ELECTRONICS SYSTEM & TECHNOLOGIES **Biomedical Technology** 1.

A mammography service examined 327 patients during the third calendar quarter of 1996. 719 films were exposed during this period, eight of which were repeats. What is the repeat rate? a. 45.5% b. code 2.45% c. 1.1% d. 54.52% ANS. 1.1% 7.

Power rating=42 kW Who completes the development of first computed tomographic (CT) scanner (EMI, Ltd.) in 1973? a. Mistretta b. Forssmann c. Kuhl d. Hounsfield ANS. Hounsfield It is the study of the response of an image receptor to x-rays a. sensitometry b. xeroradiography c. xeroradiometry d. spectrometry ANS. Sensitometry Ratio of radiographic contrast with a grid to that without a grid a. grid ratio b. contrast improvement factor c. Collidge factor d. Bucky factor ANS. contrast improvement factor

ANS d. sphygmomanometer 15. Given the energy level of 6.624x10^-18 J imparted to an electron stream by an X-ray device, calculate the frequency in MHz. a. 10^6 MHz b. 45.29 MHz c. 10^10 MHz d. 300 MHz ANS. 10^10 MHz f= E/h f= (6.624x10^(-18) J)/(6.624x10^(34) J-s) f= 10^10 MHz

8.

2.

A type of luminescence where the visible light is emitted only during the stimulation of the phosphor. a. fluorescence b. phosphorescence c. after glow d. any of the above ANS. Fluorescence If a heart measures 12.5 cm from side to side at its widest point, and its image on chest radiograph measures 14.7 cm, what is the magnification factor? a. 0.85 b. 1.18 c. 0.15 d. 2.2 ANS. 1.18 MF= (image size)/(object size) MF= (14.7 cm)/(12.5 cm) MF= 1.18 Radiation doses in the range of approximately200 to 1000 rad produce the a. Gastrointestinal (GI) syndrome b. Central Nervous System (CNS) syndrome c. Hematologic syndrome d. Prodomal syndrome ANS. Hematologic syndrome Ratio of incident to transmitted radiation through a grid ratio of patient dose with and without grid a. Bucky factor b. Damadian factor c. Grid ratio d. Roentgen equivalent ANS. Bucky factor A radiographic single-phase unit installed in a private office has a maximum capacity of 100 milliseconds of 120kVp and 500mA. What is the power rating? a. 42 kW b. 60 kW c. 600W d. 24kW ANS 42 Kw Power rating=(0.7)x (mA x kVp)/1000 Power rating=(0.7)x ((500)(120))/1000

9.

16.

3.

10. Analysis of persons irradiated therapeutically with superficial x-rays has shown that the skin erythema dose required to affect 50% of persons so irradiated is about a. 200 rad b. 400 rad c. 600 rad d. 800 rad ANS. 600 rad

It was first noted by Heinrich Hertz in 1887 and won Albert Einstein the Nobel Prize in 1905. It refers to the emission of electrons from a clean metallic surface (phototube) when electromagnetic radiation (light waves or X-rays) falls onto that surface. a. Photoelectric effect b. Compton effect c. Bremsstrahlung d. Mie effect ANS. Photoelectric effect Unit of radiation exposure or amount of X-ray radiation that will produce 2.08x10^9 ion pairs per cubic centimetre of air at standard temperature and pressure (STP). a. Curie b. Roentgen c. Radiation absorbed dose (rad) d. Gray ANS. Roentgen

17.

11.

4.

ECG recording requires a bandwidth of 0.05 to ___Hz a. 1000 b. 540 c. 100 d. 40 ANS.100 Find the potential generated if blood flowing in a vessel with radius 0.9 cm cuts a magnetic field of 250 G. Assume a volume flow rate of 175 cubic cm per second. a. 206 uV b. 309 uV c. 903 uV d. 260 uV ANS. 309 uV E= QB/50a E= ((175 cc.s)(250 G))/(50(0.9cm)) E= 309 uV d.

12.

18. An optical electronic device that measures the color concentration of a substance in solution. a. colorimeter b. flame photometer c. spectrophotometer d. chromatograph ANS.colorimeter 19. Recording of heart sounds a. ultracardiography b. cardioacoustics c. electrocardiogram d. phonocardiography ANS. Phonocardiography 20. Recorder for measuring galvanic skin resistance a. electrodermograph b. electromyograph c. electrocorporealograph d. electrogalvanograph ANS.electrodermograph

5.

6.

13. Period during which heart contracts. a. Diastole b. Systole c. block mode Synapse ANS. Systole 14. Apparatus for measuring blood pressure a. defibrillator b. electrocardiogram c. plethysmograph d. sphygmomanometer

**Digital and Data Communications** 1. It consists of 36 unique codes representing the 10 digits and 26 uppercase letters a. Discrete code b. code 39 c. continuous code d. 20 code ANS.code 39 The first fixed- length character code developed for machines rather than for people a. ASCII Code b. Gray Code c. EBCDIC code d. Baudot Code ANS.Baudot Code The early pioneer in the development of errordetection and correction procedures: a. Richard W. Hamming b. William R. Hamming c. Emile Baudot d. Samuel Baudot ANS. Richard W. Hamming The most reliable convolutional coding scheme for error detection a. checksum b. LRC c. CRC d. VRC ANS.CRC For the given parameters, determine the energy per bit-to noise power density ratio C = 10e-12 W fb = 60 kbps N = 1.2 x 10e-14`W B = 120 kHz a. 16.2 dB b. 14.2 dB c. 20.2 dB d. 22.2 dB ANS.22.2 dB ; 9. 14. A bit pattern or a character added to the beginning and the end of a frame to separate the frames a. Flag b. Firewall c. Frameguard d. Footprint ANS.Flag 7. Inaccuracies caused by the representation of a continuously varying quantity as one of a number of discrete values. a. alias signal b. slope overload c. distortion d. quantizing errors ANS.quantizing errors Circuit for digitizing voice at a low data rate by using knowledge of the way in which voice sounds are produced: a. vocoder b. codec c. sample-and-hold circuit d. ADC ANS.vocoder A coding scheme that records the change in signal level since the precious sample a. unipolar code b. PPM c. PCM d. delta modulation ANS.delta modulation 15. An IPv4 has an address space of how many? a. 4294967296 b. 6927694924 c. 2449692769 d. 9672969442 ANS. 4294967296 232 = 4294967296 16. What is the bit rate of STS 1? a. 51.84 Mbps b. 64 kbps c. 100 Mbps d. 2.4 GHz ANS.51.84 Mbps 17. A block coding technique in which four bits are encoded into a five bit code a. Baudot b. 2B1Q Encoding c. 4B/5B Encoding d. 4A/5A Encoding ANS.4B/5B Encoding 18. A national standards organization that defines standards in the United States a. ANSI b. FCC c. ITU d. CCITT ANS.ANSI 19. In asynchronous transmission, one or more bits to indicate the end of transmission a. trailer b. flag c. escape byte d. stop bit ANS.stop bit 20. What is the overhead (number of extra bits) in the DS3 service? a. 1.368 Mbps b. 1.480 Mbps c. 2.048 Mbps d. 6.024 Mbps ANS.1.368 Mbps **Electronics/Communications** 1. The minimum sampling rate according to Nyquist Theorem a. equal to the lowest frequency of a signal b. equal to the highest frequency of a signal c. twice the bandwidth of a signal d. twice the highest frequency of a signal ANS.twice the highest frequency of a signal It is used in wireless applications in which stations must be able to share the medium without

2.

8.

3.

4.

5.

10. Distortion created by using too low a sampling rate when coding an analog signal for digital transmission a. aliasing b. foldover distortion c. either a or b d. neither a nor b ANS.either a or b 11. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can pass only an average of 12000 frames per minute with each frame carrying an average of 10000 bits. What is the throughput of this network? a. 1 Mbps b. 2 Mbps c. 3 Mbps d. 4 Mbps ANS.2 Mbps Throughput= (12 000 x 10 000)/60 = 2 Mbps 12. A telephone subscriber line must have an SNRdB above 40. What is the minimum number of bits? a. 3.56 b. 5.63 c. 6.35 d. 3.65 ANS6.35 SNRdB = 6.02nb + 1.76 = 40 n = 6.35 13. The thick coaxial cable implementation of standard Ethernet a. 1000 Base-T b. 10 Base-T c. 10 Base 2 d. 10 Base 5 ANS.10 Base 5

6.

