Turned up at Jetset House Gatwick

Canteen there so you can get drinks and food during the day
Met by 4 very very nice Qatar manager pilots. Main man being Richard
Nanton,
very nice and has a good sense of humour. Other 3 guys were Paul,
Doug
and some Qatar man who I struggled to remember his name, so I had
in my head
he was called Colin (Kalihn)
They took us all up to a room and asked for our log books, licences,
photocopies of docs and
passports. They took them to another room to check. We then was
shown a film about Qatar Airways. Take notes and be seen to take
notes as you will be asked questions during your interview.
We were then given a power point presentation about Qatar and were
encouraged to ask question anytime you like.
We were then given a tech paper, 50 question in one hour. I finished
mine in 40 mins and I am not the brightest. Take your time and leave
those you struggle with until the end.
50% of the exams papers are what that guy on pprune posted,
mighty duck or whatever his name is. The other 25% of the paper
was not too hard and about 6 questions I did not have a clue and had
to guess. Pass mark is 70%, so you can get something like 15ish
wrong. All 10 of us passed the tech paper and you would have to be
very very unlucky to fail it. All 10 the next day also passed their tech
paper.

Interview lasted about 30 mins and was very very relaxed and friendly.

Ask to go to canteen and they come down after each interview and
said well done, see you in the sim the following day.

All 10 of us got through day 1 and the first 4 have had their sims. I
and 3 others going this evening at 7pm.

Its in 320 for us, not 330. I am not too worried about that right now
and will ask power and pitch things when I get there. They have also
got slots on the 757 and 737. They will put you on whatever is
available regardless of what you fly now. If you are an airbus pilot, you
may still get an airbus for the sim. If your a 757 767 pilot, you still
may get a 757 for the sim. Its whats available and nothing to do with
seeing how you get on with a different type.

QATAR AIRWAYS INTERVIEW TECHNICAL
QUESTIONS:
98/ WHAT ELEMENTS OF A TACAN CAN COMMERCIAL A/C USE?
RADIALS CAN BE USED TO TRACK
99/ WHAT HAPPENS TO CABIN PRESSURE DURING A
DEPRESSURIZATION?
PRESSURE GOES DOWN : CABIN ALTITUDE INCREASES:
DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE REDUCES
100/ WHAT FLYING CONDITIONS COULD FAIR WEATHER CU
GIVE YOU?
TURBULANCE , GOOD VISIBILITY
Q. Mode C in a transponder passes which information
altitude based on:
The regional QNH height on the subscale setting
Altitude based on 1013.25
Q. OCA in second segment of the missed approach
procedure after an instrument approach.
A. 30m = 90 / 120 etc feet.
(50m final segment)
ON A 3 DEGREE SLOPE YOUR GROUNDSPEED REDUCES BY
10 KTS WHAT IS THE VERTICAL SPEED ADJUSTMENT?
5 x gs = 50ft
Q with a fwrd cg movement what is the typical EAS change
between aft and fwd cg ? A. 12kts : B. 5tks C. 10kts D.
No Change.
AIRCRAFT IS CLASSIFIED HEAHY ABOVE WHAT WEIGHT:
136T
qn : soundwaves are dependant on : A -PRESSURE : B-
TEMPRATURE C-TEMP AND PRESURE : D- ??
Affect on Vmcg when you take off at a higher altitude airport
and higher density
Vmcg = high altitude/low density => Vmcg will be higher
since controllability less????
AFFECT OF V2 WHEN YOU INCREASE YOUR FLAP
SETTING??? V2 = 1.1 x Vmca => Vmca decreases with high
flap => V2 decreases
HOW LOND DOES IT TAKE FOR A WAKE TURBUKLENCE TO
DISSIPATE BEHIND A HEAVY ACFT ON TAKE OFF?
[21:27:27] jorge urtasun palacios: 2 MINUTES
74/ WAKE SEPERATION BETWEEN 2 HEAVIES?
2 MIN RECOMENDED BUT NOT SPECIFIED ( 4NM STANDARD )
67/ WHAT CATEGORY IS AN A/C IN WITH A 141-165KTS VREF?
Vat (threshold speed 1.3 times stall speed at MLM and landing
config.)
CATEGORY D 141/165
CAT C 121/140
CAT B 91/120
A <91
66/ WHAT IS THE REQUIRED MIN G/A CLIMB GRADIENT?
APPROACH CLIMB GRADIENT GEAR UP 2 ENGINE / CRITICAL
ENG INOP 2.1% LANDING CLIMB GRADIENT FULL LANDING
CONFIG 3.2%
LANDING CLIMB REQUIREMENT CRITICAL ENGINE OUT (LVO):
2.5%
70/ YOU LOSE VISUAL CONTACT WITH THE RUNWAY WHEN
DOWNWIND, WHAT DO YOU DO?
CONSIDERED CIRCLE TO LAND MISSED APPROACH OF THE
RUNWAYS APPROACH WAS MADE TO: CLIMBING TURN
TOWARDS THE RUNWAY AND CARRY OUT THE PUBLISHED
MISSED APPROACH FOR THE RUNWAY APPROACH WAS MADE
TO.
Q.Breathing regulated by: oxygen in cells/ vapour in avioli/
Co2 in blood/ and one other choice I can't remember
breathing is regulated by the CO2 concentration in the
arterial blood and the brain.
Ice accretion occurs worst in cirrus/cumulonimbus/snow or
freezing rain? FREEZING RAIN
INITIAL PHASE
The initial phase begins at the MAPt and ends at the start of
climb (SOC). This phase requires the concentrated
attention of the pilot on establishing the climb and the
changes in aeroplane configuration. It is assumed that
guidance
equipment is not extensively utilized during these
manoeuvres, and for this reason, no turns are specified in
this phase.
6.3 INTERMEDIATE PHASE
6.3.1 The intermediate phase begins at the SOC. The climb
is continued, normally straight ahead. It extends to the
first point where 50 m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained
and can be maintained.
6.3.2 The intermediate missed approach track may be
changed by a maximum of 15' from that of the initial
missed approach phase. During this phase, it is assumed
that the aircraft begins track corrections.
6.4 FINAL PHASE
6.4.1 The final phase begins at the point where 50 m (164
ft) obstacle clearance is f ~ sotb tained (for Category H
procedures, 40 m (131 ft) and can be maintained. It extends
to the point where a new approach, holding or a rehun to
en-route flight is initiated. Tums may be prescribed in this
phase.
e) Missed Approach Procedure
This procedure is used when the pilot once reached the MAP
or the decision height has no visual contact or when there's
another airplane on the runway in use. Usually, for the
missed approach procedures, the standard climb gradient is
2.5%.
Missed approach procedures, the way that are shown on
charts, guarantee the separation from ground obstacles.
This procedure consists of three phases: initial phase,
intermediate phase and final phase. The initial phase begins
at MAP and it ends when the climbing is stabilized; it follows
the intermediate phase which it ends when the aircraft is
separated by at least 50 meters from the highest ground
obstacle; it follows the final phase which it ends at a FIX,
VOR or NDB.
58/WHICH CLOUDS WOULD YOU EXPECT TO GET SHOWERS
FROM?
NIMBUS TYPE CLOUDS or CBs (heavy)
59/ WIND IN KPH, WHAT IS IT IN KNOTS?
1NM = 1.852KM : 1KM = .53996KTS
60/ AIRFIELD PRESSURE / REGIONAL PRESSURE, WHAT IS THE
AIRFIELD ELEVATION (ANSWERS IN
METERS)?
AIRFIELD PRESSURE: IS THE INDICATED ALTITUDE WHEN AN
ALTIMETER IS SET TO THE BASELINE PRESSURE SETTING : ISA
CONDITIONS 1013.25 HPA
REGIONAL PRESSURE: IS THE FORECAST OF THE LOWEST QNH
VALUE WITHIN AN ALTIMETER SETTING REGION. THE VALUES
ARE AVAILABLE HOURLY FOR A PERIOD H+1 TO H+2 IN
WHOLE MB.
1 Mb = 3.28FEET
62/ WHERE IS THE SEMI-CIRCULAR CANAL (NOT IN THE
VENITIAN CASINO VEGAS)?
INNER EAR
64/ WHY IS NOSEWHEEL STEERING CONSIDERED TO BE DIS-
CONNECTED FOR CALCULATING VMCG?
VMCG IS CALCULATED USING PRIMARY AERODYNAMIC
CONTROL INPUTS ONLY. ONLY RUDDER EFFECTIVNESS
65/ WHAT WILL HAPPEN TO THE FLIGHT CONTROLS WITH A
FORWARD COFG?
FORWARD CG: LONGITUDINALY STABLE, INCREASED STALL
SPEED, MORE DRAG , CONTROL FORCES ARE GREATER TO
PITCH UP , GREATER DOWNLOAD FORCE ON THE HORIZONTAL
STABILIZER
WHERE IS RVR CALCULATED FROM?
ITS REPORTED AT THE TOUCHDOWN ZONE / MIDPOINT / AND STOP
END.
IS CALCULATED FROM VISIBILITY, AMBIENT LIGHT LEVEL AND
RUNWAY LIGHT INTENSITY.
IN A METAR HOW IS THE RVR CALCULATED
THE MEASUREMENT IS THE MINIMUM TOUCH-DOWN RVR
IN THE LAST 10 MINUTES BEFORE THE TIME OF
OBSERVATION, GIVEN IN METRES. IF THE RVR IS MORE
THAN THE MAXIMUM THAT CAN BE MEASURED, THEN
THAT MAXIMUM IS GIVEN PRECEDED BY P(LUS). IF IT IS
LESS THAN THE MINIMUM, THE MINIMUM IS GIVEN
PRECEDED BY M(INUS). IF THE RVR HAS BEEN STEADY THE
GROUP CAN BE FOLLOWED BY N(O CHANGE). IF IT HAS
BEEN CHANGING RAPIDLY, THEN THE GROUP IS FOLLOWED
BY U FOR UP OR D FOR DOWN. IF IT HAS BEEN VERY
VARIABLE OVER THE 10 MINUTE OBSERVATION PERIOD,
THE MAXIMUM AND MINIMUM IS GIVEN, SEPARATED BY A
V. THUS A COMPLETE RVR GROUP COULD BE R23L/
0950V1100U. NOTE THAT RVR IS NOT NORMALLY
RECORDED OR REPORTED IF IT IS MORE THAN 1500M, AND
THAT THE METAR REPORTS ONLY TOUCHDOWN RVR. THE
CONVERSION OF MET RVR CANNOT BE USED TO CALCULATE
TAKE OFF PERF. MINIMUMS CAT II /III
How is RVR calculated under a pilots judgement?
We can calculate counting the runway lights.
What is the separation of Center lights?
15 meters CAT III and 30 meters CAT II.
Can you take your own judgement if no RVR provided? yes
What is minimum RVR on takeoff?
150 meters
54/ DOCUMENTS
DOC 8168 OPERATIONAL MATTERS
DOC 4444 PROCEDURES AIR NAVIGATION ( ATC AND
RULES OF AIR ) PANS
Table 1 CONVERSION OF REPORTED MET VIS TO RVR/CMV
RVR/CMV = Reported MET VIS x
Lighting elements in operation
Day
Night
HIALS and HIRL 1.5
2.0
Any type of lighting installation
other than above
1.0
1.5
No lighting 1.0
Not applicable
EXAMPLE: Reported VIS 600m Day (HIALS and HIRL in use):
RVR/CMV = 600m x 1.5 = 900m
Day (No lighting):
RVR/CMV = 600m x 1.0 = 600m
Night (HIALS and HIRL in use):
RVR/CMV = 600m x 2.0 = 1200m
4. ISA temp calculations... (ISA 15 degrees 1013) If at 8000ft temp is
"x" what is the difference. (you get the idea...)
Guessing the temp at 8000 feet should be -1 degrees so any
diff will be ISA + or -
2 degrees per 1000 feet I thought. ISA ELR is 2 /1000ft Also
SALR =1.5 /1000ft and DALR =3 /1000ft
5. The effects of a fwd / aft C of G. (pros and cons) FWD C of
G makes more stable, but more drag, higher stalling speed
and uses more fuel. AFT C of G is less stable, lower stalling
speed, less drag and burns less fuel.
If you move your C of G from full forward to full back
A. You range will increase


If you move your C of G from full forward to full back
A. Stalling speed decreases (less wing loading).
6. If pitot tube is blocked and you climb at constant IAS,
what happens to the speed
Speed of the aircraft decreases and you will eventually
stall.
P U D PITOT UNDERREADS DEsCENT Static O OVERREADS
DEsCENT
7. What happens to TAS if you climb at a constant Mach
etc......
Excellent Chicken Tikka Masala
Equivalent Air Speed
Calibrated Air Speed (RAS)
True Airspeed
Mach No
E C T M
What happens to IAS if the pitot tube is blocked at the start of the
descent
The ASI will begin to under read and you will want to pitch down to
keep the speed, hence you will eventually over speed PUDSOD
6. If pitot tube is blocked and you climb at constant IAS, what
happens to the speed
Speed of the aircraft decreases and you will eventually stall. PUDSOD
Pitot tube errors?
Blocked, inherent (density, compressibility, hysteresis, reversal),
position.
THE PITOT PROBE DIRECTLY SUPPLIES?
A - TOTAL PRESSURE
At a constant CAS in the descent, what happens to TAS and
mach? Decrease (Ex Chick Tik Masa)
IAS and TAS
If you descend difference will decrease
Pitot blocked + descending?
Under reads - IAS decreases (IAS acts like an altimeter in
this case)
WHAT HAPPENS TO AIRSPEED IF THE STATIC VENT IS
BLOCKED?
PUDSOD Static over reads in descent so it will increase.
WHAT HAPPENS TO LSS OR TAS IF ONE INCREASES OR THE
OTHER DECREASES?
10. Calculation to work out Mach.
TAS / LSS True air speed divided by local speed of sound
And LSS=38.94(temp+273)
What is the local speed of sound if flying at M 0.80, TAS 400?
500 knots. (LSS=TAS/Mach) LSS=400/0.8
What happens to LSS or TAS if one increases or the other decreases?
Not sure what this was meant to mean??? Your TAS doesnt affect the
LSS but, if the LLS reduces that has to be because the temperature
has gone down therefore the same IAS or Mach number gives you a
lower TAS Think this means at constant Mno. ie if you descend at
constant Mno, LSS decreases, so TAS decreases
Static variation in pitot tube causes an error and is
called????????????????
Pressure position error
1/ OCA IN SECOND SEGMENT OF THE MISSED APPROACH
PROCEDURE AFTER AN INSTRUMENT APPROACH.
90 / 120 ETC FEET.

2 / MODE C IN A TRANSPONDER PASSES WHICH
INFORMATION
3/ WHEN TO HAVE YOUR SEATBELTS FASTENED
4/ ON A 3 DEGREE SLOPE, YOUR GROUNDSPEED REDUCES
BY 10 KNOTS, WHAT VERTICAL SPEED ADJUSTMENT IS
NECESSARY

5/ AFFECT ON VMCG WHEN YOU TAKE OFF AT A HIGHER
ALTITUDE AIRPORT AND HIGHER DENSITY

6/ NUMBER OF TRANSPONDER CHANNELS AND CODES?
THINK IT WAS 2 (NOT INCLUDING MODE S) AND 4096

7/ COFG IS MEASURED ON THE LATERAL/HORIZONTAL/
LONGITUDINAL/VERTICAL AXIS?

8/ IF V1 IS MISS SET TO A HIGHER VALUE THAN IT SHOULD
HAVE BEEN AND ENGINE FAILS ABOVE ORIGINAL VALUE
WHAT MAY HAPPEN? CHOICE OF 4 WHICH I CANNOT
REMEMBER. I TICKED THAT I DIDN'T THINK ENOUGH ASDA
WOULD BE AVAILABLE.

8/ WHAT IS SUBLIMATION?

9 /ICE ACCRETION OCCURS WORST IN CIRRUS/
CUMULONIMBUS/SNOW OR FREEZING RAIN?

10/ LENTICULARIS CLOUD IS AN INDICATOR OF?
A - MOUNTAIN WAVES
11/ RUNWAY THRESHOLD LIGHTS ARE: GREEN STEADY/
WHITE FLASHING/GREEN FLASHING/WHITE STEADY?

12/ AN AIRCRAFT IS CLASSSED AS 'HEAVY' ABOVE
WHICH WEIGHT?

13/ APPROACH SEPARATION TIMINGS BETWEEN MED
AND HEAVY TYPES.

14/ BREATHING REGULATED BY: OXYGEN IN CELLS/
VAPOUR IN AVIOLI/ CO2 IN BLOOD/ AND ONE OTHER
CHOICE I CAN'T REMEMBER

15/ SOUNDWAVES ARE AFFECTED BY: TEMP&PRESSURE/
DENSITY/ TEMP/ HUMIDITY?

16/ AFFECT ON V2 IF YOU INCREASE YOUR TAKEOFF
FLAP SETTING?
17/ WHAT DEFINES CATEGORY C AIRCRAFT
APPROACH SPEED 121-141
18/ TIME OF USEFUL CONSCIOUSNESS VARIES WITH
EACH PERSON AND CABIN ALTITUDE
19/ A QUESTION ALONG THE LINES OFF WHAT
DEVIATION IS THE OFFICIAL DEVIATION FROM
ASSIGNED ALTITUDE THERE WAS SOME DISCUSSION
AS TO WEATHER THIS WAS IN RVSM AIRSPACE OR NOT I
OPTED FOR 200FT ALTHOUGH SOME PEOPLE WENT FOR
A HIGHER VALUE THAN THIS. I BELIEVE ITS 300FT
OFFICIALLY FOR AN ALT BUST
20/ WHAT WEATHER REPORT IS USED TO PASS CRITICAL
INFORMATION CONCERNING FLIGHT SAFETY
ATIS, METAR, SPECI OR SIGMET I WAS UNSURE AS THE
BOOKS SAY BOTH SPECI AND SIGMET APPEAR TO OFFER
THIS I TOOK A PUNT AT SIGMET. I AGREE WITH SIGMET
DEFINITION OF CAVOK VIS > 10KM, NO CLOUD BELOW
5000FT OR MSA NO CB, NO RAIN, FOG , TS ETC
21/ WHAT IS THE CORRECT ORDERING OF SPEEDS ON
TAKEOFF VMCG, VMCA,V1,VR, VMBE, V2 ( THIS IS THE
SEQUENCE AND THE ANSWER IN TH THE TEST)
22/ APPROACHING A RUNWAY TO LAND WHICH LIGHTS
ARE USED AT THE LANDING THRESHOLD
UNIDIRECTIONAL STEADY GREEN
23/ WHAT TYPE OF FIRE EXTINGUISHER IS FOUND ON
FLIGHT DECK BCF
24/ WHAT IS CLASS B FIRE A SOLIDS, B LIQUIDS, C
GAS, D COMBUSTIBLE METALS, E ELECTRICAL
25/ WHEN DO YOU CHANGE ALTIMETER SETTING TO
STANDARD SETTING IN A CLIMB ?
A) WHEN PASSING TRANSITION ALT
B) WHEN PASSING TRANSITION LEVEL
C) BY ATC
D) WHEN EVER YOU WANT
Transition Layer is 1000 1200 ft.
26/ COMPASS SWING IS TO CHECK FOR WHAT?
A) COMPASS VARIATION
B) COMPASS HEADING IN ON DIRECTION ONLY
C) COMPASS HEADING IN ALL DIRECTION
D)TO REMOVE COMPASS DEVIATION so that compass
north is equal to magnetic north.
27/ SSR (SECONDARY SURVEILLANCE RADAR)?
Ground to Air. AC requires a transponder not primary
radar.
28/ DEFINITION OF DAMP SURFACE?
A) SURFACE OF RUNWAY REFLECTING WHEN WET
B) 1MM OF WATER
C) 3 MM OF WATER
D ) RUNWAY WET BUT NOT REFLECTION (changes colour)
102/ WHAT DOES DAMP/DAMP/DAMP MEAN ON AN ATIS?
RUNWAY CONDITION THREE SECTORS : NOT WET , DRY
RWY PERFORMANCE CONSIDERED.
WHAT HAPPENS AT MCRIT?
A) CENTER OF PRESSURE MOVES FORWARD
B) LAMINAR SEPERATION AT THE POINT OF SHOCKWAVE
C)
Centre of Pressure moves rearwards, as the boundary layer
(Laminar flow) separates, the coefficient of lift decreases,
and drag increases rapidly. The airflow over the tail plane is
disrupted, and becomes a positive angle of attack, which
creates a rapid pitching down moment. Lateral stability is
also affected, due to uneven shock waves on each wing.
WHAT IS RNP 10
A - THE NAVIGATION OF THE AIRCRAFT HAS BEEN
PROOVEN AND CERTIFIED ABLE TO MAINTAIN TRACK
WITH NOT MORE THAN 10NM DEVIATION WITHIN 5.3
FLIGHT HOURS WITH NO RADIO UPDATING - REQUIRES
AIRCRAFT TO MAINTAIN THE DESIRED TRACK WITHIN
5NM OF CENTERLINE FO AT LEAST 95% OF THE FLIGHT
TIME: REQUIREMENTS 2 LRNS COMPRISING OF AN INS,
IRS / FMS OR GNSS
WHAT IS RNAV:
AREA NAVIGATION (RNAV) IS A METHOD OF HYPERLINK
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Instrument_flight_rules" \o "Instrument
flight rules"INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES (IFR) NAVIGATION
THAT ALLOWS AN HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/
Aircraft" \o "Aircraft"AIRCRAFT TO CHOOSE ANY COURSE
WITHIN A NETWORK OF HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/
wiki/Beacon" \l "For_navigation" \o "Beacon"NAVIGATION
BEACONS, RATHER THAN NAVIGATING DIRECTLY TO AND
FROM THE BEACONS. THIS CAN CONSERVE FLIGHT DISTANCE,
REDUCE CONGESTION, AND ALLOW FLIGHTS INTO
HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Airport" \o
"Airport"AIRPORTS WITHOUT BEACONS.
RNAV CAN BE DEFINED AS A METHOD OF HYPERLINK "http://
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Navigation" \o "Navigation"NAVIGATION
THAT PERMITS AIRCRAFT OPERATION ON ANY DESIRED
COURSE WITHIN THE COVERAGE OF STATION-REFERENCED
NAVIGATION SIGNALS OR WITHIN THE LIMITS OF A SELF
CONTAINED SYSTEM CAPABILITY, OR A COMBINATION OF
THESE
REQUIRED NAVIGATION PERFORMANCE (RNP) IS A TYPE
OF HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/
Performance_Based_Navigation" \o "Performance Based
Navigation"PERFORMANCE-BASED NAVIGATION (PBN) THAT
ALLOWS AN AIRCRAFT TO FLY A SPECIFIC PATH BETWEEN
TWO, 3 DIMENSIONALLY DEFINED POINTS IN SPACE.
RNAV AND RNP SYSTEMS ARE FUNDAMENTALLY SIMILAR.
THE KEY DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THEM IS THE
REQUIREMENT FOR ON-BOARD PERFORMANCE
MONITORING AND ALERTING. A NAVIGATION
SPECIFICATION THAT INCLUDES A REQUIREMENT FOR ON-
BOARD NAVIGATION PERFORMANCE MONITORING AND
ALERTING IS REFERRED TO AS AN RNP SPECIFICATION.
ONE NOT HAVING SUCH A REQUIREMENT IS REFERRED TO
AS AN RNAV SPECIFICATION.
Area Navigation (RNAV). This is a method which permits
aircraft navigation along any
desired flight path within the coverage of the associated
navigation aids or within the limits of the
capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these
methods. For the purpose of this AC,
RNAV equipment is considered to be that equipment which
operates by automatically determining
aircraft position from one, or a combination, of the following
sensors with the means to establish
and follow a desired path:
(1) VOR/DME
AC 90-96 03/20/98
Page 2 Par 3
(2) DME/DME
(3) INS* or IRS*
(4) LORAN C*
(5) GPS*
NOTE: Equipment marked with an asterisk (*) is
subject to the
limitations contained in paragraph 7d.
b. Class - I Navigation. Class-1 navigation is any en route
flight operation or portion of a flight
operation conducted in an area entirely within the officially
designated operational service volumes of
ICAO standard airways navigation facilities.
c. Basic RNAV (BRNAV). For the purposes of this AC,
BRNAV is defined as RNAV,
including the functions described in Appendix 2, that meets a
track keeping accuracy equal to or
better than +/- 5 NM for 95% of the flight time (RNP-5).
This value includes signal source error,
airborne receiver error, display system error, and flight
technical error. This navigation performance
assumes the necessary coverage provided by satellite or
ground based navigation aids is available for
the intended route to be flown.
d. Global Positioning System (GPS). This is a U.S.
space-based positioning, velocity, and time
system composed of space, control, and user elements. The
space element, nominally is composed
of 24 satellites in six orbital planes. The control element
consists of five monitor stations, three
ground antennas and a master control station. The user
element consists of antennas and receiver
processors that provide positioning, velocity, and precise
timing to the user.
e. Pseudorange. The distance from the user to a satellite
plus an unknown user clock offset
distance. With four satellite signals it is possible to compute
position and offset distance. If the
user clock offset is known, three satellite signals would
suffice to compute a position.
f. Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring
(RAIM). A technique whereby a GPS
receiver/processor monitors the GPS. This integrity
determination is achieved by a consistency
check among redundant measurements.
g. Required Navigation Performance (RNP). This is a
statement of the navigation
performance necessary for operation within a defined
airspace.
h. Required Navigation Performance Type (RNP
Type). RNP types are established
according to navigational performance accuracy in the
horizontal plane, that is, lateral and
longitudinal position fixing. The type is identified as an
accuracy value expressed in nautical
miles (e.g., RNP-5).
92/ WHAT WOULD BE CONSIDERED TO BE THE CRITICAL
ENGINE ON A JET?
DOWNWIND ENGINE ( HOWEVER JET DOWS NOT HAVE A
CRITICAL ENGINE)
(PAGE 60 ACE)
114/ WHAT ARE THE RULES FOR DRINKING AND FLYING?
8 HRS BOTTLE TO THROTTLE : .04%
115/ WHAT ARE THE RULES FOR DIVING AND FLYING?
12 HRS : 24 HRS WITH DEPTH MORE THAN 30
Have not got a clue about this one????
A MACH METER CONSISTS OF?
A - PITOT STATIC ELEMENT AND ALTIMETER CAPSULE
A blocked pitot tube affects what instrumentsaltimeter, anemometer,
variometer, all?
Anemometer & Mach meter.
WHAT HAPPENS TO THE IAS AND TAS IN A DESCENT
A - THE DIFFERENCE WILL DECREASE
STATIC VARIATION IN A PITOT TUBE CAUSES AN ERROR
AND IS CALLED?
- INSTRUMENT ERROR
- BAROMATIC ERROR
- PRESSURE POSITION ERROR
Another class of inherent errors is that of position error. A
position error is produced by the aircraft's static pressure
being different from the air pressure remote from the aircraft.
This error is caused by the air flowing past the static port at a
speed different from the aircraft's true airspeed.
HOW DO YOU GET MACH NO
A PITOT STATIC SYSTEM (SPEED AND TEMP) AND
ALTIMETER CAPSULE (FOR CONVERSION)
WHAT IS QNH?
A - IS THE LOCAL ALTIMETER SETTING THAT MAKES THE
ALTIMETER INDICATE THE AIRCRAFT ALTITUDE ABOVE
MSL.
WHAT IS MACH NUMBER?
A - THE RATIO OF THE SPEED OF A MOVING BODY TO THE
SPEED OF SOUND
A - IS THE TRUE AIRSPEED OF AN AIRCRAFT, GIVEN AS A
PERCENTAGE RELATIVE TO THE LOCAL SPEED OF
SOUND: INFLUENCED BY TEMPRATURE AND ALTITUDE.
8. Runway lights. When do r/way lights go red and white,
what colour are taxiway centre line lights etc....
3000 feet 900m Green
WHAT ARE THE REFERENCES FOR BAD WEATHER LANDING?
A - DH AND RVR
OSCILLATORY STABILITY IS?
A - LACK OF IT WILL CAUSE DUTCH ROLL
WHAT LIMITS THE SIZE OF THE AILERONS
A THE SIXE OF THE FLAPS
BRAKES EFFICIENCY DEPENDS ON?
A - AIRCRAFT WEIGHT, TAXI TIME AND OAT
TCAS II WORKS ON / USES?
A - SSR MODE C AND MODE S
WHEN AN AIRCRAFT IS FLYING IN COLDER THAN ISA
CONDITIONS, WHEN THE ALTIMETER IS SET TO QNH WHAT
DOES THE ALTIMETER READ?
A - WARMER THAN ISA IS HIGHER THAN INDICATED
ALTITUDE
COLDER THAN ISA IS LOWER THAN INDICATED
ALTITUDE
WHILE PLANNING A LONG FLIGHT, OXYGEN REQUIREMENT IS
TAKEN INTO ACCOUNT FOR?
A - AIRCREW AND PASSENGERS
A REDUCED POWER CLIMB USES?
A - MORE TRIP FUEL ( LONGER TO ACCELARATE , LESS
EFFICIENCY OF ENGINES IN EXCHANGE FOR ENGINE LIFE
TAKE OFF WITH MORE THAN NORMAL TAKE OFF FLAP
SETTING WILL RESULT IN?
A - LONGER TAKE OFF DISTANCE
BECAUSE THIS WILL INCREASE DYNAMIC DRAG DURING
GROUND RUN, CAUSING A SLOWER ACCELERATION THAT
RESULTS IN AN INCREASED TOD
WAKE TURBULANCE FROM WING TIP VORTICIES IS MOST
SEVERE?
A - ON ROTATION
WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN IAS AND TAS IF WE
CLIMB HIGHER?
A - THE TRUE AIRSPEED WILL INCREASE WITH AN
INCREASE IN ALTITUDE BECAUSE OF THE REDUCTION OF
AIR DENSITY. TAS WILL BE HIGHER THAN IAS WHEN
AIRCRAFT CLIMBS.
WHAT IS QNH?
A - THE LOCAL ALTIMETER SETTING THAT MAKES THE
ALTIMETER INDICATE THE AIRCRAFT ALTITUDE ABOVE
MSL.
WHAT IS GPS?
A - SATELLITE BASED NAVIGATION
What is the definition of safe T/O distance?
One which you can do safely without endangering the aircraft
or property on the ground with an engine
failure?????????????? Reach screen height with a power unit
failing at V1 at Take-off safety speed TOSS
WHAT IS TORA?
A - TAKE OFF RUN AVAILABLE- USABLE LENGTH OF THE
RUNWAY AVAILABLE THAT IS SUITABLE FOR GROUND
RUN OF AN AIRCRAFT TAKING OFF. IN MOST CASES
CORESSPONDS TO THE PHYSICAL LENGHT OF THE
RUNWAY.
WHAT IS A STOPWAY?
A - AN AREA EXTENDING BEYOND THE RUNWAY, NOT
LESS IN WIDTH THAN THE RUNWAY AN CAPABLE OF
SUPPORTING THE AIRCRAFT DURING A REJECTED
TAKEOFF WITHOUT INDUCING STRUCTURAL DAMMAGE.
DESIGNATED BY THE AIRPORT AUTHORITY FOR USE IN
DECELERATING THE AIRCRAFT DURING A REJECTED T/O
WHAT IS A CLEARWAY?
A - IS THE AREA EXTENDING BEYOND THE RUNWAY
WITH WIDTH NOT LESS THAN 500 FEET CENTERED ON
THE EXTENDED CENTERLINE, UNDER THE CONTROL OF
THE AIRPORT AUTHORITY. FOR PURPOSE OF
ESTABLISHING INITIAL TAKE OFF PATH.
WHAT IS TODA
A THE LESSER OF - THE LENGTH OF TAKE OFF RUN
AVAILABLE PLUS THE LENGTH OF CLEARWAY IF
PROVIDED OR 1.5 TIMES TORA
WHAT IS ASDA
A - THE LENGTH OF TAKE OFF RUN AVAILABLE PLUS THE
LENGTH OF STOPWAY AVAILABLE IF PROVIDED
WHAT IS BALANCED FIELD LENGTH?
A - WHEN TODA EQUALS ASDA ( EXISTS WHEN VR > V1 )
WHAT IS UNBALANCED FIELD LENGTH?
A - WHEN TODA IS ONLY TORA ( EXISTS WHEN VR : V1 )
PERFORMANCE GRADIENT
A - TAKE OFF GRADIENT - 1ST SEGMENT : POSITIVE
-SECOND SEGMENT: 2.4%
FINAL SEGMENT: 1.2%
APPROACH CLIMB GRADIENT: 2.1%
LANDING CLIMB GRADIENT 3.2%
81/ WHAT IS THE GROSS GRADIENT WITH REGARDS CLIMB
PERFORMANCE?
GROSS GRADIENT:
Net gradient must clear obstacle by 35ft. Gross reduced by .8%
conservatism.

