.
d. They are not indicated, because antibiotic treatment will result in resolution of the
lesion.
20. Flare-ups during root canal treatment are more commonly associated with which
of the following?
a. Teeth with vital-pulp tissue when compared to teeth with pulp necrosis
b. Teeth with apical radiolucent areas when compared to teeth with normal
periapical tissues
e. Multirooted teeth
21. Of the following reasons, when is apical trephination through the faciobuccal,
cortical plate advocated?
a. To release exudate
b. As a routine procedure for relief of pain when the offending tooth has been
obturated
22. A 22-year-old, white man requires root canal treatment for pain and swelling in
the mandibular, anterior area (see illustration). He notes that his dentist has been treating
teeth nos. 25 and 26 for several months and that swelling has occurred after each visit for
cleaning and shaping. Clinical examination reveals swelling located on the alveolar
process in the area of the incisor teeth. Teeth nos. 25 and 26 are tender to palpation and
percussion. The clinician should perform which of the following?
a. Diagnostic tests on the other incisor
b. Open teeth nos. 25 and 26, débride these teeth, and place calcium hydroxide as an
antimicrobial intracanal medicament
c. Open teeth nos. 25 and 26, débride these teeth, and perform incision and drainage
d. Open teeth nos. 25 and 26, débride these teeth, and leave the teeth open for
drainage
e. Perform incision and drainage and prescribe an antibiotic for supportive care
23. A cusp fractures in a noncarious, nonrestored premolar so that dentin is exposed.
When this exposed dentin is contacted by cold fluids, the patient experiences brief, sharp
pain. Which of the following pulp status is likely?
b. Reversibly inflamed
c. Irreversibly inflamed
24. Corticosteroids have their major pharmacologic effect as which of the following?
a. Antimicrobial agent
b. Analgesic
c. Antiinflammatory agent
b. The pain involves all three divisions of the trigeminal nerve equally.
d. The pain is severe, often shooting into the bone and teeth.
b. The pain is usually unilateral and involves the maxilla, sinus, and retro-orbital
area.
d. The pain, which is severe and lasts for 30 to 45 minutes, can occur at anytime.
4. Each of the following has been shown to benefit patients with cluster headaches,
except for one. Which is the exception?
a. Nifedipine
c. Hyperbaric oxygen
d. Alcohol
e. Sumatriptin
a. Cluster headache
b. Myalgia
c. Cardiogenic jaw pain
d. Temporal arteritis
e. Otitis media
a. Pain is often referred to all teeth in the maxillary, posterior quadrant with
percussion sensitivity being a common finding.
b. The maxillary sinusitis may be initiated by a tooth with a necrotic pulp located in
the maxillary, posterior area.
a. The sialolith develops in patients that often exhibit increased levels of serum
calcium.
b. Pain may mimic pulpal pain in the maxillary, posterior teeth because sialolithiasis
is most frequently noted in parotid duct.
d. Sialolithiasis has been associated with kidney stones and gallbladder stones, so
patient's exhibiting this disorder should be referred to a physician for evaluation.
a. Trigger points found in the superficial aspect of the masseter may refer pain the
maxillary teeth and mandibular teeth.
b. Trigger points have been noted only in the masseter muscles and temporalis
muscles.
c. Initial treatment consists of finding occlusal discrepancies and performing an
equilibration.
d. Meniscus displacement and intraarticular adhesions are the cause, and corrective
surgery provides long-term success.
9. Each of the following statements regarding malignant lesions of the head and
neck is correct, except for one. Which is the exception?
b. Metastatic lesions may develop from the lung, breast, and colon.
10. Which of the following statements regarding atypical orofacial pain is false?
a. The pain is often chronic, difficult to localize, and there is no identifiable cause.
c. Patient's with atypical orofacial pain may give a history of having endodontic
treatment that did not alleviate the pain.
d. Patient's with atypical orofacial pain complain of pain in other areas of the body.
11. Which of the following statements accurately describe phantom tooth pain?
d. It has been associated with tooth extraction but does not occur with extirpation of
the pulp.
CHAPTER 4: CASE SELECTION AND TREATMENT
PLANNING
1. Which of the following statements regarding the use of electronic-apex locators is
accurate?
b. Atrial fibrillation
d. Myocardial infarction
e. Rheumatic fever
b. The general dentist does not have the indicated training and experience.
7. Single visit is equivalent in outcome to multiple visits (to complete RCT) with
what situation?
8. Root end surgery is indicated for endodontic failure in which of the following?
a. Pain as a symptom
b. Interappointment flare-up
c. Class III mobility and loss of bone support (i.e., probing defects)
11. With pregnancy, the safest period to provide dental care is during which month?
a. First
b. It includes prognosis for the recommended treatment and also the alternatives.
c. It would be sufficient to cause skin cancer if all exposures were at one site.
6. The recommended antibiotics for a patient with a total joint replacement who is
allergic to penicillin or cephalosporin is which of the following?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Erythromycin
c. Clindamycin
d. Tetracycline
7. The most effective method for controlling pain that often occurs after cleaning
and shaping is to administer which of the following?
c. It requires the film be placed directly touching the tooth without bending the film.
a. Milliamperage
b. Exposure time
c. Kilovoltage
d. Angulation
c. When the tooth is rotated, preventing placement of a clamp on the indicated tooth
12. To enhance crown preparation and retention when an infrabony defect exists,
crown lengthening is completed by which of the following?
a. Electrosurgery
b. Gingivectomy
c. Laser surgery
14. With the cone moved to the distal and directed toward the mesial, which of the
following accurately describes the mesiobuccal root of the first molar?
a. It is projected mesially on the film.
15. The cone angulation in the following illustration is which of the following?
a. Mesial
b. Distal
c. Parallel
d. Bisecting
16. The radiopaque structure overlying the buccal roots in the following illustration is
which of the following?
a. Zygoma
c. Coronoid process
d. Eyeglass frame
17. Which of the following is the best way to "move" the structure in the previous
illustration away from the buccal apexes of both molars? Reposition the cone
18. Why does the tooth in the following illustration appear elongated?
a. There was excessive, positive-and-vertical angle to the cone.