A signal at the input to a mu-law compressor is positive with its voltage one-half the maximum value. What proportion of the maximum output voltage is produced? a. 0.786Vmax b. 0.876Vmax c. 0.867Vmax d. 0.678Vmax ANS.0.876Vmax

2.

interception by an eavesdropper and without being subject to jamming from a malicious intruder a. modulation b. Multiple access c. multiple access d. Spread spectrum ANS.spread spectrum 3. An error detection method which uses ones complement arithmetic a. Checksum b. CRC c. Simple-parity check d. Two-dimensional parity check ANS.Checksum It is a connecting device between two internetworks that use different models a. Bridge b. Gateway c. Repeater d. router ANS.gateway It is an undesired shift or width change in digital bits of data due to circuitry action which causes bits to arrive at different times a. alias b. impulse c. jitter d. parity ANS.jitter In PCM system, it is the ratio of the maximum input voltage level to the smallest voltage level that can be quantized a. Dynamic range b. Figure of merit c. Quality factor d. Noise figure ANS.Dynamic range A multiplexer combines four 100-kbps channels using a time slot of 2 bits, determine the frame duration. a. 20 s b. 50 s c. 100 s d. 400 s ANS.20 s Determine the Hamming distance for the codewords ( 10101, 11001) a. one b. two c. three

d. five ANS. Two 10101 XOR 11001 = 01100 ( presence of two 1) 9. An address space is the total number of addresses used by the protocol, such as IPv4 and IPv6. What is the address space of IPv6? a. 232 b. 264 c. 296 d. 2128 ANS.2128 It is a standard designed by ITU to allow telephones in the public telephone network to talk to computers/terminals connected to the internet a. H. 111 b. H.123 c. H.321 d. H. 323 ANS.323

a. 0.97 dB d. 7.2 dB

b. 3.6 dB

c. 6.02 dB

ANS. 3.6 dB
The total noise temperature of the antenna and receiver is NTtot = 75+ 300 = 375. The noise temperature is given by: where: NT noise temp, NR = Noise ratio Rearranging the above to find NR gives: NR = (375/290) +1 = 2.29 The Noise figure is the decibel equivalent of the noise ratio, such that: NF = 10 log NR = 3.6 dB

4.

10.

3. The modulation index of an AM radio station is 0.75. If

the carrier power is 500W, what is the total transmitted power? a. 391 W b. 438 W c. 641 W d. 688 W ANS.641 W 4. An FM transmitter system is using a 1MHz crystal oscillator to generate a very stable 108MHz final carrier frequency. The output of the crystal oscillator is fed to a x36 multiplier circuit then mixed with a 34.5 MHz signal. The sum output of the mixer is filtered out, while the difference is fed to another multiplier in order to generate the final carrier frequency. What is the multiplier value? a. 108 b. 3 c. 1.5 d. 72 ANS. 72 Basic Block Diagram of the FM carrier generator: 1 MHz carrier > x 36 > Mixer > Multiplier > 108MHz carrier First Multiplier output: 1MHz x 36 = 36 MHz Mixer output: 36MHz + 34.5 MHz = 70.5MHz (filtered output) 36MHz 34.5 MHz = 1.5 MHz (difference fed to the next multiplier) Multiplier stage: Output = 108MHz Output = 1.5MHz x n N = 108/1.5 = 72 **Electronic Communications** 1. A/an _______ is a range of frequency in which the upper frequency is double the lower frequency.

5.

6.

11. A computer monitor has a resolution of 1200 by 1000 pixels. If each pixel uses 1024 colors, how many bits are needed to send the complete contents of a screen? a. 12 Gigabits b. 1. 2 Gigabits c. 120 Megabits d. 12 Megabits ANS.12 Megabits 1,200 times 1000 pixels x 10 bits = 12 Mb 1024 colors requires 10 bits , 210 = 1024 **Laws and Ethics, Analog and Digital Electronics, Microelectronics, Power Line Communications** 1. The sensitivity of a radio receiver is given in terms of dBm. If the receiver is receiving 200 mW, what is the corresponding dBm of this signal? a. 46dBm b. -46 dBm c. 23 dBm d. -23 dBm ANS.23 dBm dBm for 200 mW = 10 log (200mW/1mW) = 23 dBm 2. An antenna with a noise temperature of 75 Kelvin is connected to a receiver input with a noise temperature of 300 K. Given the reference temperature T0 = 290 K, find the noise figure of the system.

7.

8.

a. bandwidth harmonics ANS.octave 2.

b. frequency doubler

c. octave

d.

4.

Determine the worst-case output S/N for a narrowband FM receiver with deviation maximum of 10 kHz and a maximum intelligence frequency of 3 kHz. The S/N input is 3:1. a. 10 b. 12 c. 14 d. 16 ANS. 10 A small variable capacitance in parallel with each section of ganged capacitor is called _______. a. trimmer b. converter c. padder d. autodyne ANS. trimmer

At exactly one-quarter wavelength, the short-circuited transmission line behaves as a(an) ___________ circuit. a. inductive b. capacitive c. parallel-resonant d. series-resonant ANS.parallel-resonant 5. Determine the phase-shift represented by a 75 ns delay of a 4 MHz signal to a 75-ft cable with a dielectric constant of 2.3. a. 108 degrees b. 4.8 degrees c. 52 degrees d. 250 degrees ANS.108 degrees = 360 td / T T =1/f = 1 / 4MHz = 250 ns = 360 (75) / 250 = 108 degrees Which of the following is a flat conductor separated by an insulating dielectric from a large ground plane that is usually one-quarter or one-half wavelength long? a. stripline b. microstrip c. twin-lead wire d. shielded-pair ANS. microstrip One complete revolution around a Smith Chart represents _________ wavelengths. a. b. c. 1 d. 2 ANS. A mismatched transmission line is also referred to as a ___________ line. a. lossy b. lossless c. non-resonant d. resonant ANS.resonant

11. The modulated peak value of a signal is 125V and the unmodulated carrier value is 85V. What is the modulation index? a.0.47 b. 1.47 c. 0.68 d. 0.32 ANS.0.47 m = Em/ Ec Emax = Ec + Em ; Em = Emax Ec = 125 85 = 40 V m = 40V/ 85V = 0.47 12. The total transmitted power of an AM broadcast transmitter with a carrier power of 50kW when modulated 80 percent is: a. 62.5kW b. 66W c. 66kW d. 40kW ANS.66kW Pt = Pc ( 1 + m2/2) Pt = 50,000 ( 1 + 0.82 /2) Pt = 66,000 W Pt = 66kW 13. One of the advantages of DSB is the savings of great deal of power. Which of the following is the reason why it is not widely used? a. the signal occupies a narrow bandwidth b. the signal has a low S/N c. the signal is weak at high frequencies d. the signal is difficult to demodulate ANS.The signal is difficult to demodulate 14. If the input in a transmitter is collector-modulated, the system is called a _______________________. a. low level modulator b. highlevel modulator c. differentialamplifier modulator d. lattice modulator ANS.high-level modulator 15. input to an FM receiver has a S/N of 2.8. What is the frequency deviation caused by the noise if the modulating frequency is 1.5KHz and the permitted deviation is 4KHz? a. 1,460.8 Hz b. 547.8 Hz c. 2.67 Hz d. 4,107.3 Hz ANS.547.8 Hz = fm = sin -1 N/S = sin -1 1/2.8 = 0.3652 = (0.3652)(1.5KHz) = 547.8 Hz 16. What circuit is used to return the frequency response of a signal to its normal, flat level?

3.

**EST** 1. How many wavelengths long are required for a pair of conductors to be considered as a transmission line? a. b. c. 1/10 d. 5/8 ANS.1/10

6.

7. 2. Determine the time taken for a signal to travel down a 10 m transmission line, if its velocity factor is 0.7. a. 23.33 ns b. 14.52ns c. 76.8 s d. 47.6 ns ANS. 47.6 ns T= L/ (Vf x Vc) T= 10 m/ (0.7)(3x108 m/s) T= 47.6 ns

8.

3. The maximum voltage standing wave of an RG-11/U

foam coaxial cable is 52 V and its minimum voltage is 17 V. How many percent of the incident power is the reflected power? a. 51% b. 26% c. 3% d. 97% ANS.26% 2 = Pr/Pi = SWR-1 SWR+1 ; SWR = Vmax/ Vmin = 52/17 = 3.05

9. It is the ratio of the speed of propagation on a line to

that of light in free-space. a. velocity factor b. refractive index c. dielectric constant d. standing-wave ratio ANS.velocity factor 10. Which of the following is the most widely used UTP cable that can carry baseband data at rates up to 100 Mbps at a range up to 100m? a. CAT 4 b. CAT 5 c. CAT 5e d. CAT 6 ANS.CAT 5

= 3.05 1 = 0.51 3.05 +1 Thus : 2 = (0.51)2 = 0.26 The reflected power is 26 % of the incident power :

a. pre-emphasis b. de-emphasis c. carrierrecovery d. frequency-multiplier ANS. de-emphasis 2. 17. It is the most common means of overcoming the problems of quantizing error and noise. a. multiplexing b. companding c. amplifying d. anti-aliasing ANS. companding 18. ________________ means that the characteristics and performance of an antenna are the same whether the antenna is radiating or intercepting an electromagnetic signal. a. antenna reciprocity b. antenna polarization c. antenna grounding d. tower sway ANS. antenna reciprocity 19. Which of the following methods is used to lower the resonant frequency of a shortened vertical antenna? a. loading coil b. top hat loading c. drooping radials d. grounding ANS.top hat loading 20. Calculate the gain (relative to an isotropic) of a parabolic antenna that has a diameter of 3 m, an efficiency of 60% and operates at a frequency of 4 GHz. a. 39.8 dBi b. 41.94 dBi c. 37.66dBi d. 79.53 dBi ANS. 39.8 dBi G = 2 D2/ 2 = 3x108/ 4MHz = 0.075 m G = 0.62(3)2 0.0752 G= 9474.8 G = 10 log 9474.8 G = 39.8 dBi 21. It is a phenomenon caused by any support insulators used at the ends of the wire antenna. a. skin effect b. end effect c. faraday effect d. miller effect ANS.end effect **Electronics System & Technologies** 1. A dipole antenna has a radiation resistance of 67 ohms and a loss resistance of 5 ohms, measured at the feedpoint. Calculate the efficiency. a. 90% b. 91% c. 92% d. 93% 5.