82/ WHAT IS THE NET GRADIENT WITH REGARDS CLIMB
PERFORMANCE?
NET: ADDED SAFETY MARGIN (.8%) MUST CLEAR 35 SAFETY
HEIGHT
PAGE 203 ACE
WHAT IS THE NORMAL TAKE OFF GRADIENT IN A SID
3.3%
"Normal" SID's are designed in such a way that a climb gradient of
3,3 % (201 ft climb per nautical mile of distance) will keep you clear
of all obstacles in the departure path.
Sometimes, in mountainous areas or for ATC-reasons, a bigger
climb is necessary. If the required climb gradient is bigger then 3,3
%, this will be said in the SID procedure itself. For instance: 5,4 %
climb required until passing a certain point. In this case if you were
climbing at a groundspeed of 160 knots you would need a climb
ratio of about 864 ft/min. (160 *5,4 (rule of thumb)
Missed approach minimum climb gradient? CHECK
2,1% on approach, 3,2% landing configuration.
WHAT IS THE MINIMUM CLIMB GRADIENT SE OR ON A MISSED
APPROACH
2.5% OR PUBLISHED IF HIGHER
Landing climb requirement:
All engines 3.2%
Discontinued approach climb 1 eng for 2 eng a/c 2.1%
App with DH below 200 ft 2.5% min climb SE.
WHAT IS CONSIDERED WET RUNWAY?
A - WHEN SURFACE IS COVERED WITH WATER OR
EQUIVELENT NOT EXCEEDING 3MM OR WHEN THERE IS
SUFFICIENT MOISTURE ON THE RNWAY SURFACE TO
CAUSE IT TO APPEAR REFLECTIVE BUT WITHOUT
SIGNIFICANT STANDING WATER.
WHAT IS CONSIDERED A CONTAMINATED RUNWAY?
A - More than 25% covered in either more than 3mm of water or its
equivalent in wet snow or slush
Compacted snow Ice
Wet Rwy? Braking action, X-wind limitations, firm touchdown
aquaplaning.
Contaminated Rwy? Use of full flap, full reverse, control
problems, taxiing etc
119/ YOU TURN IN FOR A FLIGHT AND THE ATIS IS SHOWING
A CONTAMINATED RUNWAY, WHAT ARE YOUR
THOUGHTS FROM PLANNING TO TAKE-OFF?
DEPENDING THE CONTAMINATION LEVEL 1- DELAY TAKE
OFF 2- FULL THRUST TAKE OFF
How long to evacuate an aircraft with more than 44 seats?
32/ B767 CROSSWIND LIMITATIONS
TAKE OFF: DRY 40 KTS : WET 25 KTS
LANDING: DRY - 40 KTS : WET - 40KTS
CONTAMINATED 15 KTS
BRAKING ACTION POOR OR LESS : 10 KTS
REDUCE TO 35 KTS FOR LANDING IF USING ASYMECTRIC
REVERSE THRUST ON WET RUNWAYS
71/ AQUAPLANING FORMULAS?
9X SQ RT OF TIRE PRESSURE TOR TAKE OFF : PRESSURE B767
210 PSI
7.6 X LANDING ( PAGE 321 ACE )
= 130 KTS
73/ LSS VS TAS WHEN CLIMBING/DESCENDING?
LSS IS DEPENDANT ON TEMP
CLIMB LSS DECREASES
121/ WHAT IS YOUR INITIAL PITCH ATTITUDE ON YOURE A/
C FOLLOWING AN EFATO?
EXPLAIN VMCG / VMCA SEE ABOVE QN.
BETWEEN 8* - 11* INITIAL ROTATION THEN 12*
TAILSTRIKE 9.6* (FCTOM 3.30)
122/ WHAT IS THE AQUAPLANING FORMULA T/O & LND
(WHATS THE TYRE PRESSURE ON YOURE A/C?
TIRE PRESSURE ON THE 767 = 210 PSI
ACE PAGE 321
WHAT IS CONSIDERED STANDING WATER?
A - CAUSED BY HEAVY RAINFALL AND OR IN SUFFICIENT
RUNWAY DRAINAGE WITH A DEPTH OF MORE THAN 3 MM
WHAT IS CONSIDERED AS SLUSH?
A - IS WATER SATUARATED WITH SNOW THAT SPATTERS
WHEN STEPPING FIRMLY ON IT, ENCOUNTERED AT
TEMPRATURES OF 5* C
WHAT IS V1?
THE MAX SPEED THAT DECISION GO OR STOP MUST BE TAKEN
GO: THAT DISTANCE TO CONTINUE TAKEOFF TO A SCREEN
HEIGHT THAT WILL NOT EXCEED TODA
STOP: THAT DISTANCE TO BRING THE AIRCRAFT TO A FULL
STOP AND WILL NOT EXCEED ASDA VR/VMBE = V1 = VMCG
WHAT IS VR?
A - THE SPEED AT WHICH ROTATION IS INITIATED
DURING TAKE OFF TO ATAIN V2 CLIMBOUT SPEED AT A
HEIGHT OF 35 FEET DRY : 15 FEET WET
VR = V1 : VR = 1.05VMCA
WHAT IS V2?
A - THIS IS THE TAKEOFF SAFETY SPEED WHICH MUST BE
REACHED BY 35FEET DRY : 15 FEET WET ; WITH ONE
ENGINE INOPERATIVE
V2 = 1.1 VMCA : V2 = 1.13 VSIG
WHAT IS V3
A - OLD STUFF BUT GENERALLY 10M SCREEN SPEED
WITH ALL ENGINES OPERATING ( V2 + 10KTS )
WHAT IS VMCG?
A - MINIMUM SPEED ON THE GROUND DURING TAKEOFF
AT WHICH THE AIRCRAFT CAN BE CONTROLLED BY USE
OF AERODYNAMIC INPUTS FROM THE PRIMARY FLIGHT
CONTROLS ONLY ( IE RUDDER ) AFTER SUDDEN FAILURE
OF THE CRITICAL ENGINE AS THE OTHER ENGINE
REMAINS AT TAKE OFF THRUST
WHAT IS VMCA?
A - MINIMUM CONTROL SPEED IN FLIGHT AT WHICH THE
AIRCRAFT CAN BE CONTROLLED WITH A MAXIMUM BANK
ANGLE OF 5* IF ONE ENGINE FAILURE OCCURS AS THE
OTHER IS AT TAKE OFF THRUST ( TAKE OFF FLAP
SETTING, GEAR RETRACTED)
WHAT IS VREF?
A - TARGET THRESHOLD SPEED : VREF : 1.3VS
WHAT IS VFAS?
A - FINAL APPROACH SPEED
WHAT IS VMBE?
A - MAXIMUM BRAKE ENERGY SPEED : ON THE GROUND
WHERE BRAKES CAN ABSORB ALL THE ENERGY
REQUIRED TO STOP THE AIRCRAFT AT A GIVEN MASS
V1 = VMBE
95/ WHAT IS THE RELATIONSHIP OF V2 TO VMCA?
VMCA MUST BE LESS THAN V2, V2 IS EQUAL TO OR GREATER
THAN 1.1 VMCA.
VR = 1.05 VMCA
V1 = OR GREATER THAN VMCG
ICAO HOLDING SPEEDS
A - 230 < 14000 FEET 1 MIN
240 = 14000 FEET S/D <20000FEET 1.5MIN
265 = 20000 FEET S/D <34000 FEET
M.83 = 34000 FEET
What type of aircraft do you flight in according approach category?
800 is C and 900 is D
Why is C/D?
Because of the aircraft approach speed according the 1,3 stall speed at
landing configuration at MLW.
Is also C category on a holding?
Yes, is the same category.
MHA to FL140 230 knots / from FL140 to FL200 240knots / From
FL200 to FL340 265 knots / Above Mach 0.83
1 minute outbound up to FL140 / 1 minute above FL140
STANDARD HOLDING PATTERNS ARE ?
69/ HOLDING INBOUND 252/R YOUR TRACK 072
(RECIPROCAL) ,WHAT ENTRY?
DIRECT ENTRY PAGE 293 -295 ( ACE )
A - RIGHT TURNS APPROX 4 MIN. NILL WX
Holding pattern entries?
A direct entry is performed exactly as it sounds: the aircraft flies
directly to the holding fix, and immediately begins the first turn
outbound.
In a parallel entry, the aircraft flies to the holding fix, parallels the
inbound course for one minute outbound, and then turns back, flies
directly to the fix, and continues in the hold from there.
In a teardrop (or offset) entry, the aircraft flies to the holding fix,
turns into the protected area, flies for one minute, and then turns
back inbound, proceeds to the fix and continues from there.
Standard holding entry diagrams
HYPERLINK
"http://
en.wikipedia.org/
wiki/
File:HoldDirectEntr
y.svg"
INCLUDEPICTUR
E "http://
upload.wikimedia.or
g/wikipedia/en/
thumb/5/5e/
HoldDirectEntry.svg
/97px-
HoldDirectEntry.svg
.png" \*
MERGEFORMATI
NET
Direct entry (Sector
3)
HYPERLINK
"http://
en.wikipedia.org/
wiki/
File:HoldParallelEnt
ry.svg"
INCLUDEPICTUR
E "http://
upload.wikimedia.or
g/wikipedia/
commons/thumb/f/
f1/
HoldParallelEntry.sv
g/53px-
HoldParallelEntry.sv
g.png" \*
MERGEFORMATI
NET
Parallel entry (Sector
1)
HYPERLINK
"http://
en.wikipedia.org/
wiki/
File:HoldTeardropE
ntry.svg"
INCLUDEPICTUR
E "http://
upload.wikimedia.or
g/wikipedia/
commons/thumb/d/
d1/
HoldTeardropEntry.
svg/71px-
HoldTeardropEntry.
svg.png" \*
MERGEFORMATI
NET
Teardrop entry
(Sector 2)
The parallel and teardrop entry are mirrored in case of a left-hand
holding pattern.
70 degrees off
EMERGENCY TRANSPONDER CODES
7500 HIJACKED
7600 COMMUNICATION FAILURE
7700 EMERGENCY
0000 MILITARY INTERCEPTION
WHAT IS DERATED TAKE OFF / REDUCED THRUST TAKEOFF
ESSAY QUESTION
WHEN AN AIRCRAFT TAKE OFF WEIGHT LOWER THAN
MAXIMUM ALLOWABLE TAKEOFF WEIGHT
REDUCING TAKEOFF THRUST BY ENTERING HIGHER
TEMPRATURE ( ASSUMED TEMPRATURE) IT WILL MAKE
REDUCING TARGED N1 /EPR TAKEOFF SETTING, BUT STILL
MEET THE REQUIREMENT TAKEOFF AND CLIMB
PERFORMANCE LIMIT WHEN ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE
THE PURPOSE OF REDUCE TAKE OFF THRUST - ENGINE LIFE
AND REALIBILITY - NOISE REDUCTION
WHAT IS MEA
8.1.1.2.1. Minimum Altitudes Definitions
MEA (Minimum En-route IFR Altitude) :
The lowest published altitude (or Flight Level) between radio fixes that
meets obstacle
clearance requirements between those fixes and in many countries assures
acceptable
navigational and radio signal coverage. The MEA applies to the entire
width of the airway, segment, or route between radio fixes defending the
airway, segment, or route.
It is Qatar Airways policy that the MEA shall be used as the minimum
altitude for both flight planning and actual flight execution.
WHAT IS MORA:
MORA (Minimum Off Route Altitude):
This is an altitude derived by Jeppesen. The MORA provides
reference point clearance
within 10 NM (18.5 km) of the route centreline (regardless of the
route width) and end fixes.
A grid MORA altitude provides a reference point clearance within
the section outlined by
latitude and longitude lines. MORA values clear all reference points
by 1000 ft (300 m) in areas where the highest reference points are
5000 ft (1500 m) MSL, or lower.
MORA values clear all reference points by 2000 ft (600 m) in areas
where the reference
points are above 5000 ft (1500 m) MSL.
(IV) MINIMUM OBSTACLE CLEARANCE ALTITUDE (MOCA)
MOCAS ARE PUBLISHED BY THE STATE AND ENSURE AT LEAST
1,000 FEET OF
TERRAIN AND OBSTACLE CLEARANCE WITHIN THE MOCA
DEFINED AREA. MOCA
VALUES GENERALLY TAKE INTO ACCOUNT NAVAID SIGNAL
ACCURACIES IN DEFINING
A SAFE ALTITUDE BETWEEN RADIO FIXES. MOCA VALUES ARE
DENOTED BY THE
SUFFIX "T" ON FLIGHT GUIDE EN-ROUTE CHARTS.
NOTE: MOCA VALUES MAY BE CALCULATED DIFFERENTLY
BETWEEN STATES AND MAY NOT
ENSURE TERRAIN AND OBSTACLE CLEARANCE OUT TO THE
LATERAL DISPLACEMENT OF 10
NAUTICAL MILES FROM THE AEROPLANE POSITION.
CONSEQUENTLY WHEN USING MOCA
VALUES OPERATIONALLY, ACCURATE AEROPLANE
NAVIGATION IS ESSENTIAL. PREFERENCE
SHOULD BE GIVEN TO USING JEPPESEN GRID MORA OR
ROUTE MORA WHEN
DETERMINING MFAS.
(I) MINIMUM SECTOR ALTITUDES (MSA)
THIS IS AN ALTITUDE PUBLISHED BY THE STATE AND
DEPICTED ON THE FLIGHT GUIDE
INSTRUMENT APPROACH PLATES. IT IS DEFINED AS "THE
MINIMUM ALTITUDE WHICH
PROVIDES AT LEAST 1,000 FEET CLEARANCE FROM TERRAIN
AND MAN-MADE
OBSTACLES WITHIN A 25 NAUTICAL MILE RADIUS FROM THE
NAVAID UPON WHICH THE
PROCEDURE IS BASED" AND IS VALID FOR THE SECTORS
DEPICTED, DEFINED BY
MAGNETIC BEARINGS TO THE SPECIFIED NAVAID. JEPPESEN
STATE THAT THIS MAY BE
USED FOR EMERGENCY ONLY AS IT DOES NOT TAKE
ACCOUNT OF NEW OBSTACLES.
CHART NOTAMS MUST BE CONSULTED FOR THIS
INFORMATION. THIS CLEARANCE MAY
BE INCREASED BY UP TO A FURTHER 1,000 FEET AT THE
DISCRETION OF THE STATE. IT
INCLUDES ACCOUNTABILITY FOR OBSTACLES CONTAINED
WITHIN A FURTHER 5 NAUTICAL
MILE "BUFFER AREA". IF THE RADIUS LIMIT IS OTHER THAN 25
NAUTICAL MILES THIS IS
STATED. THIS ALTITUDE DOES NOT NECESSARILY
GUARANTEE NAVAID RECEPTION.
NOTE: VARIATIONS IN THE CALCULATION OF MSA ARE NOTED
IN THE "AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL"
SECTION OF THE FLIGHT GUIDE FOR THAT PARTICULAR
STATE.
WHAT IS GRID MORA?
A - SPECIFIED LONGITUTE AND LATITUDE RECTANGLE
AND SAME OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE AS MORA
WHAT IS MSA?
A - AN ALTITUDE OUTLINE ON SID OR STAR OR
INSTRUMENT APPROACH CHART WHICH PROVIDES 1000
FEET OBSTACLE CLEARANCE WITHIN 25 NM OF FIX.
WHAT IS RVSM
REDUCTION OF VERTICAL SEPARATION FROM 2000FT
TO 1000FT IN DESIGNATED AIRSPACE BETWEEN FL285
AND FL 420 FOR AIRCRAFT FLYING AT LEVELS FL290 -
FL410.
AIRCRAFT EQUIPMENT:
2 INDEPENDENT ALTITUDE MEASUREMENT SYSTEMS,
(ALTIMETERS)
ONE SSR WITH ALTITUDE REPORTING, (XPNDR MODE C)
ALTITUDE ALERTING SYSTEM, (AUTOPILOT ALTITUDE ALERT)
AUTOMATIC ALTITUDE CONTROL SYSTEM (AUTOPILOT)
RVSM Contingency:
Unless the nature of the contingency dictates otherwise, the pilot
should advise ATC as soon as possible of the problem and request
an ATC clearance before deviating from the assigned route or flight
level. If a revised clearance cannot be obtained in a timely manner
and action is required to
avoid potential conflict with other aircraft, then the aircraft should be
flown at an altitude and/or track where other aircraft are least likely
to be encountered.
RVSM Contingency Checklist:
(A/C unable to maintain assigned Flight Level
Descent Rate......................................................................................
MINIMISE
External
Lights...............................................................................................
ON
Watch for conflicting Traffic
Alert Other Aircraft................................................... TRANSMIT ON
121.5 MHz
ATC....................MAYDAY - OBTAIN CLEARANCE AS SOON AS
POSSIBLE
If the aircraft is identified as exceeding a Total Vertical Error (TVE)
of 300 ft or an
Altimetry System Error (ASE) of 245 ft then the established regional
procedures should
be followed.
If you lose transponder at FL350 what do you do ? Tell ATC, Get
out of RVSM airspace ASAP and consider if you are able to
continue to destination.
Vertical separation between aircrafts with same curse in Non-RVSM
airspace?
4.000 ft. over FL290 (2.000 ft each level separation)
WIND SHEAR AVOIDANCE - REVIEW *
SHAPE \* MERGEFORMAT
ENGINE ANTI ICE
A - WHEN OAT IS = +10*C WITH VISABLE MOISTURE
IN FLIGHT CLIMB AND CRUIZE = +10*C BUT -40*C = VISIBLE
MOISTURE
DECENT = +10*C WITH VISABLE MOISTURE
Icing conditions exist when OAT (on the ground) or TAT (in-
flight) is 10C or below and any of the following exist:
visible moisture (clouds, fog with visibility less than one statute
mile (1600m), rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals, and so on) is
present OR ice, snow, slush or standing water is present on the
ramps, taxiways, or runways.
ETOPS, when does a flight start being ETOPS?
2 engine aircraft flying +60 away from adequate airport at 1 eng fail
speed = 400nm
EXTENDED RANGE OPERATIONS ARE THOSE OPERATIONS
INTENDED TO BE, OR ACTUALLY, CONDUCTED OVER A ROUTE
THAT CONTAINS A POINT FURTHER THAN
ONE HOURS FLYING TIME (IN STILL AIR) AT THE NORMAL
ONE-ENGINE-INOPERATIVE CRUISE SPEED
FROM AN ADEQUATE AERODROME. WHEN, ALTERNATIVELY, A
THRESHOLD DISTANCE HAS BEEN
AGREED WITH THE AUTHORITY, ALL NON-ETOPS FLIGHTS
SHALL REMAIN WITHIN THE THRESHOLD
DISTANCE OF AN ADEQUATE AERODROME.
17/ WHAT IS DEFINITION OF ADEQUATE AIRFIELD?
EXPECTED THAT AT THE ANTICIPATED TIME OF USE:
A) THE AERODROME WILL BE AVAILABLE, AND EQUIPPED
WITH NECESSARY ANCILLARY SERVICES,
SUCH AS ATC, SUFFICIENT LIGHTING, COMMUNICATIONS,
WEATHER REPORTING, NAVAIDS, AND
SAFETY COVER; AND
B) AT LEAST ONE LETDOWN AID (GROUND RADAR WOULD SO
QUALIFY) WILL BE AVAILABLE FOR AN
INSTRUMENT APPROACh
WEATHER REPORTS, OR FORECASTS, OR ANY COMBINATION
THEREOF, INDICATE THAT THE WEATHER CONDITIONS ARE
VERY LIKELY TO BE AT OR ABOVE THE
NORMAL OPERATING MINIMA AT THE TIME OF THE INTENDED
OPERATION, USING THE CRITERIA SET. WHERE A CONDITION
IS FORECAST AS PROB., PROVIDED THE PROBABILITY PER
CENT FACTOR IS LESS THAN 40 PER CENT, THEN THAT
CONDITION CAN BE IGNORED FOR PLANNING.
MINIMA PURPOSES. TEMPO., INTER. AND GRADU.
CONDITIONS ARE NORMALLY QUALIFIED BY
A TIME BAND AND MUST BE CONSIDERED IN DETERMINING
THE SUITABILITY OF AN AERODROME
TCAS - REVIEW *
STABALIZED APPROACH
A - 1000 FEET IMC : 500 FEET VMC : 400FEET CIRCLING
AIRSPEED +10 KTS / -5KTS
RATE OF DECENT: =1000 FEET PER MIN
LOCALIZER: 1 DOT
GLIDESLOPE : 1 DOT
WHAT IS A VOLMET?
A - THE CONTINIOUS BROADCAST ON VHF OR HF -
INCLUDES
WEATHER REPORTS
-TREND
-FORECAST
-SIGMET
REVIEW WHEN TO COMMENCE AN APPROACH APPROACH
BAN CRITERIA
WHAT IS A SIGMET?
A - METROLOGICAL REPORT THAT ADVISES SIGNIFICANT
METROLOGICAL DATA EN ROUTE :
ACTIVE THUNDERSTORMS - TROPICAL REVOLVING STORM
SEVERE LINE SQUALS - HEAVY RAIN
SEVERE TURBULANCE - SEVERE AIRFRAME ICING
MOUNTAIN WAVES - SAND STORMS
WHAT IS PCN?
A - The Pavement Classification Number (PCN) is an HYPERLINK
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/
International_Civil_Aviation_Organization" \o "International Civil
Aviation Organization" International Civil Aviation Organization
standard used in combination with the HYPERLINK "http://
en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?
title=Aircraft_Classification_Number&action=edit&redlink=1" \o
"Aircraft Classification Number (page does not exist)" Aircraft
Classification Number (ACN) to indicate the strength of a
HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Runway" \o "Runway"
runway, HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Taxiway" \o
"Taxiway" taxiway or HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/
Airport_ramp" \o "Airport ramp" airport ramp (or HYPERLINK
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Apron" \o "Apron" apron). This helps
to ensure that the airport ramp is not subjected to excessive wear and
tear and thus lengthen its life.
44/ WHAT IS LVO
8.4.2.1.8 Air Traffic Low Visibility Procedures (LVPs)
LVPs are ground procedures at the aerodrome designed to prevent
the entry of ground
vehicles and taxiing aircraft into areas protected for take-off and
landing. In addition
they protect the sensitive areas of the aerodrome ILS and regulate
the flow of air traffic
on the approach. ATC at the aerodrome will ensure these
procedures have been
implemented by the time:
(a) The cloud ceiling is 200ft or less,
(Cloud Ceiling: The height of the cloud base at the aerodrome which
is sufficient
to obscure more than half the visible sky.) Or
(b) The RVR has dropped to 600m or less.
ON TAKE OFF CAT D 200 M - LOWERED TO 150 M WITH RWY
CENTER LINE LIGHT 15M SPACING , RWY EDGE LIGHTS 60M
SPACING ALL WORKING * 90 M VISUAL FROM FLIGHT DECK.
CAT 1/2/3/ DH AND RVR ALSO LIGHTS
1 200FT 550M
2 100FT-120FT 300M
3A <100FT 200M
3B <100FT 150M FAIL PASSIVE
3B <50FT 125M FAIL PASSIVE
3B <50FT 75M FAIL OPERATIONAL
Air Traffic Low Visibility Procedures (LVPs) ( OM PART A )
LVPs are ground procedures at the aerodrome designed to prevent the
entry of ground
vehicles and taxiing aircraft into areas protected for take-off and landing. In
addition
they protect the sensitive areas of the aerodrome ILS and regulate the flow
of air traffic
on the approach. ATC at the aerodrome will ensure these procedures have
been
implemented by the time:
(a) The cloud ceiling is 200ft or less,
(Cloud Ceiling: The height of the cloud base at the aerodrome which is
sufficient
to obscure more than half the visible sky.) Or
(b) The RVR has dropped to 600m or less.
AWOPS APPROVALS ALLOW AIRCRAFT TO MAKE LOW
VISIBILITY TAKE-OFFS AND LANDINGS.
THE HYPERLINK "http://www.caa.co.uk/application.aspx?
catid=33&pagetype=65&appid=11&mode=detail&id=226"AIR
NAVIGATION ORDERHYPERLINK "http://www.caa.co.uk/docs/33/
CAP393.PDF" STATES THAT AN AIRCRAFT "SHALL NOT MAKE A
CATEGORY II, CATEGORY IIIA OR CATEGORY IIIB APPROACH
AND LANDING, OR TAKE-OFF WHEN THE RELEVANT RUNWAY
VISUAL RANGE IS LESS THAN 150 METRES UNLESS APPROVAL
TO DO SO HAS BEEN ISSUED".
CATEGORY II
LANDING FOLLOWING A PRECISION APPROACH USING AN
INSTRUMENT LANDING SYSTEM OR MICROWAVE SYSTEM
WITH A DECISION HEIGHT OF BELOW 200 FEET BUT NOT LESS
THAN 100 FEET. RUNWAY VISUAL RANGE: NOT LESS THAN 300
METRES.
CATEGORY IIIA
LANDING FOLLOWING A PRECISION APPROACH USING AN
INSTRUMENT LANDING SYSTEM OR MICROWAVE SYSTEM
WITH A DECISION HEIGHT OF BELOW 100 FEET. RUNWAY
VISUAL RANGE: NOT LESS THAN 200 METRES.
CATEGORY IIIB
LANDING FOLLOWING A PRECISION APPROACH USING AN
INSTRUMENT LANDING SYSTEM OR MICROWAVE SYSTEM
WITH A DECISION HEIGHT OF BELOW 50 FEET. RUNWAY
VISUAL RANGE: LESS THAN 200 METRES BUT NOT LESS THAN
75 METRES.
AWOPS APPROVAL WILL BE GRANTED ONLY TO AIRCRAFT
HOLDING THE APPROPRIATE EQUIPMENT AND APPLYING
ADDITIONAL TRAINING, PROCEDURES AND MAINTENANCE.
HYPERLINK "http://eur-lex.europa.eu/LexUriServ/LexUriServ.do?
uri=OJ:L:2008:254:0001:0238:EN:PDF"EU-OPS SUBPART E
DETERMINES THE REQUIREMENTS SET FOR CATEGORY II, IIIA
AND IIIB OPERATIONS, AND LOW VISIBILITY TAKE-OFFS.
WHAT IS TEMPRATURE INVERSION?
A - TEMPRATURE THAT IS REPORTED BY ATC, MEASURED
AT ABOUT 1.20 METERS ( 4 FT ) ABOVE GROUND. THE MET
CONDITION : TEMPRATURE DECREASES 2*C PER 1000
FEET , HOWEVER SPECIFIED THE METROLOGICAL
CONDITION MAY LEAD THE TEMPRATURE TO DEVIATE
FROM STANDARD. Increase FROM THE STANDARD RATE.
TEMPRATURE CONVERSION:
A - * F = ( 9/5 X *C) +32
WHAT IS ISA AT 39000 FEET
A - -56.5*C
FOR THE SAME ENGINE, WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN
N1 AND THRUST , WHEN THE ENGINE IS TAKEN FROM SEA
LEVEL AIRFIELD TO A HOT HIGH AIRFIELD?
A - THE N1 PARAMETER WILL BE THE SAME, BUT THRUST
WILL BE LESS DUE TO DA
WHAT ARE THE CHARACTERISTICS OF THE WEATHER IN THE
VICINITY OF THE ITCZ?
A - MAINLY CHARACTERIZED BY HOT HUMID AIR WITH
CONVECTIVE ACTION DURING THE DAY AND FOG DURING
THE EARLY MORNING HOURS AND ALOT OF PPT.
DIMENSIONS: 30NM -300NM WIDE PRODUCING CBS OVER
50000. WORST WEATHER ON THE TRAILING EDGE OF THE
ITCZ EQUATORIAL REGIONS RAIN TWICE : APRIL
OCTOBER (apricot)
DOES A COMPRESSOR CHANGE KINETIC ENERGY INTO
PRESSURE ENERGY? IF SO ARE STATORS DIVERGENT OR
CONVERGENT?
A - YES ...PRESSURE ENERGY: STATORS ARE DIVERGENT
IF YOUR STATIC PORT GETS BLOCKED WITH ICE DURING
DECENT, WHAT HAPPENS TO THE ALTIMETER READINGS
WILL REMAIN ALMOST THE SAME , HIGH CHANGES WILL NOT
BE INDICATED
WHILST MAINTAINING A CONSTANT ALTITUDE, WHAT IS THE
EFFECT OF FLAPS AND SLATS ON THE ANGLE OF ATTACK?
A - GENERALLY WILL CAUSE PITCHING MOMENT , THE
EXTENSION OF SLATS WILL DECREASE THE ANGLE AND
FLAPS WILL INCREASE THE ANGLE.
TWO AIRCRAFT ARE APPROACHING HEAD ON TURN, WHICH
WAY DO YOU TURN?
A - EACH ONE TO THE RIGHT 45* TURN
WHAT IS THE EFFECT OF ENGINE BLEED AIR FOR THE AIR
CONDITIONING AND ANTI ICING ATC. ON TAKE OFF
PERFORMANCE?
A - THE TAKE OFF PERFORMANCE WILL BE REDUCED
BECAUSE OF REDUCTION IN THRUST.
BESIDES USING THE SCALE, WHERE CAN YOU MEASURE
DISTANCE ON A JEP CHART?
A - MERIDIANS USING DISTANCE FROM A- B
WHAT HAPPENS TO SPECIFIC FUEL CONSUMPTION WITH
ALTITUDE?
A - AS ALTITUDE INCREASES, FUEL CONSUMPTION
DECREASES
WHAT SHOULD YOU SEE WHEN FOLLOWING A VASI ON THE
GLIDE PATH?
A - JEPPESEN: TWO RED BARS ABOVE ONE WHITE BAR
BELOW FOR NORMAL BORY AC: ONE RED ABOVE TWO
WHITE BELOW FOR WIDE BODY AC
WHEN IT IS 12:00 NOON IN LONDON WHAT TIME IS IT IN
BANGLADESH, BANGLADESH IS 112* EAST
A - 19:28 ( 112/15 )
WHAT DOES VVXXX MEAN IN A TAF?
A - VV STANDS FOR VERTICAL VISIBILITY AND XXX WILL
BE THE NUMBER IN HUNDREDS OF FEET. USED WHEN A
SURFACE PHENOMENON THAT CAUSES AN OBSTRUCTION
EXISTS.
WHAT DOES WS STAND FOR?
A - WIND SHEAR
ON A SWEPT WING:
POOR LIFT QUALITIES; HIGHER STALL SPEEDS (CONSEQUENCE
OF POOR LIFT)
SPEED INSTABILITY (SECOND CONSEQUENCE OF POOR LIFT)
WING TIP STALLING
THIN MINIMAL CAMBER, SWEEP WING
HIGH MACH CRUISE SPEEDS, STABILITY IN TURBULENCE
WHAT ARE THE AERODYNAMIC EFFECTS OF A SWEPT WING?
SINCE THE WING ITS ONLY RESPONSIVE TO VELOCITY
VECTOR NORMAL TO THE LEADING EDGE , EFFECTIVE
CHORD WISE VELOCITY IS REDUCED ( THE WING IS
PERSUADED TO BELIEVE THAT IS FLYING SLOWER
THAT IT ACTUALLY IS), THAT MEANS THAT THE
AIRSPEED CAN BE INCREASED `BEFORE THE CHORD
WISE COMPONENT BECOMES SONIC AND THUS THE
CRITICAL NUMBER IS RAISED. THIS PERMITS THE WING
TO FLIGHT FASTER WHILE INCREASING THE AIRFOILS
CRITICAL NUMBER.
SWEPT BACK WINGS ARE CONTRIBUTES TO MORE LATERAL
STABILITY,
SWEPT BACK WINGS PRODUCE LESS LIFT, SO IN TURBULENT
WEATHER THEY ARE LESS SUSCEPTIBLE TO ABRUPT
CHANGES,
THEY ARE DESIGNED WITH LOW THICKNESS AND HIGH
FINENESS RATIO, HENCE LESS FORM DRAG,
GENERALLY THEY ARE TAPERED, SO LESS INDUCED DRAG,
MACH CRIT IS INCREASED.
WHY DO MODERN JETS HAVE A SWEPT WING?
TO INCREASE THE CRUISE SPEED WHILE PREVENTING
SHOCK WAVE OVER THE WING, HIGH CRITICAL
NUMBER,.
WHAT IS A DUTCH ROLL? ESSAY QUESTION
A - IS AN OSCILLATORY INSTABILITY ASSOCIATED WITH
SWEPT WINGS OF JET AIRCRAFT. IT IS A COMBINATION
OF YAWING AND ROLLING MOTION, WHEN THE AIRCRAFT
YAWS IT DEVELOPS INTO A ROLL. THE YAW IT SELF IS
NOT TOO SIGNIFICANT BUT THE ROLL IS MUCH MORE
NOTICABLE AND UNSTABLE, THIS LEADS TO THE
AIRCRAFT SUFFERING FROM CONTINIOUS REVERSING
ROLLING ACTION.
IF GAS OF A A310 IS 48.8 TONNES AT A SPECIFIC GRAVITY OF .
80, WHAT WILL BE THE CAPACITY OF FUEL AT AN SG OF .75
A - 45.7 TONNES
IF THE TAS IS 480KTS AND THE LOCAL SPEED OF SOUND IS 600
KTS , WHAT IS YOUR MACH NUMBER?
A - .80
WHEN FLYING BACK BEAM LOCALIZER ( NOT BACK COURSE )
INDICATIONS ON BOTH THE CONVENTIONAL VOR AND HSI
WILL BE?
A - THE SAME
A FORWARD OR AFT CG IS MORE EFFICIENT IN THE CRUIZE?
A - AFT : BECAUSE IT ALLOWS TO FLY AT A HIGHER
ANGLE OF ATTACK WITHOUT THE ADDITIONAL
ELEVATOR DEFLECTION. THEREFORE THE OVERALL
DRAG IS LOWER. THIS REDUCES THE AMOUNT OF THRUST
REQUIRED TO MAKE MORE EFFICIENT.
CAN AN INCREASE IN CLEARWAY INCREASE THE MTOW
A - A CLEARWAY WILL INCREASE THE MTOW IF IT IS
CLIMB OR OBSTACLE LIMITED, WITHOUT THE
CLEARWAY, BELOW MAXIMUM CLEARWAY LENGTH.
CLEARWAY WILL INCREASE / DECREASE MTOW, AND
INCREASE / DECREASE V1?
A - A CLEARWAY WILL INCREASE THE CLIMB OR
OBSTACLE LIMITED WEIGHT, BUT DECREASES V1
ASDA IS TORA + ?
A - TORA + STOPWAY
STOPWAY INCREASES ASDA / TORA/ TODA ?
A - INCREASES ASDA AND TODA
WHAT ENGINES ON THE A 310 ?
A - GE CF6 80 C2
DUBAI PRESSURE ALTITUDE = 39 FEET IF TEMP WAS 41*C
WHAT IS THE DENSITY ALTITUDE?
A - DA = PA + ( TREAL - TISA ) X 120 : DA = 3159'
IF AN ANTI CYCLONE BRINGS GOOD WEATHER IN THE
SOUTHERN HEMISPHERE, WHAT WEATHER DOES IT BRING IN
THE NOTHERN HEMISPHERE?
A - GOOD WEATHER but rotates in the opposite direction
HIGH BYPASS TURBOFAN ENGINES ARE USED ON COMMERCIAL
AIRCRAFT BECAUSE?
A - SMALLER ENGINE SIZE, BETTER, PROPULSIVE
EFFICIENCY, BETTER SFC, REDUCED ENGINE NOISE AND
CONTAMINATION, THEY HAVE AN EXCELENT WEIGHT TO
POWER RATIO AND ARE FUEL EFFICIENT AND VERY
RELIABLE.
IDENTIFY THE CLOUD CEILING GIVEN IN A TAF
A - BKN AND OVC
WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN TORA AND TODA?
A - TORA - DISTANCE AVAILABLE THAT AN AIRCRAFT
CAN USE FOR GROUND RUN FOR TAKE OFF USUALLY
RUNWAY LENGTH ONLY.
TODA - DISTANCE AVAILABLE FOR TAKE OFF AND THE
AIRBORNE PART TO 35' DRY , 15' WET, MAY INCLUDE
STOPWAY AND CLEARWAY
IF YOU LENGTHEN THE CLEARWAY WHAT WILL IT DO TO V1?
A - LENGTHENING THE CLEARWAY PERMITS A BIGGER
TODA THEREFORE A HIGHER OR OBSTACLE LIMIT
WEIGHT, HOWEVER, FIELD LENGTH REMAINS THE SAME
SO FOR A HIGHER WEIGHT , V1 CAN INCREASE BUT NOT
EXCEED THE FIELD LENGHT LIMIT WEIGHT V1.
ON A CONVENTIONAL WING LIFT IS GENERATED ?
A - FOR THE DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE GENERATED BY
THE AIRFLOW ON THE AIRFOIL = LIFT
ON A SWEPT WING?
A - POOR LIFT QUALITIES : HIGHER STALL SPEEDS
( CONSEQUENCE OF POOR LIFT)
SPEED INSTABILITY
WING TIP STALLING
THIN MINIMAL CAMBER, SWEPT WING
HIGH MACH CRUIZE SPEEDS, STABILITY IN TURBULANCE
A DEEP STALL IS OFTEN A CHARACTERIC OF AIRCRAFT?
A - WITH REAR MOUNTED ENGINES, HIGH T TAIL, SWEPT
WING AIRCRAFT
PARASITE DRAG?
A - PARASITE DRAG INCREASES DIRECTLY WITH SPEED
BECAUSE THE FASTER THE AIRCRAFT MOVES THROUGH
THE AIR, THE MORE AIR MOLECULES(DENSITY) ITS
SURFACE ENCOUNTERS AND IT IS THE MOLECULES THAT
RESIST THE MOTION OF THE AIRCRAFT THROUGH THE
AIR. THESE KNOWN AS PROFILE DRAG AND IS GREATEST
WITH SPEED.
THE LIFT GENERATED BY A WING VARIES WITH ANGLE OF
ATTACK SUCH THAT IT?
A - LIFT IS GENERATED BY PRESSURE DIFFERENCE, THE
POSITION OF THE CENTER OF PRESSURE IS NOT A FIXED
POINT BUT DEPENDS ON THE DISTRIBUTION OF
PRESSURE ALONG THE CHORD, WITH ITSELF DEPENDS ON
THE ANGLE OF ATTACK ,THUS, FOR A GREATER ANGLE
OF ATTACK, THE POINT OF THE HIGHEST SUCTION
MOVES TOWARDS THE LEADING EDGE.
WHEN NO TRANSPONDER CODE IS ASSIGNED YOU SHOULD?
A - SET 2000 OR CHECK THE SPECIAL PROCEDURES FOR
THE COUNTRY YOU ARE OPERATING OVER
ON A FLIGHT TO ATHENS FROM MADRID A CORRECT FLIGHT
LEVEL WOULD BE?
A - WEST : EVEN
FOR PLANNING PURPOSE , NORMAL DIVERT FUEL MUST BE
CALCULATED AS?
A - A+B+C+10% : A+B+30' 1500' HOLDING SPEED
AT NIGHT, THE MINIMUM REQUIRED EXTERIOR LIGHTING FOR
AN AIRCRAFT IN FLIGHT IS?
A - BEACON AND NAVIGATION LIGHTS
WHEN CONSIDERING BALANCED FIELD LENGTHS
A - TODA = EMDA ( ASDA )
WHAT IS FIRST SEGMENT OF TAKE-OFF?
A - BEGINS AT LIFT OFF AND ENDS WHEN THE LANDING
GEAR IS FULLY RETRACTED. THE ROTATION SPEED MUST
BE SELECTED SO THAT V2 IS ACHIEVED BY THE TIME
AIRCRAFT REACHES 35 FEET AGL. ( 15 FEET WET ) A -
FROM BEGINNING OF TAKE OFF FLIGHT PATH (35')
SCREEN HEIGHT TO GEAR UP. THE CLIMB GRADIENT
SHOULD BE POSITIVE FOR A TWO ENGING AIRCRAFT
WITH ONE ENGINE FAILURE
WHAT IS SECOND SEGMENT OF TAKE OFF?
A - BEGINGS AT END OF FIRST SEGMENT WHEN GEAR
FULLY RETRACTED - AND IS CONTINUED TO
ACCELERATION ALTITUDE - NOT LESS THAN 400 FEET
ABOVE THE AIRPORT ELEVATION 2.4% CLIMB GRADIENT
FOR TWO ENGINES , 2.7% 3 ENGINES : 3.0% 4 ENGINES
WHERE FLAPS/SLATS BEGIN TO BE RETRACTED. AAL
DEPENDS ON LOCAL AIRPORT REGULATIONS/COMPANY
REGS, WHICHEVER IS HIGHER
WHAT IS THIRD SEGMENT OF TAKE OFF?
A - BEGINS AT END OF SECOND SEGMENT AND ENDS
WHEN AIRCRAFT REACHES THE SPEED FOR THE FINAL
SEGMENT AVAILABLE GRADIENT OTHERIWSE KNOWN
AS WHEN A/C RETRACTS FLAPS/SLATS TO CLEAN SPEED -
MUST BE EQUAL TO THAT REQUIRED IN FINAL SEGMENT
Assuming critical engine inoperative, the four segments are:
First Segment: The Climb from 35 feet point until the landing gears are
fully retracted. Conditions in this segment are:
- landing gear extended
- flaps in T/O position
- Speed = V2
- Climb gradient for 2 engine A/C = Positive
- Climb gradient for 4 engine A/C = 0.5%
- Takeoff power
Second Segment: Climb from gear retraction point until a height of 400
feet is reached? I think this means Acceleration Height. conditions in this
segment are:
- gears retracted
- flaps in T/O position
- speed = V2
- Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 2.4%, and 4 engine a/c 3.0%
- takeoff power
Third Segment: Its the horizontal distance covered after the second
segment until the flap retraction speed is reached, to raise the flaps plus
the distance required to accelerate the aircraft to the flaps up climb speed.
It consists of two parts:
First part of 3rd segment: Distance covered before flap retraction,
accelerating to flap retraction speed. The conditions are:
- gears retracted
- flaps in t/o position
- speed increasing from v2 to flap retraction speed
- Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 1.2%, 4 engine a/c 1.7%
- takeoff power
Second part of 3rd segment: Distance covered after flap retraction,
accelerating to final t/o climb speed. the conditions are:
- gears retracted
- flaps retracted
- speed, accelerating from flaps retraction to final t/o climb speed
- Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 1.2%, 4 engine a/c 1.7%
- maximum continuous power
Fourth Segment: the Climb from 400 feet till 1500 feet is reached, after the
end of third segment operating with max continuous power. The conditions
are:
- gears retracted
- flaps retracted
- speed = final t/o climb speed
- max continuous power
- Climb gradient 2 engine a/c 1.2%, 4 engine a/c 1.7%
WHERE AVAILABLE, USING A LOWER FLAP SETTING FOR TAKE
OFF?
A - MORE TAKEOFF RUN , HIGHER SPEED , BETTER CLIMB
GRADIENT
UNBALANCED RUNWAY PERFORMANCE LIMITATIONS
REQUIRE?
A - THAT WITH ONE ENGINE LAILED AT V1, THE
AIRCRAFT CAN BE BROUGHT TO A STOP.
WITH THE ANTISKID INOPERATIVE, FOR A GIVEN TAKEOFF
WEIGHT?
A - WILL DECREASE
IF WHEN FLYING AT 39000' YOU FOUND THE STATIC OUTSIDE
TEMPRATURE TO BE 47.5*C THE DEVIATION FROM THE
INTERNATIONAL STANDARD ATMOSPHERE WOULD BE?
A - +8.5* C
AN ANABATIC WIND IS ONE WHICH?
A - LOCAL VALLEY WIND THAT FLOWS UP THE SIDE OF A
HILL.
CUMULONIMBUS CLOUDS ARE MORE LIKELY TO FORM?
A - UNSTABLE WEATHER
IN THE NOTHERN HEMISPHERE, THE DIURMAL VARIATION OF
THE WIND AT ABOUT 2000' IS SUCH THAT ?
A - AFFECTS THE DEGREE OF WHICH THE UNDERLYING
TREND OF THE SURFACE WIND IS ALTERED
IN THE INDIAN SUBCONTINENT, THE NORTH - EASTERLY
MONSOON OCCURS ?
A DECEMBER
97/ WHAT IS THE VALIDITY OF A TREND?
2 HRS
WHAT TYPE OF CLOUD IS ASSOCIATED WITH VIRGA?
A -
What is virga,
virga(Also called Fallstreifen, fallstreaks, precipitation
trails.) Wisps or streaks of water or ice particles falling out
of a cloud but evaporating before reaching the earth's
surface as precipitation.
Virga is frequently seen trailing from altocumulus and
altostratus clouds, but also is discernible below the bases of
high-level cumuliform clouds from which precipitation is
falling into a dry subcloud layer.
Signifies temperature inversion, and possible windshear
ILS CAT I RVR / CEILING?
A - RVR-550M CEILING 200'
HOW DOES AIRCRAFT WEIGHT AFFECT GLIDING DISTANCE?
A - VARIATIONS IN AIRCRAFT WEIGHT DO NOT AFFECT
THE GLIDE ANGLE PROVIDED THAT THE CORRECT
AIRSPEED IS FLOWN. SINCE IT IS THE LIFT OVER DRAG
(L/D) RATIO THAT DETERMINES THE GLIDING RANGE,
WEIGHT WILL NOT AFFECT IT. THE GLIDE RATIO IS
BASED ONLY ON THE RELATIONSHIP OF THE
AERODYNAMIC FORCES ACTING ON THE AIRCRAFT. THE
ONLY EFFECT WEIGHT HAS IS TO VARY THE TIME THE
AIRCRAFT WILL GLIDE FOR. THE HEAVIER THE
AIRCRAFT IS, THE HIGHER THE AIRSPEED MUST BE TO
OBTAIN THE SAME GLIDE RATIO. IF TWO AIRCRAFT
HAVE THE SAME L/D RATIO BUT DIFFERENT WEIGHTS
AND START A GLIDE FROM THE SAME ALTITUDE, THE
HEAVIER AIRCRAFT GLIDING AT A HIGHER AIRSPEED
WILL ARRIVE AT THE SAME TOUCHDOWN POINT IN A
SHORTER TIME. BOTH AIRCRAFT WILL COVER THE
SAME DISTANCE BUT THE LIGHTER ONE WILL TAKE A
LONGER TIME TO DO SO
WHAT IS CRITICAL MACH NUMBER?
A - IS THE LOWEST MACH NUMBER AT WHICH THE
AIRFLOW OVER A SMALL REGION OF THE WING
REACHES THE SPEED OF SOUND In aircraft not designed to
fly at the Critical Mach number, shock waves in the flow over the
wing and tailplane were sufficient to stall the wing, make control
surfaces ineffective or lead to loss of control such as HYPERLINK
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mach_tuck" \o "Mach tuck" Mach
tuck.
WHAT IS MACH TUCK:
MACH TUCK IS AN HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/
Aerodynamic" \o "Aerodynamic" AERODYNAMIC EFFECT, WHEREBY
THE NOSE OF AN HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aircraft"
\o "Aircraft" AIRCRAFT TENDS TO HYPERLINK "http://
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pitch_(flight)" \o "Pitch (flight)" PITCH
DOWNWARDS AS THE AIRFLOW AROUND THE WING REACHES
HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Supersonic" \o "Supersonic"
SUPERSONIC SPEEDS. THE AIRCRAFT WILL BE SUBSONIC, AND
TRAVELING SIGNIFICANTLY BELOW HYPERLINK "http://
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mach_number" \o "Mach number" MACH 1.0,
WHEN IT EXPERIENCES THIS EFFECT.
MACH TUCK IS THE RESULT OF AN HYPERLINK "http://
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stall_(flight)" \o "Stall (flight)"AERODYNAMIC
STALL DUE TO AN OVER-SPEED CONDITION.
THE AIRCRAFT IS TRAVELING BELOW MACH 1.0. HOWEVER,
THE ACCELERATED AIRFLOW OVER THE UPPER SURFACE OF
THE CAMBERED WING EXCEEDS MACH 1.0 AND A HYPERLINK
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shock_wave" \o "Shock wave"SHOCK
WAVE IS CREATED AT THE POINT ON THE WING WHERE THE
ACCELERATED AIRFLOW HAS GONE SUPERSONIC. WHILE THE
AIR AHEAD OF THE SHOCK WAVE IS IN HYPERLINK "http://
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Laminar_flow" \o "Laminar flow"LAMINAR
FLOW, A BOUNDARY LAYER SEPARATION IS CREATED AFT OF
THE SHOCK WAVE, AND THAT SECTION OF THE WING FAILS TO
PRODUCE LIFT.
WHAT IS A LOOP OR PIG TAIL IN AN IMPULSE LINE?
A - PIGTAIL IS USED ONLY IN STEAM LINE WHICH
HELPS TO CONVERT STEAM VAPOUR PHASE TO LIQUID
PHASE - AVOID HIGH TEMPRATURE DIRECTLY CONTACT
IN SNSTRUMENT LIKE PRESSURE GUAGES PRESSURE
TRANSMITTERS ... IT REDUCES HIGH PRESSURE INTO
LOW PRESSURE AND AVOIDS VIBRATIONS IN IMPULSE
LINES . PIGTAIL IS ALSO CALLED SYPHON AND IT IS
USED TO REDUCE TEMPRATURE OF A FLUID LIKE
STEAM BEFORE IT ENTERS IN TO THE PRESSURE GUAGE
OR PRESSURE TRANSMITTER FOR MEASUREMENT.
RATE AT WHICH DECENDING UNSATURATED AIR IS
HEATED IS:
A 3*C PER 1000
HOW DO YOU DESCRIBE A JETSTREAM?
A ZONE OF WIND IN THE UPPER TROPOSPHERE OR
LOWER STRATOSPHERE WITH WIND FORCES AT 60
KTS MINIMUM
IDENTIFY A JETSTREAM
A STREAKY CIRRUS
WHICH ZONE OF THE JET IS THE WORST CAT
A THE COLD AIR SIDE OF THE CORE
WHERE IS THE COLDEST AIR IN AN OCCLUSION TO BE
FOUND?
A BEHIND THE FRONT
AT AN AERODROME WHEN A WARM FRONT IS
APPROACHING
A QFE AND QNH DECREASE
SQALL LINES ARE FOUND ?
A AHEAD OF COLD FRONT
WHEN IS WAKE TURBULANCE MOST DANGEROUS ?
HEAVY SLOW CLEAN : 30 50 SEGMENT TAKE OFF
WHAT TYPE OF CLOUD DO YOU GET SHOWERS FROM?
A - CUMULOUS CLOUDS ASSOCIATED WITH RAIN
WHAT TYPE DO YOU LEAST ECPECT TO ENCOUNTER GET
ICING IN?
A - STRATIFORM CLOUDS
WHAT PART OF THE BLOOD CARRIES OXYGEN?
A - HaeMOGLOBIN carries ( RED BLOOD CELLS )
IN WHICH PART OF THE EAR IS THE SEMICIRCULAR CANNAL
A - INNER EAR THREE HALF CIRCULAR
INTERCONNECTED TUBES
WHAT PHENOMENON ARE LENTICULAR CLOUDS ASSOCIATED
WITH?
A - MOUNTAIN WAVES
WHAT IS THE DEFINITION OF SAT?
A - TEMRATURE AT A POINT AT REST RELATIVE TO THE
AMBIENT AIR
WHAT PRECIPITATION WILL REDUCE HOLDOVER TIME THE
MOST
A FREEZING RAIN
WHICH PARTS OF AIRCRAFT ARE MOST AFFECTED BY ICING?
A - WINGS , STABALIZER
NUMBER OF GPS SATELITES TO LOCATE A POINT IN 3
DIMENSION?
A - 4 SATELITES
WHAT IS THE REASON FOR IMPLEMENTING SSR?
A - DETECTS AND MEASURES THE POSITION OF
AIRCRAFT BUT ALSO REQUESTS ADDITIONAL
INFORMATION FROM THE AIRCRAFT ITSELF SUCH AS
ITS IDENTITY AND ALTITUDE
WHAT IS THE COLOUR OF A TA ON TCAS
A - ORANGE CIRCLE
WHAT IS THE COLOUR OF TAXI WAY CENTER LINE LIGHTS
A - GREEN
WHAT IS THE COLOUR OF RUNWAY THRESHOLD LIGHTS
A - STEADY GREEN UNIDIRECTIONAL
DEPLOY SPOILER IN A RIGHT TURN WHICH SIDE WILL
RESPOND?
A - RIGHT
IF THE CG MOVES FORWARD HOW DOES THIS AFFECT THE
ELEVATOR FEEL AND PITCH CONTROL
MORE CONTROL PRESSURE, NOSE DOWN PITCH??
WHAT IS THE EFFECT OF DOWNHILL TAKE OFF ROLL
A - REDUCES V1 AND REDUCES TODR ALLOWS GREATER
RTOW
TAKE OFF RUN IS?
A - THE HORIZONTAL DISTANCE ALONG THE TAKE OFF
PATH FROM THE START OF THE TAKEOFF TO A POINT
EQUIDISTANT BETWEEN THE POINT AT WHICH VLOF IS
REACHED AND THE POINT AT WHICH THE AIRCRAFT IS
35 ' ABOVE THE TAKEOFF SURFACE
WHEN V1 HAS TO BE REDUCED BECAUSE OF A WET RUNWAY
THE ONE ENGINE OUT OBSTACLE CLEARANCE / CLIMB
PERFORMANCE?
A - OBSTACLE CLEARANCE DECREASES
CLIMB PERFORMANCE REMAINS CONSTANT
11/ LIFT FORMULA CL1/2 PV (2) S
V ?
S?
A V = TAS : S = WING PLAN AREA
WHAT IS THE TERM CG NEUTRAL POINT?
A AN AFT CG POINT WHERE THE AIRCRAFT CHANGES
FROM POSITIVE TO NEGATIVE STABILITY
SPEED OF SOUND
A 38.94(SQR ROOT T)
WHAT IS V4
A ALL ENGINES CLIMB SPEED TO CLEAN UP
ATTAINED BY 400 AAL
DURING TAKE OFF - THRUST OF A JET ENGINE IS REDUCED ?
A DECREASED DUE TO INTAKE MOMENTUM DRAG
AIRCRAFT MASS INCREASES VMD
A INCREASES
HOW LONG TO EVACUATE AIRCRAFT WITH MORE THAN 44
SEATS
A JAR EVACUATION 90 SECONDS THROUGH HALF THE
EXITS AVAILABLE
TIME OF CONSCIOUSNESS 25000
A 2 MIN.
IMMEDIATE ACTIONS ON LOSS OF PRESSURIZATION?
A O2 FISRT
WHAT IS HYPOXIA?
A LACK OF OXYGEN IN THE BODY
CAUTION ZONE LIGHTING RUNWAY?
A 600 M DOWN RUNWAY ONLY ON ILS EQUIPED
RUNWAYS : YELLOW COLOUR
STOPWAY EDGE LIGHTING
A RED ( LIKE A BOX )
RAPID EXIT TAXI LIGHT SINGLE LIGHT DISTANCE FROM TURN
OFF?
A 100 M
THE EFFECT THAT AN INCREASED WEIGHT HAS ON A GLIDE
DECENT IS?
A - IT INCREASES THE VERTICAL SPEED AND THE
HORIZONTAL SPEED
AN AIRCRAFT AT A CONSTANT TRUE ALTITUDE FLIES INTO
COLDER AIR MASS THE ALTIMETER WILL?
A - OVER READ
AN AIRCRAFT FLYING AT A CONSTANT INDICATED ALTITUDE
OVER WARM AIRMASS, THE ALTIMETER WILL BE?
A - LESS THAN THE TRUE ALTITUDE
STALL WARNING SYSTEM IS BASED ON A MEASURE OF ?
A - AERODYNAMIC INCIDENCE
WHAT IS THE GPWS MODE 5
A - 1 EXCESS SINK RATE
2 TERRAIN CLOSURE
3 HEIGHT LOSS AFTER GA OR TO
4A BELOW 500' GEAR NOT DOWN
4B BELOW 200' FULL FLAP NOT SELEC
4c
5 GS DEVIATION
6 Advisory Calls based on Rad Alt i.e PASSING BUGGED RA DH Plus
bank angle
7. Windshear
Look ahead
103/ WHEN IS THE GPWS SYSTEM ACTIVE?
50 2450
(PAGE 153-156 ACE)
REVIEW MODES 1-6
105/ WHEN MIGHT V2 BE LIMITED?
V2 = OR GREATER THAN 1.2 VS
V2= OR GREATER THAN 1.1 VMCA
RESTRICTED TO AIRCRAFT TO MASS BY VS AND VMCA
HIGH TO MASS VS
LOW TAKEOFF MASS VMCA
(PAGE 205 ACE)
108/ THERE ARE SOME RPS VS 1013 QS IE WHAT HAPPENS TO
THE ALTIMETER OVER/UNDER READ
TA=IA + ( ISA DEV X 4/1000 X IA )
HIGH TO LOW LOOK OUT BELOW N VICE VERSA
109/ WHAT ACTIONS WILL AN RA DEMAND?
CLIMB / DECENT / MONITOR VERTICAL SPEED
110/ WHAT WILL GIVE THE MOST ACCURATE G/S?, ALONG
TRACK DME
DME
111/ WHAT IS THE EFFECT OF ALTITUDE ON STALLING
SPEED?
INCREASES
106/ HOW MANY CODES/CHANNELS EXCLUDING MODE S DOES
A TRANSPONDER HAVE?
2 CHANNELS AND 4096 CODES
THE UPWARD SLOPE OF A CLEARWAY MUST NOT BE GREATER
THAN?
A - 1.25%
WHICH CONDITION COULD CAUSE TYRE LIMIT SPEED?
A - HIGH PRESSURE ALTITUDE . HIGH TEMPRATURES .
TAILWIND
WHAT CONTROLS 1 - RATE OF CLIMB 2/ ANGLE OF CLIMB
A - 1-EXCESS POWER VY
2- EXCESS THRUST VX
IN WHICH ENVIRNOMENT IS AIRCRAFT STRUCTURAL ICING
MOST LIKELY TO HAVE THE HIGHEST RATE OF ACCRETION?
A - FREEZING RAIN
WHAT IS THE ISA TEMP AT 39000?
A - 56.5
FOR THE SAME ENGINE, WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN
N1 AND THRUST, WHEN THE ENGINE IS TAKEN FROM SEA
LEVEL AIRFIELD TO A HOT HIGH AIRFIELD?
A - THE N1 PARAMETER WILL BE THE SAME, BUT
THRUST WILL BE LESS, DUE TO DA
WHAT ARE THE CHARACTERISTICS OF THE WEATHER IN THE
VICINITY OF THE ITCZ (INTER-TROPICAL CONVERGENCE
ZONE)?
A - MAINLY CHARACTERIZED BY HOT HUMID AIR WITH
CONVECTIVE ACTION DURING THE DAY AND FOG DURING
EARLY MORNING HOURS
112/ WHEN WOULD YOU EXPECT TO GET FOG IN DOHA?
WINTER MONTHS DECEMBER TO FEBRUARY
OCCASIONAL DEPRESSIONS FROM MEDETERIAN BRING SOME
RAIN POSS. SEVERE T/S AND HEAVY HAIL . THERE MIGHT BE
PERSISTANT FOG AND LOW STRATUS AROUND DAWN IN THE
GULF AREA ESPECIALLY. MOUNTAIN WAVES ARE SOMETIMES
AN ISSUE OVER IRAN
SUMMER : ARID AND VERY HOT. STRONG N/W WIND THE
SHAMAL OVER IRAQ OCCURS FROM JUNE TO OCTOBER
CAUSING DUST STORMS IN WHICH VISIBILITY MAY FALL
DRASTICALLY.
THE SIROCCO ARAB WORD FOR EASTERLY HOT DRY DUSTY
DESERT WIND CALLED THE SIMOON IN ARABIA
LAWAAN WIND ARAB FOR THE HELPER . HELPS FARMERS
ITCZ REACHES OMAN BRINGING SOUTH WESTERLY WINDS
LOW CLOUDS AND DRIZZLE TO THE COAST
Climate
The Climate of HYPERLINK "http://www.weatheronline.co.uk/cgi-
bin/regframe?
3&PRG=cityklima&LANG=en&WMO=41170&INFO=0&PAG=0" \t
"top"Qatar can be described as subtropical dry, hot desert
climate with low annual rainfall, very high temperatures in
summer and a big difference between maximum and
minimum temperatures, especially in the inland areas. The
coastal areas are slightly influenced by the waters of the Red
Sea, and have lower maximum, but higher minimum
temperatures and a higher moisture percentage in the air.
HYPERLINK "http://www.weatheronline.co.uk/cgi-bin/regframe?
3&PRG=cityklima&LANG=en&WMO=41170&INFO=0&PAG=1" \t
"_top"Summer (June to September) is very HYPERLINK "http://
www.weatheronline.co.uk/cgi-bin/regframe?
3&PRG=klstatistic&LANG=en&WMO=41170&STARTMONAT=JA
N&ENDMONAT=DEZ&STARTJAHR=1997&ENDJAHR=2002&M
OD=tab&ART=TMX&OFFSET=00" \t "top"hot with HYPERLINK
"http://www.weatheronline.co.uk/cgi-bin/regframe?
3&PRG=klstatistic&LANG=en&WMO=41170&STARTMONAT=JA
N&ENDMONAT=DEZ&STARTJAHR=1997&ENDJAHR=2002&M
OD=tab&ART=PRE&OFFSET=00" \t "top"low rainfall. Daily
maximum temperatures can reach easily 40C or more.
Winter is cooler with occasional rainfall. Spring and autumn
are warm, mostly dry and pleasant, with maximum
temperatures between 25C and 35C and cooler night
Temperatures between 15 and 22C.
HYPERLINK "http://www.weatheronline.co.uk/cgi-bin/
r e g f r a m e ?
3&PRG=cityklima&LANG=en&WMO=41170&INFO=0&PAG=
1" \t "_top"A hot, dust-laden wind, the Shamal, blows in the
spring and summer-period, from March till August.
sometimes these winds can be very HYPERLINK "http://
w w w . w e a t h e r o n l i n e . c o . u k / c g i - b i n / r e g f r a me ?
3&PRG=klstatistic&LANG=en&WMO=41170&STARTMONA
T=JAN&ENDMONAT=DEZ&STARTJAHR=1997&ENDJAHR
=2002&MOD=tab&ART=WST&OFFSET=00" \t "top"strong,
and cause Sandstorms, that can occur throughout the
year, although they are most common in the spring. Most
rain falls during the winter months in sudden, short but
heavy HYPERLINK "http://www.weatheronline.co.uk/cgi-bin/
r e g f r a m e ?
3&PRG=klstatistic&LANG=en&WMO=41170&STARTMONA
T=JAN&ENDMONAT=DEZ&STARTJAHR=1997&ENDJAHR
=2 0 0 2 &MOD=t a b &ART =P RD&OF F S E T =0 0 " \ t
"top"cloudbursts and thunderstorms.
DOES A COMPRESSOR CHANGE KINETIC ENERGY INTO
PRESSURE ENERGY? IF SO, ARE STATORS DIVERGENT OR
CONVERGENT?
A - YES,PRESSURE ENERGY DIVERGENT
IF YOUR STATIC PORT GETS CLOGGED WITH ICE ON DECENT,
YOUR ALTIMETER WILL OVER/UNDER READ OR REMAIN THE
SAME?
WILL REMAIN ALMOST THE SAME, HIGH CHANGES WILL
NOT BE INDICATED
WHILST MAINTAINING A CONSTANT ATTITUDE, WHAT IS THE
EFFECT OF FLAP AND SLATS ON THE ANGLE OF ATTACK?
GENERALLY WILL CAUSE PITCHING MOMENT, THE
EXTENSION OF THE SLATS WILL DECREASE THE ANGLE
AND THE FLAPS WILL INCREASE IT
TWO AIRCRAFT ARE APPROACHING HEAD ON TURN, WHICH
WAY DO YOU TURN TO AVOID A CRASH?
EACH ONE TO ITS RIGHT WITH A 45 DEG TURN
WHAT IS THE EFFECT OF ENGINE BLEED AIR FOR AIR-
CONDI TI ONI NG AND ANTI - ACI NG ATC. ON TAKE- OFF
PERFORMANCE?
THE T/O PERFORMANCE WILL BE REDUCED, BECAUSE
OF A REDUCTION IN THRUST
BESIDES USING THE SCALE, WHERE CAN YOU MEASURE
DISTANCE ON A JEP CHART?
MERIDIANS USING DISTANCE FROM A TO B
WHAT HAPPENS TO SPECIFIC FUEL CONSUMPTION WITH
ALTITUDE?
AS ALTI TUDE I NCREASES, FUEL CONSUMPTI ON
DECREASES
WHAT SHOULD YOU SEE WHEN FOLLOWING THE VASI ON THE
GLIDE PATH?
JEPPESEN: TWO RED BARS ABOVE ONE WITHE BAR
BELOW FOR NORMAL BODY, ONE RED BAR ABOVE TWO
WITHE BARS BELOW FOR WIDE BODY AIRCRAFTS
WHEN IT IS 12:00 NOON IN LONDON WHAT TIME IS IN
BANGLADESH? BANGLADESH IS AT 112 EAST.
19:28 (112/15)
WHAT DOES VVXXX MEAN ON TAF?
VV STANDS FOR VERTICAL VISIBILITY AND XXX WILL
BE THE NUMBER IN HUNDREDS OF FEET. USED WHEN A
SURFACE PHENOMENON THAT CAUSES OBSCURATION
EXISTS
WHAT DOES WS STAND FOR?
STANDS FOR WINDSHEAR
WHAT I S THE RELATI ONSHI P OF ALTI TUDE AND
PERFORMANCE OF THE JET ENGINE?
JET CLI MBS AS FAST AS POSSI BLE ( SERVI CE
CEI LI NG) BECAUSE THE GAS TURBI NE ENGI NES
( BYP AS S ) ARE MOS T E F F I CI E NT WHE N T HE
COMPRESSOR IS OPERATING AT HIGH RPMS (90 TO 95)
AND THIS RESULT THAT THE ENGINES OPTIMAL GAS
FLOW THAT ACHIEVES IS THE BEST SFC
IF MAX GAS OF THE A310 IS 48.8 TONS AT FUEL SPEC GRAVITY
OF 0.80. WHAT WILL BE THE CAPACITY AT FUEL SPEC
GRAVITY OF 0.75?
45.7 TONS (48.8/.8) x 0.75
IF TAS IS 480KTS AND THE LOCAL SPEED OF SOUND IS 600KTS.
WHAT IS OUR MACH NUMBER?
0.80 MACH
WHEN FLYING THE BACK BEAM OF THE LLZ (NOT THE BACK
COURSE) INDICATIONS ON BOTH THE CONVENTIONAL VOR
AND HSI WILL BE WHAT?
THE SAME
A FORWARD/AFT CG IS MORE EFFICIENT IN THE CRUISE?
AFT BECAUSE IT ALLOWS TO FLY AT A HIGHER ANGLE
OF ATTACK WITHOUT THE ADDITIONAL ELEVATOR
DEFLECTION. THEREFORE THE OVERALL DRAG IS
LOWER. THIS REDUCES THE AMOUNT OF THRUST
REQUIRED TO MAKE MORE EFFICIENT.
FROM ABOVE WHY?
BECAUSE IT ALLOWS TO FLY AT A HIGHER ANGLE OF
ATTACK WITHOUT THE ADDITIONAL ELEVATOR
DEFLECTION. THERE FOR OVERALL THE DRAG IS
LOWER. THIS REDUCES THE AMOUNT OF THRUST
REQUIRED TO MAKES IT MORE EFFICIENT
CAN AN INCREASE IN CLEARWAY INCREASE MOTW?
A CLEARWAY WILL INCREASE MTOW IF IT IS CLIMB OR
OBSTACLE LIMITED, WITHOUT THE CLEARWAY, BELOW
MAXIMUM CLEARWAY LENGTH
CLEARWAY WILL INCREASE/DECREASE MTOW, AND INCREASE/
DECREASE V1.
A CLEARWAY WILL INCREASE THE CLIMB OR THE
OBSTACLE LIMITED WEIGHT, BUT DECREASES V1
ASDA IS TORA + WHAT?
TORA + STOPWAY
STOPWAY INCREASES ASDA/TORA/TODA?
INCREASES ASDA AND TODA BUT NOT TORA
DUBAI PRESSURE ALT = 39, IF THE TEMP WAS 41 C, WHAT IS
THE DENSITY ALT?
2970 (DA =PA + (TREAL TISA) X 120
WHAT ENGINES ON THE 767?
CF6 80C2B6 F ( FADEC )
IF AN ANTI-CYCLONE BRINGS GOOD WX IN THE SOUTHERN
HEMISPHERE, WHAT WX DOES IT BRING IN THE NORTHERN
HEMISPHERE?
Good Weather
HIGH BYPASS TURBOFAN ENGINES ARE USED ON COMMERCIAL
AIRCRAFT BECAUSE?
SMALLER ENGI NE SI ZE, BETTER , PROPULSI VE
EFFICIENCY , BETTER SFC ,REDUCED ENGINE NOISE
AND CONTAMINATION , THEY HAVE AN EXCELLENT
WEIGHT TO POWER RATIO AND ARE FUEL EFFICIENT
AND ALSO VERY RIALABLE.
IDENTIFY THE CLOUD CEILING GIVEN A TAF?
BKN (5-7) & OVC (8) (ceiling is over 4 oktas) -
WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN TODA AND TORA?
TORA-DISTANCE AVAILABLE THAN AN AIRCRAFT CAN
USE FOR GROUND RUN FOR T/O, USUALLY RWY LENGTH
ONLY
TODA-DISTANCE AVAILABLE FOR T/O AND THE
AIRBORNE PART OF 35 MAY INCLUDE STOPWAY AND
CLEARWAY
IF YOU LENGTHEN THE CLEARWAY WHAT WILL THAT DO TO
V1?
LENGTHENING THE CLEARWAY PERMITS A BIGGER
TODA THEREFORE A HIGHER OR OBSTACLE LIMIT
WEIGHT. HOWEVER, FIELD LENGTH REMAINS THE
SAME SO FOR A HIGHER WEIGHT, V1 CAN INCREASE
BUT NOT EXCEED THE FIELD LENGTH LIMIT WEIGHT V1
ON A CONVENTIONAL WING LIFT IS GENERATED:
FOR THE DIFFERENTIAL PRESSURE GENERATED BY THE
AIRFLOW ON THE AIRFOIL THEREFORE LIFT
A DEEP STALL IS OFTEN A CHARACTERISTIC OF AIRCRAFT:
WITH REAR ENGINES, HIGH T TAIL, SWEPT WING
AIRCRAFT
PARASITIC DRAG:
PARASITIC DRAG INCREASES DIRECTLY WITH SPEED
BECAUSE THE FASTER THE AIRCRAFT MOVES THRU THE
AIR , THE MORE AIR MOLECULES (DENSITY) ITS
SURFACE ENCOUNTER , AND IT IS THE MOLECULES
THAT RESIST THE MOTION OF THE AIRCRAFT THRU THE
AIR. THESE KNOWN AS PROFILE DRAG AND IS
GREATEST WITH SPEED.
THE LIFT GENERATED BY A WING VARIES WITH ANGLE OF
ATTACK SUCH THAT IT:
LIFT IS GENERATED BY PRESSURE DIFFERENCE ,THE
POSITION OF THE CENTER OF PRESSURE IS NOT A FIXED
POINT BUT DEPENDS OF THE DISTRIBUTION OF
PRESSURE ALONG THE CHORD , WITH ITSELF DEPENDS
OF THE ANGLE OF ATTACK ,THUS ,FOR A GREATER
ANGLE OF ATTACK , THE POINT OF THE HIGHEST
SUCTION MOVES TOWARD THE LEADING EDGE .
WHEN NO TRANSPONDER CODE IS ASSIGNED OR PUBLISHED,
YOU SHOULD:
SET 2000 OR CHECK THE SPECIAL PROCEDURES FOR THE
COUNTRY THAT YOU ARE OVER FLYING
ON A FLIGHT FROM ATHENS TO MADRID A CORRECT FLIGHT
LEVEL WOULD BE:
WEST - EVEN
FOR PLANNING PURPOSES, NORMAL DIVERT FUEL MUST BE
CALCULATED: (REVIEW FUEL)
A + B + C +10% VON A + B + 30 1500 HOLDING SPEED
AT NIGHT, THE MINIMUM REQUIRED EXTERIOR LIGHTING FOR
AN AIRCRAFT IN FLIGHT IS:
BEACON AND NAVIGATION LIGHTS
WHEN CONSIDERING A BALANCED FIELD LENGTHS :
TODA = EMDA (ASDA)
IN TAKEOFF PERFORMANCE THE FIRST SEGMENT OF THE
CLIMB IS:
FROM 35 SCREEN HEIGHT TO GEAR UP
WHERE AVAILABLE, USING A LOWER FLAP SETTING FOR
TAKEOFF WILL:
MORE T/O RUN, HIGHER SPEED, BETTER CLIMB
GRADIENT
UNBALANCED RUNWAY PERFORMANCE LIMITATIONS REQUIRE
THAT WITH ONE ENGINE FAILED AT V1, THE AIRCRAFT CAN BE
BROUGHT TO A STOP:
WITH THE ANTI SKID INOPERATIVE, FOR ANY GIVEN TAKEOFF
WEIGHT:
WILL DECREASE
IF WHEN FLYING AT 39 000 YOU FOUND THE STATIC OUTSIDE
AIR TEMPERATURE TO BE -47.5, THE DEVIATION FROM THE
INTERNATIONAL STANDARD ATMOSPHERE WOULD BE:
+9
AN ANABATIC WIND IS ONE WHICH:
LOCAL VALLEY WIND THAT FLOWS UP THE SIDE OF
THE HILL
CUMULONIMBUS CLOUDS ARE MORE LIKELY TO FORM:
UNSTABLE WEATHER
IN THE NORTHERN HEMISPHERE, THE DIURNAL VARIATION OF
THE WIND AT ABOUT 2000 FT IS SUCH THAT:
AFFECTS THE DEGREE OF WITCH THE UNDERLYING
TREND OF THE SURFACE WIND IS ALTERED
ON THE INDIAN SUBCONTINENT, THE NORTH-EASTERLY
MONSOON OCCURS:
DECEMBER
WHEN IS WAKE TURBULENCE MORE DANGEROUS
A WHEN AIRCRAFT IS HEAVY, SLOW, CLEAN
AT LIFT OFF
SEGEMENT BETWEEN 30-50 FT
WHERE DO RADIO WAVES BOUNCE AND REFRACT
A IONOSPHERE
DEFINE CRITICAL MACH
A IT IS THE HIGHEST SPEED POSSIBLE WITHOUT
SUPERSONIC FLOW OVER THE WING
IF Y OU ARE CLIMBING WITH LOWER THRUST
A YOU ARE BURNING MORE FUEL
INCREASED FLAPS DURING TAKE OFF
A- SHORTER TAKE OFF RUN
WHEN IS THE FUEL CONSUMPTION AT >FF
A- AT LOW SPEED
LIST OF WEATHER FRONTS IN ORDER OF SEVERITY:
COWS
COLD/OCCLUDED/WARM/STATIONARY
WHAT DOES AND ALTIMETER READ WHEN FLYING FROM AN
AREA OF HIGH PRESS TO LOW PRESS
A OVER READS (HIGH TO LOW LOOK OUT BELOW)
WHAT MAKES AN IDEAL FIRST OFFICER
GOOD FLYING SKILLS
FOLLOW SOPS KNOW DUTIES
FOLLOW COMPANY PROCEDURES AND POLICIES
GOOD COMMUNICATION SKILLS (STANDARD TERMINOLOGY)
CRM
GOOD TECHNICAL KNOWLEDGE
GOOD SITUATIONAL AWARENESS
TAKE ACTION AND BE AHEAD OF AIRCRAFT
OFFER ADVICE OR OPINIONS AT APPROPRIATE TIMES (SPEAK
UP)
WHAT MAKES AN IDEAL CAPTAIN
LEADERSHIP
HIGH DEGREE OF TECHICAL SKILL AND KNOWLEDGE
KNOWLEDGE OF REGULATIONS
FOLLOW SOP AND COMPANY POLICIES
GOOD DECISION MAKING
GOOD TEACHER
PROMOTE COMPANY IMAGE
CRM
DISCIPLINE IN HIMSELF AND OTHERS
HONEST
EMPATHY
DECISIVE
WILLING TO LEARN
SELF AWARE
EXCELLENT SITUATIONAL AWARENESS
GOOD JUDGEMENT
WHAT IS CRM
A THE EFFECTI VE USE OF ALL RESOURCES
AVAILABLE TO ACHIEVE A SAFE AND EFFICIENT
FLIGHT AND IS AN EXTENSION OF PILOT JUDGEMENT.
MANEGEMENT IS COMMUNICATION AMONG CRE
GOOD COMMUNICATION LISTENING AND SPEAKING
GOOD ATTITUDE AND MOTIVATION
CONSTRUCTIVE
CRITIQUE POLITELY
EXPRESSIVE
CREW AWARENESS
TASK SHARING
REVIEW COMPANY PROCEDURES FOR GPWS
Ground Proximity Warning
Accomplish the following maneuver for any of these conditions:
activation of the PULL UP warning
activation of the TERRAIN TERRAIN PULL UP warning
other situations resulting in unacceptable ight toward terrain.
Pilot Flying Pilot Monitoring