19. The radiopaque structure (arrow) in the following illustration is which of the
following?
a. Condensing osteitis
b. Trabeculation
c. Lamina dura
d. Root surface
20. The view in the following radiograph is a mesially angled (beam is directed
distally) film. The unobturated root is which of the following?
a. Buccal root
b. Lingual root
21. Of the following, the best way to identify the source of the radiolucency (arrow)
in the following illustration is which of the following?
a. Pulp test
b. Incisional biopsy
c. Excisional biopsy
a. Digital imaging
b. Ektaspeed film
c. Ultraspeed film
2. Patients with a latex allergy can be treated how?
4. The best way to clean dental instruments before sterilization is by which of the
following?
5. Steam sterilization is achieved when the load has reached which of the following?
b. Flushing the water line before attaching it to the hand piece or syringe
d. Careful sterilization of water lines within hand pieces and syringes between
patients
c. Dry heat
d. Bead sterilizer
b. Hot water
c. Ultrasonics
d. X-ray irradiation
e. Heat
12. A good, two-stage technique (i.e., two burs in sequence) for access through a
porcelain fixed-to-metal crown is which of the following?
13. An advantage that nickel titanium (NiTi) has over SS for intracanal instruments is
which of the following?
a. Lower cost
c. Sharper
e. More flexibility
2. The incidence of three roots and three canals in maxillary first premolars is which
of the following?
a. Less than 1%
b. 3%
c. 6%
d. 10%
a. When two canals were present and join at the apex, the lingual canal is the
straightest.
b. The incidence of two canals at the apex was high, approaching 75%.
4. In their study of maxillary molars, Kulild and Peters noted which of the
following?
a. Although two canals were often present in the mesiobuccal roots, the canals
merged apically.
b. The use of magnification did not increase the number of canals found clinically in
this tooth group.
c. The orifice to a second canal in the mesiobuccal root was distal to the main orifice
in a line connecting the mesiobuccal canal to the palatal canal.
d. A high incidence of two canals with separate foramina in the mesiobuccal root
(71%).
5. When treating a mandibular incisor with two canals evident on the preoperative
radiograph, which of the following statements are true?
c. The canals often remain separate and distinct throughout the root.
d. The access opening should be triangular with the apex at the cingulum.
7. In their study of mandibular molars, Skidmore and Bjorndal noted which of the
following?
b. When there were two canals in the distal root, they remained distinct with
separate apical foramina.
d. The mesiobuccal canal was located under the mesiobuccal cusp tip and exhibited
the straightest morphology.
8. The mandibular, second molar should be restored with a crown after endodontic
treatment for which of the following reasons?
a. The pulp chamber is relatively large in comparison to the crown, making the tooth
susceptible to fracture.
b. The tooth is in close to the insertion of the muscles of mastication, and the
percentage of preexisting fractures is high.
c. There is a tendency for the buccal cusps to shear off under occlusal loading.
d. Providing a post can be placed in the distal root to strengthen the root.
a. The root morphology varies with two separate-and-distinct roots being a common
finding.
10. A 30-year-old male patient is being treated for a maxillary central incisor that he
traumatized as a teenager. Radiographically, the canal appears calcified and there is
evidence of apical pathosis. After attempting access the canal cannot be located despite
drilling into the middle third of the root. Which of the following statements regarding
further treatment is false?
a. Radiographs may indicate the orientation of the access opening within the root.
b. The risk of perforation will be greatest on the lingual surface, should the clinician
continue.
c. The clinician should consider obturating the coronal segment and performing root
end surgery.
d. Because canals become less calcified as they proceed apically, a pathfinder might
be used to negotiate the residual canal space.
a. Shaping is performed after cleaning of the apical one third of the canal to ensure
patency.
b. Shaping facilitates placement of instruments to the working length by increasing
the coronal taper.
2. Which of the following statements best describes the Profile Series 29 files?
c. The Profile Series 29 files were designed to facilitate preparation of the coronal
portion of the radicular space.
d. The instruments are most useful in the larger sizes because there is a smaller
change in diameter between the files.
3. Each of the following are direct advantages of pre-enlarging the radicular space,
except for one. Which is the exception?
c. It facilitates obturation.
a. Gauging is performed in the coronal portion of the canal to confirm the coronal
enlargement is complete.
c. Gauging and tuning verify the completed shaping of the apical portion of the
canal.
d. Gauging and tuning produces a uniform, cylindric diameter to the canal in the
apical 2 to 3 mm that enhances obturation and sealing.
d. The instruments exhibit varied tapers with a constant D0 diameter of 0.25 mm.
7. Which of the following statements regarding the use of chelating agents in canal
preparation is correct?
9. During the early phase of root canal preparation, which of the following is true?
a. The initial scouter file that moves easily through the canal should be advanced to
the estimated working length.
b. The initial scouter file may not advance to the estimated working length because
of the rate of instrument paper.
c. The initial scouter file should be advanced with a reciprocating action using apical
pressure when resistance is encountered.
d. The initial scouter file is used before the introduction of a viscous chelator in
cases exhibiting vital tissue.
10. Which of the following statements is correct regarding coronal canal preparation
in endodontic treatment?
c. Both GG drills and NiTi rotary instruments should be used large to small, because
this develops a preparation that is centered in the root.
d. GG drills used in a step-back technique can relocate the canal away from the
furcal wall.
11. When using the balanced-force technique for canal preparation, which of the
following statements is accurate?
b. Clockwise rotation balances the tendency of the file to be drawn into the canal
during the cutting stroke.
c. Dentin is engaged with a counterclockwise rotation and cut with a 45- to 90-
degree, clockwise rotation.
