____

1. A ____ of processing must be handled as a unit. a. line b. segment c. critical region d. semaphore

____

2. Lock and key synchronization must take place within a single ____. a. instruction b. computer c. processor d. machine cycle

____

3. A problem with test-and-set is that when many processes are waiting to enter a critical region, ____ could occur because the processes gain access in an arbitrary fashion. a. starvation b. synchronization c. deadlock d. an error

____

4. What are the two operations identified by Dijkstra to be performed on a semaphore? a. P and V b. WAIT and SIGNAL c. Test-and-set d. check and update

____

5. When using a semaphore, a value of ____ indicates that a critical region is in use. a. -100 b. 0 c. 100 d. 9999

____

6. Operations on semaphore s enforce the concept of mutual exclusion, which is necessary to avoid having two operations attempt to execute at the same time. The name traditionally given to this semaphore in the literature is ____. a. phore b. exe c. signal d. mutex

____

7. Most current operating systems support the implementation of threads, or ____, which have become part of numerous application packages. a. parallel processes c. heavyweight processes

b. lightweight processes ____ 8. What is shared by the threads in a process? a. processor registers b. program counter ____

d. semaphores

c. data area d. status

9. Once a thread is in the ready state, which state can it enter next? a. blocked b. finished c. waiting d. running

---------------____ 1. When there is an excessive amount of page swapping between main memory and secondary storage, the operation becomes inefficient. This phenomenon is called ____. a. excessive demand paging b. hot swapping ____ c. thrashing d. overswapping

2. Assume that four page frames are available and are numbered 1-4. Pages A-D have been loaded into page frames 1-4 in order. Assume that page E is requested. Which page frame will it be loaded into when the FIFO algorithm is used? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

____

3. Assume that four page frames are available and are numbered 1-4. Pages A-D have been loaded into page frames 1-4 in order. The program has accessed the pages in the following order: B, D, A, C. Assume that page E is requested. Which page frame will it be loaded into when the LRU algorithm is used? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

____

4. Consider the following four cases. Which page would the LRU policy be lease likely to swap?

Modified Referenced Case 1 0 Case 2 0 Case 3 1 Case 4 1 a. Case 1 b. Case 2 ____ 0 1 0 1

Meaning Not modified AND not referenced Not modified BUT was referenced Was modified BUT not referenced Was modified AND was referenced c. Case 3 d. Case 4

5. Which of the following phrases means that during any phase of its execution the program references only a small fraction of its pages? a. dynamic paging b. structured programming c. locality of reference d. working set

____

6. To access a location in memory when using segmented memory management, the address is composed of two entries: ____. a. the segment number and the line number b. the segment number and the displacement c. the line number and the displacement d. the segment number, the line number, and the displacement

---------____ 1. When does a fixed partition scheme work well? a. when jobs have the same size b. when jobs have different sizes ____ c. when job sizes are not known in advance d. when all jobs are under 100K

2. What is the name for fragments of free memory between blocks of allocated memory?

a. inefficient fit b. indirect partitioning ____

c. external fragmentation d. internal fragmentation

3. Which memory allocation scheme places jobs in the first partition fitting the requirements? a. fixed partitioning b. first-fit memory allocation c. dynamic fit memory allocation d. best-fit memory allocation

____

4. Which memory allocation scheme results in the smallest amount of wasted space? a. fixed partitioning b. first-fit memory allocation c. dynamic fit memory allocation d. best-fit memory allocation

____

5. Consider the following space requirements for jobs 1-4 and memory blocks. Assuming a first-fit scheme is used, which job is not able to run?

Jobs: J1 10K J2 20K J3 30K J4 10K

Blocks: B1 30K B2 15K B3 50K B4 20K a. J1 b. J2 c. J3 d. J4

____

6. Consider the following space requirements for jobs 1-4 and memory blocks. Assuming a best-fit scheme is used, which job is placed in the last block?