ANS. 93% Efficiency = Rr / Rt = 67 / (67 + 5) = 93% Two antennas have gains of 5.3 dBi and 4.5 dBd, respectively. Which has a greater gain? a. The first antenna has a higher gain. b. The second antenna has a higher gain. c. Both antennas have the same gain d. Cannot be determined ANS. The second antenna has a higher gain.\ A half-wave dipole is sometimes called: a. Marconi antenna b. Yagi antenna c. Hertz antenna d. none of the choices ANS. Hertz antenna An antenna's beamwidth is measured a. from +90 to 90 b. between half-power points c. from front to back d. between the minor side-lobes ANS. between half-power points "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by a. radio signals reflecting off the ground b. buildings and other structures on the ground c. fading d. faulty connection of the feed cable ground ANS. radio signals reflecting off the ground An antenna can be matched to a feed line using a. a shorted stub b. an LC network c. a loading coil d. all of the choices ANS. all of the choices As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased a. the number of lobes increases b. efficiency decreases c. the number of nodes decreases d. none of the above ANS. . the number of lobes increases LPDA stands for a. Low-Power Dipole Array b. Log-Periodic Dipole Array c. Low-Power Directed Array d. Log Power Dipole Array ANS. Log-Periodic Dipole Array

9.

Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with a. a slotted line b. an EIRP meter c. a dipole d. a field-strength meter ANS. a field-strength meter

3.

10. A receiving antenna with a built-in preamplifier a. active antenna b. passive antenna c. coil d. LC antenna ANS. active antenna 11. Which of the following is not a reason why most halfwave antennas are mounted horizontally at low frequencies? a. physical construction is easier b. more cost-effective c. mounting is easier d. support is easier ANS. more cost-effective 12. The shape of the electromagnetic energy radiated from or received by an antenna is called the a. signal shape b. electromagnetic pattern c. radiation pattern d. antenna pattern ANS. radiation pattern 13. Antennas that transmit an equal amount of energy in the horizontal direction are called a. bi-directional b. unidirectional c. omnidirectional d. unilateral ANS. omnidirectional 14. The ability of an antenna to send or receive signals over a narrow horizontal directional range is referred to as a. focal factor b. permittivity c. directivity d. horizontal range ANS. directivity

4.

6.

7.

8.

15. A basic antenna connected to a transmission line plus one or more additional conductors that are not connected to the transmission line form a a. parasitic array b. bi-directional array c. half-wave dipole d. counterpoise ANS. parasitic array 16. An antenna made up of a driven element and one or more parasitic elements is generally referred to as a a. Hertz antenna b. Marconi antenna c. collinear antenna d. Yagi antenna ANS. Yagi antenna 17. Which antennas usually consist of two or more halfwave dipoles mounted end to end? a. Hertz b. Marconi c. collinear d. Yagi ANS. collinear 18. A stacked collinear antenna consisting of half-wave dipoles spaced from one another by one-half wavelengths is the a. broadside array b. end-fire array c. wide-bandwidth array d. parasitic array ANS. broadside array 19. When the characteristic impedance of the transmission line matches the output impedance of the transmitter and the impedance of the antenna itself, a. the SWR will be 10:1 b. the SWR will be 1:10 c. minimum power transfer will take place d. maximum power transfer will take place ANS. maximum power transfer will take place 20. A one-quarter wavelength of coaxial or balanced transmission line of a specific impedance connected between a load and a source in order to match impedances is a. a balun b. an autotransformer c. a Q section d. dummy load

ANS. a Q section 21. By how much should two antennas be separated for space diversity in the 11 GHz band? a. 5.5 m b. 7.5m c. 9.5m d. 11.5m ANS.5.5 m 28. It is a microwave device that allows RF energy to pass through in one direction with very little loss, but absorbs RF power in the opposite direction. a. multiplexer b. circulator c. isolator d. wave trap ANS.isolator 29. A metal wrapped around the parabolic antenna aperture to eliminate sidelobes interfering nearby stations is called a. radome b. shield c. shroud d. bass drum ANS.shroud 30. The wavelength of a wave in a waveguide _________. a. is greater than in free space b. depends only on the waveguide dimensions and the free space wavelength c. is inversely proportional to the phase velocity d. is directly proportional to the group velocity ANSWER:is greater than in free space 31. Geostationary satellites are located at ____ with respect to the equator. a. 00 longitude b. 00 latitude c. 450 longitude d. 900 latitude ANS. 00 latitude 32. The quality of a space-link is measured in terms of the ______ ratio. a. S/N b. G/T c. C/N d. EIRP ANS. G/T 33. Why does the downlink frequency appear to vary by several kHz during a low earth orbit satellite pass? a. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing the Kepler effect b. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing the Bernoulli effect c. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing the Boyles Law effect d. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing the Doppler effect ANS. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing the Doppler effect 1. The most ambitious LEO constellation to date is ______. a. Iridium b. NAVSTAR c. Teledesic d. Globalstar

22.

What is the phase velocity of a rectangular waveguide with a wall separation of 3 cm and a desired frequency of operation of 6 GHz? a. 3.45 x 108 m/s b. 4.35 x 108 m/s c. 4.53 x 108 m/s d. 5.43 x 108 m/s ANS.5.43 x 108 m/s 23. A transmitter and a receiver is 45 km apart. Suppose that there is an obstacle midway between the transmitter and receiver. By how much must the path between the towers clear the obstacle in order to avoid diffraction at a frequency of 11 GHz? a. 17.52 m b. 10.51 m c. 8.76 m d. 7.52 m ANS. 10.51 m 24. How far from the transmitter could a signal be received if the transmitting and receiving antennas where 40 m and 20 m, respectively, above level terrain? a. 44.5 km b. 45.4 km c. 54.4 km d. None of the choices ANS.44.5 km 25. A signal propagated in a waveguide has a full wave of electric intensity change between two further walls, and no component of the electric field in the direction of propagation. The mode is a. TE11 b. TE10 c. TM22 d. TE20 ANS. TE20 26. An isolator has a forward loss of 0.7 dB and a return loss of 26 dB. A source provides 1 W to the isolator, and the load is resistive with an SWR of 3. How much power is dissipated in the load? a. 1 W b. 851 mW c. 750 mW d. 638 mW ANS.638 mW 27. An isolator has a forward loss of 0.7 dB and a return loss of 26 dB. A source provides 1 W to the isolator, and the load is resistive with an SWR of 3. How much power returns to the source? a. 250 mW b. 350 W c. 535 W d. 690 W ANS. 5.43 x 108 m/s

ANS.Teledesic 2. A satellite-dish owner has a 3 meter dish designed for C-band (4 GHz) operation. The owner wants to use the same dish with a new feedhorn, for Ku-band (12 GHz) satellites. What effect will the change in frequency have on the gain and beamwidth of the antenna? a. Gain increases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth decreases to 1/3 of its former value. b. Gain decreases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth decreases to 1/3 of its former value. c. Gain increases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth increases to thrice of its former value. d. Gain decreases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth increases to thrice of its former value. ANS. Gain increases by 9.54 dB, beamwidth decreases to 1/3 of its former value. The moon orbits the earth with a period of approximately 28 days. How far away is it? Assume circular orbit. a. 380 Mm b. 382 Mm c. 384 Mm d. 386 Mm ANS.384 Mm What is the length of the path to a geostationary satellite from an Earth station if the angle of elevation is 300? a. 6400 km b. 39000 km c. 42400 km d. 46000 km ANS.39000 km What is the nominal uplink frequency for the Ku band? a. 6 GHz b. 4 GHz c. 14 GHz d. 12 GHz ANS. 14 GHz To cover all inhabited regions of the earth, the number of polar-orbit satellites required is a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5 ANS.1

2.

Variation in signal loss caused by natural weather disturbances. a. attenuation b. fading c. spreading loss d. weather loss ANS. fading Determine the radio horizon for a transmit antenna that is 200 m high and a receiving antenna that is 100 m high a. 99.5km b. 96.5 km c. 95.87 km d. 97.5 km ANS. 99. The height above the earths surface from which a refracted wave appears to have been reflected a. actual height b. virtual height c. average height d. mean height ANS. virtual height The highest frequency that can be used for skywave propagation between two specific points on earths surface. a. Critical Frequency b. MUF c. Cut-off frequency d. center frequency ANS. Critical Frequency Electromagnetic waves that are directed above the horizon level. a. ground waves b. surface waves c. sky waves d. space waves ANS. sky waves

3.

3.

4.

4.

5. 3.