12. Extending a no. 10 file with a 0.02 taper 1.0 mm beyond the apical foramen will
result in which of the following?
c. It reduces the percentage of change from a no. 10 file to a no. 15 file by 50%.
d. It eliminates the natural constriction of the foramen and increases the chance for
an overfill.
b. Healthy periodontium
3. It is preferable to not extrude sealer beyond the apex for which of the following
reasons?
a. Relatively inert
b. Immunogenic
c. unstable
d. Carcinogenic
5. The primary reason to use a sealer and cement is which of the following?
b. Canal disinfection
d. Adhesion to dentin
6. Considering lateral versus vertical condensation, studies have shown which of the
following?
d. They do not penetrate as deeply as stainless steel (SS) spreaders under equal force
11. Which of the following statements accurately describe an adequate apical seal?
a. It can only be achieved with lateral condensation.
a. It uses a heat carrier that can both compact and heat gutta-percha.
14. The most likely cause of a gross overfill is which of the following?
15. The obturation of the incisor shown in the following illustration is inadequate
because of which of the following?
a. It appears short of the prepared length.
16. The dark tooth in the following illustration has a history of trauma and root canal
treatment. It is likely that the discoloration is primarily caused by which of the following?
b. A leaking restoration
17. Of the following, what is the most likely cause of failure of root canal treatment
on the lateral incisor in the illustration?
a. The silver point corrodes.
3. The doctrine of informed consent does not require which of the following?
c. Patients forfeit their right to do as they see fit with their body.
6. If a patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) requests that the dentist
not inform the staff of the condition, the dentist should do which of the following?
b. Tell the staff in private, and then treat the patient with extra precautions
c. Not tell the staff but treat the patient with great caution
d. Not tell the staff and require the patient to assume liability should anyone contract
the virus
a. Informs the patient that the general practitioner performed substandard care
b. Fails to disclose to the patient or referring dentist evident pathosis on teeth other
than those the specialist is treating
8. Of the following, which is the best way for clinicians to avoid legal actions by
patients?
a. True
b. False
10. Suing to collect fees is a proven route to being counter sued for malpractice.
a. True
b. False
11. Standard of care for routine endodontics is set by which of the following?
b. Endodontists
12. A patient continues to have pain after a dentist uses the technique of
Paraformaldehyde paste pulpotomy on a tooth with a necrotic pulp and apical pathosis
and then places a crown. In this situation, which of the following statements is true?
b. The dentist is not liable if the patient is now referred to the appropriate specialist
who can treat the case.
c. The dentist is not liable if the dentist performs additional treatment for no fee.
a. The basement membrane separating the inner dental epithelium from the dental
mesenchyme is composed of type I and III collagen.
b. Blood vessels become established in the dental papilla during the cap stage.
e. Ameloblasts form enamel spindles near the future dentinoenamel junction (DEJ).
b. The inner epithelium, the stellate reticulum, and outer enamel epithelium form
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath.
c. The dental sac disintegrates upon induction of dentin formation and remnants
persist as the Epithelial Rests of Malassez.
d. Accessory canals in the root are formed when there is discontinuity in the root
sheath.
a. Mantle dentin is the first formed dentin and has collagen fibers that run
perpendicular to the DEJ.
c. Dentinal tubules make up 50% of the dentin volume and they exhibit extensive
terminal ramifications.
a. Peritubular dentin and intertubular dentin are the same composition, except for the
fact peritubular dentin lines the tubule.
d. Peritubular dentin defines the tubule size and is common to all mammals.
b. Increases as the pulp and dentin border is approached (primarily because the
tubular surface area increases)
d. Increases near the pulp and dentin border as the hydrostatic pressure in the tubules
decreases
d. They are infrequent but when found are located in the basal portion of the cells.
c. The Golgi complex packages collagen precursors (e.g., proline) into vesicles that
are released into the predentin. These then precipitate to form tropocollagen and,
eventually, collagen fibrils.
d. Synthesis begins in the RER with procollagen being packaged in the Golgi
complex. Vesicles are formed and release tropocollagen in the predentin matrix.
a. Dendritic cells are similar to Langerhans' cells and play a significant role in
induction of T-cell immunity.
b. Although not normally present in the healthy pulp, dendritic cells appear during
inflammation and, like macrophages, are phagocytic.
10. Which of the following statements regarding the extracellular matrix of the pulp is
false?
a. The extracellular matrix changes with eruption of the tooth as the chrondroitin
sulfate concentration decreases and the hyaluronic acid and dermatan sulfate fraction
increase.
d. The water content of the extracellular matrix is relatively low, giving the tissue a
colloidal consistency and limiting movement of components within the tissue.
11. Teeth with immature root development often are unresponsive to electrical pulp
testing because which of the following?
a. Myelinated fibers are the last structures to appear in the developing pulp.
b. Predentin and intratubular fibers are not present until root formation is complete.
12. Each of the following statements support the hydrodynamic theory for pain,
except for one. Which is the exception?
a. Odontoblasts have a low-membrane potential and do not respond to electrical
stimulation.
b. Placement of local anesthetics on dentin does not alter the pain response.
c. There is a positive correlation between fluid movement in the tubules and the
discharge of intradental nerves.
d. Forty percent of the tubules in the area of pulp horns contain intratubular nerve
endings.
13. Which of the following statements regarding a patient that has a sharp, short
sensation to cold that resolves immediately with removal of the stimulus is correct?
14. Which of the following statements regarding pulpal bloof flow is correct?
c. The pulpal blood flow is the highest of oral tissues because of the relatively high
metabolic activity of the pulp.
15. Which of the following statements outlines the most significant factor influencing
the pulp's response to injury and compromised healing?
d. The fact that the pulp may not have a lymphatic system.