Jobs: J1 10K J2 20K J3 30K J4 10K

Blocks: B1 30K B2 15K B3 50K B4 20K a. J1 b. J2 ____ c. J3 d. J4

7. Assume the Memory Manager receives a request for a block of 200. When the best-fit algorithm is used, what is the beginning address of the block granted by the Memory Manager?

Beginning Address 4075 5225 6785 7560 7600 10250

Memory Block Size 105 5 600 20 205 4050

15125 24500 a. 6785 b. 7600 ____

230 1000 c. 10250 d. 15125

8. The ____ contains the value that must be added to each address referenced in the program so it will be able to access the correct memory addresses after relocation. a. busy list b. compaction monitor c. relocation register d. bounds register

____

9. What is the actual memory address for a job that starts at 18K? a. 1,800 b. 18,000 c. 18,432 d. 180,000

____ 10. In a fixed partition scheme, what is the problem with partitions that are too large? a. small jobs will have to wait b. large jobs will have to wait c. external fragmentation d. wasted memory

-----------1. The File Manager is in charge of the system s physical components, its information resources, and the policies used to store and distribute the files. A) True

2. A record is a group of related bytes that can be identified by the user with a name, type, and size.

B) False 3. Examples of batch commands are CREATE, DELETE, RENAME, and COPY. A) True

4. Without the File Manager, every program would need to include instructions to operate all of the different types of devices, and all of the different models within each type. A) True 5. A file descriptor usually contains only a file name and the directory name in which the file is located. B) False 6. Sequential record organization is by far the easiest to implement because records are stored and retrieved serially, one after the other. A) True

7. The objective of a hybrid configuration is to select among the strong points of each topology and combine them to meet that system s communications requirements most effectively. A) True

8.

Circuit switching is a communication model in which a dedicated communication path is established between two hosts. A) True 9. Under a DO/S, resources are allocated based on negotiation and compromise among equally important peer sites in the distributed system. A) True 10. In a distributed system, there is a high level of cooperation and sharing of actions and data maintained by the sites when determining which process should be loaded and where it should be run. B) False 11. The operating system manages each and every piece of hardware and software. A) True 12. The Memory Manager, the Interface Manager, the User Manager, and the File Manager are the basis of all operating systems.

B) False 13. The File Manager is responsible for data files but not program files. B) False 14. Card systems date from the earliest computers, which relied on punched cards or tape for input when a job was entered by assembling the cards into a deck and running the entire deck of cards through a card reader as a group.

B) False 15. All computers have only a finite amount of memory and if a program doesn t fit, then either the size of the main memory must be increased or the program must be modified. A) True

16. A process is an inactive unit, such as a file stored on a disk.

B) False 17. The Process Scheduler often uses a timing mechanism and periodically interrupts running processes when a predetermined slice of time has expired. A) True

18. First-come, first-served (FCFS) is a preemptive scheduling algorithm that handles jobs according to their arrival time.

B) False19. DASDs are good for files with low activity (the percent of records accessed) or for users who access records in a random fashion. A) True 20.

RAID-0 is ideal for data-critical real-time systems. B) False 21. The File Manager is in charge of the system s ____ components.

C) physical

22. ____ are special files with listings of filenames and their attributes.

C) Directories

23. A ____ is created when a user opens an account to access the computer system.

C) subdirectory

24. As long as users refer to files in the ____ directory, they can access their files without entering the complete name from the highest level to the lowest.

B) working

25. On magnetic disks, files can be organized in one of three ways; ____.

A) sequential, direct, or indexed sequential

26. When using random access files, the program used to store the data follows a set of instructions, called a ____ algorithm, that transforms each key into a number, the record s logical address.

C) hashing

27. In noncontiguous storage, linking can take place at the ____ level where each part of the file points to the next one in the sequence. A) storage 28. The most commonly used access control scheme is the ____. A) access control list

29. ____ compression is a technique used to save space in files.

C) Data 30. Usually, the term ____ indicates a specific location in a network containing one or more computer systems.