+ 26 dBu is how many volts? a. 7.75 V b. 15.5 V c. 31 V d. 62 V ANS. 15.5 V V (dBu) = 20 log [ voltage in Volts / 0.775 Volts ] 26 = 20 log [ voltage in Volts / 0.775 V ] 26 / 20 = log [ voltage in Volts / 0.775 V ] = 1.3 Voltage = log-1 (1.3) x 0.775 V Voltage = 15.5 V A type of microphone that uses the principle of a capacitor as a means of transduction. It uses a polarizing voltage of between 9 and 48 V of DC supply applied to its diaphragm by an external power supply. a. Dynamic b.Condenser c. Ribbon d.Carbon ANS. Condenser Determine the sound power in Watts produced by the banks alarm if a by-stander heard the alarm at a sound pressure level of 100 dB-SPL. The by-stander is 100 ft away from the bank. a. 56.85 W b. 55.68 W c. 58.56 W d. 58.65 W ANS. 58.65 W PWL = SPL + 20 log D(m) + 8 PWL = 100 + 20 log (100/3.28) + 8 = 137.68 dB-PWL 137.68 = 10 log W + 120 W = log-1 [(137.68 120)/10] W = 58.65 Watts A loudspeaker produces an SPL of 85dB-SPL at 1 meter distance and input electrical power of 1 W. How loud is the SPL at distance of 20 meters if this speaker is driven to 10 W of electrical power? a. 82 dB-SPL b. 69 dB-SPL c. 65 dB-SPL d. 79 dB-SPL ANS. 69 dB-SPL SPL@1m/1W = 85 dB-SPL (given) SPL@20m/1W = 85 - 20 log (20m/1m) = 59 dB-SPL SPL@20m/10W = 59 + 10 log (10W/1W) = 69 dBSPL

5.

4.

6.

5.

6.

**Communications / Broadcast** 1. An acoustical phenomenon wherein the sound continues to persist after the cause of sound has stopped resulting in repeated reflections is called a. echo b. reverberation c. reflection d. diffraction ANS.reverberation 2. A group of filters has 1/3 octave of spacing. If the initial frequency is 25 Hz, what is the next frequency available for the filter? a. 50 Hz b. 12.5 Hz c. 75 Hz d. 31.5 Hz ANS. 31.5 Hz f2 = 2x f1 where x = 1/3, fraction of an octave f2 = 21/3 x 25 = 31.5 Hz

6.

**Printing** 1. The highest frequency that can be used for skywave propagation between two specific points on earths surface. a. Critical Frequency b. MUF c. Cut-off frequency d. mid frequency ANS. Critical Frequency

7. A number from 0 to 1 representing the ability of a

surface material to absorb sound energy is known as

a. Sound absorption c. Absorption Coefficient b. Reflection coefficient d. Room Constant ANS.Absorption Coefficient

Formula : Where :

8. The difference in dB between the loudest level of

sound and the softest passage of sound is known as a. Headroom b. signal-to-noise ratio c. gain d.dynamic range ANS. dynamic range **Satellite Communications** 1. The height above mean sea level of a satellite in a geosynchronous orbit around Earth is: a. 35,786 miles b. 35,786 NM c. 35,786 feet d. 35,786 km ANS.35,786 km 2. The location of a satellite is generally specified in terms of a. azimuth & elevation b. latitude & longitude true morth d. bearing ANS.latitude & longitude

T = orbital period C = circumference v = orbital velocity C = 2 r = 2 ( 6400 + 36,000 ) = 266.4 x 106 m 4 11 x01 v= = . 7k /s 30 m (6 0 +4 ) 3 ,0 0 60 0 C 2 4 1 6m 6 x 6. 0 T = = =4h 2r s v 37x 3m . 1 /s 0 0 or 1440 minutes

C v

1.

As per Philippine standard, frequency allocation of AM Radio Broadcasting is from a. 535 to 1605 kHz b. 526.5 to 1605 kHz c. 535 to 1705 kHz d. 526.5 to 1705 kHz ANS. 526.5 to 1705 kHz Part of broadcasting in a day that refers to that period of time between 1000 UTC to 2200 UTC. UTC stands for Universal Time Coordinates. a. daytime period b. nighttime period c. experimental period d. primetime period ANS. nighttime period An AM broadcast service area in which groundwave field of 1mV/m (60dBu) is not subject to objectionable interference or objectionable fading. a. primary service area b. secondary service area c. intermittent service area d. none among these ANS. primary service area In antenna mast or tower construction, the required obstruction painting and/or lighting must be imposed on mast or tower more than from the ground level. a. 100 ft b. 150 ft c. 200 ft d. 250 ft ANS. 150 ft Regarding the design of AM antenna, what should be the polarization of the radiator? a. horizontal b. vertical c. circular d. elliptical ANS. vertical As per Phillipine standard, what is the minimum frequency separation in any service area for adjacent AM radio stations? a. 40 kHz b. 200 kHz c. 36 kHz d. 300 kHz ANS. 36 kHz

2.

6.

The outline of a communications satellite antenna pattern on the earth is known as: a. beam b. propagation pattern c. spot d. footprint ANS. footprint Calculate the length of the path to a geostationary satellite from an earth station where the angle of elevation is 30 .(earths radius = 6400 km, height of satellite above earth is 36 X 103 km) a. 36,000 km b. 36,000 mi c. 39,000 km d. 39,000 mi. ANS.39,000 km
2 d r h c i =( +) ( o ) r rs 2 s n

3.

c.

7.

3.

A point in the orbit of an object orbiting the earth that is located closest to Earth. a. perigee b. apogee c. apex d. subsatellite point ANS. perigee Find the velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit 500 km above the earths surface. a. 76 km/s b. 76 m/s c. 7.6 km/s d. 7.6 km/s2 ANS. 7.6 km/s
= Formula : v d 6 4 0 ( +0 ) 41 x 0
1 1

4.

Formula : 8.

4.

A satellite access technique where each earth station transmits a short burst of information during a specific time slot. a. FDMA b. DAMA c. TDMA d. SCADA ANS. TDMA ( Time Division Multiple Access) An earth station antenna look angle is determined by : a. azimuth & elevation b. longitude & latitude c. bearing d. true north ANS. azimuth & elevation

5.

9.

Where : v = velocity in meters per second d = distance above earths surface in km

v =
1 40 x 1 1 ( 5 + 0 0 6 ) 4 0 0

= 7.6 km/s 5. Find the orbital period of a satellite in a circular orbit 36,000 km above the earths surface if the earths radius is 6400 km. a. 1440 mins b. 24 days c. 3,600 sec d. 1440 sec ANS. 1440 mins

10. An ITU radiocommunication standards for satellite services which provides information on the range of frequencies that can be used by fixed satellite service systems for emergency and disaster relief operations. a. ITU-R M1854 b. ITU-R S 009 c. ITU-R S.1001-2 d. ITU-R S.004 ANS.ITU-R S.1001-2 **Communications / Broadcast Engineering and Acoustics**

6.

7.

8.

What is the maximum power allowable for remote pick-up stations used as broadcast auxillary services for AM and FM broadcast stations? a. 10 W b. 15 W c. 35 W d. 200 W ANS. 35 W What is the classification of an FM station having an ERP not exceeding 30kW? a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D ANS. Class B What is the modulation used for the stereophonic subcarrier of FM composite baseband signal? a. AM DSB FC b. AM DSB SC c. AM SSB d. AM VSB ANS. AM DSB SC

13. What is the color TV system adopted by the Philippines? a. NTSC b. PAL c. SECAM d. none among choices ANS.NTSC 14. Exact value of color subcarrier frequency (MHz) is a. 3.579554 b. 3.579455 c. 3.580545 d. 3.579545 ANS. 3.579545 15. Determine the visual carrier frequency of TV channel 9 a. 175.25 MHz b. 187.25 MHz c. 193.25 MHz d. 199.25 MHz ANS.187.25 MHz fNLB = 174 + (N 7)6, using Arithmetic Progression f9LB = 174 + (9 7)6 = 174 + (2)6 = 174 + 12 = 186 MHz, low band frequency of channel 9 fVC = 186 + 1.25 = 187.25 MHz, visual carrier frequency of channel 9 16. What is the maximum allowable ERPs for channels 7 13 in Metro Manila and Metro Cebu? a. 100 kW b. 316 kW c. 350 kW d. 1 MW ANS. 1 MW 17. At NTSC standard, the number of lines per frame = ________ lines/frame a. 485 b. 525 c. 625 d. 585 ANS. 525 18. At NTSC standard, line frequency = 15734.264 Hz. What is the equivalent line period? a. 66.556 usec b. 65.556 usec c. 63.556 usec d. 64.556 usec ANS. 63.556 usec fH = 15734.264 Hz

H = 1 / fH = 1 / 15734.264 H = 63.556 x 10-6 = 63.556 usec 19. Nominal RF bandwidth of NTSC TV channel a. 4.2 MHz b. 4.5 MHz c. 6 MHz d. 5.35 MHz ANS. 6 MHz 20. A land mobile station used for the transmission of TV program materials and related communications from the scenes of events occuring at remote points from TV broadcast station studios to TV broadcast station. a. TV Pick-up station b. TV STL station c. TV Inter-city Relay station d. TV Satellite link station ANS.TV Pick-up station 21. For a total capacity of 36 Mbps and 64-QAM of digital modulation, what is the ideal RF bandwidth? a. 4 MHz b. 5 MHz c. 6 MHz d. 7 MHz ANS. 6 MHz For a 64-QAM, the total number of symbol combinations is 64 symbols and the number of bits to produce this is n = log2 64 = 6 bits per symbol Therefore the ideal RF bandwidth is BW = fB / n = 36 Mbps / 6 bits BW = 6 MHz 22. What is the mode of radio wave propagation that utilized ionosphere as a medium of transmission and / or reception of radio signals? a. ground wave b. sky wave c. space wave d. all of these ANS.sky wave

9.