Disengage
autopilot.
Disconnect
autothrottle.
Verify
maximum*
thrust.
Aggressively
apply
maximum*
thrust.
Simultaneously
roll wings level
and rotate to an
initial pitch
attitude of 20.
Retract
speedbrakes.
Verify all
required actions
have been
completed and
call out any
omissions.
If terrain
remains a threat,
continue rotation
up to the pitch
limit indicator
orstick shaker or
initial buffet.
Do not change
gear or ap
conguration
until terrain
separation is
assured. Monitor
radio altimeter
for sustained or
increasing
terrain
separation.
When clear of
the terrain,
slowly decrease
pitch attitude
and accelerate.
Monitor vertical
speed and
altitude(radio
altitude for
terrain clearance
and barometric
altitude for a
minimum safe
altitude). Call
out any trend
toward terrain
contact.
MTOM, MLM, WHAT TYPE OF LIMITATIONS ARE THESE?
WHAT IS ISA?
WHAT HAPPENS TO YOUR INDICATED AIRSPEED IF THE PITOT
TUBE IS BLOCKED AT THE START OF DESCENT ? A - IAS
DECREASES (IAS ACTS LIKE AN ALTIMETER IN THIS CASE)
WHAT HAPPENS TO YOUR AIRSPEED IF THE STATIC VENT IS
BLOCKED AT THE START OF CLIMB?
IT WILL EVENTUALLY REDUCE ITS INDICATION ????? ASI
OVER-READS IN THE DESCENT, UNDER READS IN THE CLIMB
IF YOU ARE CLIMBING AT 270KTS/.80 AND THEN YOU
INCREASE YOUR SPEED TO 290KTS/.80 ARE YOU GOING TO
REACH THE .80 MACH EARLIER OR LATER?
A -YOU WILL REACH M.80 EARLIER, IF YOU ACCELERATE
TO 290 KTS DURING CLIMB.
WHAT IS A BARRETTE?
A - A "BARRETTE" IS THREE OR MORE GROUNDLIGHTS
CLOSELY SPACED TOGETHER TO APPEAR AS A BAR OF
LIGHTS/LIGHTS AT HOLDING POINT CAT 3
IF YOU NEED TO TURN AND MAINTAIN SAME SPEED AND
ALTITUDE WHAT DO YOU HAVE TO DO?
A - INCREASE AOA AND ADD POWER.
THE FIX DISTANCE MARKINGS ON A RWY ARE AT WHAT
DISTANCE?
A - START AT 300M FROM THE RWY THRESHOLD. 150m
spacing.
ACTIONS AT V1 WITH AN ENGINE FAILURE,
WHERE IS HAIL MOST LIKELY TO BE ENCOUNTERED?
Hail is possible with most thunderstorms as it is produced by
HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cumulonimbus" \o
"Cumulonimbus" cumulonimbi (thunderclouds),