B) site

31. The geometric arrangement of connections (cables, wireless, or both) that link the nodes is called a ____.

C) topology

32. In the ____ topology configuration hosts are connected to each other through a central controller which assumes all responsibility for routing messages to the appropriate host. A) star

33. In the ____ topology, hosts are connected to one another in a linear fashion.

B) bus

34. When using a bus topology, ____ sites can successfully send a message at a time. A) 1

35. A ____ is an internetworking device, primarily software driven, which directs traffic between two different types of LANs or two network segments with different protocol addresses.

B) router

36. When using RIP, the path ____ is chosen. B) with the smallest number of hops 37. ____ is a good example of a circuit-switched network. A) A telephone system

38. ____ is true of a NOS.

B) Resources are owned by local nodes.

39. In process-based DO/S, special servers called ____ are responsible for accepting requests for service on the individual devices they control, processing each request fairly, providing service to the requestor, and returning to serve others.

B) guardians

40. If the local device manager cannot satisfy a user s request, the request is sent to ____.

D) a waiting queue

41. ____, part of the operating system, is unique to each operating system. A) User Command Interface 42. The primary distinguishing characteristic of modern computers is ____.

B) processor capacity

43. A thread (or ____) can be defined as a unit smaller than a process, which can be scheduled and executed.

D) lightweight process 44. ____ consists of fragments of free memory between blocks of allocated memory.

D) External fragmentation 45. ____ can be thought of as being an intermediary between main memory and the special-purpose registers, which are the domain of the CPU. B) Cache memory 46. A ____ is a portion of a process that can run independently. A) thread

47.

Some systems increase the priority of jobs that have been in the system for an unusually long time to expedite their exit, which is known as ____.

D) aging 48. No movement between queues is a very simple policy that rewards those who have ____ jobs.

C) high-priority

49. Deadlock occurs on a modern printer when ____. A) The printer needs all of a job s output before it will begin printing, but the spooling system fills the available disk space with only partially completed output.

50. In a directed graph used to model deadlock, ____ represents deadlock.

D) a cycle 51. The scheme of ____ removes the possibility of a circular wait and therefore guarantees the removal of deadlocks. A) hierarchical ordering

52.

The ____ configuration is an asymmetric multiprocessing system. A) master/slave

53. Automatic detection by the compiler of instructions that can be performed in parallel is called ____. A) implicit parallelism

54. In a fixed-head magnetic disk, each circle is called a ____.

C) track

55. The RAID level ____ uses word parity for error correction. A) 3 1. The Memory Manager, the Interface Manager, the User Manager, and the File Manager are the basis of all operating systems.

A. True B. False Wrong Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B Your Response: A 2. The Device Manager monitors every device, channel, and control unit.

A. True B. False Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: A 3. The File Manager is responsible for data files but not program files.

A. True B. False Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: B Your Response: B 4. The central processing unit (CPU) is the brains of the computer with the circuitry to control the interpretation and execution of instructions.

A. True B. False Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: A 5. Until the mid-1970s, all computers were classified by price alone.

A. True B. False Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: B

Your Response: B 6. Onboard systems are computers placed inside other products to add features and capabilities.

A. True B. False Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: B Your Response: B 7. Few major advances were made in data management during the 1960s.

A. True B. False Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: A 8. The fixed partition scheme does not require that the entire program be stored contiguously and in memory from the beginning to the end of its execution.

A. True B. False Wrong Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B Your Response: A 9. A large job can have problems with a first-fit memory allocation list.

A. True B. False

Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: A 10. In the relocatable dynamic partitions scheme, the Memory Manager relocates programs to gather together all of the empty blocks and compact them to make one block of memory large enough to accommodate some or all of the jobs waiting to get in.

A. True B. False Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: A 11. After relocation and compaction, both the free list and the busy list are updated.

A. True B. False Wrong Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: B 12. Compaction should always be performed only when there are jobs waiting to get in. A. True B. False Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: B Your Response: B 13. Each page of a job is actually stored in a page frame that can be located anywhere in available main

memory.