10. What is the pilot subcarrier frequency used in FM stereophonic transmission? a. 15 kHz b. 19 kHz c. 30 kHz d. 38 kHz ANS.19 kHz 11. The output power of an FM transmitter is 5 kW. If the power loss in transmission line is around 10 W and the antenna has a power gain of 6 dB, what is the ERP of the station in kW? a. 5 kW b. 30 kW c. 20 kW d. 19.96 kW ANS. 19.96 kW GANT = 6 dB = 4 ERP = (5000 10) x 4 = 4990 x 4 = 19,960 W or 19.96 kW 12. Frequency allocation of FM broadcast in the Philippines a. 535 1605 kHz b. 88 108 MHz c. 50 15000 Hz d. 174 216 MHz ANS. 88 108 MHz

23.

What is the wavelength of a radio signal travelling at a frequency of 220 MHz in a coaxial line having Teflon foam as its dielectric, r = 2? a. 1.0 m b. 0.85 m c. 0.96 m d. 1.36 m

ANS. 0.96 m c = 3 x 108 m/sec = 300 x 106 m/sec velocity factor vf = 1 / sqrt (r) = 1 / sqrt (2) = 0.707 = vP / c Therefore the velocity of the radio signal in the coaxial line is vP = 0.707c = 0.707 (300 x 106) = 212,132,034.36 m/sec (or 212 x 106 m/sec approx.) so that the wavelength of the signal is = vP / f = 212 x 106 / 220 x 106 = 0.963636 m or 0.96 m approx. 24. What is the angle of refraction in a Teflon (r2 = 2) medium of a radio wave from air (r1 = 1.0) if its angle of incidence is 45? a. 24 b. 26 c. 28 d. 30 ANS. 30 Using Snells Law Sqrt (r1) sin i = Sqrt (r2) sin r Sqrt (1) sin 45 = Sqrt (2) sin r r = sin-1 [(Sqrt (1) sin 45) / Sqrt (2)] = sin-1 (0.5) = 30 25. An ionosphere layer also termed as absorption layer because it absorbs most of the frequencies above 100 kHz is known as the layer. a. D b. E c. F1 d. F2 ANS. D 26. As per ITU-R Recc. V.431-6 Tables 1 & 2 Wavelength Classifications, what is the classification of Super High Frequency? a. metric b. decimetric c. centimetric d. millimetric ANS.centimetric SHF band: 3 GHz 30 GHz max = 3 x 108 / 3 x 109 = 0.1 m = 100 cm min = 3 x 108 / 30 x 109 = 0.01 m = 1 cm SHF band wavelength classification is ranging from 1 cm to 100 cm. Therefore it is centimetric wave. 27. What is a diversity scheme that uses two (2) separate antennas and receivers for each single transmitter? a. frequency diversity

b. space diversity c. angle diversity d. quadrature diversity ANS.space diversity 28. What is a diversity scheme that uses two (2) different frequencies in a simplex path? a. frequency diversity b. space diversity c. angle diversity d. quadrature diversity ANS. frequency diversity 29. What is the critical frequency of a layer if the maximum value of electron density is 2 x 106 per cm3? a. 11 MHz b. 12 MHz c. 13 MHz d. 14 MHz ANS.13 MHz Nmax = 2 x 106 per cm3 = 2 x 106 x 106 per m3 = 2 x 1012 per m3 fc = 9 x sqrt (Nmax) = 9 x sqrt (2 x 1012) fc = 12.73 MHz or 13 MHz approx. 30. A radio communication link is to be established via the ionosphere. The maximum virtual height of the layer is 110 km. at the midpoint of the path and the critical frequency is 4 MHz. If the distance between the radio stations is 500 km, what is the suitable value for the optimum working frequency? Use flat terrain analysis. a. 8.2 MHz b. 8.3 MHz c. 8.4 MHz d. 8.5 MHz ANS. 8.4 MHz For flat terrain analysis, tan i = d/2hv i = tan-1 [d/2hv] = tan-1 [500/2(110)] = tan-1 [2.273] = 66.25 angle of incidence MUF = fc x sec i = fc / cos i = 4 / cos 66.25 = 4 / 0.40275 = 9.932 MHz via Secant Law OWF = 0.85 x MUF = 0.85 (9.932) = 8.4422 MHz or 8.4 MHz approx. 31. The power density is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source. This law is known as a. Faradays law b. Snells law

c. Inverse Square law d. Gauss law ANS.Inverse Square law 32. The lowest portion of the ionosphere that is useful for long-distance communication by amateurs; about 100 to 115 km above the earth is known as the layer. This is often termed as the Kennely-Heavyside layer. a. D b. E c. F1 d. F2 ANS. E 33. A graph which shows the radiation in actual field strength of electromagnetic fields at all points which are at equal distance from the antenna is known as a. Frequency Response b. Radiation Pattern c. Smith Chart d. FCC F(50,50) Graph ANS, Radiation Pattern

34.

The efficiency of an antenna is 82 %. Its radiation resistance is 30 . What is the value of its loss resistance? a. 75 b. 15 c. 12 d. 6.58 ANS.6.58 = Rd/(Rd + Rloss) 0.82 = 30/(30 + Rloss) 0.82 (30 + Rloss) = 30 = 24.6 + 0.82 Rloss Rloss = (30 24.6) / 0.82 = 6.5854 or 6.58 approx. A phenomenon on the surface of the sun with appearance and disappearance of dark irregularly shaped areas. a. SID b. 11-year sunspot c. Sporadic E-layer d. Ionospheric storms ANS.11-year sunspot

35.

36. What should be done to increase the transmission distance at frequencies higher than HF bands? a. increase antenna gain b. increase antenna height c. increase transmitter power

d. increase receiver sensitivity ANS. increase antenna height 37. Which of the following factors must be considered in the transmission of a surface wave to reduce attenuation? a. electrical properties of the terrain b. frequency c. antenna polarization d. all choices ANS.all choices 38. A radio station operates at 11 meter wavelength. What is the designated band of stations frequency? a. MF b. HF c. VHF d. UHF ANS.HF SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM SOLVING): c = 3 x 108 m/sec = 11 m = c / f f = 3 x 108 / 11 = 27 MHz approx., which is within 3 30 MHz range designated as HF band 39. What is the total radio horizon distance between an 80 ft transmitting station and a 20 ft receiving station? a. 53.66 km b. 53.66 mi c. 18.97 km d. 18.97 mi ANS. 18.97 mi SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM SOLVING): dRH (TOT) = sqrt (2 x hT) + sqrt (2 x hR) dRH (TOT) = sqrt (2 x 80) + sqrt (2 x 20) dRH (TOT) = 18.97 mi 40. A power density of 1.57 x 10-4 W/m2 is measured 50 meters from a test antenna whose directive gain is 2.15 dB. How much power was fed into the test antenna? a. 1 W b. 2 W c. 3 W d. 4 W ANS.3 W From Inverse Square Law, PD = PR/4d2 PR = PD x 4d2 = 1.57 x 10-4 x 4(50)2 = 4.93 W approx. is the radiated power GANT = log-1 [2.15 dB/10] = 1.64 PR = PFED x GANT

PFED = PR / GANT = 4.93 / 1.64 = 3.007 W or 3 W approx. **Wireline and wireless ** 1. Identical telephone numbers in different parts of a country are distinguished by their ___. a. language digits b. area codes c. central office codes d. access digits ANS.area codes 2. Telephone traffic is measured ____ 8.

ANS.250 mW PT = -76 dB - PR Where: PT = transmitted power in dBm PR = received power in dBm PT = -76 dB - PR = -76 dB (-100dBm) = 24 dBm = 250 mW A telephone signal takes 2ms to reach its destination. Calculate the via net loss required for an acceptable amount of echo. a. 0.2 dB b. 0.4 dB c. 0.6 dB d. 0.8 dB ANS. 0.8 dB VNL = 0.2t + 0.4 dB Where: VNL = minimum required via net loss in dB t = time delay in ms for propagation one way along line VNL = 0.2t + 0.4 dB = 0.2 X 2 + 0.4 = 0.8 dB The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is: a. 48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC b. 48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC ANS.48 volts DC

a. in erlangs c. with echo cancellers b. by the relative congestion d. in terms of the grade of service ANS.in erlangs 3. In a cellular telephone system, each cell site contains a ____. a. touch tone processors c. repeater b. control computer d. direct link to a branch exchange ANS.repeater When the signal from a mobile cellular unit drops below a certain level, what action occurs? a. the cell site switches antennas b. the call is terminated c. the unit is handed off to a closer cell d. the MTSO increases power level ANS.the unit is handed off to a closer cell In a cellular telephone system, group of cells is called ___. a. sector b. Cluster c. site d. cell segment ANS.cluster In Celluar Telephone Systems, these are transmissions from base stations to mobile units (Downlink) a. forward links b. reverse links c. TRX d. TRA ANS.forward links A CDMA mobile measures the signal strength from the base as -100 dBm. What should the mobile transmitter power be set to as a first approximation, considering - 76 dB at mobile power contol? a. 150 mW b. 200 mW c. 250 mW d. 300 mW

9.