16. Which of the following statements regarding age changes in the pulp are false?
b. Necrotic tissue
c. Microorganisms
a. True
b. False
4. The most important route of bacteria into the dental pulp is from which of the
following?
a. Microbial interaction
b. They concentrate in the cortical area of lymph nodes and also circulate in the
blood.
c. They are responsible for the cell-mediated arm of the immune system.
d. All of the above statements are accurate.
a. Phagocytosis of microorganisms
b. It is detectable radiographically.
c. They are difficult for macrophages and multinucleated giant cells to remove.
c. Periapical actinomycosis
b. Bacterial invasion
d. Immunologic reactions
b. The process of carious invasion, cavitation, and exposure of the pulp from
bacteria
c. Bacteria located in dentinal tubules, and the pulp that are seeded to the systemic
circulation, inducing disease in other areas of the body
b. Fusobacterium nucleatum
c. Prevotella nigrescens
d. Porphyromonas intermedia
c. Antibiotics
b. Pili break off and form extracellular vesicles filled with enzymes.
a. It involves the submental, sublingual, and submental space of the right or left side.
a. Sinus tracts
13. Incision and drainage of cellulitis is effective because of which of the following?
17. Which of the following statements regarding the American Heart Association
(AHA) guidelines for prophylactic antibiotic coverage is accurate?
18. The AHA recommends antibiotic prophylaxis for which of the following?
a. Surgery
c. Periodontal-ligament injection
d. All of the above
20. Which of the following is correct in relation to the periradicular lesion formed in
response to dental caries and subsequent pulp necrosis?
d. Gingival and periodontal tissues are more sensitive to testing than the pulp.
a. They are produced by a charged coupled device and do not require x-rays.
d. They are captured by a sensor that has a greater surface area than traditional film.
b. When stressed, they exhibit transformation from the austenitic crystalline phase to
a martensitic structure.
c. They cannot be strained to the same level as stainless steel (SS) without
permanent deformation.
d. They are easier to prebend before placement in the canal than SS.
a. Removal of cotton, paper points, and other objects from the canal
b. They differ, because the file is manufactured by twisting a tapered, square blank.
c. They are more effective in removing debris.
d. They are the least flexible when comparing instruments of the same size.
c. They are safer than K-type files, because external signs of stress are more visible
as changes in flute design.
d. They are aggressive because of a negative-rake angle that is parallel to the shaft.
10. Which of the following statements regarding the best apex locators is accurate?
c. They measure the impedance between the file and the mucosa.
d. On average, they are accurate to within 0.5 mm of the apex.
c. The piezoelectric unit uses a RispiSonic, ShaperSonic, and TrioSonic file system.
12. Which of the following statements regarding ultrasonic root canal instrumentation
is accurate?
d. It is most useful in small canals where file contact with the wall is maximized.
13. Which of the following statements regarding sodium hypochlorite used as a root
canal irrigating solution is accurate?
d. It is a good wetting agent that permits the solution to flow into canal irregularities.
b. Low toxicity
c. Long working time, but quick setting (i.e., 1 to 2 hours) at body temperature
18. N2, Endomethasone, and Reibler's paste are sealers that do which of the
following?
b. Induce healing in the apical pulp wound after vital pulp extirpation
20. The root end is ultrasonically prepared during endodontic surgery for which of the
following reasons?
a. Increased permeability
b. Alteration of collagen
d. Dentinal sclerosis
2. Relatively few bacteria are found in a pulp abscess because of which of the
following?
4. The highest incidence of pulp necrosis is associated with which of the following?
b. Inlay preparations
d. Full-crown preparations
d. Acid softens the dentin and increases microleakage at the restoration dentin
interface.
6. The response of the pulp to a recently placed amalgam without a cavity lining is
usually which of the following?
a. Slight-to-moderate inflammation
b. Moderate-to-severe inflammation
d. None
7. The smear layer on dentin walls acts to prevent pulpal injury for which of the
following?
8. A reaction that tends to protect the pulp from injury from dentinal caries is which
of the following?
10. Deeper cavity preparations have more potential for pulpal damage because of
which of the following?
a. 1 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
e. 1 and 2
11. Agents that clean, dry, or sterilize the cavity are which of the following?
12. Of the following, which is the best way to prevent pulp damage during cavity
preparation?
13. Which is the major reason why Class II restorations with composite are damaging
to the pulp?
c. Toxic chemicals are released from the composite and diffuse into the pulp.
14. A pulp has been damaged and is inflamed because of deep caries and cavity
preparation. What material placed on the floor of the cavity aids the pulp in resolving the
inflammation?
a. Calcium hydroxide
b. Zinc oxide-eugenol
c. Steroid formulations
15. A cusp fractures and exposes dentin but not the pulp. What is the probable
response in the pulp?
b. Mild-to-moderate inflammation
d. No pulp response
16. The following illustration shows a section of pulp and dentin underlying an area
of cavity preparation, which was done 1 day previous. The best description of the pulp
reaction is which of the following?
a. There is no reaction; the pulp appears normal.
17. This is an area of pulp close to a carious exposure (see the following illustration).
The inflammatory response is primarily which of the following?
a. Acute
b. Chronic
c. Giant cell
d. Vascular
18. The early inflammatory cell infiltrate response of the pulp to caries involves
primarily which of the following?
a. Neutrophils
b. Macrophages
19. Hypersensitivity of the pulp after restoration placement indicates which of the
following?
a. Luxation
b. Subluxation
c. Alveolar fracture
d. Root fracture
c. It involves root canal treatment if the exposed dentin is sensitive to cold stimulus.
a. Exposure to the oral cavity permits rapid bacterial penetration through the pulp.
b. Inflammation is limited to the coronal 2 mm of the exposed pulp for the first 24
hours.
a. Midroot fracture
b. Intrusive luxation
c. Concussion
10. Which of the following statements regarding internal root resorption is accurate?
12. Which medium of storage for an avulsed tooth is best for prolonged extraoral
periods?
b. Milk
c. Distilled water
d. Saliva
13. The most important factor for managing avulsion is which of the following?
a. Extraoral time
14. Tooth mobility after trauma may be because of which of the following?
a. Displacement
b. Alveolar fracture
c. Root fracture
d. Crown fracture
15. Which of the following is true about thermal and electrical tests after trauma?
a. Sensitivity tests evaluate the nerve and circulatory condition of the tooth.
b. It is initiated by odontoblasts.
d. It is usually asymptomatic.
d. They should have apexification attempted when the apex is not closed.
d. In the furcation
b. The maxillary lateral incisor is affected more that the central incisor.
c. The grooves extend apically in varying distances, with less than 1% reaching the
apex.
d. Pulp necrosis frequently occurs in teeth with palatogingival grooves because of
the lack of cementum covering the dentin.