usually at the
leading edge of a storm system. Hail is possible within 2 nautical
miles (3.7 km) of its parent thunderstorm. Hail formation requires
environments of strong, upward motion of air with the parent
thunderstorm (similar to HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/
wiki/Tornado" \o "Tornado" tornadoes) and lowered heights of the
freezing level. Hail is most frequently formed in the interior of
continents within the HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/
Mid-latitudes" \o "Mid-latitudes" mid-latitudes of HYPERLINK
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Earth" \o "Earth" Earth, with hail
generally confined to higher elevations within the HYPERLINK
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tropics" \o "Tropics" tropics. Hail
formation is preferred during the HYPERLINK "http://
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Summer" \o "Summer" summer months in the
afternoon and evening hours of the day. Hailstorms normally last 3
15 minutes.
WHAT IS THE TEMPERATURE AT THE TROPOSPHERE?
Temperatures decrease at middle latitudes from an average of 15C
at sea level to about -55C at the beginning of the HYPERLINK
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tropopause" \o "Tropopause"
tropopause. At the HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/
Geographical_pole" \o "Geographical pole" poles, the troposphere
is thinner and the temperature only decreases to -45C, while at the
HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Equator" \o "Equator"
equator the temperature at the top of the troposphere can reach
-75C
21/ CIRCLING APPROACH
CAT C 4.2 NM : FAA 1.7NM
CAT D 5.28 NM : FAA 2.3NM (TERPS) ( area of circling protection)
CAT D 700'/3600M- (CAT D 205 KTS CIRCLING SPD)
THE MISSED APPROACH PROCEDURE TO BE CARRIED OUT IS
THE ONE APPLICABLE TO THE INSTRUMENT APPROACH
RUNWAY UNLESS ANOTHER PROCEDURE IS PROSCRIBED. ONCE
THE AEROPLANE HAS LEFT THE INSTRUMENT PROCEDURE
AND COMMENCED CIRCLING, AN INITIAL CLIMBING TURN
TOWARDS THE RUNWAY AND OVERHEAD THE AERODROME
WILL BE MADE, WHERE THE AEROPLANE WILL THEN
ESTABLISH IN A CLIMB ON THE MISSED APPROACH TRACK OF
THE INSTRUMENT APPROACH RUNWAY. BECAUSE OF THE
VARIABILITY OF CIRCLING PROCEDURES OTHER PATTERNS
MAY BE NEEDED AT DIFFERENT STAGES IN ORDER TO KEEP
THE AEROPLANE IN A SAFE AREA AND TO ESTABLISH THE
MISSED APPROACH TRACK.IF THE INSTRUMENT APPROACH
PROCEDURE IS CARRIED OUT WITH THE AID OF AN ILS, THE
MISSED APPROACH POINT (MAPT) ASSOCIATED WITH AN ILS
PROCEDURE WITHOUT GLIDE PATH (GP OUT PROCEDURE)
SHOULD BE TAKEN INTO ACCOUNT
CAT 1 MINS MDA AND RVR?
ALTOCUMULUS CASTELLATUS ARE INDICATIONS OF?
Alto-Cumulus-Castellatus. Little miniature cumulus rising in
many heads from a more or less compact layer of alto-
cumulus." " Not a very common cloud in these latitudes but
sometimes seen in Summer, and when, coming from a
westerly or south-westerly point
is almost always a sign of the approach of shallow
depressions which bring thunderstorms."
What do altocumulus tell about the weather?
Ac castellanus and/or Ac floccus indicate a high risk for
afternoon thunderstorms when observed on a summer
morning.
Ac lenticularis the Fhn cloud usually indicates a weather
deterioratiuon within the next 12 to 36 hours.
Ac stratus often indicates the margins of a warm sector and no
significant weather change. However, if they show ripples and
waves as Ac stratus undulatus then the weather will become
worse within the next 12 hours.
WITH ISA WHAT IS THE TEMP AT 10000?
WHAT HAPPENS IF YOU MOVE CG FROM FWD TO AFT?
INCREASE RANGE
STALL SPEED DECREASES (wing loading is less)
11/ THE EFFECTS OF A FWD / AFT C OF G. (PROS AND CONS)
FWD C OF G MAKES MORE STABLE, BUT MORE DRAG, HIGHER
STALLING SPEED AND USES MORE FUEL.
AFT C OF G IS LESS STABLE, LOWER STALLING SPEED, LESS
DRAG AND BURNS LESS FUEL.
85/ WHAT IS A CLIMB GRADIENT?
PERCENTAGE OF CHANGE IN HEIGHT DIVIDED BY DISTANCE
TRAVELLED
WHAT HAPPENS TO THE TAS AND MACH NO IN A DESCENT?
CHICKEN TIKKA MASSALA
ALTIMETER SETTINGS AND HOW WEATHER AFFECTS IT.
NOTAMS - REVIEW
WHAT ARE THE EFFECTS OF THE SIMULTANEOUS INPUT OF
BOTH SPEED BRAKES AND AILERONS?
INCREASED ROLL RATE
LIFT/DRAG/DYNAMIC PRESSURE FORMULAS? REVIEW
HOW TO CALCULATE TRUE ALTITUDE OF AN AIRPORT?
REVIEW
MIN T IN STANDARD ISA?
- 273 DEGREES CELCIUS
- 56 DEGREES CELCIUS (CORRECT ANSWER)
1ST SEGMENT STOPS AT?
A - GEAR UP
CALCULATE TEMP AT 10,000 FT ON A STANDARD DAY
WHAT WILL ALTIMETER READ AT THE TRANSITION ALTITUDE
WHEN YOU TAKE OFF WITH 1023 SET. WILL IT READ HIGHER
OR LOWER.
Calculate temp at 10,000 ft on a standard day and what will
altimeter read at the transition altitude when you take off with
1023 set. Will it read higher or lower?
-5 degrees Read higher
Dont understand the second part of this question. Are they
asking what will happen when you set 1013 as you climb through
transition altitude? I would think it will read lower, i.e., 8000ft on
1023 becomes FL 77 on 1013.
What is the minimum stick force required in the
demonstration of Vmcg = 150lbs
On the third segment
33/ EMERGENCY DESCENT FIRST ACTION?
DON OXYGEN MASKS
34/ LIFT/DRAG/DYNAMIC PRESSURE FORMULAS?
LIFT = CL 1/2 P VSQR S
LIFT = RV X (WING AREA) X
WHERE R=AIR DENSITY V=TAS = COEFFICIENT OF LIFT
DRAG = CD VSQR S
DYNAMIC PRESSURE = P VS2
Your ILS Display in front of you has stuck on 200 degrees and
you are on the ILS for runway 25
Will the bar be left
Will the bar be right
Will the bar be centre
Will the bar be centre with a flag??? Or alternatively, you will see
coarse error in FMC.

You set a V1 higher than you should have and you have an
engine failure just after the V1 speed you should of set, but
below the higher V1 speed you did set.

YOU HAVE PASSED THE PERFORMANCE V1 SPEED AND WILL BE
A GO SITUATION , INSUFFICIENT RUNWAY FOR STOPPING IF
THE RUNWAY IS LIMITED FOR THE PERFORMANCE DATA
SELECTED. Alternatively, if obstacle limited, you may not clear
obstacles.

What would you need to have to increase CRITICAL angle of
attack
SLATS Flaps energise airflow over wing, increasing point at
which the boundary layer separates, therefore increasing the stall
speed/critical angle of attack.

Threshold lights are

Flashing white
Steady white omi directional (or uni directional)
Flashing green
Steady green UNI directional

When can you accelerate in the third segment:
A 400ft
B. Above 400 ft
C. 1000 ft
Xxxxxxxx
The Gross gradient on a published missed approach considering
LVO are in effect: 2.5%
Worst Ice Accretion is: A Clear B Rime C. Hoar : CLEAR
75/ HOW IS RIME ICE FORMED?
SMALL SUPERCOOLED WATER DROPLETS IN CONTACT WITH A
SURFACE THAT IS BELOW FREEZING , HAVE AIR TRAPPED IN
THEM AND ARE ROUGH IN SHAPE.
Humidity is dependent on: A. TEMP. B. TEMP/PRESS
ICAO requires a missed approach gradient of
A. 2.5% NET
Q. You check your brakes during walk around because

A. You may not be able to reject take off safely if they are too hot
(something like this) and break wear indicator pin inspection.
IFR rules: IFR flight plan must be filed and clearance given. Aircraft
shall be equipped with suitable instruments and navigation equipment
appropriate to the route to be flown.Aircraft operating under IFR
encountering VMC should not cancel IFR flight unless it is expected
that the flight can be continued for a reasonable period in
uninterrupted VMC.
Semi Circular Rule: Track 000-179 degrees fly Odd FLs 180-359
degrees fly Even FLs
WHAT IS DER
A DEPARTURE END OF RUNWAY
Lift/Drag/dynamic pressure formulas?
?????? help half rho v squared? CL half rho v squared S and Cd half
rho v squared S?
Lift = CL pV2S
LIFT = RV X (wing area) X
Where R=air density V=TAS = coefficient of lift
In a flare Aircraft will float, why?
Using to high AoA, height A/C is wingspan? And some other
answers ??? Ground effect
78/ WHAT CAUSES GROUND EFFECT?
THE INTERFERENCE OF AIRFLOW AROUND THE AIRCRAFT
CLOSE TO THE GROUND APPROX WINGSPAN , CAUSING A
CUSHINING EFFECT.
How many degrees of pitch would you fly with an engine failed right
after T/O?
2.5deg/sec to 12-13 degrees CHECK
You are given a taf and asked what does vv001 mean
Vertical Vis INDIFINATE CEILING 100 feet/35m
As you climb at a constant CAS, What happens to difference
between TAS and MN? Increase
PANOPS,
PANS-OPS (Procedures for HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/
wiki/Air_navigation" \o "Air navigation" Air Navigation Services -
Aircraft Operations) is an HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/
wiki/Air_Traffic_Control" \o "Air Traffic Control" ATC term
denominating rules for designing HYPERLINK "http://
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Instrument_approach" \o "Instrument
approach" instrument approach and departure HYPERLINK
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Procedural_control" \l
"Procedural_approaches" \o "Procedural control" procedures. Such
procedures are used to allow aircraft to land and take off under
HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/
Instrument_meteorological_conditions" \o "Instrument
meteorological conditions" Instrument Meteorological Conditions
(IMC), i.e. "blind" or HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/
IFR" \o "IFR" IFR.
TERPS,
HYPERLINK "http://www.flightsafety.org/asw/july07/
asw_july07_p26-32.pdf" http://www.flightsafety.org/asw/
july07/asw_july07_p26-32.pdf
Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS) in the USA
Min T in standard ISA?
- 273 degrees Celsius
- 56.5 degrees Celsius (good answer)
Communication in cockpit
Goes worse when people dont get along
WHAT IS MAINTENANCE PLANING:
Maintenance planning and scheduling is often broken down into
several sub-processes such as backlog management, prioritization of
work, scheduling of maintenance work, coordination of maintenance
schedule and production schedule, planning of operations jobs and
maintenance jobs, recording of work order history, and follow up by
key performance indicators
How do control valve works? I think they mean describe outflow
valves
Variable release of air to control pressurisation.
All Weather Operations
INCLUDEPICTURE "http://www.caa.co.uk/
applicationimages/whitespace.gif" \* MERGEFORMATINET
INCLUDEPICTURE "http://www.caa.co.uk/
applicationimages/whitespace.gif" \* MERGEFORMATINET
Application and guidance information associated with All Weather
Operations (AWOPS)

INCLUDEPICTUR
E "http://
www.caa.co.uk/
applicationimages
/whitespace.gif" \*
MERGEFORMATI
NET