4.

5.

10. Central offices are connected by: a. local loops c. both a and b b. trunk lines d. none of the above ANS.trunk lines 11. In telephony, call blocking is: a. cannot occur in the public telephone network b. occurs on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure c. occurs only on long-distance cables d. occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded ANS.occurs when the central office capacity is exceeded 12. The cable used for local loops in telephone system is mainly: a. twisted-pair copper wire c. coaxial cable b. shielded twisted-pair copper wire d. fiber-optic ANS.twisted-pair copper wire 13. In DTMF, the four vertical frequencies are ____.

6.

7.

a. 1209Hz, 1336Hz,1477Hz,1633Hz b. 697Hz,770Hz,852Hz,941Hz c. 679Hz,770Hz, 852Hz, 941Hz d. 1208Hz,1336Hz,1747Hz,1633Hz ANS. 697Hz,770Hz,852Hz,941Hz 14. In DTMF, the Horizontal frequencies are a. 1209Hz, 1336Hz,1477Hz,1633Hz b. 697Hz,770Hz,852Hz,941Hz c. 679Hz,770Hz, 852Hz, 941Hz d. 1208Hz,1336Hz,1747Hz,1633Hz ANS.1209Hz, 1336Hz,1477Hz,1633Hz 15. In Celluar Telephone Systems, these are transmissions from mobile units to base stations (Uplink) a. forward links b. reverse links c. TRX d. TRA ANS.reverse links 16. In DTMF, the horizontal frequencies is also known as a. low group frequencies b. high group frequencies c. mid group frequencies d. top group frequencies ANS.high group frequencies 17. In DTMF, the Vertical frequencies is also known as a. low group frequencies b. high group frequencies c. bottom group frequencies d. top group frequencies ANS.low group frequencies 18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to: a. allow lines to be "conditioned" b. prevent "singing" c. allow signals to be multiplexed d. all of the above ANS. allow signals to be multiplexed 19. This is the highest-ranking office in the DDD network in telephony in terms of the size of the geographical area served and the trunking options available. a. section center c. primary center b. regional center d. all of the above ANS.regional center 20. In Cellular Radio, AMPS stand for: a. American Mobile Phone System b. Analog Mobile Phone Service

C. Advanced Mobile Phone System d. Advanced Mobile Phone Service ANS.Advanced Mobile Phone Service 21. In Cellular Radio, BSC stands for: a. Base Station Controller c. Basic Service Contract b. Base Signal Controller d. Basic Service Code ANS.Base Station Controller 22. In Cellular Radio, MSC stands for: a. Mobile Switching Center c. Maximum Signal Carrier b. Mobile Service Cellular d. Minimum Signal Carrier 6. ANS.Mobile Switching Center 23. In GSM, voice channels are called: a. traffic channels c. bearer channels b. voice channels d. talking channels ANS.traffic channels 24. In Mobile Communications, GSM uses: a. frequency hopping c. CDMA b. direct-sequence modulation d. all of the above ANS.frequency hopping 25. In Mobile Communications, IMSI stands for:: a. Integrated Mobile Subscriber Identification b. International Mobile Subscriber Identification c. Interim Mobile Subscriber Identification d. Intermodulation System Interference ANS.International Mobile Subscriber Identification 8. ** Electronics and Communications** 1. The most common light used in fiber-optic links is a. Infrared b. Red c. Violet d. Ultraviolet ANS.Infrared 2. In the telecommunications industry, the most commonly used fiber(s) are a. 50 micron b. 62.5 micron c. 50 and 62.5 micron d. 125 micron ANS. 50 and 62.5 micron The abrupt change in refractive index from core to cladding of fiber-optic cable is called the a. Total internal reflection b. Numerical aperture c. Dispersion d. Step index ANS. Step index A technique that is used to minimize the pulse dispersion effect is to 7.

a. Use a higher frequency light source b. Use plastic cladding c. Minimize the core diameter d. All the above ANS. Minimize the core diameter 5. Which is not an important characteristic of a light detector? a. Responsitivity b. Dark current c. Power consumption d. Response speed ANS. Power consumption The dispersion of light in fiber-optic cable caused by a portion of the light energy traveling in the cladding is called a. Modal dispersion b. Material dispersion c. Waveguide dispersion d. Cable dispersion ANS. Waveguide dispersion Recent laser developments for fiber-optic communication include a. Distributed feedback (DFB) b. Vertical cavity surface emitting (VCSEL) c. Heterojunction d. Distributed feedback (DFB) and vertical cavity surface emitting (VCSEL) ANS.Distributed feedback (DFB) and vertical cavity surface emitting (VCSEL) Which of the following considerations is important when deciding between using a diode laser or an LED? a. Response time b. Power levels c. Temperature sensitivity d. Failure characteristics ANS.Response time In 1815, the correct explanation of diffraction was given by a. Maxwell b. Rayleigh c. Fresnel d. Snell ANS.Fresnel

9.

3.

4.

10. It is the central part of the optical communication system a. Light Source b. Optical Fiber c. Photodetector d. none of the above ANS.Optical Fiber

11. The light energy that is always emitted or absorbed in discrete units a. Light Ray b. Boson c. Quanta d. Light ANS.Quanta 12. Which of the following Ethernet fiber optic standard uses synchronous, Centralized Clock? a. 10 Base-FL (Link) b. 10 Base-FB (Backbone) c. 10 Base-FP (passive) d. Both a & c ANS.10 Base-FB (Backbone) 13. It is a mixed, multiple-service standard to allow the transmission of voice and video over an FDDJ network. a. FDDI - II b. FDDI - I c. Hi PPI d. Escon ANS. FDDI - II 14. It is a layer of plastic that surrounds a fiber or group of fibers a. Buffer Tube b. Bulkhead c. Cladding d. Jacket ANS. Buffer Tube ** Signal Processing and Control Systems ** 1. The angular separation between the two half-power points on the power density radiation pattern. a.Bandwidth b Beamwidth c. Footprint d. Azimuth ANS.Beamwidth 2. Refers to the direction in space of electric vector of the electromagnetic wave radiated from an antenna and is parallel to the antenna itself. a.Propagation b. Coordinates c. Polarization d. Azimuth ANS.Polarization Placing a metallic array on the antenna effects to increase the current at the base of the antenna, and also to make the current distribution more uniform. What is this called? a.Reflector b. Grounding c. Top loading d. Feeding ANS.Top loading What principle that states that the properties of an antenna are independent of whether it is used for transmission or reception. a.Alternation b. Diplexer c. Reciprocity d. Repeatability ANS.Principle of reciprocity

5.

Calculate the beam width between nulls of a 2-m paraboloid reflector used at 6GHz. Note: such reflectors are often used at that frequency as antennas outside broadcast television microwave links. a.140 b. 70 c. 3.50 d. 0.8750 ANS.3.50 This is often used to cure the problem of great thickness required of lenses used at lower microwave frequencies or for strong curved wavefronts. a. Splicing b. Zoning c. Curving d. Polarizing ANS.Zoning

6.

refractive index of 1.51. Launching takes place from air. What numerical aperture does the fiber have? a. 0.852 b. 0.352 c. 1.032 d. 0.235 ANS. 0.352 By equation (20.10), the fractional difference between the indexes is: =(n1-n2)/n1 =(1.55-1.51)/1.55 =0.0258 By equation (20.11), the numerical aperture is found to be: NA=n1(2) =1.55[(2)(0.0258)] = 0.352

7.

A structure-generally metallic and sometimes very complex-designed to provide an efficient coupling between space and the output of a transmitter or input to a receiver. a.Stub b. Antenna c. Transmission line d. waveguide ANS.antenna The ratio comparing the power density generated by a practical antenna in some direction, with that due to an isotopic antenna radiating the same total power. a. directivity b. Directive gain c. bandwidth d. Elementary doublet ANS.Directive gain(b) Any array that is directional at right angles to the plane of the array is said, by inference, to have __________. a.Broadside b. Broadside array c. Broadside action d. End-fire array ANS.Broadside action

13.

8.

9.

An optic fiber is made of glass with a refractive index of 1.55 and is clad with another glass with a refractive index of 1.51. Launching takes place from air. What is the acceptance angle? a. 22.8 b. 18.6 c. 20.6 d. 23.6 ANS. 20.6 By equation (20.10), the fractional difference between the indexes is: =(n1-n2)/n1 =(1.55-1.51)/1.55 =0.0258 By equation (20.11), the numerical aperture is found to be: NA=n1(2) =1.55[(2)(0.0258)] = 0.352 By equation (20.8), the acceptance angle is: 0(max)=sin-1NA= sin-10.352=20.6 For a single-mode optical cable with 0.25-dB/km loss, determine the optical power 100km from a 0.1mW light source. a. -25dBm b. -45dBm c. -35dBm d. -30dBm ANS. -35dBm P=0.1mW x 10-{[(0.25)(100)]/(10)} =1 x 10-4 x 10{[(0.25)(100)]/(10)] =(1 x 10-4)(1 x 10-25) =0.316W P(dBm)= 10log = -35dBm

3.