3. The prognosis for a tooth with a perforation is affected by all of the following
factors, except for one. Which is the exception?
b. Pulp necrosis occurs, and the toxic irritants cause inflammation that migrates to
the gingival margin, creating a periodontal pocket.
c. Irritants gain access to the periodontal tissues at the site of a vertical-root fracture,
producing tissue destruction that mimics periodontitis.
5. Which of the following statements best describes the effect periodontal disease
has on the dental pulp?
a. There is a direct correlation between the severity of the periodontal disease and
the percentage of pulps that become necrotic.
d. Periodontal disease that does not expose the apical foramen is unlikely to produce
significant damage to the pulp.
6. Which of the following statements regarding the primary endodontic lesion with
secondary periodontic involvement is correct?
a. Pulp necrosis occurs initially and an apical lesion forms. Apical migration of
periodontal disease results in communication between the two lesions.
d. Pulp necrosis occurs and forms a sinus tract through the periodontal ligament that,
over time, permits the accumulation of plaque and calculus on the root.
c. The long-term prognosis for the pulp in teeth with vital-root resection is poor.
b. The combined endodontic periodontic lesion has the least favorable prognosis for
GTR because of the relationship of the lesion to the gingival margin.
9. A 24-year-old female patient has drainage from the gingival sulcus of her
maxillary, right, central incisor (tooth no. 8). Three years ago she relates a porcelain
fused-to-metal bridge (nos. 6 to 8) was placed because of a congenitally missing, lateral
incisor. Clinical examination reveals a 12 mm probing defect on the lingual aspect of
tooth no. 8. Additional probing depths are 3 mm or less. Pulp testing reveals that no. 6,
no. 8, no. 9, no. 10 are responsive to CO2 snow. Radiographic examination reveals a
diffuse radiolucent area along the mesial lateral root surface extending from the crestal
tissue to the apex. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this lesion?
a. Vertical-root fracture
b. Palatogingival groove
c. Pulp necrosis
d. Periodontitis
e. Osteogenic sarcoma
10. A 51-year-old woman seeks evaluation of swelling of the buccal tissue opposite
her mandibular, right, first molar (tooth no. 30). She relates a history of having a full-gold
crown placed 2 months ago. She states that she has had pain for the past week and that
the swelling began yesterday. Clinical examination reveals swelling in the buccal
furcation area of tooth no. 30. Probing depths are 3 to 4 mm, except for a 6-mm defect in
the furcal area of tooth no. 30. Pulp testing with CO2 snow reveals teeth nos. 28, 29, and
31 respond. Tooth no. 30 is not responsive. Radiographic examination reveals normal
apical structures, however, there is a radiolucent area in the furcation of tooth no. 30.
This area was not evident on the film taken before placement of the crown. Based on this
information what diagnostic classification is most appropriate?
2. Which of the following best describes the neural innervation of the dental pulp?
c. Sympathetic fibers are not blocked with application of local anesthetic agents.
a. Nucleus caudalis
b. Limbic system
c. Reticular system
4. Pain that refers from an inflamed maxillary sinus to maxillary molars is likely to
the phenomenon of which of the following?
a. Convergence
b. Sublimation
c. Nociception
d. Information transfer
e. Projection
d. They are sympathetic fibers that modulate blood flow in the pulp after sensory
stimulation.
b. When compared with ibuprofen, etodolac has a more profound analgesic action.
c. Studies indicate etodolac is unique, because the drug does not have a peripheral
analgesic mechanism of action.
d. This drug can be prescribed for adult patients with aspirin hypersensitivity.
a. It blocks nociceptive signals from the trigeminal nucleus to higher brain centers.
9. Opioids are frequently used in combination with other drugs because which of the
following?
10. Which of the following is true for the use of codeine as an analgesic agent?
12. Which of the following best describes a "flexible plan" for prescribing analgesic
agents?
16. Peripheral afferent nerve fibers in an inflamed pulp may respond to mediators by
which of the following?
17. Two nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) that have minimal adverse
gastrointestinal side effects are which of the following?
18. To minimize posttreatment pain, when are analgesics most effective when
administered?
a. As a pretreatment
a. Ineffective
c. Management of the infection and performance of root end surgery when the
swelling subsides
d. Incise and drain the swelling, prescribe an antibiotic, and follow the patient on
recall examinations
a. Two films permit the evaluation and location of normal anatomic structures.
3. When a vessel is severed, initial hemostasis results from which of the following?
e. 4% prilocaine plain
5. The primary beneficial action of epinephrine when performing root end surgery is
which of the following?
a. The horizontal incision for the mucogingival flap is made perpendicular to the
cortical bone.
d. The type of vertical-releasing incisions distinguish the mucogingival flap from the
Luebke-Oschsenbein flap.
e. The semilunar flap has the advantage of providing an esthetic result without scar
formation.
a. Ferric sulfate
b. Calcium sulfate paste
c. Microfibrillar collagen
d. Bone wax
e. Epinephrine pellets
9. Each of the following statements is correct regarding the use of the H 161
Lindemann bone cutter for root end surgery is correct, except for one. Which is the
exception?
b. It has more flutes that conventional burs, so cutting is faster and more efficient.
c. When used with the Impact Air 45 hand piece splatter is decreased.
10. Which of the following statements regarding root end resection is correct?
a. The root should be resected at a 45-degree angle to ensure adequate access and
visibility.
b. The apical 2 mm should be removed to ensure that apical ramifications are not
present.
11. Which of the following statements regarding the isthmus between canals is
correct?
a. Although often noted between canals, failure to include this area in the
preparation does not affect the prognosis of a tooth.
c. Isthmus incidence is not affected by the amount of the root resection but increases
as the bevel approaches 45 degrees.
a. Ferric sulfate acts by producing a tamponade effect and is absorbed by the body
over 2 to 3 weeks.