INCLUDEPICTUR
E "http://
www.caa.co.uk/
applicationimages
/whitespace.gif" \*
MERGEFORMATI
NET
AWOPS approvals allow aircraft to make low visibility take-offs and
landings.
The HYPERLINK "http://www.caa.co.uk/application.aspx?
catid=33&pagetype=65&appid=11&mode=detail&id=226" Air Navigation
Order HYPERLINK "http://www.caa.co.uk/docs/33/CAP393.PDF" states
that an aircraft "shall not make a Category II, Category IIIA or Category
IIIB approach and landing, or take-off when the relevant runway visual
range is less than 150 metres unless approval to do so has been issued".
Category II
Landing following a precision approach using an Instrument Landing
System or Microwave System with a decision height of below 200 feet but
not less than 100 feet. Runway visual range: not less than 300 metres.
Category IIIA
Landing following a precision approach using an Instrument Landing
System or Microwave System with a decision height of below 100 feet.
Runway visual range: not less than 200 metres.
Category IIIB
Landing following a precision approach using an Instrument Landing
System or Microwave System with a decision height of below 50 feet.
Runway visual range: less than 200 metres but not less than 75 metres.
AWOPS approval will be granted only to aircraft holding the appropriate
equipment and applying additional training, procedures and maintenance.
HYPERLINK "http://eur-
lex.europa.eu/LexUriServ/
LexUriServ.do?uri=OJ:L:
2008:254:0001:0238:EN:PDF" EU-
OPS Subpart E determines the
requirements set for Category II,
IIIA and IIIB operations, and low
visibility take-offs.
125m t/o requirements including visual lighting (centreline and
edge lights)
Approved Operators:
a. Subject to the approval of the Authority and provided the
requirements in paragraphs 1. to 5. below have been met, an
operator may reduce the take-off minimum to 125m/150m when:
1. Low Visibility Procedures are in force,
2. High intensity CL spaced 15m or less and HIRL spaced 60m or less
are in operation,
3. Crews have satisfactorily completed training in a simulator approved
for this procedure,
4. A 90m visual segment is available from the cockpit at the start of
the take-off run,
5. The required RVR value has been achieved for all of the relevant
RVR reporting points.
1 200ft 550m
2 100ft-120ft 300m
3a <100ft 200m
3b <100ft 150m Fail Passive
3b <50ft 125m Fail Passive
3b <50ft 75m Fail Operational
The takeoff run will increase with
Runway contaminated.
Approach Minimums CAT II.
At least 100 ft.
Minimum visibility on CAT III.
200 m touchdown, 150m midpoint.
How does the stall speed vary with weight?
Increase. (The heavier the aircraft, the higher is the indicated speed at
which the aircraft will stall)
The secondary radar its not use for weather information, why?
Because the secondary radar (surveillance) works on the respondent-
reply signal principle. (Transponder)
When is possible to use the Stopway on landing?
Due to an Emergency. (Unprepared surface to use if the aircraft has to
be stopped during a takeoff run)
The altimeter has sown 13.000 ft but your Radio altimeter has sown
12.000 ft. Whats going on?
ISA + 20.
TA=IA+(ISA DEV X 4/1000 X IA
12000 = 13000 + ( ISA DEV X 4/1000 X 13000)
12000 - 13000 = ISA DEV X 52
-1000/52 = ISA DEV
-19.8 =iSA DE
The stele of jet aircrafts is created due to
Water vapour on the burned fuel.
What are the indications/symptoms of hypoxia?
Cyanosis / Apparent personality change / Impaired judgement /
Muscular impairment /Memory impairment / Sensory loss /
Hyperventilation / Impairment of consciousness.
Describe the altimeter errors. (They give you an example and you have
to say the type of)
Pressure / Mechanical / Scale / Installation-Position / Reversal /
Hysteresis / Barometric.
When are QFE & QNH equal?
If the elevation is 0 ft.
Descending at constant Mach speed, which one operational speed we
keep in mind?
VMO (Maximum operating speed permitted for all operation.)
If you load a bulk on the aft cargo with no indication on the load sheet.
Whats going on with the safety speeds?
You will never achieve the correct safety speeds.
How affect the nose wheel to the VMCG?
It doesnt take in count for VMCG calculations.
What change during a turn?
Aircraft roll, angle of attack and engine power settings.
Minimum altitude at 2nd segment?
400 ft AGL.
When is the 3er segment start?
Assumes a level-flight acceleration during the flaps are retracted to the
recommended speed schedule.
The 35 ft obstacle margin after takeoff is measured from
From the main landing gear.
The Radio altimeter measure from
From the ground/terrain. (2.500 ft down to the 0 ft for continuous
wave radar beams)
When can you descend during a non-precision VOR approach procedure?
You are in contact with the terrain and get approach lights in sight,
threshold, etc. within 5deg of final app coarse
The use of the 100% O2 with smoke in the cockpit is
Useless because its mixing with the smoke in the cockpit.
During a slow depressurization, what do you feel in the cockpit?
A cabin rate of climb.
The wind shear is
Any variation of wind speed and/or direction from place to place,
including updrafts and downdrafts.
What are the final approach separation minima?
2 minutes between heavy and medium aircraft.
DME distance from ground if you are flying at FL 360?
FL360 = 36000/6078 = 5.9d
STOPWAY is taken into account for landing, takeoff, both, or none?
Only for Takeoff.
What is taken into account for landing distance: Stopway, Clearway,
both, or none?
None.
What is Mach number function oftemperature, density, pressure or
none?
Temperature.
If you see convective clouds its meanunstable atmosphere, cold front,
etc.
Cold front associated unstable atmosphere with turbulence, heavy rain,
windshear.
If you see alto cumulous lenticularis clouds its a sign of
Mountain wave and turbulence.
Mode C on transponder gives
A / send transponder code
C / send transponder code + altitude (speed)
S / send transponder code + altitude (speed) + call sign (selective
interrogation)
Transponder gives altitude based on what?
Barometric altitude from aircraft air data computer.
Wake turbulence, where does it go?
Vortex circulation of wake turbulence is outward, upward and around
wing tips. Tip vortices?
Wing tip vortices are function of
Basically is induced drag, but created by the lift generating on the wing.
Vortices form because of the difference in pressure between the upper
and lower surfaces of a wing that is operating at a positive lift.
What is the longest glide range a function of?
High Lift-drag ratio at optimal angle of attack
Corresponding minimum drag speed
High CL (lift coefficient)
How does your V/S vary when flying in ILS and suddenly +10 knots of
headwind?
+ 50ft ( 5 x GS) 5%
Difference between QNH & QFE.
Airport elevation
What temperature is at FL060 if at FL170 is -8C? (follow ISA rules)
14C (2C/1.000ft)
If at FL110 is -2C, at what FL is the freezing point?
FL100 (2C/1.000ft)
In VMC you are doing an IFR flight and experience communication
failure, procedure?
Set Transponder code 7600, continue in VMC, land nearest suitable
airport, report.
In IMC you are doing an IFR flight and experience communication
failure, procedure?
ICAO: Set Transponder code 7600, Proceed with Ft Plan routing
maintain cleared level and thereafter the flt plan level. Commence
approach and landing from Nav Aid over the airfield within 30mins of
EAT or scheduled ETA.
UK: Maintain for a period of 7 mins the current speed and last assigned
level, or MSA if this is higher. (If on radar heading 3 mins). Then
proceed with flight plan.
Qatar refer to Bahrain FIR: Aircraftdeparting Bahrain International are
to maintain heading and level for 3 minutes or 12 DME BAH, whichever
earlier, then proceed direct to first en route waypoint and climbing to
last acknowledge level by ATC.
IFR flight plan in VMC. If you have a comm.. failure, how do you
proceed?
ATC will expect an IFR flight following an ATS route to adopt IMC
procedures. If there is an over-riding safety reason, the pilot may adopt
VMC procedures (if possible), and land at the nearest suitable airport.
You are flying in a circuit with no communication and see a red flashing
light from the Tower, it means?
Dangerous airport, do NOT land.
With a CDI indication 090 TO, and deflected to the right, in which
radial are you flying?
275 radial (4 Quadrant)
How do you lower stall speed?
Less swept on the wing
What do you have to watch for in a constant speed (IAS) climb?
Vmo
If airport elevation is below SL, how does this affect QNH and QFE.
What is Vno.
Maximum structural cruise speed or 'normal operating limit', flying
above Vno should only be conducted cautiously and in smooth air.
Characteristics Low pressure System.
Full cloud cover, precipitation (continuous light/mod Heavy showers &
TS poss), good vis, mild temp, Normally strong wind.
How do you identify a DME?
-
Type of fire extinguisher in an aircraft.
BCF
V1 cannot be greater than
Vr.
If you are climb limited how can you get a higher takeoff weight?
Improved climb by increasing V1.
Explain Driftdown Procedure.
Limited Terrain Clearance
Descending at the driftdown speed with MCT set will provide
maximum range and minimum fuel
burn. If using VNAV, one the descent rate has decreased to min/
min during driftdown, it will be
held constant by the FMC until altitude capture. If using FLCH, as
the aircraft approaches driftdown
altitude, the rate of descent will continue to reduce and eventually
reach zero.
On sectors where critical points/drift down escape routes are
published, the route options should
be loaded into the FMC ROUTE 2 before the flight reaches the
applicable area
90km/h = how many knots?
- 48 knots.
How many start duty cycles have the APU?
The APU starter limitation is a maximum of 3 consecutive attempts
within a 60 min period with a 5
minute cooling period between attempts.
1Maximum EGT of the APU? 899
Which type of reverses has the B767?
Each engine has a pneumatically actuated fan air thrust reverser.
TCAS, what do you do when hear TRAFFIC?
No action is required is only advisory, just be aware of the traffic and try
to find it.
.
Seconds for impact in a TCAS?
TCAS II will display a TA when the time to collision is
between 20 and 48 seconds. Under normal conditions RA will
be 10 to 15 seconds after. (RA is only given if BOTH are
aircraft are S-mode equipped).
No transponder:
Aircraft can only be tracked by primary radar. Clouds and
ground clutter hinder tracking of aircraft.
Mode A:
Aircraft tracked by use of secondary radar. Atc may indentify
aircraft by an ATC issued code (Squawk). No RA provided
Mode C:
Aircraft tracked by use of secondary radar. Atc receives the
aircraft's pressure altitude information (1013mb/2992in.)
and may indentify aircraft by an ATC issued code. No RA
provided.
Mode S:
Aircraft tracked by use of secondary radar. Atc receives the
aircraft's pressure altitude (1013mb/2992in.) information
and may indentify aircraft by an ATC issued code. Also the
each aircraft has a unique code and also transmits
information such as aircraft type and current performance.
RA provide if all aircraft in conflict are mode S equipped
(able to handle a Max. of three aircraft in conflict at one
point in time)
If no altitude data is available from the intruder aircraft, TCAS assumes
the intruders relative altitude is within 1200 feet
76/ TCAS WHERE DOES IT GET ITS INFORMATION?
FROM THE TRANSPONDER : INTEROGATE TRANSPONDERS OF
NEARBY AIRCRAFT ( MODE A C AND S)
PAGE 152 ( ACE )
Maximum difference on C mode? (+/- 200ft, +/- 100ft)
+/- 200ft.
Speed sequence? (V1, Vmcg, Vr, V2.)
Vmcg V1 Vmbe Vs Vmca Vr Vmu - Vlof Vmax tire V2min
V2 V3 V4
What does it mean MTOM?
Maximum takeoff mass
Vmca n-1?
The minimum airspeed at which an airborne multiengine airplane is
controllable with an inoperative engine under a standard conditions.
Rate of turns depend on?
TAS-weight (m V/r)
Max Loc deflection?
2.5 either side of centreline.
Between tropopause and stratopause, what can we find?
Stratosphere. (Troposphere-Stratosphere-Ionosphere-Exosphere)
Tip Vortices without winglets.
PYROTECHNIC LIGHTS/FLASHES FROM TOWER:
QATAR AIRWAYS ASSESSMENT
The day starts with a presentation of Qatar Airways. Take notes as
they ask you questions about the airline during the interview. Then
follows the technical quiz. If you pass this you go through to the
interview stage. If successful again you will be notified of your sim
assessment time.
Technical Quiz Sample Questions:
(There are several different test papers and the person next to you
will have a different paper) Multiple choice, 4 answers, 50
questions, 1 hour.
What type of fire extinguisher would you find on the flight deck?
BCF - RED
What is a B fire? Fires burning in hydrocarbon fuels such as
gasoline, oil, or diesel
FIRE CLASSIFICATION : A FIRES INVOLVING ORDINARY
COMBUSTIBLE MATERIALS WHICH ARE BEST ATTACKED
WITH WATER TO DOUSE THE FLAMES AND LOWER THE
TEMP. B - FIRES INVOLVING FLAMABLE LIQUIDS LIKE
FUEL AND PAINT THAT NEED TO BE SMOTHERED
ELECTRICAL FIRES C - GAS FIRES D- BURNING METAL .
FOR AIRCRAFT OVER 61 SEATS TWO FIRE EXT. IN CABIN
MUST BE BCF
What is the local speed of sound at sea level assuming ISA temp?
660kts
You fly directly over a VOR/DME station at FL360. What DME
would you expect to see? 6 miles
What is the most accurate way of determining ground speed? (DME
along the flight track) S=D/T
What is the definition of Pressure Altitude?
What is the effect of wing sweep on stall speed?
How is stall speed in landing configuration referred to? VS0 (VS1
stall speed clean)
What are the symptoms of hypoxia/CO poisoning?
What are the symptoms of hyperventilation?
What is the squawk for radio failure?
Excluding Mode S, how many transponder channels are there?! (ie.
2 with 4096 codes)
When would you load a disruptive passenger? (Some discussion was
made to IATA or ABTA rules stating that they should be loaded first,
which was an answer but obvious answer was Captains discretion)?!
When would you wear your seat belt in the flight deck? (ie. all the
time youre at your station)
What is virga?
What is sublimation?
What is the only thing to affect local speed of sound? (Temperature
know the LSS formula)
If you climb at a constant IAS what happens to mach number?
(Increases know MN formula)
In non-rvsm airspace what is the minimum separation of two aircraft
travelling in the SAME direction? (4000ft)
At 10,000ft what is the temp in ISA conditions?
What is the definition of ASDA?
When would you change to 1013mb?
What braking action is 0.25?
What is the advantage to SSR of Mode S? (ie. more flight info)
What is the CAT I MDA?
What has the greatest effect on reducing stall speed and drag? (ie.
slats)
How long does it take for wake turbulence to dissipate behind a
heavy aircraft on take off?
When could Vmca limit V2:
high temp, high alt, low density/pressure, low weight, low flap
<<< What are the first actions in a rapid decompression? (Oxygen
mask)
How is take off weight affected by a wet runway with a balanced
field length?!
With a blocked pitot tube and pitot drain but static ok, what happens
to ASI? (ie. acts as an altimeter)
What happens to a blocked static vent in the descent? (ie retains
pressure at which blockage occurred)
When does the 1
st
segment of the take off end? (ie. at gear up)
What type of cloud is alto stratus? (ie. mid level)
Several possible questions regarding standard ICAO holding
patterns, ie. speeds, levels, entry techniques.
When would you load a disruptive passenger I did not get this.
One option is IATA rules state they should be loaded first, however
the consensus was that Captains discretion is correct.
NEW QAs
When should you wear your seat belt in the flight deck all times at
station
What is virga - rain that doesnt reach the surface, can be an
indication of windshear/microbusts from dry thunderstorms or
altocumulus/alto stratus
What is sublimation - ice to vapour, or vapour to ice without
becoming a liquid in either case
What is a barrette 3 or more lights closely spaced to appear as a
bar of lights
What is only thing to effect local speed of sound temperature
What is separation in NON RVSM airspace for two aircraft
travelling in the SAME
direction 4000ft ( in opposite direction would be 2000ft, and in
RVSM would be 1000ft)
At 10000ft what is temperature in ISA 2/1000ft (-5 degrees C)
W96/ DEFINITION OF ASDA?
TORA + STOPWAY
hat is definition of ASDA (Other questions on definitions of TODA,
Clearway etc)
When would you change to 1013mb transition altitude.
WITH REGARDS TO A SNOTAM WHAT WOULD .28 REFER
TO?
0.40 Above good
0.36-0.39 medium-good
0.30-0.35 medium
0.26-0.30 medium-poor
Below 0.25 poor
Sim Assessment
A330 sim. No auto pilot, no flight director, no auto thrust, no
bird. ROSE ILS on the nav display, no LOC or GS indications on
the primary display. They give you pitch and power settings, flap
speeds, profile etc to learn before the sim day. Two circuits from
LHR 27L, radar vectors to ILS and visual landing. They expect full
briefings on the ground, briefings in the air, call for checklists etc.
Expect an emergency on the second circuit, ie APU fire that wont
extinguish. Actions and brief for the emergency as you would
normally do it.
Good luck.
DONE UP TO
HERE
[[PERFORMANCE T
1. In the third segment of take-off flight path, what is the thrust
setting used?
a. Take-Off thrust.
b. Maximum Continuous Thrust.
c. Climb Thrust.
d. Go Around Thrust.
2. The landing WAT graph or curve ensures minimum climb
capability for:
a. One engine inoperative and all engines operating.
b. One engine inoperative.
c. All engines operative.
3. Use of larger flap setting will result in a .. in the
take-off distance required and a . In climb gradient
required?
a. Decrease Decrease.
b. Increase Decrease.
c. Decrease Increase.
d. Increase Increase.
4. If engine failure is recognized above V
2
, which of the
following actions is correct?
a. Maintain Engine failure speed until level off height.
b. Abort the take-off.
c. Climb at V
2
.
d. Maintain V
2
+ 10.
5. With respect to using an extended second segment climb
procedure to clear a distant obstacle, the minimum altitude chosen
for level off and clean up is:
a. The maximum altitude that level off may be planned.
b. The minimum net height which may be scheduled.
c. The net height to clear the obstacle corrected for pressure
altitude.
d. The altitude below which acceleration and flap retraction
is not permitted.
6. The aircraft is not field length limited, with multiple V
1

available. Some operators prefer to use a lower V
1
. State the
benefits of using a high V
1
?
(i) Requires less take-off distance for a confirmed take-off.
(ii) Better vertical clearance above an obstacle.
(iii) Greater stop margin in abandoned take-off.
a. 1 and 2.
b. 1 and 3.
c. 2 and 3.
d. All of the above.
7. Which of the following is true for declared distance for a given
runway?
a. EDA= Usable runway + stopway.
b. LDA> EDA.
c. 1.25< Max slope of the clearway plane.
d. EDA= TORA and balanced field exists.
8. Which of the following V speed relationships are correct?
(i) V
1
lower limit = V
MCG
.
(ii) V
1
lower limit = V
MCA
x 1.05.
(iii) V
1
higher limit = V
MBE
or V
R
.
a. 1 and 3.
b. 1 and 2.
c. 2 and 3.
d. All of the above.
9. An obstacle is situated 5,920m from the end of the TORA and
830m from the runway extended centreline. What is the width of
the semi-funnel?
a. 824m. Obstacle insignificant.
b. 800m. Obstacle significant.
c. 900m. Obstacle significant.
d. 780m Obstacle insignificant.
10. Obstacle height is generally referenced to the elevation at the
end of the take-off distance.. Assuming the climb gradient
is constant, the flight path of an .. slope runway
will begin at a relatively . Elevation.
a. Available Uphill Higher.
b. Required Downhill Lower.
c. Available Downhill Higher.
d. Required Uphill Lower.
11. Which of the following statements are correct in respect to
contaminated runways. Contaminated RTOW should be used
when:
(i) The runway is damp.
(ii) It has an accumulation of compacted snow or wet ice.
(iii) More than 25% of the runway is covered by slush or dry
snow which is equivalent to greater than 3mm of water.
a. 1 and 3.
b. 1 and 2.
c. 2 and 3.
d. All of the above.
12. Using a wet V
1
on a wet runway compared with using a dry
V
1
on a dry runway and in the event of an engine failure, the safety
margins with a continued take-off will be?
a. Always decreased (smaller).
b. Always increase.
c. Remain the same.
d. Increase or decrease depending on V
1
/V
R
speeds.
13. What of the following statements is correct concerning
assumed temperature method?
a. Can be used when performance limited weight is greater
than or equal to the actual take-off weight.
b. Can be used when the brakes are deactivated.
c. Cannot be used on a wet runway.
d. Can be used when actual weight is greater than
performance limited weight.
14. When assessing performance of the maximum abandoning
speed (V
STOP
) on a contaminated runway:
a. V
STOP
can be less than V
MCG
.
b. V
STOP
is V
1
5 kts.
c. Tailwind should not exceed 10 kts.
d. V
STOP
cannot be less than V
MCG
.
15. When calculating RTOW, what runway slope should be taken
into account?
a. Part slope may be used if departing from an intersection.
b. Overall slope should be used.
c. Max allowable slope of 1.25% up.
d. Max allowable slope of 2% up or 2.5% down.
16. Pertaining to V
MCG
what is true?
a. It decreases with increasing temperature for the same
pressure altitude.
b. It increases with decreasing ambient temperature for the
same pressure altitude.
c. It decreases with increasing aircraft weight.
17. Which of the following is true regarding the use of reduced
thrust take-offs?
a. If the assumed temperature is lower than the flat rated
temperature, then there will be no reduction in thrust.
b. It can be used if the OAT is less than the assumed
temperature.
?.
Both a and b are true.
18. Higher V
2
uses : TODR, a .. in
the distance to an obstacle resulting in a climb
gradient required.
a. Increased Decrease Increased.
b. Less Increase Increased.
c. Increased Increase Decreased.
c. Less Decrease Decreased.
19. What factors other than slope and wind affect V
MBE
?
a. OAT, Pressure Altitude and Weight.
b. OAT, Loading and Pressure Altitude.
c. Stopway, Pressure Altitude and Weight.
20. What temperature can you use for take-off?
Actual.
(ii) Reported.
(iii) Forecast.
(iv) Expected.
a. 1 and 2.
b. 2 and 3.
c. 1, 3 and 4.
d. All of the above.
21. For which of the following phases of flight may forecast
temperatures (as opposed to actual or reported) be used in assessing
performance?
(i) Take-off.
(ii) En Route.
(iii) Landing.
a. 1 and 3.
b. 1 and 2.
c. 2 and 3.
d. All of the above.
22. Published take-off performance data for aircraft in
Performance Group A makes allowances for use of a runway line
up distance of:
a. Nil.
b. 100m.
c. 200m.
d. 4 x the longitudinal distance from nose wheel axle to rear
main wheel axle.
23. Given the following data, what is the overall gradient of Rwy
07?
Elevation at start of RW 07 305 ft.
Elevation at start of RW 25 283 ft.
Runway length: 2,745m
a. 0.84% uphill.
b. 0.24% downhill.
c. 0.24% uphill.
d. 0.84% downhill.
24. For which aeroplane in Performance Group A is the statement
true?
If an alternate airport is designated in the flight plan, the landing
distance required may be that appropriate to an alternate aerodrome
when assessing the ability of the aeroplane to satisfy the requirement
at the destination aerodrome.
a. Turboprop and piston engine.
b. Turboprop only.
c. Turbojet and turboprop.
d. Turbojet only.
25. For a given declared temperature at which the aircraft
performance is being assessed, if it is within a certain temperature of
the max (aircraft operating) temperature, the use of the declared
temperature is not permitted. What is this temperature?
a. 2C.
b. 5C.
c. 8C.
d. 10C.
26. Which one is true of the declared distance for a given runway?
a. LDA and TODA are equal.
b. Stopway cannot be longer than clearway.
c. The maximum slope for the clearway plane is 1.25%.
d. ASDA comprises the usable runway length plus the
clearway.
27. Which of the following is true regarding the use of TODA?
a. It is at least 1.5 x TORA.
b. It is always greater than ASDA.
c. It starts at the beginning of the clearway.
d. It is usable runway length plus clearway.
28. Which is true of the declared distances for a given runway?
a. LDA is always greater than TORA.
b. The maximum slope for the clearway plane is 1.25.
c. ASDA comprises the usable runway length plus the
stopway.
d. Whenever TOR available and ASDA are equal, a
balanced field exists.
29. Which is the correct procedure in relation to the moment at
which an engine failure is recognized?
a. If it is before V
REF
, continue the take-off.
b. If it is at V
1
abandon the take-off.
c. If it is after V
2
, maintain speed at engine failure speed
until flap retraction height.
d. If it is between V
1
and V
2
achieve V
2
+ 10 kts and
maintain up to flap retraction height.
30. Assuming T/O weight, V
1
/ V
R
ratio and aerodrome ambient
conditions remain constant, a decrease in take-off flap setting will
cause:
a. V
1
and V
2
increase.
b. V
1
and V
2
decrease.
c. V
R
increases and V
2
decrease.
d. V
R
decreases and V
2
increases.
31. Minimum control speed on the ground (V
MCG
):
a. Increases with an increase in ambient temperature for the
same pressure altitude.
b. Decreases with a decrease in pressure altitude for the
same ambient temperature.
c. Decreases with an increase in ambient temperature for
the same pressure altitude.
d. Increases with increased take-off weight.
32. In addition to runway slope and wind component, which one
of the following sets of factors affects the brake energy speed
(V
MBE
)?
a. Aircraft weight, load distribution and ambient
temperature.
b. Aircraft weight, stopway available and tyre speed rating.
c. Aircraft weight, aerodrome pressure altitude and ambient
temperature.
d. Load distribution, tyre speed rating and clearway
availability.
33. When the aircraft take-off weight is not FLL, the benefits of
selecting a lower V
1
are:
(i) Improved obstacle clearance.
(ii) Reduced aircraft noise.
(iii) A greater stop margin for a RTO
(iv) A decreased chance of exceeding V
MBE
.
a. 1,2 and 3.
b. 1,3 and 4.
c. 1 and 4.
d. 3 and 4.
34. The take-off decision speed V
1
is the speed:
(i) From which a decision to continue the take-off is made,
which will result in a take-off distance to a height of 35 ft on a
dry runway at a V
2
speed that will not exceed the take-off
distance available.
(ii) At which an engine failure is recognized.
(iii) At which the first action is taken to bring the aeroplane
to a full stop that will not exceed the ASDA.
a. 1 only.
b. 1 and 2.
c. 2 and 3.
d. 1 and 3.
35. Which one of the following is correct in relation to take-off
flight path?
a. The second segment extends from the end of the first
segment to a net height of 400ft at a constant V
2
.
b. The final take-off segment extends from the level-off
height to a gross height of 1500ft or more, using max climb
thrust.
c. The gross level-off height is the maximum height at
which the acceleration segment may be scheduled using take-
off thrust.
d. The third segment is the only segment in which a turn
may be planned.
36. When an obstacle is to be cleared on the basis of an extended
second segment climb:
a. It can be any obstacle in the take-off flight path.
b. There must be a minimum acceleration / climb gradient
capability of 3.2% at all points in the take-off flight path above
400ft gross height.
c. There must be a minimum acceleration / climb gradient
capability of 1.5% at all points in the take-off flight path above
400ft gross height.
37. What thrust setting should be used for operating engines in the
3
rd
sector of the take-off flight path?
a. Take-off thrust.
b. Maximum climb thrust.
Maximum continuous thrust.
d. Take-off thrust until flaps retracted, then maximum
continuous thrust.
38. The net take-off flight path extends from (i) to 1500 ft
above aerodrome level and should show clearance of any obstacle in
its path by a vertical interval of (ii) .
a. (i) 35 ft above the end of TODR; (ii) 35 ft or 50 ft in a
turn exceeding 15 change in direction.
b. (i) 35 ft above the end of TODA; (ii) 35 ft or 50 ft in a
turn exceeding 15 change in direction.
c. (i) 35 ft above the end of TODR; (ii) 50 ft.
d. (i) 50 ft above the end of TODR; (ii) 35 ft or 50 Ft in a
turn exceeding 15 change in direction.
39. The take-off WAT curves for an aircraft in Performance
Group A assume?
a. No engine failure.
b. An engine failure on the ground.
c. No engine failure before free-air safety speed.
d. No engine failure before screen height is reached.
40. Regarding an improved V
2
climb, which statements are
correct?
An increase in V
2
also requires an increase in V
1
and V
R
.
(ii) Increased take-off speeds (V
1
, V
2
and V
R
) increase the
TODA.
(iii) Take-off climb limit weight is increased.
(iv) An increase in take-off speed might mean V
MBE
or tyre
speeds become limiting.
a. 1 and 2.
b. 1, 2 and 3.
c. 1, 2 and 4.
d. All of the above.
41. What is the recommended procedure when operating from a
contaminated runway?
a. A check should be made that all retardation devices are
serviceable and that the tyres are in good condition.
b. Take-off downwind should be limited to a maximum of
5 kts tailwind component.
c. Take-off safety speed V
2
should be increased by 5 kts.
d. A full tank fuel load should not be carried.
42. Which of the following statements is correct in respect to
operations off a contaminated runway?
a. Take off from a runway contaminated by up to 20mm of
standing water may be made providing the max speed for
abandoning (V
STOP
) on such a runway is used as the V
1