10. The ratio of the focal length to the mouth diameter is called __________ of the parabola, just as in camera lenses. a. focus b. resolution c. feed d. aperture ANS.Aperture 11. Corresponds to a resonant transmission line, and the dipole antennas describe so far have been resonant. a. Non-resonant antenna b. Resonant antenna c. Antenna arrays d. None of the above ANS.Resonant antenna

14.

4.

12.

An optic fiber is made of glass with a refractive index of 1.55 and is clad with another glass with a

15. For an optical fiber 10km long with a pulse-spreading constant of 5ns/km, determine the maximum digital transmission rates for return-to-zero. a. 10Mbps b. 20 Mbps c. 50 Mbps d. 5 Mbps ANS.20Mbps 16. In fiber optics, it is a measure of the conversion efficiency of a photodetector. It is the ratio of the output current of a photodiode to the input optical power and has the unit of amperes per watt a. Dark current b. Responsivity c. Spectral Response d. Light Sensitivity ANS.Responsivity 17. A phenomenon also called stress corrosion resulting if the glass fiber is exposed to long periods of high humidity? a. Static fatigue b. Absorption c. Scattering loss d. Dispersion ANS. Static fatigue 18. The theory which states that when visible light or high-frequency electromagnetic radiation illuminates a metallic surface, electrons are emitted. a. Photoelectric effect b. Plancks law c. Photoemission effect d. Ray Theory of light ANS.Plancks law 19. The science of measuring only light waves that are visible to the human eye a. Radiometry b. Photometry c. Optometry d. Optics ANS. Photometry 20. The process of constructing an ILD that is similar to LED except that the ends are highly polished. a.epitaxially grown b. Planar diffusion c. lasing d. None of the above ANS.Lasing 21. A phenomenon in optical fibers communication system that is caused by the difference in the propagation times of light rays that take different paths down the fiber. a. Pulse spreading

b. Wavelength distortion c. Rayleigh scattering d. Microbending ANS.Pulse spreading Data comms 1. Is an OSI Layer which is responsible for providing error-free communications across the physical link connecting primary and secondary stations (nodes) a.Data Link Layer b. Transport Layer d. Presentation Layer ANSWER: a. Data Link layer 2. Is the ratio of the largest possible magnitude to the smallest possible magnitude that can be decoded by the digital-to-analog converter. a. Step size b. Quantization Error d. Dynamic range ANSWER: d. Dynamic range 3. Is a PCM system which uses a single bit PCM code to achieve digital transmission of analog signals a.Trellis Coding PCM d. QAM b. Delta modulation c. Differential c. Resolution c. Session Layer

6. Is an access method used primarily with LANs configured in a bus topology. CSMA/CD d. MA b. CSMA c. CSMA/CA

ANSWER: a. CSMA/CD 7. IP version 4 address length is 32 bits d. 48 bits Ans. 32 bits 8. Is a multiport bridge that provides bridging function. a. Repeater b. hub d. Switch ANSWER: d. Switch c. Router b. 24 bits c. 40 bits

9. Is a device which operates in the Network layer and it makes forwarding decisions on the basis of network addresses a. Repeater d. Switch b. hub c. Router

ANSWER: c. Router 10. OC-1 (STS-1) line rate is a. 51.84 Mbps d. 2.048 Mbps b. 1.544 Mbps c. 3 Mbps

ANSWER: b. Delta modulation 4. Is a redundancy error detection scheme that uses parity to determine if a transmission error has occurred within a message and is sometimes called message parity. a. Longitudinal redundancy check b. Vertical redundancy check c. Character Parity Check d. Checksum ANSWER: a. Longitudinal redundancy check 5. Is an n-bit data register inside the UART that keeps track of the UARTs transmit and receive buffer registers a. Control Register register b. Status Word

ANSWER: a. 51.84 Mbps 11. Is one in which all computers share their resources with all the other computers on the network. a. Dedicated client server network b. Peer-to-peer client/server network c. Peer-to-peer network d. All of the above ANSWER: b. Peer-to-peer client/server network 12. Is used to interface DTEs to digital transmission channels a. Data modem b. Router Channel service unit ANSWER: d. Channel service unit c. Splitter d.

c. Control and Status Register d. Command registerANSWER: b. Status Word register

a. directivity 13. Modulation which combines encoding and modulation to reduce the probability of error. a. DPSK d. TCM ANSWER: d. TCM 14. Is an empirical record of a systems actual bit error performance a. ER d. BERT ANSWER: b. BER 15. Is an error-correcting code used for correcting transmission errors in synchronous data streams. a. Trellis Code d. Hamming code b. EBCDIC c. Bisync Code b. BER c. EER b. FSK c. QAM

b. directive gain c. power gain d. power density

c. standing wave ratio ANSWER:c. standing wave ratio

d. all of these

ANSWER: a. directivity 9. The highest frequency that can be set back to earth by the ionosphere, if wave is sent vertically upward. a. maximum usable propagating frequency frequency (muf) b.

4. The maximum horizontal distance between the transmitter and the receiver for line of sight propagation is known as: a. radio horizon b. range d. service region ANSWER: a. radio horizon c. single hop distance

c. critical frequency d. cut-off frequency ANSWER: critical frequency

5. Typical mode of radiation of helical antenna is: a. end fire mode b. normal d. differential mode c. common

10. Travel in a straight line from the transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna a. ground wave b. scatter space wave d. sky wave ANSWER:c. space wave c.

ANSWER: a. end fire

ANSWER: d. Hamming code RADIO WAVE 1. The electric field intensity is measured in: a. V/m ANSWER:a. V/m b. V-m d. V/C c. C/m

6.The electric field is perpendicular to the earths surface, the polarization is: a. vertical horizontal ANSWER:a. vertical b. normal d. circular c.

11. VLF waves are for some types of services because a. of low powers required b. are of convenient size c. they are very reliable ionosphere easily ANSWER:c. they are very reliable the transmitting antennas d. they penetrate the

2. It is a result of an increase in the charge density in dielectric materials. a. polarization b. dipole moment d. potential difference c. potential

7. In what major RF band is ground wave basically applied? a. MF b. HF c. VHF d. UHF

12. It is the distance between two wave fronts having the same phase at any given instant. a. wavefront b. wavelength distance d. field intensity ANSWER:b. wavelength c. wave

ANSWER a. MF (Medium Frequency) ANSWER polarization 8. A measure of mismatch in a transmission line 3. It refers to the maximum antenna gain a. reflection coefficient delay b. propagation

13. It is a piece of transmission line which is normally short-circuited at the far end.

a. terminator b. stub d. none of these ANSWER: b. stub

c. quarter wave transformer

a. D layer A layer d. F layer ANSWER: d. F layer

b. E layer

c.

3. FSK systems are much superior to two-tone amplitudemodulation systems with respect to a. Noise performance b. Bandwidth requirements of the channel c. Ionospheric fading characteristics d. Power consumption ANSWER: c. Ionospheric fading characteristics 4. Using an oscilloscope to display overlayed received data bits that provide information on noise, jitter, and linearity is called a a. Eye pattern b. Constellation pattern c. Statistical concentration d. Loopback ANSWER:a. Eye pattern 5. The type of radio transmission that uses pseudorandomly switched transmissions is known as

18. Which is properly terminated antenna? a. rhombic c. marconi b. dipole d. hertz

14. A 50 ohms transmission line is connected to a 30 ohm resistive load. Calculate the reflection coefficient. ANSWER: a. rhombic a. 0.35 0.15 b. 0.25 c. 0.10 d.

19. Occurs when the radio beam is at point of grazing over an obstacle. a. diffraction absorption ans: diffraction b. refraction d. reflection c.

ANSWER: b. 0.25 SOLUTION ( IF PROBLEM -SOLVING) Ref Coeff = (30 50)/(30 + 50) = 0.25

20. A microwave communications system, space loss a. Facsimile 15. The characteristic impedance of a transmission line calculation formula is b. Spread spectrum does not depend upon its c. Synthesizing a. 92.4 + 10 log F + 20 log D b. 94.2 + 10 log F + 20 log D d. Compression a. conductor spacing b. conductor diameter c. 92.4 + 20 log F + 20 log Dd. 94.2 + 20 log F + 20 log D ANSWER: b. Spread spectrum c. length radius ANSWER: c. length d. conductor ANSWER: c. 92.4 + 20log F + 20 log D DATA 1. The technique that uses the BPSK vector relationship to generate an output with logical 0s and 1s determined by comparing the phase of two successive data bits is a. CSU/DSU d. CVSD ANSWER: b. b. DPSK DPSK c. TDM 6. The acronym CDMA refers to ________. a. Channel-division multiple-access systems b. Carrier-division multiple-access systems c. Capture-division multiple-access systems d. Code-division multiple-access systems ANSWER:Code-division multiple-access systems 7. The acronym OFDM refers to ________. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing b. Over Frequency Division Multiplexing c. Optional Frequency Division Modulation d. Orthogonal Frequency Division Modulation ANSWER: Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing 8. Using radio to transmit gathered data on some particular phenomenon without human monitors is known as a. Radio facsimile a.