13. Which of the following statements regarding root end preparation is false?
a. The ideal preparation should extend 3 mm into the root and follow the long axis
of the tooth.
b. The lingual wall of the preparation is the most difficult area to evaluate.
d. KiS tips have enhanced cutting efficiency for root end preparations because of a
zirconium nitride coating.
a. Super EBA is preferred as a root end filling material over IRM because it lacks
eugenol.
d. Periapical healing with MTA results in cementum formation over the material.
15. Which of the following statements is correct regarding treatment for a 73-year-old
woman who develops ecchymosis after root end surgery?
a. Instruct the patient to place warm compresses over the area three to four times
daily.
d. Explain the cause of the problem to the patient and provide reassurance.
a. Mandibular premolars
b. Maxillary premolars
c. Maxillary molars
d. Mandibular molars
3. Which of the following is not a factor affecting the onset of local anesthesia?
6. When comparing amide and ester local anesthetic agents, which of the following
is true?
a. Esters are more likely to produce systemic toxicity when compared to amides.
b. PSA block
c. Palatal infiltration
a. Central incisor
b. Canine
c. First premolar
d. Second molar
10. In performing the Akinosi technique, which of the following are accurate?
a. The needle is inserted at the height of the mucogingival junction of the most
posterior, maxillary tooth.
b. The needle is passed lingual to the mandibular ramous until is bone is contacted.
c. Injection at the neck of the mandibular condyle is the objective.
11. The Stabident local anesthesia system is used for which one of the following
reasons?
12. Prescriptions for analgesic agents should provide which of the following?
c. Administration instructions for patients in pain the day before initiating root canal
treatment to ensure adequate blood levels
13. For emergency treatment of patients with pulp pathosis, oral sedation should be
considered during which of the following?
14. Which of the following statements regarding the use of nitrous oxide inhalation
sedation is accurate?
d. It should be used only when an auxiliary of the same sex as the patient is present
to assist.
16. Which of the following statements regarding regional nerve block is accurate?
17. Which of the following statements regarding the anterior middle superior alveolar
(AMSA) nerve block is accurate?
18. If the dentist thinks there may be considerable posttreatment pain, the clinician
may do which of the following?
a. Prescribe antibiotics
a. Cervical resorption can be as high 25% when Superoxyl and heat are used.
c. The incidence of cervical resorption increases in patients who are 25 years old
and older.
d. Although cervical resorption is often attributed to bleaching, it is more likely
caused by a previous traumatic injury to the involved tooth.
3. Each of the following is an intrinsic form of tooth discoloration, except for one.
Which is the exception?
a. Endemic fluorosis
c. Tetracycline staining
d. Peridex staining
a. The agent used in the technique is 30% hydrogen peroxide, which can be obtained
in proprietary products, such as Prema.
a. The dentin should be etched before placement of the bleaching agent to increase
permeability of the tubules and enhance the bleaching action.
d. The definitive bonded restoration should be placed at the visit in which the
sodium perborate paste is removed.
a. Power bleaching often uses a liquid rubber dam composed of a light cured resin
gel.
b. Vitamin E can be used to neutralize the oxidizing effects of hydrogen peroxide
that comes in contact with soft tissues.
a. It remains constant as they progress from the periphery to the pulpal dentin
junction with a decreasing diameter.
b. It remains constant as they progress from the periphery to the pulpal dentin
junction with an increasing diameter.
c. It decreases as they progress from the periphery to the pulpal dentin junction,
maintaining a constant diameter.
d. It increases as they progress from the periphery to the pulpal dentin junction with
an increase in diameter.
e. It increases as they progress from the periphery to the pulpal dentin junction,
maintaining a constant diameter.
a. When teeth exhibiting no caries, fracture, or other causative factors are restored
with crowns, those serving as abutments exhibit a higher rate of necrosis.
b. The periodontal status of teeth restored with crowns is not a significant factor in
the pulpal prognosis.
c. Should pulp necrosis occur in teeth restored with crowns, the process occurs
rapidly, usually within the first 3 years after cementation.
d. The amount of occlusal reduction is a more significant factor in inducing pulpal
pathosis when compared to axial reduction.
e. Pulpal pathosis becomes significant when the remaining thickness of dentin is less
than 1.5 mm.
3. Which of the following would best fit the definition of the "stressed pulp
syndrome"?
b. A tooth that is asymptomatic but has had numerous restorations placed over a
period of years because of recurrent caries
d. A tooth that is not responsive to pulp testing with CO2 and EPT
5. A tooth requires a post, core, and crown for adequate restorative treatment. Which
of the following is the most important factor in the restorative equation?
a. Dowel length
b. Dowel width
e. An adequate ferrule
6. A patient requires a post and core for restoration of a narrow, mandibular, central
incisor tooth with 1 mm of structure above the gingival level. Which of the following
would be the most appropriate dowel for this situation?
7. Which of the following statements regarding the carbon fiber dowels is false?
9. The most appropriate time to determine the precise method for restoring the
endodontically treated tooth is which of the following?
b. Post space should extend into the root to a depth 3 to 5 mm from the apex.
c. The post space required for fabrication of a dowel and core using a direct
technique requires removal of more tooth structure than the proprietary dowel systems
because of the need to remove undercuts.
a. Pathologic changes in the periradicular tissues are most often apparent at the
apexes than the furcation of molars.
b. The presence of calcified masses within the pulp is indicative of acute pulpal
disease.
3. Which of the following diagnostic tests is usually reliable for determining pulpal
status of primary teeth?
c. Percussion
a. It is indicated only in the treatment of teeth with deep carious lesions in which
there is no clinical evidence of pulpal degeneration or periapical pathosis.
5. Direct pulp capping is recommended for primary teeth with which of the
following?
a. Carious exposures
b. Mechanical exposures
a. Pain to percussion
c. Variations in mobility
a. Concentration used
b. Method of application
10. An increasingly popular technique for pulpotomy in primary teeth is which of the
following?
a. Formocresol
b. Calcium hydroxide
c. Electrosurgery
d. Laser surgery
c. It is not antigenic.
d. It is less readily metabolized.