Wet for take-off.
b. The use of the increased V
2
procedure in the interest of
improved climb performance is recommended.
c. Take-off may be made with a reported tail-wind
component of up to 10 kts.
d. Any significant loss of runway distance available due to
lining up for take-off should be taken into account and take-
off performance re-calculated.
43. Which one of the following is correct concerning weight and
performance provisions / regulations during the en-route phase of
flight, involving engine failures?
a. In a diversion, the gradient of the specified flight path at
2,000 ft above the alternate aerodrome shall not be less than
zero.
b. A drift down may be planned from an altitude up to and
including 35,000 ft.
c. The aircraft can never be more than 90 minutes still air
time, at all engines operating cruise speed, from the nearest
aerodrome.
d. Account may be taken of any reduction in weight of the
aircraft, which may be achieved by jettisoning of fuel in
accordance with prescribed procedure.
44. In the case of engine failure, the aircraft must be capable of
clearing all obstacles on either side of the intended track by:
(i) 10 nm.
(ii) 5 nm if the operator takes into account navigation aids.
(iii) 20 nm in mountainous terrain.
a. 1 and 3.
b. 1 and 2.
c. 2 and 3.
d. All of the above.
45. When an obstacle is to be cleared on the basis of an extended
second segment climb:
a. It can be any obstacle in the take-off flight path.
b. There must be a minimum acceleration / climb gradient
capability of 3.2% at all points in the take-off flight path above
400ft gross height.
c. There must be a minimum acceleration / climb gradient
capability of 1.5% at all points in the take-off flight path above
400ft gross height.
46. What are the landing distance correction factors for headwind
(a)..: and tailwind (b).. ?
a. (a) Not less than 50%; (b) not more than 150%.
b. (a) Not less than 150%; (b) not more than 50%.
c. (a) Not more than 50%; not less than 150%.
d. (a) Not more than 150%; (b) not less than 50%.
47. At a given take-off weight, aerodrome ambient conditions and
characteristics, an increase in take-off flap setting (eg. From 5 to
10) will the second segment climb and . the
TODR.
a. Decrease decrease.
b. Decrease increase.
c. Increase increase.
d. Increase decrease.
48. A decrease in take-off flap setting from 10 to 5 will result in:
(i) Increased field length limit for a given runway.
(ii) Increased climb limit weight.
(iii) An increased V
1
speed for a given weight.
a. 1,2 and 3.
b. 1 and 2.
c. 1 and 3.
d. 2 and 3.
49. All other factors remaining constant, a decrease in aerodrome
pressure altitude will (a) the TODR and (b) the
second segment net gradient of climb:
a. Decrease decrease.
b. Decrease increase.
c. Increase increase.
d. Increase decrease.
Performance T
These are the questions you will go through in the Perf T. briefing
with the Perf engineer. The underlined questions are the ones I
remember were in the exam- dont take my word for it though I may
be remembering incorrectly, but its a pretty good guide.
Which of the following values may be used in the assessment of
takeoff performance?
1. Actual
2. Forecast
3. Reported
4. Expected
* 1 only
* 1 & 2
* 1 & 3
* Any of them
For which of the following flights may forecast temperatures (as
opposed to actual or reported) be used in assessing performance?
1. Takeoff
2. Enroute
3. Landing
* 1
* 2
* 2 & 3
* All of them
Published takeoff performance data for aircraft in Performance
Group A makes allowance for use of a runway line up distance
of:
* Nil
* 100m
* 200m
* 4 x longitudinal distance from nose wheel axle to rear main gear
axle.
Given the following data, which is the overall gradient on
runway 07?
Elevation at start of rwy 07 is 305ft
Elevation at start of rwy 25 is 283ft
Legth 2745m
* 0.24% upslope
* 0.24% downslope
* 0.8% upslope
* 0.8% downslope
5. Which is true of runway slope in relation to performance
calculations for aircraft in Performance Group A?
* If you expect to use less than the whole runway, the value
employed should take account of this fact
* The overall runway slope value should always be needed
* It can generally be disregarded when less than 0.25% uphill or
downslope
* It can generally be disregarded when less than 0.25% downhill or
0.5% uphill
6. For which airplane in Performance Group A is this statement
true?
If an alternate airport is designated in the flight plan, the landing
distance required may be that appropriate to an alternate aerodrome
when assessing the ability of the airplane to satisfy the requirement
of the destination aerodrome.
* Turbo prop and piston engine
* Turbo prop only
* Turbo jet and turbo jet
* Turbo jet only
7. For a given declared temperature at which the aircraft
performance is being assessed, if it is within a certain temperature of
the maximum aircraft operating temperature, the use of declared
temperature is not permitted.
* 2C
* 5C
* 8C
* 10C
8. Which is true of the declared distance for a given runway?
* LDA and TODA are equal
* Stopway cannot be longer than clearway
* The maximum slope for a clearway plane is 1.25%
* ASDA comprises the useable runway length plus clearway
9. Which is true about TODA?
* It is at least 1.5 x TODA
* It is always greater than ASDA
* It starts at the beginning of the clearway
* It is useable runway length plus clearway
10. Which is true of the declared distance for a given runway?
* LDA is always greater than ASDA
* The maximum slope for the clearway is 1.25
* ASDA comprises the useable runway length plus stopway
* Whenever TORA and ASDA are equal a balanced field is said to
exist
11. Which is true of the declared distance for a given runway?
* LDA is always greater than TORA
* LDA is always greater than TODA
* When TORA and LDA are equal a balanced field is said to exist
* Stopway must be able to support an aircraft without causing
structural damage.
(Exam question has an option LDA includes stopway, which
is correct, stopway option is incorrect, says something like it
must be at least as strong as TORA)
12. Which is the correct procedure in relation to the moment at
which an engine failure is recognised?
* If it is before Vref continue the takeoff
* If it is at V1 abandon the takeoff
* If it is after V2, maintain speed at engine failure up to flap
retraction height
* If it is between V1 and V2 achieve V2+10kts and maintain up to
flap retraction height
13. Assuming takeoff weight, V1/Vr ratio and aerodrome
ambient conditions remain constant. A decrease in takeoff flap
setting will cause:
* V1 & V2 to increase
* V1 & V2 to decrease
* Vr increases & V2 decreases
* Vr decreases & V2 increases
14. Minimum control speed (Vmcg) on the ground:
* Increases with an increase in ambient temperature for the same
pressure altitude
* Decreases with a decrease in pressure altitude for the same
ambient temperature
* Decreases with an increase in ambient temperature for the same
pressure altitude
* Increases at takeoff weight increases
15. Which is true of Vmcg on the ground?
* It is not affected by changes in pressure altitude
* It is always dependant on takeoff weight
* It decreases with decrease in pressure altitude for the same
temperature
* It increases with a decrease in ambient temperature for the same
pressure altitude
16. In addition to runway slope and wind component, which one
of the following sets of factors affects the brake energy (Vmbe)?
* Aeroplane weight, load distribution and ambient temperature
* Aeroplane weight, stopway available and tyre speed rating
* Aeroplane weight, aerodrome pressure altitude and ambient
temperature
* Load distribution, tyre speed rating and clearway available
17. Regarding improved V2 climb, which statements are correct?
1. Increasing V2 requires an increase in V1 and Vr
2. Increase in takeoff speeds (V1/Vr/V2) increases TODR
3. Takeoff climb limit weight is reduced
4. With an increase in takeoff speed, tyre speed limit and Vmbe
may become limiting
* 1 & 3
* 1, 2 & 3
* 1, 2 & 4
* All of the above
18. When an aeroplanes takeoff weight is not field length limited,
the benefits of selecting a lower V1 are:
1. Improved obstacle clearance
2. Reduced aircraft noise
3. Greater stop margin for a RTO
4. Decrease chance of exceeding Vmbe
* 2 & 3
* 3 & 4
* 2, 3 & 4
* All of the above
19. Takeoff decision speed (V1) is the speed:
1. from which a decision to continue the takeoff is made, which
results in a takeoff distance to a height of 35ft on a dry runway
at a speed of V2, that will not exceed the useable takeoff
distance
2. at which the engine failure is recognised
3. at which the first action is taken to bring the aeroplane to a
full stop and will not exceed the ASDA
* 1 only
* 1 & 3
* 1 & 2
* All of the above
20. Which one of the following is correct in relation to takeoff
flight path?
* The second segment extends from the end of the first to a net
height of 400 at constant V2 (correct answer if gross height of
400)
* The final takeoff segment extends from the level off height to a
gross height of 1500 or more, using maximum climb thrust
(correct answer if max continuous thrust)
* The gross level off height is the maximum height at which the
acceleration segment may be scheduled using takeoff thrust
* The third segment is the only segment in which a turn may be
planned.
21. When an obstacle is to be cleared, on the basis of an
extended second segment climb:
* It can be any obstacle in the takeoff flight path
* It must be the first obstacle in the takeoff flight path
* There must be a minimum acceleration/climb gradient capability of
3.2% at all points in the takeoff flight path above 400 gross height
* There must be a minimum acceleration/climb gradient capability of
1.5% at all points in the takeoff flight path above 400 gross height
(Exam option has the exact statement highlighted above, except
that the capability is 1.4%- not really sure what the answer is as
the 1.5% is as foreign as 1.4%)
22. What thrust settings should be used for operating engines in
the third segment of the flight path?
* Takeoff
* Maximum continuous
* Maximum climb
* Takeoff until the flaps are retracted, then maximum continuous
23. Select the answer which you consider will correctly complete
the following statement.
The net takeoff flight path extends from (i) to 1500 above
aerodrome level, and should clear any obstacle in its path by a
vertical interval of (ii)
* (i) 35 above the end of the TODA (ii) 35 or 50 during a turn
exceeding 15 change in direction
* (i) 35 above the end of the TODR (ii) 35 regardless of the
change of direction
* (i) 35 above the end of the TODR (ii) 35 or 50 if the aeroplane
changes direction by up to 10
* (i) 35 above the end of the TODR (ii) 35 or 50 during a turn
exceeding 15 change in direction
24. The minimum level off pressure altitude, as applied to the
clearance of distant obstacles when using the extended second
segment climb procedure, may be defined as:
* The maximum height at which acceleration and flap retraction
may be scheduled
* The net height of obstacle clearance converted to pressure altitude
* The maximum height above aerodrome level at which the flap
may be retracted
* The altitude below which acceleration and flap retraction should
not be scheduled
25. An obstacle is identified as being 5920m from the end of the
takeoff distance available, and is 830m from the intended line of
flight. Given the wing span of the aircraft is 48m, the semi width of
the funnel at a given point is?
( wingspan + 60m + distance/8) or 900m whichever is less (not
given this formula in the exam)
* 740m, thus the obstacle is insignificant
* 800m, thus the obstacle is significant
* 824m, thus the obstacle is insignificant
* 900, thus the obstacle is significant
26. Takeoff WAT curve for an aircraft in Performance Group A
assumes:
* No engine failure
* Engine failure on the ground
* No engine failure before free air safety speed
* No engine failure before screen height is reached
27. At a given takeoff weight, aerodrome ambient conditions and
characteristics, an increase in takeoff flap setting will (i) the second
segment climb gradient and (ii) the takeoff distance required.
* (i) decrease (ii) decrease
* (i) increase (ii) increase
* (i) decrease (ii) increase
* (i) increase (ii) decrease
28. Decrease flap from 10 to 5 will result in
1. Increase in field length limit for a given runway
2. Increase climb limit weight
3. Increase V1 speed for a given weight
* 1 only
* 1 & 2
* 2 & 3
* All of the above
(I think the question in the exam was increase flap from 5 to 10-
in which case the options would also reflect that)
29. All other factors remaining constant, a decrease in aerodrome
pressure altitude will (i) the takeoff distance required and (ii) the
second segment net gradient of climb.
* (i) decrease (ii) decrease
* (i) increase (ii) increase
* (i) increase (ii) decrease
* (i) decrease (ii) increase
30. Using a higher V2 (i) TODR and (ii) distance to an obstacle,
resulting in a (iii) climb gradient required.
* (i) increases (ii) decreases (iii) increased
* (i) decreases (ii) increases (iii) decreased
* (i) increases (ii) increases (iii) increased
* (i) decreases (ii) decreases (iii) decreased
31. Obstacle height is generally referenced to the elevation at the
end of the TODA. Assuming the climb gradient is constant, the
flight path of an uphill slope runway will begin at a relatively (i)
elevation relative to a downhill slope.
* higher
* lower
* same
* may be higher or lower
(Exam question was a bit different, answers were laid out like
question 30. First nominate if it is TODA or TODR then
downhill slope starts at higher elevation or uphill slope starts at
higher elevation)
32. Using a wet V1 on a wet runway, compared to a dry V1 on a
dry runway, in the event of an engine failure the safety margin with
a continued takeoff will:
* always increase
* always decrease
* remain the same
* increase or decrease depending on V1/Vr speeds
33. Operations involving the use of variable takeoff thrust may be
conducted:
* in conditions where the performance limit takeoff weight at the
ambient temperature exceeds the actual takeoff weight
* in conditions where the actual takeoff weight exceeds the
performance limited takeoff weight at the ambient temperature
* with not more than the reserve thrust on one engine or anti-skid
inoperative
* in conditions with increased V2 procedure for improved obstacle
clearance
34. Which of the following statements is true concerning
operations involving the use of variable takeoff thrust?
* An acceptable assumed temperature may be described as one at
which the performance limit takeoff weight equals or exceeds the
actual takeoff weight
* Vmcg is determined using the max assumed temperature
* The use of variable takeoff thrust is mandatory where a noise
abatement procedure is required for departure
* Tyre speed and brake energy limit should be checked using the
ambient temperature
35. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the
calculation of the maximum speed for abandoning takeoff Vstop on
a contaminated runway
* The decision speed V1 wet should be used as the Vstop
* Vstop must always be greater than vmcg
* Vstop should always be within 5kts of the calculated V1 wet
* Vstop may be less than Vmcg (Just remember the answer- only
used on a Tri-Star)
36. Which is a recommended procedure when operating from a
contaminated runway?
* A check should be made that all retardation devices are serviced,
and that tyres are in good condition
* Takeoff should be limited to a maximum of 5kts tailwind
component
* Takeoff safety speed V2 should be increased by 5kts
* A full tank fuel load should be carried
37. Which of the following statements are true concerning
operation on a contaminated runway?
* Takeoff from a runway contaminated by up to 20mm of standing
water may be made, providing the max speed for abandoning
takeoff (Vstop) on such a runway is used as the V1 wet for takeoff
* The use of increased V2 procedure in the interest of improved
climb performance is recommended
* Takeoff may be made with reported tailwind up to 5kts
* Any significant loss of runway distance available due to line up
for takeoff should be taken into account for and takeoff
performance recalculated.
38. Which of the following is correct concerning weight and
performance provisions/regulations during the enroute phase of
flight involving an engine failure?
* In a diversion, the gradient of the specific flight path of 2000ft
above the alternate aerodrome shall no be less than zero
* A drift down may be planned from an altitude up to and including
35000ft
* The aeroplane must never be more than 90 minutes in still air time,
at the all engines operating cruising speed, from the nearest
aerodrome
* Account may be taken of any reduction of the weight of the
aeroplane which may be achieved by jettisoning of fuel, in
accordance with prescribed procedures.
39. In the case of engine failure, the aeroplane must be capable of
clearing all objects on either side of the intended track within:
1. 10nm
2. 5nm providing the operator takes into account navigational
aide enroute
3. 20nm in mountainous areas
* 1 only
* 1 & 2
* 1 & 3
* All of the above
40. Landing distance correction factor for (i) forecast headwind
component (ii) foreacast tailwind component.
* (i) not more than 50% (ii) not less than 150%
* (i) not more than 150% (ii) not less than 50%
* (i) not less than 50% (ii) not more than 150%
* (i) not less than 150% (ii) not more than 50%
41. The landing WAT curve or graph ensures that at a given
weight, the aeroplane will have an acceptable minimum climb
capability with:
* One engine inoperative and with all engine operating
* One engine operating, providing the ACS packs are off
* All engines operating
* All engines operating at 1500ft above the aerodrome of intended
landing
What is a balanced R/W?
Its when ASDA=TODA taking into account an engine failure allowing
either to perform a safe take off or to stop within ASDA.
What are EOSID / SEOSID?
Engine out SID and special engine out SID.
EOSID
-Climb straight ahead on runway track, until the acceleration altitude is
attained.
-Level off for flap/slat retraction, accelerate, and at the same time start a
15 banked
Turn to the navigation aid specified in the EOSID.
SEOSID
Where a straight-out climb to the acceleration altitude does not provide
obstacle clearance, a
Special EOSID is defined. Unless otherwise specified, this procedure does
not affect the
climb technique but presents specific navigational information.
What is obstacle clearance based on EOSID /
SEOSID? .......From LPC intro
On analyzing the path allowing utilization of maximum RTOW.
EOSID/SEOSID?
-On a climb gradient of 2.4%
-35 feet in straight, 50 feet in a turn.
Is it based on R/W HDG or R/W Track?........From LPC intro
Its based on the cone starting at TODA with the half width of 90 m
expanding to max 900 m. Its based on runway track.
The F/O does not want to extend his discretion (Jakarta
Doha)?
Its a CAPTAIN'S decision to extend the FDP taking into account all
the safety relevant aspects.
If one of your MINIMUM cabin crew refuse your discretion?
Its not their prerogative and can be treated as disruption.
(DOH-KRT) one hour after departure an aircraft crashed at your
DEST Alternate? Nominate another destination alternate and
revise in flight fuel planning according to minimum remaining fuel
ALTR+FINAL provided weather at destination is above applicable
minima and approach aids are available.
No need to nominate another alt as company will give the closest
one so usually any other alt will be further away unless the
commercially preferred alt was selected. PIC can continue to DEST
provided either destination or alt is at or above planning
minima. Similar to the situation where all alternate aerodromes drop
below applicable minima.
What is Contaminated Runway?
FCOM 2.04.10 p2
-A runway covered with a kind of moisture (25%) above the values
given in the reference.
JAR-OPS 1.480
Contaminated runway: A runway is considered to be contaminated
when more
than 25% of the runway surface area within the required length and
width being used
is covered by the following:
Standing water: Caused by heavy rainfall and/or insufficient
runway
Drainage with a depth of more than 3 mm (0.125 in).
Slush: Water saturated with snow, which spatters when stepping
firmly
on it. It is encountered at temperature around 5 C, and its density is
approximately 0.85 kg/liter ( 7.1 lb / US GAL).
Wet snow: If compacted by hand, snow will stick together
and tend to
form a snowball. Its density is approximately 0.4 kg/liter ( 3.35
lb / US
GAL).
Dry snow: Snow can be blown if loose, or if compacted by
hand, will fall
apart again upon release. Its density is approximately 0.2 kg/
liter (1.7 lb
/ US GAL).
Compacted snow: Snow has been compressed (a typical
friction
Coefficient is 0.2).
Ice: The friction coefficient is 0.05 or below.
13:-Can you land with the Anti Skid system U/S on
contaminated R/W?
NO due to performance considerations as follow: antiskid and
spoilers are operative + friction coefficient is based on studies and
checked by actual tests + screen height at the end of the take off is
15 ft + reversers are operative and TOGA used.
14:-What is landing distance contaminated?
Its either required LD wet or actual contaminated LD * 115%
For JAR operators, if the surface is contaminated, the required
landing
distance must be at least the greater of the required landing
distance on a wet
runway and 115% of the landing distance determined in accordance
with approved contaminated landing distance data.

15:-When is a T/O or Landing not allowed on a contaminated
Runway?
If the friction coefficient is below 0,25 or braking action poor and the
crosswind limitation is exceeded + reversers are inoperative or MEL
restricted.
Take-off and Landing is not allowed when one or more of the
following exist:
Runway covered with more than 12 inch (12.7 mm) of water or
slush.
Runway covered with more than 1 inch (25.4 mm) of wet snow.
Runway covered with more than 2 inches (50.8 mm) of dry snow.
Runway covered with ice or compacted snow.
Reported braking action is poor.
Reported braking friction coefficient is equal or less than 0.25.
19:-What are the items monitored by T/O config test?
20:-What is ASDA?
Accelerated Stop Distance Available= RWY+STOP WAY capable of
carrying an airplane weight.
21:-What are the Airport categories? Classification based on
what?
Qatar Airways has categorized the airfields according to their
operational complexity, based upon an assessment of their terrain
characteristics and minimum safe altitude, approach aids and
approach procedures, seasonal weather conditions, performance
limitations, and any other unusual characteristics.
The categories are as follow: A, B, C (Part A Chapter 8 page 23.
8.1.2.4)
CATEGORY A aerodromes satisfy all of the following
requirements:
An approved instrument approach procedure;
At least one runway with no performance limited procedure for take
off and/or landing;
Published circling minima not higher than 1000 ft AGL;
Night operations capability.
CATEGORY B aerodromes do not satisfy the Category A
requirements or require extra considerations such as
Non-standard approach aids and/or approach patterns; or
Unusual local weather conditions; or
Unusual characteristics or performance limitations; or
Any other relevant considerations including obstructions, physical
layout, lighting etc.
Prior operating to such aerodrome, the Commander shall be
briefed, or self briefed.
CATEGORY C aerodromes require additional considerations to
Category B aerodrome.
These aerodromes have a significant factor affecting the complexity
and workload of the
flight. The Commander shall undergo training and briefing before
flying into these aerodromes.
The training may be in the form of a simulator or a visit flight into
that aerodrome.
Take-off and landing at these aerodromes shall be done by the
Captain only.
Note: The list of aerodromes along with their applicable category
and briefing are given
in the Operations Manual, Part C - Route and Aerodrome
Instructions and
Information, Chapter 7.
22:-(DOH-LHR) you are in dispatch, LHR weather is below
dispatch minimums, will you go?
One can almost always go the question is foes it make sense
commercially and operational?
8.1.2.2.4 Destination Alternate (DEST ALTN)
one suitable destination alternate aerodrome must be selected for
each flight. (Refer to
Table 8 - 4 for planning minima)
Two suitable destination alternates must be selected when :
The appropriate weather reports or forecasts for the destination
indicate that from 1 hr
before to 1 hr after the ETA the weather conditions will be below the
applicable
planning minima; or
No meteorological information is available.
Note: If planning minima at destination are not fulfilled,
two destination alternate airports must be selected
(Refer to Table 8 - 4 for planning minima).
23:-What is STOPWAY?
JAR 1.1 General Definitions FAR 1.1 General Definitions
The runway may be extended by an area called the stopway. The
stopway is an area beyond the runway, which should have the
following characteristics. It must be :
At least as wide as the runway, and centered upon the extended
centerline of the runway.
Able to support the airplane during an aborted takeoff, without
causing
structural damage to the airplane.
Designated by the airport authorities for use in decelerating the
airplane
during an aborted takeoff.
24:-Can we refuel with one engine running?
YES,
8.2.1.6 Refuelling with One Engine Running
Refuelling with one engine running is not permitted unless
authorised by General Manager Flight Operations
(GMFO). Procedure for refuelling with one engine running is given
in the relevant aircraft type FCOM, Loading chapter. Refuelling
with one engine running is only permitted at airports where no
external ground pneumatic power is available while APU is
unserviceable. Before the start of refuelling with one engine
running, the following conditions must be met:
Airport authorisation is obtained and fire trucks are positioned at
the aircraft during the entire refuelling procedure.
Disembark all passengers.
One flight crew member has to monitor from the cockpit all
systems and the engine running, for the entire duration of the
operation.
A qualified ground crew member has to be present at the fuelling
station, to operate refuel valve switches.
Note: The refuelling system must be fully operational. The overwing
lling is not permitted.
25:-Can you T/O from contaminated R/W with spoilers U/S?
No. Actually, both the Anti-skid and spoilers have to be operative.
26:-What is the RFF category for DEST? DEST ALT? And
adequate airport?
28:-What is a suitable airport?
It's an adequate aerodrome which satisfies planning weather criteria
for ETOPS dispatch purposes in addition cross wind limitation must
be observed. Notams and serviceability must be checked.
29:-What is the difference between a CAT 2 & CAT 3
approaches?
The difference are:
- the minimum are more restrictive for a CAT 3 than a CAT 2.
-CAT 2 can be a manual landing and CAT3 must be auto-land.
These are the main differences.
31:-Whats the different between TERPS & PANOPS?
TERPS is a US definition for the construction of instrument
procedures based on aircraft categories, whereas PANOPS is ICAO
standard DOC 8186 Note: straight in and circling minima can be
different namely straight in in PANS OPS and CIRCLING TERPS. In
this case the little note is added on the head part of the circling
chart. JEPP Introduction p 115.
The main difference is the turn radius from the runway threshold
which among the others determines whether the descent can be
commenced in the base turn. Usually in the US the descent is
started once on final.
33:-The Head of your company is on board your flight and
asked you if one of his friends can come in the cockpit during
the flight?
NO, you are really sorry!
34:-Some where out in china or somewhere where you can not
disembark crew or passengers, you need to exercise your
discretion. The F/O however, does not want to go into
discretion. What would you do?
It's not f/o's prerogative\ but he has the right to refuse the flight
conduct due to various reasons. Dependable on the reason the
situation will be treated and could be seen as operation disruption.
36:-While cruising at FL 410 you get an Ecam of a door open.
What is the 1
st
thing you look for? Cabin pressure indication if
there's any abnormalities.
39: - If ATC inform you about wind shear and you are on final.
What is your action?