16. Characteristic impedance of a transmission line is the impedance measured at the _______ when its length is infinite. a. input b. shorted end of the line c. output d. midsection ANSWER:a. input

2. A special digital modulation technique that achieves high data rates in limited-bandwidth channels is called a. Delta modulation b. Pulse-coded modulation (PCM) c. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM) d. Pulse amplitude modulation (PAM) ANSWER: c. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM

17. Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for long-distance night time communications?

b. Radio telemetry c. Radio teletype d. Radio multiplexing ANSWER: Radio telemetry 9. The acronym for the form of data transmission in which the modulating wave shifts the output between two predetermined frequencies is _____. a. b. c. FSK PSK FPF FSK

Bandwidth characteristics Simplicity in design Frequency response of the intelligence signal ANSWER: Noise characteristics 15. A procedure that decides which device has permission to transmit at a given time is called a. Line control b. Protocol c. Flow control d. Sequence control ANSWER: Line Control

b. c. d.

b. alias c. modem d. PSK ANSWER: Modem 20. The bit ________ is the amount of power in a digital bit for a given amount of time. a. error b. energy c. joule d. hp ANSWER: energy 21. The relationship for bit rate to ________ bandwidth is defined by the Shannon-Hartley theorem. a. modem b. codec c. channel d. amplifier ANSWER: Channel 22. In an S/H circuit, the time that it must hold the sampled voltage is a. Aperture time b. Acquisition time c. Flat-top time d. Dmin ANSWER: Aperture time 23. Error signals associated with the sampling process are called a. Foldover distortion b. Aliasing c. Nyquist rate d. Foldover distortion and aliasing ANSWER: Fold over distortion and aliasing 24. A(n) ________ is a single LSI chip containing both the ADC and DAC circuitry a. b. c. d. ANSWER: codec modem DSP codec ASIC

FSA ANSWER: a.

10. Pseudorandom implies a sequence that can be _____ but has the properties of randomness. a. decoded b. detected c. re-created d. minimized ANSWER: re-created 11. ______ implies that both analog and digital signals share the same channel bandwidth. a. b. c. d. Ans: hybrid AM Hybrid FM RF 16. The major difficulty faced by delta modulators is Excessive noise producing errors Slope overload Insufficient frequency response of the intelligence signal d. Complexity of design ANSWER: Slope overload 17. The AT&T T1 lines Use 16-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels b. Use delta modulation and include 48 voice channels c. Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels d. Use delta modulation and include 24 voice channels ANSWER: Use 8-bit PCM code and include 24 voice channels 18. The ground wire in a USB cable is ______ a. Yellow b. Blue c. Red d. Brown ANSWER: Brown 19. A(n) ________ is used to allow a digital signal to be transmitted on an analog channel. a. codec a. a. b. c.

12. Telemetry may be defined as _____ metering. a. distance b. specialized c. remote d. data ANSWER: Remote 13. Which is not a type of pulse modulation? a. Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM) b. Pulse-width modulation (PWM) c. Pulse-frequency modulation (PFM) d. Pulse-position modulation (PPM) ANSWER: Pulse-frequency modulation (PFM) 14. PPM and PWM are superior to PAM systems in a. Noise characteristics

25. The NRZ digital signal-encoding format has a ________ component in the waveform.

a. b. c. d. ANSWER: dc

dc sinusoidal harmonic parity

ReedSolomon codes utilize a technique called ________ to rearrange the data into a nonlinear ordering scheme to improve the chance of data correction a. pseudorandom b. BSC c. interleaving d. quantizing ANSWER: interleaving 1. .For an electronic device operating at a temperature of 17C with a bandwidth of 10 kHz, determine the thermal noise power in dBm . a. 134dBm b. 130dBm c. -134dBm d. 130dBm ANSWER: c. -134dBm SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING) N = KTB B = 1 x 104 Hz 4 x 10
-17

3. The signal power at the input to an amplifier is 100W and the noise power is 1 W. At the output, the signal power is 1W and the noise power is 30mW. What is the amplifier noise figure, as a ratio? a. 3.5 b. 4.5 c. 3 d. 4 SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING) (S/N)p = 100W = 100 1W (S/N)o = 1W = 33.3 0.03W NF (ratio) = 100 =3 33.5 4. It is desired to operate a receiver with NF = 8dB at S/N = 15 dB over a 200-KHz bandwidth at ambient temperature. Calculate the receivers sensitivity a. -84dBm b. -98dBm c. -80dBm d. -75dBm SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING) S = Sensitivity = -74dBm + NF + 10logf + desired S/N S = -174 + 8 + 10log(200,000) + 15 S = -98 dBm 5. A Satellite receiving system includes a dish antenna ( Teq = 35 K) connected via a coupling network (Teq= 40 K) to a microwave receiver (Teq=52 K referred to its input). What is the noise power to the receivers input over a 1MHz frequency range? a. 1.75 x 10-15W b. 1.75 x 10-12W c. -15 1.15 x 10 W d. 1.15 x 10-12W SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING) PN = KTf = 1.38 x 10-23 J/K (35 + 40 + 52)K (1MHz) = 1.75 x 10-15 W 6. Equivalent temperature of a passive system having the same noise power output of a given system. a. b. c. Noise figure Total temperature Equivalent temperature Noise temperature

a. 5.15 V
c. 2124mV

b. 3005mV d. 2.24V

SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING VN = = 4(1.38 x 10-23)(302)(6 6 x 10 )(50) = 2.24V 8. Determine the worst-case output S/N for a broadcast FM program that has a maximum intelligence frequency of 5 kHz. The input S/N is 2 2.5 b. 30 d. 25 SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING) = x fi = 0.5 x 5 kHz = 2.5 kHz 75 kHz = 30 2.5 kHz ** Signal Processing and Control Systems** a. c. 3

T(kelvin) = 17C + 273 = 290 K = (1.38 x 10-23)(290)(1 x 104) =

1. Suppose that energy Q is required to accelerate a car

from rest to v, neglecting friction. How much added energy would be required to increase the speed from v to 2v? a. Q b.2Q c. 3Q d.4Q ANS. 3Q Using the energy equation W=KE2 KE1 Q = 0.5mv2 0 - condition 1 W = 0.5m(2v)2 0.5mv2 - condition 2 W=2mv2 0.5mv2 = 3(0.5mv2) = 3Q

N(dBm) = 10log (4 x 10-17) = -134 dBm 0.001 2. A 300 resistor is connected across the 300 antenna input of a television receiver. The bandwidth of the receiver is 6MHz, and the resistor is at room temperature .Find the noise voltage applied to the receiver input. a. 5.4 V b. 3.12 V c. 4.5 V d. 6.7 V ANSWER: a. 5.4 V SOLUTION (IF PROBLEM-SOLVING) VN = = ) = 5.4 x 10-6 V = 5.4 V 4(1.38 x 10-23 J/K)(293 K)(6 x 106 Hz)(300

d.
Answer:

2. Suppose you want to store 1.00 J of electric potential

energy in a volume of 1.00 m3 in vacuum. What is the magnitude of the required electric field? a. 0.475 MV/m b. 0.336MV/m c. 0.225TV/m d. 0.113TV/m ANS.E=0.475 MV/m

d. noise temperature 7. The noise voltage produced across a 50 is input resistance at a temperature of 302C with a bandwidth of 6 MHz is ______.

u=1.00J/1.00m3 = 1.00J/m3 E=0.475 MV/m (a)

a. Clairuts equation equation c. Maxwells equation

b. Bernoullis

d. Hyrdofluid equation

3.

Material a is a water and material b is a glass with index of refraction 1.52. If the incident ray makes an angle of 60o with the normal, find the direction of the reflected ray. a. 49.3o b. 91.3o c. 60o d. 34.7o ANSWER: 60o

ANS.Bernoullis equation 8. In electrodynamics, what term refers to the average speed of the charge carriers? a. drag velocity b. molecular-kinetic speed c. drift speed d. charge velocity ANS.drift speed

4.

The wavelength of the red light from a helium-neon sensor is 633 nm in air but 474 nm in the aqueous humor inside our eyeballs. Calculate the speed of light in this substance. a. 2.25 x 108 m/s b. 3.25 x 108 m/s c. 3.00 x 108 m/s d. 1.25 x 108 m/s

9.

In electromagnetics and wave theory, what refers to waves, commonly generated by electronic devices, whose wavelengths ranges from approximately 0.3m to 10-4 m. Due to their short wavelengths these are often used in radar systems and for studying the atomic and molecular properties of matter. a. Radio waves b. Microwaves c. AM waves d. Radar waves ANS.microwaves

ANS. 2.25 x 108 m/s 5. A spaceship moving away from Earth with speed of 0.900c fires a robot space probe in the same direction as its motion, with speed of 0.700c relative to the spaceship. What is the probes velocity relative to the Earth? a. 0.900c b. 0.345c c. 0.700c d. 0.982c ANS. 0.982c 6. In optics, this effect refers to the blurring of the image produced on a concave mirror due to the convergence of rays far from the mirror to other points on the principal axis. What do you call this effect? a. spherical aberration b. focal divergence c. parallax error d. Snells effect ANS.spherical aberration 7. In fluid mechanics, this shows that the pressure of a fluid decreases as the speed of the fluid increases. In addition, the pressure of a fluid decreases as the elevation increases.