A. True B. False Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: A 14. To find the exact position of an instruction in memory, after the page number has been calculated, the operating system refers to the jobs PMT to find out which page frame contains the page.

A. True B. False Wrong Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: B 15. The address of the beginning of a page frame is found by multiplying the page frame number by the number of frames.

A. True B. False Wrong Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B Your Response: A 16. Demand paging requires that the Page Map Table for each job keep track of each page as it is loaded or removed from main memory.

A. True B. False Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: A 17. The first-in first-out (FIFO) page replacement policy will remove the pages that have been in memory the shortest.

A. True B. False Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: B Your Response: B 18. When using a FIFO scheme, more memory will always result in better performance.

A. True B. False Wrong Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B Your Response: A 19. In general, when a job is allocated to the CPU its Page Map Table is loaded into main memory while the Segment Map Tables are loaded only as needed.

A. True B. False Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: B

Your Response: B 20. A program is an active entity that requires a set of resources, including a processor and special registers, to perform its function.

A. True B. False Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: B Your Response: B 21. A single processor can be shared by several jobs, or several processes, but if, and only if, the operating system has a scheduling policy, as well as a scheduling algorithm, to determine when to stop working on one job and proceed to another.

A. True B. False Wrong Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: B 22. The transition from one job or process status to another is initiated by either the Job Scheduler or the Process Scheduler.

A. True B. False Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: A 23. The Process Scheduler often uses a timing mechanism and periodically interrupts running processes

when a predetermined slice of time has expired.

A. True B. False Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: A 24. Shortest job next (SJN) is a nonpreemptive scheduling algorithm (also known as shortest job first, or SJF) that handles jobs based on the length of their CPU cycle time.

A. True B. False Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: A 25. ____ operating systems are typically used for a network platform.

A. IRIX, UNICOS B. Linux, Macintosh, MS-DOS, Windows 2000/XP C. Linux, NetWare, UNIX, Windows D. IBM OS/390, UNIX Wrong Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: C Your Response: B 26. ____ systems are used in time-critical environments where reliability is key and data must be processed within a strict time limit.

A. Embedded B. Hybrid C. Interactive D. Real-time Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: D Your Response: D 27. A hybrid system is a combination of the ____ systems.

A. batch and interactive B. batch and real-time C. interactive and real-time D. real-time and general-purpose Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: A 28. Second-generation computers were developed to meet the needs of ____.

A. the government B. businesses C. secondary education D. scientific labs Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: B Your Response: B 29. In second-generation computers, to reduce the discrepancy in speed between the I/O and the CPU,

an interface called the ____ was placed between them to act as a buffer.

A. control unit B. scheduler C. holder D. buffer manager Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: A 30. The most common mechanism for implementing multiprogramming was the introduction of the ____ concept, which is when the CPU is notified of events needing operating systems services.

A. paging B. sharing C. messaging D. interrupt Wrong Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: D Your Response: B 31. A typical ____ computer houses devices to perform audio, video, and graphic creation and editing.

A. multiprocessor B. multimedia C. networked D. PDA Right Points Earned: 1/1

Correct Answer: B Your Response: B 32. ____ is the partitioning of a single server, each of which can support a different operating system. A. Multiprocessing B. Multithreading C. Virtualization D. Shared processing Wrong Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: C Your Response: 33. The name for the core part of an operating system is____.

A. manager B. center C. core D. kernel Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: D Your Response: D 34. In a single-user system, jobs are processed ____.

A. sequentially B. intermittently C. randomly D. in order of longest job to shortest job Right Points Earned: 1/1

Correct Answer: A Your Response: A 35. In the algorithm to load a job in a single-user system, the program counter is initially set to ____.

A. the address of the last memory location B. the number of instructions C. zero D. the address of the first memory location Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: D Your Response: D 36. Assume the Memory Manager receives a request for a block of 200. When the best-fit algorithm is used, ____ is the beginning address of the block granted by the Memory Manager. Beginning Address Memory Block Size 4075 105 5225 5 6785 600 7560 20 7600 205 10250 4050 15125 230 24500 1000

A. 6785 B. 7600 C. 10250 D. 15125

Wrong Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B Your Response: C 37. ____ is how memory is deallocated in a fixed partition scheme.