12. Which of the following is an indication for root canal treatment of primary teeth?
b. Periapical lesion
c. Dentigerous cyst
13. Which of the following statements regarding access opening on primary incisors
is accurate?
14. Which of the following is true in placing zinc oxide-eugenol in a primary tooth?
a. Older patients have fewer visits per year than younger patients.
3. In the older patient (as compared with a younger patient), regarding pulpal
inflammation from caries, which of the following statements is accurate?
b. Sensory nerves in pulp lose their myelin sheath as a result of long-term, repeated
injuries.
c. With age, patients become less alert and, therefore, less responsive to external
stimuli.
6. In the older patient (as compared with the younger patient) the exit of the canal
(i.e., apical foramen) is which of the following?
8. Success of root canal treatment in older patients (as compared with younger
patients) is which of the following?
a. Better
b. Poorer
c. Equivalent
9. In the older patient root canal treatment (as compared to extraction) is which of
the following?
10. A postsurgical condition that tends to occur more frequently in older patients is
which of the following?
e. Loss of consciousness
b. Gingival recession exposes cementum and dentin, which is less resistant to caries.
a. The bone of the aged patient is more mineralized than that of a younger patient.
b. Overlooked canals are seldom a problem because they are usually calcified.
15. Which of the following statements regarding endodontic surgery in older patients
is accurate?
16. The radiolucent structure at the periapex of the premolar in the following
illustration is likely which of the following?
a. A maxillary sinus
c. A fibroosseous lesion
17. The elevated structure facial to the crowned first molar in the following
illustration is likely which of the following?
a. Acute apical abscess
b. Periodontal abscess
c. Fibroma
d. Exostoses
a. Calcification
b. Anomalous location
c. Inadequate access
3. The major reason for failure, requiring retreatment, is which of the following?
a. Persistent pain
c. Restorative indications
d. Microleakage
a. Commonplace
6. Retreatment has the most favorable prognosis during which of the following?
7. For silver point removal, ultrasonics are used for which of the following reasons?
a. To break up cement surrounding the point
b. To reduce the level of dentin on the floor of the chamber to expose the point
c. To break up the silver point into small pieces, which can then be flushed out
d. To loosen the silver point by applying the vibrating instrument directly to the
silver cone
9. If a cervical root perforation occurs during the treatment and the canal preparation
is incomplete, the generally preferred time for repairing the defect is which of the
following?
a. Straight-line access
c. Magnification
d. Impossible
a. Extraction
a. Inter-doctor consultations
1. The radiolucent structure (arrow) at the apex of the canine is likely which of the
following?
a. Maxillary fracture
b. Apical pathosis
c. Nasopalatine duct
d. Nutrient canal
d. Calcific metamorphosis
3. The recommended treatment and reason for the treatment is which of the
following?
b. Root end resection and root end filling; there is pathosis, but the pulp space is too
small to attempt root canal treatment.
d. Extraction is prescribed.
Tooth no. 30 (first molar) causes the patient prolonged pain to cold and episodes of
spontaneous pain. The tooth responds to probing with an explorer into the carious lesion.
There is no pain to percussion or palpation and no swelling. Periodontal probing is within
normal limits.
a. Reversible pulpitis
b. Irreversible pulpitis
c. Necrosis
a. Normal
a. Normal structures
a. Normal
b. Hypersensitive
c. Irreversible pulpitis
d. Necrosis
a. Gram-positive aerobes
b. Gram-negative anaerobes
c. Mixed flora
d. None
a. Inflamed pulp
b. Apical abscess
c. Cracked tooth
d. Periodontal abscess
a. Cold test
b. Heat test
c. Test cavity
d. Transillumination
a. Occlusal amalgam
c. Pin-retained amalgam
d. Full-cast crown
14. Which tooth and tissue are the probable source of pain?
15. What is the likely pulpal and periapical diagnosis for the lateral incisor?
d. Reversible; normal
16. What is the likely pulpal and periapical diagnosis for the canine?
b. Canine only
a. Lymphocytes
c. Plasma cells
d. Macrophages
20. Looking at the radiograph and clinical photograph, what is the likely cause of the
pulpal and periapical pathosis?
a. Incisal attrition
b. Cervical erosion
c. Caries
d. Impact trauma
Amalgams were place a few months earlier after removal of deep caries on both molars.
She has increased pain on lying down. The pain is not relieved with analgesics. She cannot
localize the pain to an individual tooth. Pulp testing shows response on the premolar and
second molar. The first molar does not respond. Cold-water application causes intense,
diffuse pain in the region. Percussion and palpation are not painful. Probings are normal.
21. Which tooth (teeth) is (are) the most likely cause of her pain?
a. Premolar
b. First molar
c. Second molar
22. What is the pulpal and periapical diagnosis for the first molar?
a. Necrosis; chronic apical periodontitis
23. What is the pulpal and periapical diagnosis for the second molar?
d. Normal; normal
24. What would be the minimal emergency treatment on the offending tooth (teeth)?
a. Remove the amalgam and place a sedative dressing. Prescribe analgesics and
antibiotics.
25. Inferior alveolar injection is indicated. If the offending tooth (teeth) is (are) not
anesthetized, what is the likely reason?
c. There may be morphologic changes in the nerves that originate in the inflamed
areas; these nerves becomes more excitable.
d. Scar tissue
c. Coronal leakage
d. No treatment is needed.
29. Based on this information, the clinical photograph, and the radiograph, what is the
pulpal diagnosis for tooth no. 9?
a. Normal
b. Reversible pulpitis
c. Irreversible pulpitis
d. Necrotic
30. Based on this information, the clinical photograph, and the radiograph, what is the
pulpal diagnosis for tooth no. 10?
a. Normal
b. Reversible pulpitis
c. Irreversible pulpitis
d. Necrotic
a. Normal
32. Which of the following is the most likely the cause of swelling associated with
teeth nos. 9 and 10?
a. Pulp necrosis
b. Periodontal disease
d. Vertical-root fracture
a. Percussion
b. A periapical radiograph
d. Pulp testing
e. Periodontal probing
c. Analgesic treatment and antibiotic treatment until the involved tooth can be
localized
d. Flap reflection to inspect the root for a vertical root fracture or lateral canal
35. Which of the following statements is true regarding the effects of periodontal
treatment procedures on the dental pulp?