FCOM 3.04.91 page3 & 4
-Delay landing if fuel permits, divert.
-Evaluate conditions for a safe landing.
-Use weather radar or predictive windshear system.
-Use the most favorable runway
-select flaps 3 for landing
-Use managed speed in the approach phase.
Use Auto-pilot.
-If any doubt go around and apply proper procedure.
If time permits, Review, FCOM3 SUP TECH.
41: - The PFs task in an abnormal procedure?
Aviate, Navigate, Communicate.
42:- How you will deal with an aggressive first officer?
Brake the question in 2 scenarios; On the ground or in the air?
-On the ground perhaps see if it is just towards you as an Individual or is he
like this with others as well. On both the ground and in the air see if he
might want to talk about anything bothering him
43: - Memory items for A330?
Wind-shear
TCAS
EGPWS
Loss of breaking
EMERG DESCENT
Unreliable speed indications
Crew incapacitation
44: - When the airport is not in the data base. What is the
procedure regarding EGPWS?
Deselect Terrain function. Limitation 3.01.34 p1
45:- Why do we perform visual approaches? What are the minima
in QA?
We perform such an approach to conserve time and fuel for the economical
savings to the company.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
50: - Why during single engine operation you are setting the
TCAS on TA?
By putting the selection switch to TA only the system will not
generate any vertical orders. This TA only SHOULD be used when
the Aircraft has degraded performance ( engine failure, landing gear
extended, parallel runway operations.)
52: - What is the strategy in single engine? And for ETOPS?
53: - You have an engine fire alarm with normal engine
parameter. What will you do?
.. Normal engine parameter is not a characteristic of fire or
not, we have to apply the emergency procedure engine fire and
follow all the consequence of this procedure (land ASAP) red..
54: - Dual engines flame out. What will you do?
Immediate control take over by the left seat pilot and a safe flight
path established. When convenient call ATC on VHF1.
AviateUsing PFD1, Alternate Law.
Navigate RMP1 & VOR1
Communicate. VHF 1
Consider starting the Apu, Get out the QRH,
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
-Be thinking is it Fuel or no fuel?
-Declare a MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
-GO to QRH checklist. (1.13 or 1.17)
Have in mind:
LAND ASAP, check your RAT is deployed ( be thinking to start
APU) your engine start selector should go to IGN, Fly optimum
relight speed of 300/.82 , pitch set appropriate if no speed, EMERG
ELEC PWR, VHF1, RMP1, STBY NAV.
55: - On route to LHR you are losing the green hydraulic. What is
your consideration as captain? .Analize what could of happened.
Check other systems, consider damage, ask cabin crew if they heard,
saw or smell any irregularities in the cabin (possibly around the mid
section where the landing gear are retracted.) Talk to OCC and MCC
to advise them of the problem. But as far as I am concerned you
would continue to London. You have many airlines there that
operate A-330 aircraft so the parts and MX would not be a problem.
You would also consider the fact that you would have to do a
gravity extension and also no nose wheel steering after landing.
57: - How do you calculate the APU fuel consumption in
Flight?
58: - How do you calculate the APU fuel consumption on
Ground?
59: - How can you determine quickly if you can climb to FL 350
and your T/O weight is 210t?
60: - How do you find the S.G specific gravity of fuel?
Read the fuel receipt. Ask the fuel truck guy or the Maintenance personnel
61: - What will you do if both FD failed on ground and in flight?
62: - When you start engines with batteries, what is the
procedure?
67: - X wind limits?
.Volume 3, Limitation & 3.01.20 page3
Maximum crosswind demonstrated 32kts with gusts up to 40kts.
For CAT 2 and CAT 3 approach, automatic landing or roll out: 20kts
crosswind
35kts headwind, 10kts tailwind
Maximum crosswind for slippery runways 2.04.10p11
Runways braking action good/medium 27kts, medium and medium/
poor 20kts and poor 15kts.
68: - Take off not allowed, under which conditions?
-Cross wind component not complied 29 kts. gust 39 kts.
-On an icy runway. {This one is just not RECOMMENDED (2.04.10 P1)}
-On contaminated runway with more than 4 inches dry snow or 1 inch wet
snow.
-Breaking action reported less than poor.
-Breaking coefficient <.25.
71: - When is a runway considered contaminated? FCOM 2
2.04.00 P2 .3 mm of water
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
+++++
72: - You have a cargo smoke alarm over HIL what is your
action?
....... LAND ASAP!!!!!............. you Should consider asking the cabin
crew to see if they notice any smoke, feel the floor area hot or warm. Give
them a NITES brief and get the cabin ready for a landing. Monitor and
communicate with the cabin crew and have them be EXTRA Vigilent about
the situation and advise ASAP if they SEE, SMELL, HEAR, TOUCH or
notice ANYTHING relating to a possible fire. Advise ATC MAYDAY
MAYDAY MAYDAY of the possibility of a FIRE and have the
emergency equipment standing by. After landing Taxi somewhere remote
(Away from the terminal) if possible and have the passengers deplaned
PRIOR TO GETTING THE DOOR OF THE CARGO OPENED. Once all
PAX off have the fire rescue open the cargo doors. Now remember if you
have no choice but to deplane the passengers using the ON GROUND
EMER EVACUATION CHECKLIST and you have to shut down the
aircraft completely (BATTERIES) the fire crew will not be able to open
the doors. Therefore you will consider adding in your brief to the CSD and
F/O to advise you when ALL!!!!!!!, and I mean ALL the PAX are off of
the aircraft and then you will advise the fire chief to open the door and start
extinguishing the fire. You will keep the APU/ or the batteries with the
Yellow Electric pump on until the Cargo door is open and then once the
door is open, Complete the checklist and evacuate yourself out the aircraft.
This will save you precious minutes and possible the aircraft by doing it
this way because had you have done the check list completely you would
then have to go outside and get the Hand Pump from inside the Hydraulic
Maintenance Panel and proceed to the cargo door and then start to hand
pump the door open which will take a great deal of time. Dont forget to
tell the crew chief about any NOTOC onboard and where it is.
73: - Radar failure before entering ETOPS and none ETOPS?
Day or night? The radar does not affect ETOPS but it will affect
your flight at night. How is the WX and what about the moon?
74: - Difference between QRH and MEL?
The Preamble of the MEL talks about the applicability of the MEL.
You will use the MEL until the A/C starts to move under its own power for
the purpose of preparing for Take-Off.
By this they mean that you will use the MEL for Pre-boarding, Boarding
and also Push-back. After that you will use the FCOM / QRH for all
matters but it is a good Idea to reference the MEL as good airmanship
dictates.
75: - Any special procedure for navigation above the 72.30.00N
and 60.00.00S?
.. FCOM 4, 4.04.40, Page 4.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
++++++
76: - Max speed operation for RAT?
77: - Max inbalance fuel for T/O and landing?
FCOM 3, LIMITATIONS, 3.01.28 Page 1
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
78: -What is MSA?
volume 1 page 9
Minimum safe altitude provides obstacle clearance of 1000 ft on
25Nm radius from the point depicted or it is from the center point of
the airport if not specified by the point name this is an emergency
altitude which is not provide navigation aids reception.
79: - What is SELCAL?
. Selective Calling..It is an automatic recognition
system operated by tone signal to a specific four letter coding system
to the aircraft. (Every aircraft worldwide has its own different code),
The equipment is connected to VHF or HF, and the pilot can monitor
by a call with aural and visual indications.
80: - If you Cant obtained ATC clearance what is the procedure?
Jeppesen Volume 2 page 440 (15.2.3.3 weather) or (15.2.2.5 Emergency)
For weather
Used authority of pilot in command, try to obtain a clearance ASAP. Until
the ATC is received the pilot should take the following action.
A: deviated away of track or routes system
B: radio broadcasting position on 121.5 and 123.45 or other air/air
C: watch out for traffic and used of TCAS if equipped
D: turn exterior light on
E: if deviated less than 10Nm remain at level assigned.
F: if deviated more than 10Nm east 000 to179 left descent right climb by
300ft and west 180 to 359 left climb right descent by 300ft
G: back on route at 10 nm come back to your cleared altitude
For emergency
In case of unable to continue or maintain the navigation accuracy specified
for this airspace, and clearance shall be obtained whenever possible. If
clearance can not be obtained
A: distress message or pan pan pan (3 times)
B: turn 90 left or right of track choose be according to the track system or
the alternate position or any offset or the flight level allocated on adjacent
route.
C: following turn maintain level or if is not possible minimum descent rate,
intercept a track 15 nm offset from the route, when established climb or
descent by 500 ft.
D: communicated 121.5 and 123.45
E: light on
F: keep SSR code and watch out used of ACAS.
81: - Radio failure departing out of DOH?
Part A 12.3
In case of Comm Failure out of DOH on radar clearance, SQUAKE 7600:
In IMC conditions. Maintain Runway Heading & 4000 feet QNH. At 10
DME or 3 mins after T/O, which ever later, turn on-track via shortest route
and climb to highest FL specified in last acknowledged ATC clearance.
In VMC conditions: you should continue to fly and Land at nearest
Suitable Airport.
82: - PRNAV performance?
Volume 2 page 551 or FCOM 2 04 46
Precision RNAV (RMP 1) provide 95/100 containment value of +/- 1nm
R as in case 10 of flight plan
83: - RVSM? / Volume 2 page E1 to E7
Reduced vertical separation minimum from FL290 to FL410. Letter W
in the flight plan
Vertical separation is 1000 between RVSM aircraft and 2000 ft for other
case including radio communication failure.
Required equipment:
(2.4.50 p1)
-ADR1+ADR2+2 DMC.
-1 Transponder.
-1 Autopilot function.
-1 FCU channel.
-2 PFD.
-1 FWC.
Flight preparation:
(2.4.45 p1)
-Verifying that the airframe is approved for RVSM operations.
-Reported and forecast weather on the flight route.
-Review of maintenance logs and forms to determine the condition of the equipment
required for flight in RVSM airspace. ensure maintenance actions has been taken.
-Verify that the 2 primary altitude indications are in tolerance;
PFD 1 or 2 at ground check = +/- 25 ft.
PFD to Airport ELEV check +/- 75 ft.
Then there is a chart for when you are airbourne FCOM 3
(3.4.34 p6)
In flight procedures:
(2.4.50 p2)
-Prior to enter RVSM;
-The above listed equipment must be operating normally, in case of any of this
Equipment fail the crew must request a new clearance.
-The altimeter indications on PFD and STBY should be recorded.
-Within RVSM;
-Autopilot should be engaged during cruise and level changes.
-During cleared transitions between FLs tolerance is 150 ft.
-In intervals of 1 hr. Check PFD altimeter indications agree.
-Use the transponder and AP associated with 1 of the ADRs which is in
tolerance.
Post flight:
(2.4.50 p2)
The crew must report any malfunction on the height keeping system including:
-Malfunction or loss of any required equipment.
-Altimeter readings outside thee tolerance.
Abnormal and Emergency procedures:
(2.4.50 p3)
ATC must be notified of any of the following contingencies.
-Failure of both AP.
-Loss of altimeter system redundancy, only 1 PFD remains or excessive
altimeter discrepancy.
-Failure of any other equipment to maintain the FL.
-Encountering greater than moderate turbulence.
-Loss of ADR1 or ADR2. If ADR1 fails use AP2 and Vice versa.
.
84: - High speed taxiway limitation?
Jeppesen Volume 1 page 6
60kt maximum
85: - Alternate minima for Saudi Arabia?.. Jeppessen.
Check the actual chart and apply the (FOR FILL AS AN
ALTERNATE) and apply the most restrictive between QA minima
and the actual minima.
86: - Pan ops circling?
- pan ops circling volume 1 introduction p115, 115a, 116
Pan ops means that the state has specified the instrument approach under
ICAO characteristic
Pan ops 3 are the holding speeds are those in DOC8168 page 248 volumes
2.
Pan ops 4 means the acceleration segment have been deleted. Page
262, 263 volumes 2
TERPS procedure comply with US specification.
If there is not any of this 4 annotation on the left bottom of the chart
that means the criteria design of this approach is unknown.
For the circling TERPS CAT C 140kts in PAN OPS 180kts max so
the area of circling protection is bigger 4.2nm for 1.7nm in TERPS
also the bank angle for the design is lower 20deg PAN OPS instead
of 25deg TERPS.
Caution even with a PAN OPS procedure the circling cartouche can
show TERPS characteristic. Not approved by Qatar airways page
QTR-307.
If TERPS NOT AUTHORIZED show on the cartouche
ICAO characteristic with no minima published, NOT APPLICABLE
on the cartouche.
87: - CAVOK definition?
............ CAVOK: "Ceiling And Visibility OK": No CB, no cloud with base
< 1500m/5000ft or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever
is greater & visibility 10km or more & no weather of 'significance' (The
Visibility is 10KM or more, No clouds below 5000ft or highest MSA and
no cumulonimbus.)
88: - NOSIG definition?.......Jeppessen Meteorology Vol. 1 p57
No Significant Change/Weather, No cloud below 5000 ft. or highest MSA
but CAVOK or SKC not appropriate. In the ACE The Pilot Interview
p268 says 2 hrs for the trend.
.89: - TEMPO definition?
......................... TEMPO expecting fluctuation of weather for a period
less than 1 hour and for a of the cover period if is not, used BECMG.
90: - Oktas definition?
Sky Clear = 0 Oktas, FEW = 1 to 2 Oktas, SCT (scattered) = 3 to 4 Oktas,
BKN (broken) = 5 to 7 Oktas, OVC (overcast) = 8 Oktas
91: - Circling approach definition and Qatar airways minimum?
8.1.3.5.5.1 Circling (App. 1 to QCAR-OPS 1.430 (f) / 1.435 (a)(1))
Circling is the term used to describe the visual phase of an instrument
approach required to
Position an aircraft for landing on a runway, which is not suitably located
for a straight-in
Approach (QCAR-OPS 1.435 (a)(1) refers).
The circling is not permitted unless:
Circling is under PANS OPS criteria (Refer to Operations Manual, Part
C: Jeppesen Text
- Introduction, Page 115, 115a and 115b)
The reported cloud ceiling is of at least that specified under circle-to-land
or MDH in
Table 8 - 12 below, whichever is greater and
The visibility is of at least that specified under circle-to-land or visibility
in Table 8 - 12
Below, whichever is greater.
Table 8 - 12 Circling Minima:
8.1.3.5.5.2 Visual Approaches (App. 1 to QCAR-OPS 1.430 (h))
A visual approach takes place when either part or all of an instrument
approach procedure is
not completed and approach is executed by visual reference to the terrain.
Visual approaches are not permitted unless Air Traffic Control (ATC)
authorization is
received, and the reported weather conditions at the aerodrome are as
follows:
If circling minima is published, then the cloud ceiling must be at least the
MDH specified
under "CIRCLE-TO-LAND" or 1500 ft whichever is greater and reported
visibility of at
least 5 km.
If no circling minimum is specified, then the cloud ceiling must be at
least the Minimum
Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA) and reported visibility of at least 5 km.
Aircraft Category C.
MDH 600 ft
Visibility 2400 m
Volume 1 page 115 and volume 2 p 225 A and B + part A (2400m / 600ft)
92: -At the MSA the VOR reception is assured or not?
95: - Holding speed DOH?
.........Jepp pg 239 Table IV-1-1
Up to 14,000ft (inclusive) = 230kts ...(turb conditions =
280kts. You have to get ATC approval.)
Above 14,000ft to 20,000ft (inclusive) = 240kts (try to get 280kts when
possible) (turb conditions = 280kts or .80M, whichever is lower.
You have to get ATC approval.
Above 20,000ft to 34,00ft(Inclusive) = 265kts (try to get 280kts if possible)
(turb conditions is 280kts or .80M, whichever is lower. You have to get
ATC approval.
Above 34,000ft = .83M
96: - What does HIALS and RL mean?
..HIALS means, High Intensity Approach Light
System. RL means, Low Intensity Runway Lights or Intensity not
specified.
97: - Loss of RNAV performance?
You have to tell ATC and every ATC you contact for the entire trip.
98: - Rate of descent in a holding?
.Jepp page 213, MIN for CAT C,D & E Aircraft is 590
ft per min (180m/min) and MAX 1000ft per min (305m/min)
99: - What is VMC condition?
VMC conditions as tables (8.1.4) this is the minimum weather condition to
conduct a flight under VFR rules. The proposed is to see and avoid so the
value change with the airspace class, altitude (2500ft), and speed under or
above 250kt.
VFR flight is not allowed unless by GMFO (8.1.1 and 8.1.3) a VFR portion
of IFR flight shall be conduct under VMC conditions as tables (8.1.4). be
aware take off under VFR departure is: ceiling 1500ft minimum and 5km
visi check jeppesen air traffic control for the concerning state.
100: - CRM, what makes a good captain?
5.2.5 Crew Resources Management (QCAR-OPS 1.943/1.965)
Crew Resources Management (CRM) is the effective utilisation of all
available resources
(e.g. crew members, aircraft systems, and supporting facilities to
achieve safe and efficient
operation). The objective of CRM is to enhance the communication
and management skills of pilots. Emphasis is placed on the non-
technical aspects of flight crew performance.
1.5.1 Leadership
The Captain should:
Lead by example;
Motivate the Crew;
Develop the skills of the Flight Crew;
Demonstrate and support team working;
Engender a good working atmosphere;
Monitor Flight Crew performance and give constructive
advice to the crew members;
Involve Flight Crew in the operation and decision making process;
Ensure appropriate decisions are made and implemented;
Create a climate for open communication and listen effectively;
Co-ordinate inter-related activities concerning the flight;
Establish good working relationships with all staff related to the
flight;
Demonstrate an understanding for the work of other staff
members involved in the flight;
Encourage Cabin crew and Ground staff optimum performance
and feed back observations;
Clearly communicates intentions and required standards.
101: - Where is the touchdown zone?
AOM PART A (8.3.1.10 landing criteria)
300m after the threshold up to 1000m for a long flare, or threshold altitude
>50ft...etc. if RWY length is suitable, no landing distance limitation due to
breaking, deceleration, runway condition, airport altitude, marginal wind,
or failure affecting performance. IF is not the case or landing apart to be
done after 1000m a go around must be perform.
8.3.1.10. Landing Criteria
Landing performance is calculated based on crossing the runway
threshold 50 feet and
touching down at 300 meters (1000 feet). Hence, the aircraft should
touchdown at the 300
meters (1000 feet) point and not before (QCAR-OPS 1.410 refer).
In extreme cases (i.e. long flare, crossing the threshold higher than
50 feet, ...etc.), the
touchdown point may be extended up to 1000 meters (3000 feet)
upon the judgment of the
pilot-in-command, provided :
The runway length is suitable.
The aircraft Braking/Deceleration System is operative.
No landing distance restrictions due to runway condition, airport
pressure altitude, wind
or other environmental conditions.
No landing distance restrictions due to an aircraft system failure.
If any of the above cannot be met, or the anticipated touchdown
point exceeds 1000 meters (3000 feet), then a Go-around must be
initiated.
102:- Minimums for a visual approach at Qatar airways?
8.1.3.5.5.2 Visual Approaches (App. 1 to QCAR-OPS 1.430 (h))
A visual approach takes place when either part or all of an
instrument approach procedure is not completed and approach is
executed by visual reference to the terrain.
Visual approaches are not permitted unless Air Traffic Control (ATC)
authorisation is received, and the reported weather conditions at the
aerodrome is as follows:
If circling minima is published, then the cloud ceiling must be at
least the MDH specified under "CIRCLE-TO-LAND" or 1500 ft
whichever is greater and reported visibility of at least 5 km.
If no circling minimum is specified, then the cloud ceiling must be
at least the Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA) and reported
visibility of at least 5 km.
8.3.1.8.2. Visual Descent below Minimum Safe / Sector Altitude
(MSA)
Visual Descent below MSA to the circuit altitude (1500 ft AGL) is
permitted only if the descent can be continued so as to ensure
clearance from all obstacles on the intended track,
provided that, on reaching the circuit altitude, sufficient visual
reference is maintained to fix position continuously and accurately
within the specified radius and any specified sector. If this condition
cannot be satisfied, the aircraft must be climbed to MSA
immediately
103: - TEMPO is coming on degradation below your minimum
planned for the flight at alternated airport can you depart under
this condition?
(8.1.6. Interpretation of meteorological information)
Yes for destination alternate TEMPO is not affecting if 3 conditions are
meat
The meteorological conditions are above the applicable landing minima
The destination is above the destination alternate planning minima
Additional 30 minutes holding fuel is carried
8.1.6. Interpretation of Meteorological Information
for destination alternate, whenever a forecast prefixed by TEMPO
contains
meteorological conditions indicating below planning minimum at
ETA 1 hr, the
aerodrome may be considered for designation as alternate if:
the meteorological conditions are above the applicable landing
minima,
the meteorological conditions at destination is at or above
destination alternate
planning minima, and
additional 30 minutes holding fuel is carried.
105: - You are flying to London. The weather at London at
arrival time is CAT3. The aircraft capability has degraded to
CAT1. What will you do?
............. Keep going. You still have your alternates but now you have to be
much more vigilant and keep a close eye on WX in and around the area
seeing that your aircraft is now only capable of doing a CAT 1 approach.
Let OCC know what has happened and let them keep a watch for you also.
Keep everyone in the loop as to the operation of your flight.
106: - What is the conversion factor visibility to RVR?
......Part A, Chapter 8, Page 37
8.1.3.5.6. Met Visibility / RVR Conversion
AOM are generally expressed in RVR. If only meteorological visibility
is reported, then for straight-in instrument approaches only, the
reported visibility may be converted into
Equivalent RVR according to Table 8 - 13 below.
The Equivalent RVR may then be compared with the charted RVR
to determine whether the approach may be commenced or
continued.
Note: The Table 8 - 13 shall not be used when:
calculating Take-off or Category 2/3 minima;
a reported RVR is available;
circling approaches; or
state minima officially published (for state minima refer to
paragraph below)
In summary the following table explains when conversion of
Reported Visibility to Equivalent RVR is allowed:
107: - You depart from DXB to DOH. At the top of descent ATC
inform you about VIP movement. What will you do?
Ask for a reduce speed- ask time for delay. Delay your descent
divertion alt- hold over DOH- divert to BAH when reaching divertion
fuel + reserve. Or if you have the fuel on board you might consider
going back to DXB. Chech with OCC but this would be a logical
decision as some PAX might not want to come to DOH if the VVIP
movement is too long.
108:- w|eo yoc oce ||yloq wl|| |ess coo|loqeocy ||oo |oooed. w|o| oce
yocc oc|loos
O 8.8..1.8
-Look for an optimum level
-Look for an optimum speed
-Look for an optimum route
-Ask for direct routing.
-Change a cost index.
If still below proceed to an aerodrome when a safe landing can be made with at least
the final reserve fuel (30 min.) and no special action required.
114:- What is the measurement for the circling area ?
.It is 4.2 NM (7.778 KM) PANS OPS
115: - When will you use ID means baggage?
10.1.7 Crew Baggage Security
All crew baggage should carry an identification label giving full name
and rank of the crew member.
117: - The A/C is delayed in DOH for technical. After fixing it you
depart. In flight after T/O the technical comes back, if you
continue to destination the A/C is a NO GO what is your action?
Ask the interviewer, Where are you going? Determine if the
destination you are going to can have the aircraft fixed, Contact OCC via,
Comm, SAT COM, VHF ( ops freq, 123.45, Other A/c of company that
might have control, company ground station you are flying over Ask ATC
to call for you, Stockholm) let them decide but as far as you are concerned
you will continue to your destination for immediate planning but if it is an
isolated airfield, I.E Peshawa, Islamabad or any where the aircraft will be
grounded and it might be unsafe operation you will go back to Doha, Do an
over weight landing, get the aircraft changed and go again. This question
can be a can of worms with, what if? What if? What if and a real digging
no ending question. That is why you have to ask the interviewer questions
back.
118: - How do you determined the fire fighting code? A/C and
Airport.
8.1.2.1. Adequate Aerodrome (QCAR-OPS 1.220)
3) Has the Rescue and Fire Fighting (RFF) capability for the aircraft
type used for the
operation.
RFF category required for Take-off (TOFF) and Destination
(DEST) aerodromes are :
Note: If the number of movements of the aircraft in the highest category
normally
using the aerodrome is less than 700 in the busiest consecutive three
months, then the level of protection provided shall be not less than one
category below the determined RFF category of the aircraft (ICAO Annex
14
Volume 1, section 9.2.3 refer).
List of aerodromes fulfilling the above requirements are given in the
Operations Manual Part C: Route and Aerodrome Instructions and
Information, Chapter 7. Aircraft Type RFF Category
A319 / A320 -------------6
A321 ----------------------7
A300 / A332 ------------8
A333 / A340 ------------9
PART C
7.1.2 Example
6.1 ADEQUATE ALTERNATES
119: - What is the meaning of MEA and MORA? What is the
company requirement?
8.1.1.2.1. Minimum Altitudes Definitions
MEA (Minimum En-route IFR Altitude) :
The lowest published altitude (or Flight Level) between radio fixes
that meets obstacle
clearance requirements between those fixes and in many countries
assures acceptable
navigational and radio signal coverage. The MEA applies to the
entire width of the airway, segment, or route between radio fixes
defending the airway, segment, or route.
It is Qatar Airways policy that the MEA shall be used as the
minimum altitude for both flight planning and actual flight
execution.
MORA (Minimum Off Route Altitude) :
This is an altitude derived by Jeppesen. The MORA provides
reference point clearance
within 10 NM (18.5 km) of the route centreline (regardless of the
route width) and end fixes.
A grid MORA altitude provides a reference point clearance within
the section outlined by
latitude and longitude lines. MORA values clear all reference points
by 1000 ft (300 m) in areas where the highest reference points are
5000 ft (1500 m) MSL, or lower.
MORA values clear all reference points by 2000 ft (600 m) in areas
where the reference
points are above 5000 ft (1500 m) MSL.
1/ ELECT A TAKE OFF ALTERNATE
8.1.3.3. Take-off Operating Minima (QCAR-OPS 1.360 / 1.430)
a) Take-off shall not be commenced unless weather conditions at
the airport of departure are equal to or better than applicable
minima for landing at that airport, unless a suitable
take-off alternate aerodrome is available.
2/ WITHIN 60 MIN OR 120 MIN (etops)
8.1.2.2.1. Take-off Alternate (TOFF ALTN)
An aerodrome is considered suitable as take-off alternate if the
weather reports or forecasts or any combination thereof indicate
that, during a period commencing 1 hr before and ending 1 hr after
the estimated time of arrival at the airport, the weather conditions
will be at or above the applicable landing minima, taking into
account the status of the ground equipment and aircraft systems,
and crew qualification.
OR ANY STATE MINIMA
3/ TAKE OFF ALT: 8.1.2.2.1. Take-off Alternate (TOFF ALTN)
APPLICABLE
ENROUTE ALTERNATE: 8.1.2.2.2.En-route Alternate (ERA or DPP
ALTN) PLANNING
DESTINATION ALTERNATE 8.1.2.2.4. Destination Alternate (DEST
ALTN) PLANNING ATTENTION CASE OF NO DEST. ALT.
DESTINATION AIRPORT 8.1.2.2.3. Destination Aerodrome (DEST)
APPLICABLE
WHEN CONTENGENCY FUEL BELOW 5% ENROUTE ALT.
PLANNING
122: - When you are in flight with less contingency than planned.
What is your action?
8.3.7.1.3. In-flight Fuel Management
The Commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel
remaining in-flight is excess of the fuel required to proceed to an
aerodrome where a safe landing can be made, with the Final
Reserve fuel (30 minutes).
NO SPECIAL ACTION REQUIRED.
CREW NOTICE VALID UNTIL 01 01 2007) is no longer in
effect.******
126: If you have sick PAX on board, you are in flight. What is
your action, and you have VIP on board?
6.4 IN-FLIGHT MEDICAL EMERGENCIES AND ILLNESS
6.4.1. Diversion for Medical Reasons
When a passenger or crewmember becomes acutely ill and
apprehension exists about the passengers ability to survive the
flight, diversion to the nearest appropriate facility must be
considered. The Commander should bear in mind that his cabin
crew has all been suitably trained in first aid, and accept their advice
accordingly. In an attempt to limit the number of diversions to those
that are essential, an effort should be made to obtain some medical
opinion on the necessity to divert.
VIP NOT A FACTOR IN THIS CASE REF, CAPT RESPONSABILITY
127: - What is a split duty?
7.2 TERMINOLOGY
22) Split Duty A flying duty period which consists of two or more
sectors, separated by less than a minimum rest period.
7.4.2. Extension of Flying Duty Period by Split Duty
When an FDP consists of two or more sectors, of which one can be
a positioning journey
counted as a sector but separated by less than a minimum rest
period, then the FDP will be extended by the amounts indicated
below:
The rest period shall not include the 90 minutes total allowed for
immediate post flight and pre-flight duties. When the rest period is 6
hours or less it will suffice if a quiet and
comfortable place, not open to the public, is available. If rest is
taken in the aircraft on the ground, the crew must have adequate
control of the temperature and ventilation within the aircraft, either
by use of a ground power unit or the aircraft internal power units.
The passengers must not be on board. If the rest period is more
than 6 consecutive hours, then suitable accommodation will be
provided by the company.
Consecutive Hours Rest Maximum Extension of the FDP Less than
3 NIL
3 10 A period equal to half the consecutive hours rest taken.
128: - During flight you have a dual flame out. What to do? QRH
1.13 or 1.17
AVIATE ( Capt seat)
NAVIGATE (visual)
COMMUNICATE ( May Day)
CHECK LIST DUAL ENGINE FLAME OUT.
You have to consider if it is FUEL REMAINING OR NO FUEL
REMAINING
LAND ASAP
132: - Can you mix fuel type? then what is the fuel freezing point
resulting of a 20% Jet A (-36) and 80% Jet A1 (- 43)?
Yes, there is no MCC authorization if we mixing fuel of A and A1 but
other than this we need MCC authorization, the freezing point varies
according to non-straight law ,so if the mixture contains more than 10% jet
A1 then the freezing point consider A1.
133: - What is brake coefficient? When is it poor? X wind less
than 15kt can you take off?
w|o| ls bco|e coe||lcleo|
The actual grip of the surface of the tire with the asphalt.
w|eo l|`s ooc
</- .25
Ccoss wlod |ess ||oo 15 ||s. coo yoc |o|e o||
When BC reported .25 or less or braking poor or unreliable as iced runways
take off not allowed.
139: - Circling approach minima at Qatar Airways?
Part A Chapter 8, page 36, 8.1.3.5.5.1
The circling is not permitted unless:
Circling is under PANS OPS criteria (Refer to Operations Manual, Part
C : Jeppesen Text Introduction, Page 115, 115a and 115b)
the reported cloud ceiling is of at least that specified under circle-to-land
or MDH of 600ft (Cat C aircraft), whichever is greater and
the visibility is of at least that specified under circle-to-land or 2400m
(cat C Aircraft), whichever is greater.
142: - What do you say to ATC if you loose your RNAV for the
rest of the flight?
Inform ATC the lost of P-RNAV/RNP capability, and follow ATC instructions.
144: - By how much a captain can reduce discretion?
10 hours at accommodation.
Part A Chapter 7, page 16, 7.4.5
7.4.5 Aircraft Commanders Discretion to Reduce a Rest Period
An aircraft Commander may, at his discretion, and after taking note of the
circumstances of other members of the crew, reduce a rest period, but only
insofar as the room allocated to the crew member must be available for
occupation for a minimum of 10 hours. The exercise of such discretion will
be exceptional and must not be used to reduce successive rest periods. If the
preceding FDP was extended, the rest period may be reduced, provided that
the subsequent allowable FDP is also reduced by the same amount. In no
circumstances may a commander exercise discretion to reduce a rest period
below 10 hours at accommodation.
When away from base and where an individual crew member separates
from the crew, or the crew as a whole splits up, then any use of discretion
to reduce rest becomes a decision for an individual crew member. The
decision to continue with the next flight and the submission of an associated
discretion report is the responsibility of the relevant Commander after the
crew member, and the Company if in a position to do so, has informed the
Commander that a reduced rest period has been taken.
145: - When would you raise ASR? Where it be indicated?
|AkI A, C|o|ec 11, |oqe 12, 11..8 8
It has to be done within 12 hours and then it has to be sent from QR to the QCAA
within 72 hours.
All the reasons described in the chapter of handling of accidents and occurrences.
They are 30 reasons you will do it.
147: - Reaching the holding point your T/O weight is above the
MTOW. Do you wait to burn the more fuel?
...................YES. You cannot take off when your weight is over the
MAX Take-Off weight.
148: - During LVP what is the distance of your T/O alternate?
149: - What is the ITCZ?
..The Inter tropical Convergence Zone is where converging air
masses meet near the thermal equator. Like the thermal equator, the ITCZ
movement is a function of seasonal heating that is much greater over land
than over the sea. Over South America and Southern Africa, ITCZ
movement is large, especially in the summer season, whereas over the
Atlantic Ocean, its movement is small. In other words, it is stable. The
effects of the ITCZ determines the weather pattern over a significant
portion of the globe.
150:- You are missing two passengers with 4 bags?
Take off the bags.ALL of them
151:- What is the Rhumb Line?
........... Rhumb lines are tracks with a constant track direction between two
points on a sphere and therefore must be a longer distance than a great
circle route.
152:- What is Great Circle Track?
........... Great Circle Track is a line of shortest distance between two points
on a sphere ( or a flat surface) with a constantly changing track direction as
a result of convergence.
153:- There is fire in the cabin, what are your actions?
.. Is the fire under control, where, how, keep communication lines
open between you and the cabin crew, get FREQUENT updates. Move the
passengers from the area. Use all your resources to get the fire under
control or put out MAY DAY MAY DAY MAY
DAY.LAND ASAP
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
+++++++++++++++++++++
158:- What is the Wing Span? Why is it good to know this
number?
60.3 m
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++
+++++++++++++++++++++++++++
159:- You Depart DOH. You are on the HDG 350 when the
Engine fails. Do you follow the EOSID?
. 4
th
segment (1600 ft)
160:- Tail Pipe fire. What do you do ?
On the back of the QRH is the ENGINE TAILPIPE
FIRE procedure.
161:- What is a Occluded front?
An Occluded Front
This is a combination of both a Cold front and a warm front. You
will see the warm front (bumps) and the cold front ( nipples) form
together on one line. You see what happens is the cold front moves
faster than a warm front so if this is the case then it will catch up to
the warm front and bump into it.
162:- An Airport has some special procedures. Where would you
find out about this?
.PART C of Qatar Airways as well as the JEPP Part C
also
163: - How can you use the RVR factoring in DOH as a new and
normal commander? . X (multiply) the 1.5 (D) and 2.0 (N) for
when you have HIALS and RL. And all other lighting you use 1.0
(D) and 1.5 (N) and then when you have no lights it is 1.0 (D) and
Not Applicable for the night operation.
164: -For how long you brief the cabin crew in a joint brief?
.It all depends on how much time you have really. You can
keep it simple and be complete within 2 to 3 mins MAX or if you
have time you can chit chat and give them more information without
getting to boring or over whelming. It is not rocket science. Just
brief them on WX, route, Turbulence, Time, MELS, any new
procedures and security.
65: - DOH/JED flight your holding before take off. How long you
can wait?
You can burn all of your 3% or 5% contingency as well as your taxi
fuel on the ground in DOH.
166: - A passenger has forgotten his passport what is your action?
.Let them check with the Gate see if it is there, Ticket counter,
Airport cleaners, Immigration, Lost and found. But whilst they are
doing this have the agent locate his baggage to be off loaded. Check
on your timing and when the time for departure has arrived you will
have his bags located and he will be OFFLOADED You can also
look at your flying time and see if you have some extra time you can
play with on the Block time vs the flight time, you might have a
strong tail wind and you will arrive early to destination so you can
use some of this time also.
If you have taxied out already and then the CSD comes to you with
this problem when you call for to receive the ALL SECURED call
from her about the cabin. Then you continue the taxi and take off
and the other station will deal with this problem. It now becomes a
disruption to the flight for the other 300 people and once they arrive
there the passenger will be detained and dealt with.
167: - Where did you find the preferred alternated?
. Qatar Airways Part C is where you would find this
information
173:- On walk around what is the little green disc on the nose of
the A/C?
.That is the discharge squib for the crew O2.
174: - Difference with strait in approach and strait in landing?
A strait in approach no procedure turn.
A Strait in landing no circling.
175:- Holding Buffer Zone?
..JEPP VOL 2 Page 238,
5 N.M
176:- What is Predictive Windshear? Explain?
.. PREDICTIVE Windshear Function (PWS)
Active when the aircraft is below 2300 AGL but only detects windshear
below 1500 AGL. Zone of detection is 40 degrees either side of track and
5 nm ahead. Alerts are only issued for windshear in the splay 25 degrees
either side of track.
Takeoff
Warning = up 3 nm ahead (up to 1200) - on the T/O roll, ie. wheels on the
ground.
Warning = up to 1.5 nm (aircraft airborne)
Caution = 1.5 nm to 3 nm (aircraft airborne)
3 nm to 5 nm the windshear is displayed on ND but there are no alerts
All alerts are inhibited between 100 kts and 50
Landing
Warning = 0.5 nm ahead at ground level ramping up to 1.5 nm at 365
AGL
Caution = 1.5 nm to 3 nm
Warnings
T/O: Aural = windshear ahead.
Visual = PFD: W/S AHEAD (red)
Visual = ND: windshear icon
Landing: Aural = go around, windshear ahead.
Visual = PFD: W/S AHEAD (red)
Visual = ND: windshear icon
Cautions
T/O and landing: Aural = monitor radar display. Visual = PFD: W/S
AHEAD (amber)
Advisories
No aurals or PFD visual indications
Visual = ND: windshear icon
Note: Predictive windshear is not available in the simulator

177:- ATC tell you to hold en-route. What is your thinking of how
to hold?
.. Check if there is a holding pattern at this point you are meant to hold
at. If there is not then you can assume that it will be a standard hold but
you can ask ATC to verify. Ask for a slower GREEN DOT speed for
holding and you should also ask how long, reason for holding and expected
time for your approach or how long you will hold.
178: - Missing passengers 5 minutes before departure, what do
you do?
Do they have baggage? Was it a transit flight and were they a
transit Passenger? If they were you now have to identify if they had carry
on baggage to the aircraft. If you find all the bags and the passenger has not
show up yet for the flight and it is now departure time ( the 5 mins has
passed and not there) you will if time permits and you have a jumpseat
passenger at the gate waiting to get on and was bumped for the reason of
FLIGHT FULL make sure they are on the flight now and this will
actually viod the agent from having to do an LMC. If this cannot be done
then you will get the agent/ red cap to do an LMC and remove the
passenger. You will also make sure that the first officer makes the change
on the card ( 227 passengers minus one is now 226) and also if ATC has
been notified about the 227 + crew 13 SOULS ON BOARD they also
know the change to 226 and you close the door and get going.
179: -What are ACN and PCN differences and where will you will
find it?
ACN / PCN - In the early 1980s, ICAO and the member states
(countries) agreed to adopt the ACN/PCN (Aircraft Classification Number /
Pavement Classification Number) method of reporting pavement strength
for airports pavements with bearing strengths greater than 12,500 pounds.
Not all airports have converted to this system however with each passing
year more and more are doing so. The ACN / PCN methodology takes into
account variables that are not included in other methods. The PCN reports
the relative bearing strength of an airport pavement and the ACN expresses
the relative effect of an airplane on the pavement.
The number in the PCN string relates to the allowable weight of the
aircraft. The first letter refers to (F)lexible or (R)igid pavement. The
second letter relates to the bearing strength of the subgrade soil beneath the
pavement. The third letter gives a range of allowable tire pressures, and the
fourth letter is the evaluation method. If the fourth letter is a T, that
means that a technical evaluation of the pavement was conducted. A U
indicates that the "Using Aircraft" method of evaluation was used. That is
to say that the equivalent ACN of the highest gross weight of the largest
airplane currently using the airport is reported as the pavement strength for
the pavement. (The coding that is used is more fully described in Section 7
of each of the Planning manuals.)
The ACN calculation takes into account the location of the Center of
Gravity (CG) of the aircraft, the tire pressure, tire size, and tire spacing for
any particular aircraft. When calculating an ACN, we are required by ICAO
guidelines to use the maximum aft CG at the maximum ramp weight.
If the ACN for an airplane is lower than or equal to the reported PCN for
an airport pavement, the airplane can operate without weight restriction on
that pavement. For example, if you have a PCN of 81/F/B/W/T and you
have an ACN of 53 for a 388,000 lb 767-300ER on a flexible pavement
with a B subgrade, that airplane can operate at that airport at 388,000 lbs
for an unlimited number of annual operations. On the other hand, if the
PCN happened to be 51, the 767-300ER could not operate at that airport at
388,000 lb for unlimited operations. It may, however, be able to operate at
a lower weight or be able to operate on a limited number of operations at
the higher weight. This would have to be coordinated with the airport
authority.
Please refer to Section 7 Pavements of the respective Airplane
Characteristics for Airport Planning documents for the ACN / PCN charts
and additional examples of how to calculate operating weights.
180:- When do you need a new OFP?
PART A, Chapter 8, Page 66. 8.1.10.3.You dont need one. You
can get a new one if the ZFW changes by 4000 kg more if time permits
without causing a delay. but I would suggest you at least call dispatch and
get some new numbers and write them on the flight plan
182: - You are flying pilot and on profile. Your F/O shouts at you
your high What do you do?
.. This question is all depending on where it happens. Ask them ( the
interviewers) where you are in the flight. I.E are you 60 miles out, 40
miles, 10 miles on the approach. VMC or IMC and also what type of
approach you are doing. As soon as the first
officer says this to you it is your responsibility to confirm by looking at
your position, radios and instruments and also CROSSCHECKING that
what you are doing is correct, it could be that you are wrong and you are
verifying it. Cross check that you are both looking, doing and approaching
the correct Airport, runway, and doing the correct approach. If you are
correct then all will be fixed at this time with a good verification from
ATC of what is expected and runway in use. ..This Question can take
another turn and be this.:. 60 miles out, 40 miles, 10 miles on the approach
after all of these questions are answered you will then say to the F/O to
verify where he is getting his information as he might have the wrong VOR
or runway information in his box tuned. It might be that you are wrong and
you are high but you would have checked this .
If you cannot agree as to where you are then you will have to break off the
approach at 1000 ft and go again.
184:-CAT 2 is U/S in DOH. Vis is 400. can you land?
. See Question 106: - What is the conversion factor visibility to RVR?
And apply this to the Doha plate.
185:- Define MSA?
MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDE (MSA)
Altitude depicted on an instrument approach chart and identified as the
minimum safe altitude which provides a 1000 ft obstacle clearance within a
25 NM radius from the navigational facility upon which the MSA is
predicated. If the radius limit is other than 25 NM, it is stated. This altitude
is for EMERGENCY USE ONLY and does not necessarily guarantee
NAVAID reception. When the MSA is divided into sectors, with each
sector a different altitude, the altitudes in these sectors are referred to as
minimum sector altitudes.
188:- What makes a good Leader?
.. Lead by example, good listener, team builder, a person who has the
ability and experience to get the best out of his team, a person who is/was a
good follower and learnt along the way of the Dos and DONTs in the job
and handling situations. A person who gaters fact and then with the help of
his information and team makes a good, safe, economical and good plan for
his crew, aircraft, passengers, cargo and himself all at the same time.
197:- How do you solve a conflict?
. Identify the type of the conflict - this first step is very important because
each type of conflict needs a certain strategy.
Face up the conflict rather than avoid it - you have to be aware of the
negative consequences such as irritability, tension and the persistence of the
problems, if you avoid the conflict.
Respect yourself and your interests, but also the other and his interests
Accept and understand cultural differences - people around you are from
various cultures which imply different ways of thinking.So something that
is obvious and right to some of us could be otherwise for other ones.
Explore personal and others interests to identify common ideas and
compatibilities - when you analyze not only your but also others attitudes,
it increases the empathy between you and the probability to find out a
solution to the problem.
Communicate and listen to the other - try to put yourself in his position,
efficient communication is an important element for finding a constructive
solution. Active listening has to be the primary and only behavior in a
conflict because it helps to find out others opinion.
190:- The GPWS has how many modes? FCOM 1, 1.34.70
Page 1
. 5 modes. (1)Excessive rate of descent, (2) Excessive terrain
closure rate, (3) Altitude loss after take-off or Go-around, (4) Unsafe
terrain clearance when not in landing Config, (5) Excessive deviation below
glideslope.
191: - How long does the parking brake accumulator pressure
hold for?
193:- The Temperature outside in Moscow is sub-zero, you are
approaching a cold soaked airplane. How do you prepare it for
departure?
You dont hane to know it on the top of your head but you
should know to find it in the SUPPLEMENTARY TECHNIQUES. In
FCOM 3. It is 3.04.91 page 6
194:- EGPWS procedures on non data base airport?
..You will turn it off actually so that you dont have it
screaming at you all the way down the approach because it does not
know where you are.
195:-If you get a GPWS in VMC below MSA what is your action?
if you are in VMC conditions and it is very clear where
you are then no action but ignore and continue with an increase of
vigilance is required and adopted. If there is any uncertainty from
either pilot as to your EXACT location, execute a go around. The
MEL says you can dispatch without it.
196:- Flex vs De-rated explain?
197:- Define EOSID?
198:- Service provided in different airspace class areas?
199:- MEL application before flight / after dispatch out of DOH
with no engineer?
200: - What are the conditions to activate the standby generator
automatically?
AwO|
wlMItk O|tkAIlOM:
-Definition:
(3.4.30 p1)
Icing condition may be expected on ground and for take off when OAT is at or
below 10C and visible moisture in the air.
Engine anti-ice must be on during all ground and flight operations when icing
conditions exist, or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise when
SAT<-40. And during decent even if SAT> -40.
Wing anti-ice could be use to prevent or remove ice form the leading edges
when suspect of airframe icing or the visual ice indicator.
-Operational requirements:
Anti-skid and spoilers must be operative.
(2.4.10 p2)
The friction coefficient is based on the studies and checked by actual test.
The screen height at the end of take off segment is 15 ft. not 35 ft.
Maximum thrust is used for take off.
Reverse thrust must be operative.
(MEL Item)
-Flight preparation:
Exterior safety inspection normal verifying the following.
(3.4.91 p6)
a) Landing gear assemblies, tires, and landing gear doors.
b) Engine inlets, lips, fans, spinners, exhaust, and reverses.
c) Drains, bleed, probes.
d) Fuel tank ventilation.
e) Radome.
(FCTM 04.010 p2)
-Fluid application and hold over time guidelines.
(OM 8.2.4.6.2)
Note. - Remember hold over time began when the application start.
And in case of a mixture when the second application start.
-Taxi
(OM 8.2.4.10)
(2.4.10 p12)
The taxi speed on contaminated taxiways should be limited to 10 kts and any
action which might divert the full attention of the crew from taxiing should be
delayed until the aircraft is stopped.
On a contaminated taxiway there are a number of additional factors that should
be taken into account:
At speeds below 10 kts, the anti-skid is de-activated.
Engine anti-ice increases ground idle thrust.
Avoid large tiller inputs to minimize the risk of skidding during turns.
On slippery taxiways, it might be more efficient to use differential braking
and/or thrust rather than nose wheel steering.
On slush or snow covered taxiways, flap selection should be delayed until
reaching the holding point to avoid contamination of the flap/slat actuation
mechanism.
The crew should keep enough distance with the preceding aircraft to avoid
Foreign Object Damage).
When holding on the ground in icing conditions for extended periods of time or
if engine vibration is encountered, thrust shall be increased periodically and just
before take-off to shed any ice from the fan blades.
Check list shall only be performed while the aircraft is stationary with the
Parking
Brake ON.
Maximum crosswind for take off according to runway fiction coefficient reported
-Take off
(OM 8.2.4.13)
a) Use TOGA Thrust.
(2.4.10 p12)
b) Do not abort take off for minor deficiencies even at low speed.
c) If anti ice is used at take-off, the crew shall apply the related performance
penalty.
d) Slush, standing water, or deep snow reduces the aircraft take-off performance
because of increased rolling resistance and the reduction in tire-to-ground
friction. A higher flap setting will increase the runway limited take-off weight,
but will reduce second segment limited take- off weight.
e) Prior to line-up, the crew must ensure that the airframe is clear of ice and
snow.
f) Before applying thrust, the pilot should ensure that the nose wheel is straight.
Any tendency to deviate from the runway centerline must immediately be
countered with rudder pedal steering rather than the tiller.
g) During operations on contaminated runways, pilots should ensure that engine
thrust
advances symmetrically. This will help minimize potential directional control
problems.
-Approach
(3.4.30 p1)
a) Extended flight, in icing conditions with slats extended, should be avoided.
-Landings.
(2.4.10 p13)
a) Consider x-wind same table use for TO.
(2.4.10 p11)
b) Avoid landing in contaminated runways if anti-skid is inoperative.
d) Approach at normal speed.
e) As soon as the aircraft touch down lower the nose and apply full reverse.
f) Max reverse thrust can be used until full stop.
g) Maintain directional control with rudder as long as possible.
-After landing.
(OM 8.2.4.10)
During taxi-in, the flaps shall not be retracted. When the aircraft arrives at
the gate, a visual inspection shall be performed to check that the flaps areas
are free of contamination before retraction.
INTERVIEW
about qatar? why qatar ? demandig captain ? have someone
misinterpret you ? means of effective communications on the
cockpit .
LATER ASKED TELL US ABOUT YOURSELF, WHAT YOU CAN
BRING TO THE COMPANY, DOES DE MRS APPROVE OF YOUR
JOB IN QATAR AND A FEW TECH QUESTIONS, IE WHAT IS
MNPS AND ALT LIMITS,
INTERVIEW:3 INTERVIEWERS LATER ASKED TELL US
ABOUT YOURSELF, WHAT YOU CAN BRING TO THE
COMPANY, DOES DE MRS APPROVE OF YOUR JOB IN QATAR
AND A FEW TECH QUESTIONS, IE WHAT IS MNPS AND ALT
LIMITS,
What are your Future Plans for QATAR AIRWAYS GROUP
Why Should We Hire You Over The Others Waiting To Be
Interviewed
Can you work well under deadlines or pressure?
What goals do you have in your career
Briefly describe your ideal job?
What did you dislike about your last job? Why did you leave
your last job?
Do you have a bond with your current employer?
Why Qatar?
Scenario:
Tell us about yourself
Tell us when you didnt understand your somebody, doesnt
have to be about flying
What is you notice period?
What can you bring to the company?
Does the mrs. Approve of your job in Qatar?
What is MNPS?
39/ MNPS
- A SPECIFIED SET OF MINIMUM NAVIGATION
PERFORMANCE STANDARDS WHICH AIRCRAFT MUST MEET
IN ORDER TO OPERATE IN MNPS DESIGNATED AIRSPACE.
IN ADDITION, AIRCRAFT MUST BE CERTIFIED BY THEIR
STATE OF REGISTRY FOR MNPS OPERATION. THE
OBJECTIVE OF MNPS IS TO ENSURE THE SAFE SEPARATION
OF AIRCRAFT AND TO DERIVE MAXIMUM BENEFIT,
GENERALLY THROUGH REDUCED SEPARATION
STANDARDS, FROM THE IMPROVEMENT IN ACCURACY OF
NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT DEVELOPED IN THE RECENT
YEARS.
FL 285 FL420 : ( FL 290 FL410 )
30W LONGITUDE AT 11:30 -19:00 UTC WESTBOUND
30W LONGITUDE AT 01:00 08:00 UTC EASTBOUND
MACH NUMBER TECHNIQUE ADHERANCE
WX DEVIATION 10NM OFF TRACK APPROVED LEVEL
FLIGHT : MORE THAN 10 NM +/- 300
TURN TOWARDS NORTH POLE DECEND: TURN TOWARDS
SOUTH POLE CLIMB 300
EMERGENCY: PARALLEL TO TRACK 15NM OFFSET L/R
X ON FLT PLAN = MNPS
W ON FLT PLAN = RVSM
Questions I got which I didnt knew from PPRuNe:
Qatar interview questions from PPRuNe:
Alt limits
What does the take over button on the Airbus on the side
stick do?
Tell me about segments on T/O
VMCG/VMCA?
T/O in windshear
Have you flown with a demanding captain and give an
example?
Have you have had someone misenterpreting you and give
an example?
Any time a captain or F/O disagreed with you and give an
example?
What would you see on the PFD?
What is you company procedure for.and what do you think
about it?
W/S recognize and avodance?
Technical questions about your current A/C?
What do you know about Qatar Airways
Easy since you have just seen the video, which tell
everything. This video is also on youtube.
Questions not known before from PPRuNe:
Tell us about yourself
Tell us when you didnt understand your somebody, doesnt
have to be about flying
What is you notice period?
What do you know about Qatar Airways
Easy since you have just seen the video, which tell
everything. This video is also on youtube.
Questions not known before from PPRuNe:
Tell us about yourself
Tell us when you didnt understand your somebody, doesnt
have to be about flying
What is you notice period?
What are your Future Plans for QATAR AIRWAYS GROUP
Why Should We Hire You Over The Others Waiting To Be Interviewed
Can you work well under deadlines or pressure?
What goals do you have in your career
Briefly describe your ideal job?
Have you flown with a demanding captain and give an example?
Average flight with me?
Have you have had someone misinterpreting you and give an
example?
Any time a captain or F/O disagreed with you and give an example?
What can you bring to the company?
Does the mrs. Approve of your job in Qatar?
What did you dislike about your last job? Why did you leave your last
job?
Do you have a bond with your current employer?
Why Qatar?
Give me an example of when you had a demanding
superior.... how did you deal with it, how did it make you
feel, what did you do to overcome the situation etc
Why Qatar?
Tell me a time when you have misinterpreted something.
What did you do to resolve the problem etc.....
Tell me about a time in your life when a dramatic change
occurred that was sudden and you had no control over?
If we said you could join Qatar and it was on the A320, would
you be happy?
If it was for 6 years would you accept the job? (no) How
many years would be acceptable to you?
What can you tell us about Qatar Airways?
Tell us who you are and what can you bring to the company
Tell me about the time when you had to work for demanding
manager and how you handled it.
And then tell me about life situation that you had no control over
and you handled it.
The usual questions - Why do you want to leave your current
employer?
Why do you want to join this airline?
What does your family think about the move?
Where do you see yourself in 5 yrs time?
Tell us what you know about Qatar Airways

Why Qatar

Tell us what routes we are starting in 2010

Tell us what aircraft types we fly (numbers not important but would
be good if you knew them)

Tell us what aircraft we have on order (numbers not that important,
but would be good if you knew)

Why are you leaving your present employer

How do you feel about being made redundant etc etc etc

Are you on a right to return list

Are you a member of BALPA

Would you being a member of BALPA have any influence on going
into discretion

Tell us about you life, wife husband girlfriend boyfriend children etc etc
etc (you can not live here in Qatar with boyfriend or girlfriend, you
have to be married)

Give us an example of when you were not happy with a Captain and
you had to make a stance

Tell us about a time when you have been criticised and how you felt
and dealt with it

Tell us about a time when you have felt you have been unfairly
criticised and what did you do about it.

How much notice do you need to give. How long would you need
before you could come. ( a new 777 courses starting every week
apparently)

Do you have any question for us
"give an example of a time you have hadto think on your feet
to get out of a difficult situation." "when have you been in the
position to reward your team for their efforts"
"when have you had to tell someone something they don't want
to hear and how did they take it"
On T/O and high speed you realize your tires are deflated. What do
you do and how does it affect the braking performance?
Continue, take off, dump fuel if possible and land on a long suitable
runway
Depends what they mean by high speed. Before V1 Id consider a
reject, it would be bad if the tyre shed before VR. I would think it
would make braking less efficient. If all your tyres are deflated you are
in a bit of a pickle! You may not have enough runway left to continue
acceleration to reach Vr. Equally, you are not going to stop on
deflated tyres. It really depends on where you are on the runway at
this point, what the over-run area is like, exactly how close to Vr you
are, what is your limiting factor today (climb? ASDA?) etc etc. I would
tend towards firewalling the thrust and be more inclined to try to get
airborne, rotating early if I had too, scraping the tail even. At least
that way you can come round and land at the touchdown point and
use the full length to stop on. Even over 100 kts I would prefer to get
airborne, and return to an airport with a nice wide runway with the fire
services ready for a full flap, full revervse landing with the full rwy
length available to stop the aircraft
If you see something that you are right, do you make see to the
others?
I try to create a common sense about the differences.
If you are wrong in something do you will admit?
Yes.
How long it takes to recognize that you are wrong?
Immediately.
Any incompatibility in flight?
No
Explain a case that you have to correct the captain.
Stop instead of reject.
Your Captain anemometer has a wrong reading, How do you find out?
Using the standby anemometer to check it, ATC, inertial, N1-FL charts.
What do you do?
Explain to the rest of the cockpit crew the situation, and take in
consideration the problem, and if the rest of the crew is agree with me,
check the QRH and select the correct source of information to continue
the flight.
How do you tell him?
Explain that we have a different airspeed reading on the instruments,
so lets find out the correct one to continue a safe flight.
He still insist that he has the correct speed, What do you do?
Ok, maybe Im wrong, so lets find out to discover which out is correct.
If even with that there is no agreement try to find the way to conduct
the flight with a safe speed, so take a margin speeds
You have a RA that tells you descend and at the same time a terrain
pull up what do u do?
Climb, the TCAS take care of the other traffic.
How do you fly a missed approach in your airline?
Published procedure for the airport, or runway heading MSA and report
ATC.
Types of Ground Proximity Warnings.
Whoop, whoop, pull up
Terrain, terrain.
Too low gear.
Too low flaps.
Minima, minima.
Sink rate, sink rate.
Dont sink, dont sink.
Glide slope, glide slope.
Caution Obstacle.
Obstacle Ahead.
High flap setting on T.O or low flap setting, why, in what cases?
-
Why QAR?
-
Where do u see yourself in 7-10 years?
-
Your aviation background.
If you have a bomb on the airplane, what do you do?
Do you have a bomb immediate action in your current company?
Apparently good answer is: Landing gear down + flaps, level
off at the altitude cabin is at the moment .
65: - Bomb threat, what are the actions?
Part A. 10.1.20.1. All depends on the nature of the threat made against an
aircraft, or any other QR property or ground installation. coordinate with
OCC and/or Airport authorities as to the level (RED, AMBER or GREEN )
Qatar Airways has a THREAT ASSESSMENT GROUP that is
responsible for assessing bomb threats against the company operations and
assets.
If you get the treat in flight you might want to .Return to the field
of departure, Divert and LAND ASAP, carry out an onboard search (not
likely).. Call Dispatch to get intouch with EOD (Explosive Ordnance
Disposal) Authority to give advice and guidance. When you are diverting
call the CS/CSD to the cockpit and tell them what is going on and a need
for suspicious activity, bags and a search the toilets, galleys, wardrobes,
vestibules using the search checklist. We will search the cockpit. Then you
will make a PA using the QR brief in Part A. KEEP CONTACT WITH
DISPATCH giving updates all the time. Use the QRH for BOMB ON
BOARD (2:31)
80/ WHAT CAUSES WINDSHEAR?
THE DIFFERENCE IN WIND SPEED AND DIRECTION OVER A
RELATIVELY SHORT DISTANCE ( HORIZONTAL AND VERTICAL
COMPONENTS ) TEMPRATURE CHANGES,
MICROBURSTS,FRONTAL LOWS AIRMASSES
PAGE 254 256 : 319-320 ACE
T/O in windshear
Wind shear, sometimes referred to as windshear or HYPERLINK "http://
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wind_gradient" \o "Wind gradient" wind gradient, is
a difference in HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wind" \o
"Wind" wind HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wind_speed" \o
"Wind speed" speed and HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/
Wind_direction" \o "Wind direction" direction over a relatively short
distance in the HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Earth
%27s_atmosphere" \o "Earth's atmosphere" atmosphere. Wind shear can be
broken down into vertical and horizontal components, with horizontal wind
shear seen across HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fronts" \o
"Fronts" fronts and near the coast, and vertical shear typically near the
surface, though also at higher levels in the atmosphere near upper level jets
and frontal zones aloft.
Windshear encountered during takeoff roll:
If windshear is encountered prior to V1, there may not be sufficient
runway remaining to stop if an RTO is initiated at V1. At VR, rotate at a
normal rate toward a 15 degree pitch attitude. Once airborne, perform the
Windshear Escape Maneuver.
If windshear is encountered near the normal rotation speed and airspeed
suddenly decreases, there may not be sufficient runway left to accelerate
back to normal takeoff speed. If there is insufficient runway left to stop,
initiate a normal rotation at least 2,000 feet before the end of the runway,
even if airspeed is low. Higher than normal attitudes may be required to
lift off in the remaining runway. Ensure maximum thrust is set. Obviously
look at not departing first, until windshear has ceased. Go full power,
consider more flap to decrease required ground run, brief the windshear
escape manoeuvre etc etc to be fully prepared.
MANUAL FLIGHT
Disconnect autopilot.
Press either TO/GA switch.
Aggressively apply maximum* thrust.
Disconnect autothrottle.
Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate toward an initial pitch
attitude of 15 .
Retract speedbrakes.
Follow flight director TO/GA guidance (if available).
AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
Press either TO/GA switch**.
Verify TO/GA mode annunciation.
Verify thrust advances to GA power.
Retract speedbrakes.
Monitor system performance***.
Do not change flap or gear configuration until windshear is no longer
a factor.
Monitor vertical speed and altitude.
Do not attempt to regain lost airspeed until windshear is no longer a
factor.
W/S recognize and avoidance?
When you see more than
15 knots indicated airspeed
500 fpm vertical speed
5 pitch attitude
1 dot displacement from the glideslope
unusual thrust lever position for a significant period of
time.
Stabilized approach scenario?
the airplane is on the correct flight path
only small changes in heading/pitch are required to maintain the
correct flight path
the airplane speed is not more than VREF + 20 knots indicated
airspeed and not less than VREF
the airplane is in the correct landing configuration
sink rate is no greater than 1,000 fpm; if an approach requires a sink
rate greater than 1,000 fpm, a special briefing should be conducted
power setting is appropriate for the airplane configuration
all briefings and checklists have been conducted.
Loss of generator in flight? What does MEL it say?
2 INSTALLED ONE REQUIRED FOR DISPATCH PROVIDED
ADITIONAL SOURCE AVAILABLE.
START APU CONTINIOUS (LIMITED ON LVO OPERATIONS)
CAT IIIB
NOTE FOR CAT II/IIIA OPERATIONS, 2 IDGS OR 1 IDG + THE
APU GENERATOR MUST BE OPERATIVE
(M) (O) FOR NON-ETOPS OR ETOPS OPERATIONS UP TO 120
MINUTES, ONE MAY BE INOPERATIVE PROVIDED:
A) APU-DRIVEN GENERATOR OPERATES NORMALLY AND IS
USED TO SUPPLY BUSSES OF THE INOPERATIVE CHANNEL
THROUGHOUT THE FLIGHT,
B) ALL GENERATOR CONTROL UNITS, INCLUDING THE APU,
OPERATE NORMALLY,
C) FOR ETOPS OPERATIONS, AT LEAST ONE HYDRAULIC MOTOR
GENERATORS (HMG) IS VERIFIED TO OPERATE NORMALLY,
D) IF THE APU IS TO BE USED AS AN ALTERNATE POWER
SOURCE AND HAS BEEN OPERATING FOR AN EXTENDED PERIOD
OF TIME IN HEAVY FALLING OR BLOWING SNOW, BEFORE
DEPARTURE INSPECT THE INLET PLENUM TO VERIFY THAT
ACCUMULATIONS OF SNOW OR ICE ARE NOT PRESENT, AND
E) REPAIRS ARE CARRIED OUT WITHIN THREE (3) CALENDAR
DAYS.
FOR NON-ETOPS OPERATIONS, ONE MAY BE INOPERATIVE
PROVIDED:
A) APU-DRIVEN GENERATOR OPERATES NORMALLY AND IS
USED TO SUPPLY BUSSES OF THE INOPERATIVE CHANNEL
THROUGHOUT THE FLIGHT,
B) ALL GENERATOR CONTROL UNITS, INCLUDING THE APU,
OPERATE NORMALLY,
C) THE AIRCRAFT REMAINS WITHIN THIRTY MINUTES OF AN
ADEQUATE AIRPORT
D) IFTHEAPUISTOBEUSEDASASOURCEOF ESSENTIAL POWER
AND HAS BEEN OPERATING IN HEAVY FALLING OR BLOWING
SNOW, BEFORE DEPARTURE INSPECT THE INLET PLENUM TO
VERIFY THAT ACCUMULATIONS OF SNOW OR ICE ARE NOT
PRESENT, AND
E) REPAIRS ARE CARRIED OUT WITHIN THREE (3) CALENDAR
DAYS.
MEL 24-00-1 ENGINE DRIVEN GENERATOR SYSTEMS (IDG, GCB)
Interview Questions
ell us about yourself?
What can you bring to Qatar Airways?
Tell us about Qatar Airways? (Take note of what they tell at the start
of day presentation)
What is Qatar Airways doing regarding the environmental and green
issues surrounding aviation these days? (Gas to liquid fuel, A340 test
flight recently)
What is our fleet?
When have you deviated from SOPs?
Give an example of when you have been misunderstood?
Give an example of when you have motivated a team?
How do you cope with a demanding captain?
When have you overcome a situation out of your control?
Youre second in command, when have you shown initiative/or
disagreed with the captain?
Founded 1995 Relaunched 1997
Fleet size 76 (+182 orders) incl.cargo
Destinations 85 incl.cargo destinations
As of December 2009 Qatar Airways serves 85 destinations
and Qatar Airways Cargo serves 19 (including 15
destinations served by Qatar Airways also) destinations in 53
countries across HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/
Africa" \o "Africa" Africa, HYPERLINK "http://
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Asia" \o "Asia" Asia, HYPERLINK
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Europe" \o "Europe" Europe,
HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/North_America" \o
"North America" North America and HYPERLINK "http://
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Australia" \o "Australia" Australia from
its hub at HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/
Doha_International_Airport" \o "Doha International Airport"
Doha International Airport.
Qatar Airways recently announced that it will launch 6 new
destinations during 2010. These new destinations include
Ankara, Bangalore, Barcelona, Copenhagen, Tokyo and
Sydney. The introduction of these new destinations will bring
the number of destinations Qatar Airways serves from 85 to
91 destinations worldwide.
Qatar Airways Cargo, the airlines freight branch, has ordered
seven Boeing 777F. The first Boeing 777-F will be delivered to the
airline in 2009 to coincide with the opening of the HYPERLINK
"http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/New_Doha_International_Airport" \o
"New Doha International Airport" New Doha International Airport,
which will have freight facilities able to handle 750,000 tonnes of
cargo per annum during its first development phase. The
HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boeing_777" \l
"777_Freighter" \o "Boeing 777" Boeing 777F will be used
primarily on Qatar Airways' Far East and European routes and will
be supplemented by Airbus A300-600F freighters that operate on
regional routes feeding the airline's hub.
Routes
27
th
December 2009 Qatar Airways today revealed that
Copenhagen and Barcelona will join the airlines ever-expanding
route network during the airlines summer schedule which begins at
the end of March 2010
Qatar Airways will operate a fleet of 120 aircraft by 2013, by which
time its route network will rise to 120 cities worldwide. The airline
has ordered 80 Airbus A350s, 24 Airbus A320 Family of aircraft,
60 Boeing 787s and 32 Boeing 777s, with deliveries of the latter
having started in November 2007. Qatar Airways has aircraft orders
for more than 220 jets worth over US$40 billion and is one of the
customers of the twin-deck Airbus A380 super jumbos with five
on order and scheduled for delivery from 2012, by which time the
New Doha International Airport would have opened.
With six new routes on the horizon, Qatar Airways will increase its
global portfolio from 85 to 91 diverse business and leisure cities
across Europe, Middle East, Africa, South Asia, Far East, North
America and Australasia. The carrier currently operates a modern
fleet of 76 aircraft.
20
th
December 2009 Doha, QATAR Qatar Airways today
announced plans to further expand its international operations next
year with the launch of flights from its Doha hub to three diverse
cities Tokyo, Bengaluru and Ankara.
They will join Qatar Airways growing international network over
an eight-week period beginning in February 2010.
Indias largest technology hub of Bengaluru, formerly known as
Bangalore, will be the first of the three launches, with daily flights
beginning February. The addition of Bengaluru in the southern state
of Karnataka will take Qatar Airways Indian capacity up to 71
flights a week spread across 11 cities.
During April, the Turkish capital Ankara will be added to Qatar
Airways burgeoning route network, further strengthening the
airlines position in Turkey where it already operates daily flights to
Istanbul.
At the end of April, the Japanese capital Tokyo will be served daily
via Osaka, representing a significant increase in capacity for the
Japanese market. Seoul, which is currently served via Osaka will
become a non-stop direct service from the end of March.
Doha, QATAR Qatar Airways today announced plans to further
expand its international operations next year with the launch of
flights from its Doha hub to three diverse cities Tokyo, Bengaluru
and Ankara.
They will join Qatar Airways growing international network over
an eight-week period beginning in February 2010
Cabin
First Class
Qatar Airways offers First Class passengers over 6.5 feet of
legroom and seats that fold into flat beds with feather
duvets. First Class seats are equipped with massage
functions and an entertainment system.
Business Class
Qatar Airways offers Business Class passengers fully flat 180-
degree horizontal beds in a 2-2-2 configuration onboard a
fleet of new Boeing 777 aircraft. The Boeing 777 aircraft are
used exclusively on flights to the USA and Australia - New
York (JFK), Washington, DC (IAD), Houston (IAH) and
Melbourne (MEL) - and also on some routes throughout the
Qatar Airways network including Bangkok (BKK), Singapore
(SIN), Hong Kong (HKG), and Manila (MNL). Business Class
passengers onboard other long-haul aircraft have up to 172-
degree recliner seats, with massage functions. Passengers
are served a delicatessen such as foie gras, caviar, and
smoked salmon. Customers can choose fine wines and
champagnes, including vintages exclusive to Qatar Airways.
Qatar Airways has introduced new Business Class seats
onboard its newly delievered A320 aircraft with IFE seat-
back PTVs in every seat. It will introduce the new seats in
each upcoming new A320 aircraft, as well as retrofitting 4
existing A321 and 2 A319LR aircraft.
Economy Class
Qatar Airways Economy Class was named best in the world
in the 2009 Skytrax Awards. Qatar Airways offers Economy
Class passengers a seat pitch of up to 34 inches. Economy
class passengers on A330/A340 aircraft are offered
individual seat-back TV screens. Passengers on 777 aircraft
are offered touch-screen TV's.
Qatar Airways has taken delievery of two A320 aircraft with
individual seat-back personal televisions in every seat in
economy class. The IFE is equipped with the latest Thales
entertainment sytem currently aboard the widebody fleet. A
further 4 A321s and 2 A319LR will be equiped with the new
IFE, as well as new upcoming A320 family aircraft delieveri
Natural gas to liquid fuel
demonstration
On 12 October 2009, a Qatar Airways Airbus A340-600
conducted the world's first commercial passenger flight using
a mixture of kerosene and synthetic. The experiment's
purpose was to demonstrate the viability of jet fuel made
from a source not subject to rapidly fluctuating oil prices. In
addition, positioning natural gas in particular as an
alternative source of jet fuel is in the interests of the Qatari
government; Qatar is the world's leading exporter of natural
gas. However, some experts believe that GTL fuel is likely to
remain a marginal choice due to an expensive production
process.

Incidents and accidents
An Airbus A330-200 (Flight QR889) suffered a double
engine flameout on approach into Shanghai on June 1, 2006
after a flight from Doha. Both engines were restarted and an
emergency landing made at HYPERLINK "http://
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/
Shanghai_Pudong_International_Airport" \o "Shanghai
Pudong International Airport" Shanghai Pudong
International Airport. The aircraft, registered A7-ACI, had
just been delivered.
HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/
wiki/Qatar_Airways" \l "cite_note-7" [8]
On April 19, 2007, an Airbus A300-600R (registration A7-
ABV) was written off as a result of a hangar fire during
maintenance at HYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/
Abu_Dhabi_International_Airport" \o "Abu Dhabi
International Airport" Abu Dhabi International Airport
(GAMCO maintenance center).
SIMULATOR
after a short rest the interview , then the sim was in A330 6
survivors ,TO rwy 27L heathrow ,2 ILS no AP/AT/FD ,after all
they tell us to wait 2 weeks ,but I just received the mail that
I have failed so good luck to everybody ongoing
Qatar Airways Sim QTR123 on 320
DEPARTURE
MACTOW 28% Trim 4de NU
Takeoff Speeds 130 / 135 / 140 Flap 2 Thrust 60??
Set 50%N1 then FLEX/MCT detent
Rotate initially to 15de NU. You will need 17 de NU
really
Then to the pitch that will give a speed between V2 and
V2+10 (140-150kts?)
Thrust reduction altitude is 1000ft (1080ft) Call Set
Climb Thrust
Acceleration ALT is 1500ft (1580ft) Call Set 210kts
Pitch down to 10de NU
On passing or above F call Flaps 1
On passing S call Flaps Up Level off at FL030
APPROACH
At o call Flap 1 set Flap 1 speed
On passing S call Flap 2 set Flap 2 speed
On passing F call Gear Down (pause?) Flap 3
On passing F call Full Flap (Vref+5?) Landing
Checklist
CONFIGURATION PFD Speed Ref Approx Pitch /
Thrust N1
Flaps Up o 5.0de NU / 53%
1 S 6.0de NU / 55%
2 F 6.5de NU / 55%
Landing Gear Down In Level Flight
3 F 6.5de NU / 55%
Landing Gear Down -
3de ILS
3 F 4.0de NU / 50%
FULL Vref +5 2.5de NU / 53%
Checklist Aircraft Configuration
After Takeoff Once aircraft is in clean
configuration
Descent Once aircraft has commenced
descent for the initial altitude for
the approach
Approach Once the aircraft has been
cleared to an altitude
Landing Once the Flaps are in the landing
configuration
DEPARTURE
MACTOW 28% Trim 4de NU
Takeoff Speeds 130 / 135 / 140 Flap 2 Thrust 60%
Set 50%N1 then FLEX/MCT detent
Rotate initially to 15de NU You will need 17de NU
really to stop racing away
Then to the pitch that will give a speed between V2 and
V2+10 (140-150kts?)
Thrust reduction altitude is 1000ft (1080ft) Call Set
Climb Thrust
Acceleration ALT is 1500ft (1580ft) Call Set 210kts
Pitch to 10de NU
On passing or above F call Flaps 1
On passing S call Flaps Up when clean
configuration After TO Checklist
Level off at FL030 5.0de NU / 53%
APPROACH
Descent Checklist Once the aircraft has commenced
descent for initial ALT
Approach Checklist Once the aircraft has been
cleared to an ALT
At o call Flap 1 set Flap 1 speed 6.0de NU / 55%
On passing S call Flap 2 set Flap 2 speed 6.5de
NU / 55%
On passing F call Gear Down Flap 3 L 6.5de NU /
60% ILS 4.0de NU/ 50%
On passing F call Full Flap (pause) Landing
Checklist 2.5de NU 53% ILS
Sim feedback

Just had my sim assessment this evening and here is my feedback.

Arrived at Alteon (evening session from 19:30-23:30) at 6pm. They
wanted us there at 18:30pm for an hours brief.

A nice guy called Olivier turn up. He was a real down to earth guy. His
background is from Astraeus Airlines and Zoom. He is now a TRI on
the 777 fleet for Qatar, loves Boeings and is on the road most of the
time doing sim assessments for Qatar. Real nice guy.

Took us into the a320 briefing room and explained that there would
be no tricks, no surprises, no need to brief him in the sim. He did not
want to hear a departure or arrival brief as he said he knew we could
all do that. May be different with other sim assessors??

He talked about the 320 on the cardboard bomber, went through
everything we needed to know.

He then asked who had far to travel and put us in order of who
needed to get away first.

I was 3rd in

Ball park figures for you
N1 is 3
rd
gauge down, not the top one.

Level flight is about 53% n1 and 5 degrees nose up

Flap 1 is about 6 degrees nose up

Flap 2 is about 6-7 degrees nose up

Flap 3, I cant remember

ILS with full flap is about 2.5 degrees nose up and 53% ish

Lined up at Heathrow 27

You set roughly 50% N1 (3rd gauge down on this one) and there is
no predictive white circles, so you have to guess it. When thrust is
stable, click through to the second gate (click click) which is FLEX/MCT.
(He will show you this in the briefing room)

Hands off the throttle and he puts his onto them. He will call "80" and
I just replied "check".

"V1 Rotate" and pitch up to about 17 degrees nose up so you don't
race away with speed. Looking for V2 to V2+10

1080 feet call "Set climb thrust" He brought the thrust levers back a
click and then they are all yours from then on.

1580 feet call "Set 210 kts" and then pitch down to 10 degrees nose
up to allow to accelerate.

Once above F and accelerating, call "Flap 1" once above flap s call
"Flaps up" and pause before calling "After take off checklist"

You will be levelling off at 3000 QNH. All done in QNH.

Start pulling the power back towards 55% about 300 feet below 3000
feet and pitching down to 5 degrees nose up just after that. Fine tune
after this.

Once level, he then vectors you down wind right hand for 27.

When down wind, he will descend you to 2000 feet. Go to idle thrust,
pitch down and use the speed trend arrow to maintain 210kts. Use
pitch to control speed.

Don't forget to call "Descent checklist"

300 feet above 2000 feet, start to apply thrust so as to capture is
smoothly. Remember 5 degrees nose up 53% is what your looking
for.

Call "Approach checklist"

He will then say 5 miles to base leg. Give it about 5 seconds and then
call "Flap 1 set flap 1 speed". Pull the power back a little bit and let the
speed bleed off.

About 10 knots above the S symbol, I called for "Flap 2, set flap 2
speed" so as I could continue to reduce speed without having to muck
about with thrust levers.

Maintain flap 2 onto base leg and intercept the localiser with this
setting. Maybe remond him to call you Localiser Alive and Glide
Slope Alive "Localiser Alive and Glide Slope Alive

Once on the localiser, when you see the glide slope alive, call for "Gear
down, Flap 3" and when you have one dot above (half scale
deflection) call "Full flap, set Vref +5 Landing checklist"

Your now looking for 2.5 degrees nose up 53% ish.

I landed off this.

Don't forget to tell him if you are correcting for anything like height,
speed or heading. Just say "correcting speed" so he knows you know
and do something about it.

Make sure you understand how to apply and cancel reverse thrust as
cancelling it is not straight forward if you have never flown airbus
before, have to click through out of it.
Second flight, same as first, but as you are passing 2000 feet in the
climb, accelerating and flap retracting, he will give you a right turn on
to a heading of 090 degrees (180 turn in the climb) as your flaps are
coming up from 1 to clean. When you are about 500 feet below
levelling off, in a 25 degree bank, you will then get an APU fire
warning. LOL

He will call it to you, "APU Fire" I just said "Check and asked him to
do the "APU memory items", he said Confirm APU Fire switch or
something like that, which after looking up and still flying the turn, I
said Confirmed, he then said "done", I then said "QRH APU fire" he
then said they "done". I then asked for "After take off check list" he
said they "done" and then he told me the fire was not out. I told him
to put a mayday out, tell ATC we want to land now, he said "done". I
then told him to speak to cabin crew, explain the situation and tell
them we may evacuate on landing, he said "done" and then we got
vectored for ILS27.

Some tips for you

Treat the control yoke like a piece of dog turd. Don't grip it, just
gently squeeze it. Its like CWS, just point the plane and let go. It will
stick at 25 degrees of bank all day long. No need for back pressure in
a turn, you will climb if you do that. It will stay in a climb or descent all
day long. Just point it and relax. If its not right, sort it.
Tell them when you know something is wrong by saying Correcting
Speed Correcting Height etc

You are in the sim for about 30 mins max.

No VOR, no ADF tracking.

Good luck to all