ANSWER KEY
Chapter 1
1. b;
2. d;
3. b;
4. b;
5. b;
6. d;
7. a;
8. c;
9. c;
10. c;
11. e;
12. d;
13. b;
14. a;
15. c;
16. d;
17. d;
18. c;
19. d;
20. b.
Chapter 2
1. d;
2. e;
3. c;
4. a;
5. b;
6. b;
7. b;
8. b;
9. b;
10. c;
11. b;
12. b;
13. a;
14. b;
15. c;
16. b;
17. a;
18. a;
19. b;
20. d;
21. c;
22. a;
23. b;
24. c.
Chapter 3
1. d;
2. b;
3. b;
4. d;
5. c;
6. c;
7. c;
8. a;
9. a;
10. e;
11. b.
Chapter 4
1. d;
2. c;
3. b;
4. c;
5. d;
6. c;
7. d;
8. c;
9. c;
10. a;
11. c;
12. d.
Chapter 5
1. b;
2. c;
3. d;
4. b;
5. a;
6. c;
7. d;
8. a;
9. c;
10. c;
11. c;
12. d;
13. c;
14. a;
15. c;
16. a;
17. a;
18. d;
19. c;
20. b;
21. a.
Chapter 6
1. a;
2. c;
3. b;
4. a;
5. b;
6. d;
7. b;
8. c;
9. a;
10. b;
11. e;
12. b;
13. e.
Chapter 7
1. a;
2. c;
3. a;
4. d;
5. b;
6. c;
7. a;
8. b;
9. d;
10. b.
Chapter 8
1. a;
2. b;
3. c;
4. a;
5. c;
6. d;
7. b;
8. d;
9. b;
10. d;
11. a;
12. a.
Chapter 9
1. c;
2. d;
3. a;
4. c;
5. e;
6. d;
7. a;
8. d;
9. c;
10. b;
11. b;
12. a;
13. a;
14. a;
15. a;
16. d;
17. d.
Chapter 10
1. c;
2. b;
3. c;
4. b;
5. a;
6. a;
7. b;
8. d;
9. b;
10. a;
11. b;
12. a.
Chapter 11
1. c;
2. a;
3. b;
4. a;
5. b;
6. b;
7. a;
8. d;
9. b;
10. d;
11. a;
12. d;
13. c;
14. b;
15. b;
16. a.
Chapter 12
1. c;
2. a;
3. b;
4. b;
5. c;
6. a;
7. c;
8. a;
9. d;
10. a;
11. c;
12. b;
13. b;
14. c;
15. a.
Chapter 13
1. d
2. c
3. a
4. a
5. c
6. d
7. b;
8. d
9. b;
10. c
11. d
12. b;
13. e
14. b;
15. c;
16. c;
17. c;
18. d;
19. e;
20. b.
Chapter 14
1. a;
2. c;
3. a;
4. b;
5. a;
6. a;
7. c;
8. a;
9. c;
10. e;
11. a;
12. c;
13. a;
14. b;
15. b;
16. d;
17. b;
18. c;
19. a;
20. d.
Chapter 15
1. d;
2. d;
3. a;
4. d;
5. a;
6. a;
7. a;
8. b;
9. d;
10. c;
11. d;
12. d;
13. b;
14. d;
15. b;
16. b;
17. a;
18. e;
19. d.
Chapter 16
1. c;
2. a;
3. c;
4. a;
5. b;
6. b;
7. a;
8. b;
9. d;
10. c;
11. a;
12. a;
13. a;
14. e;
15. c;
16. d;
17. b.
Chapter 17
1. b;
2. a;
3. e;
4. b;
5. d;
6. d;
7. b;
8. a;
9. b;
10. a.
Chapter 18
1. a;
2. a;
3. a;
4. a;
5. a;
6. a;
7. a;
8. a;
9. b;
10. d;
11. a;
12. b;
13. a;
14. a;
15. b;
16. e;
17. b;
18. a;
19. a.
Chapter 19
1. c;
2. e;
3. a;
4. d;
5. a;
6. d;
7. c;
8. a;
9. b;
10. d;
11. b;
12. c;
13. b;
14. a;
15. d.
Chapter 20
1. a;
2. d;
3. d;
4. b;
5. c;
6. c;
7. b;
8. a;
9. d;
10. a;
11. a;
12. a;
13. c;
14. d;
15. a;
16. b;
17. c;
18. b;
19. d.
Chapter 21
1. a;
2. a;
3. d;
4. b;
5. b;
6. d.
Chapter 22
1. d;
2. a;
3. b;
4. d;
5. e;
6. a;
7. d;
8. b;
9. d;
10. d.
Chapter 23
1. d;
2. c;
3. d;
4. d;
5. b;
6. d;
7. c;
8. b;
9. a;
10. c;
11. a;
12. b;
13. b;
14. d.
Chapter 24
1. c;
2. d;
3. a;
4. e;
5. a;
6. d;
7. c;
8. c;
9. c;
10. a;
11. d;
12. b;
13. c;
14. c;
15. b;
16. a;
17. d.
Chapter 25
1. d;
2. b;
3. d;
4. c;
5. e;
6. a;
7. a;
8. d;
9. a;
10. d;
11. c;
12. d.
Chapter 26
1. c;
2. a;
3. c;
4. a;
5. d
2. d;
3. c;
4. b;
5. a;
6. b;
7. a;
8. d;
9. d;
10. c;
11. c;
12. d;
13. d;
14. c;
15. d;
16. c;
17. b;
18. a;
19. b;
20. a;
21. c;
22. a;
23. a;
24. d;
25. c.
26. d;
27. d;
28. d;
29. a;
30. a;
31. e;
32. b;
33. d;
34. a;
35. d.