A. Memory Manager releases the block and combines it with another free block. B. Memory Manager immediately gives memory to another program. C. Memory Manager adds block to free list and removes it from busy list. D. Memory Manager resets the status of the memory block where the job was stored to free. Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: D Your Response: D 38. In a dynamic partition scheme, ____, is how the Memory Manager deallocates a block that is between two other free blocks?

A. The sizes of the three free partitions must be combined. B. All three are moved individually from the busy list to the free list. C. The block is combined with the larger of the two adjacent blocks. D. The status of the block is set to free. Wrong Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: B 39. There are ____ entries per page in the PMT.

A. 0 B. 1

C. 2 D. 5 Wrong Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B Your Response: A 40. If a particular demand paging configuration has 9 page interrupts out of 11 page requests, failure rate is ____. A. 18% B. 52% C. 82% D. 95% Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: C Your Response: C 41. In the PMT, the ____ bit for all pages in memory is 1.

A. status B. referenced C. modified D. frame Wrong Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: B 42. The following phrase____,means that during any phase of its execution, the program references only a small fraction of its pages.

A. dynamic paging B. structured programming C. locality of reference D. working set Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: C Your Response: C 43. ____ can be thought of as being an intermediary between main memory and the special-purpose registers, which are the domain of the CPU.

A. Virtual memory B. Cache memory C. Paging D. Segmenting Wrong Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B Your Response: A 44. A ____ is a portion of a process that can run independently.

A. thread B. program C. miniprocess D. subprocess Wrong Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: D 45. When the job is accepted by the system, its put on ____ and placed in a queue.

A. HOLD B. RUNNING C. WAITING D. READY Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: A 46. The transition from ____ is initiated by the Process Scheduler or the Job Scheduler.

A. WAITING to READY B. RUNNING to WAITING C. RUNNING to FINISHED D. HOLD to READY Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: C Your Response: C 47. ____ holds pertinent information, including the address where the job is stored and, in the case of virtual memory, the mapping between virtual and physical memory locations.

A. Main memory B. Register content C. Process priority D. The process state Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A

Your Response: A 48. The first-come, first-served (FCFS) algorithm is fine for most ____ systems.

A. multiuser B. user initied C. interactive D. batch Wrong Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: D Your Response: C 49. The purpose of an extension is to ____. A. identify the directory in which the file is stored B. identify the type of file C. identify the file size D. identify the file owner Right Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: B Your Response: B 50. When using random access files, the program used to store the data follows a set of instructions, called a ____ algorithm, that transforms each key into a number, the records logical address.

A. hashing B. grouping C. translation D. lookup Wrong Points Earned: 0/1

Correct Answer: A Your Response: C ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Points Awarded 100 Points Missed 0 Percentage 100% 1. Deadlock is a system-wide tangle of resource requests that begins when two or more jobs are put on hold, each waiting for a vital resource to become available. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A 2. Locking can be done only at the level of the entire database. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: B 3. A deadlock is preceded by five simultaneous conditions that are not necessary for the operating system to run smoothly. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B 4. In many cases, there exists at least one allocation of resources sequence that will allow jobs to

continue without becoming deadlocked. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A 5. Although the Bankers Algorithm has been used to avoid deadlocks in systems with a few resources, it isnt always practical for most systems. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: A 6. One problem with the Bankers Algorithm is that resources arent well utilized because the algorithm assumes the worst case and, as a result, keeps vital resources unavailable to guard against unsafe states. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A 7. There are several recovery algorithms, but they all have one feature in common: they all require at least one victim, an expendable job, which, when removed from the deadlock, will free the system. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 0/1

Correct Answer: A 8. The master/slave configuration is an symmetric multiprocessing system. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B 9. The symmetric configuration is best implemented if the processors are all of the same type. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A 10. Test-and-set is a single indivisible machine instruction known simply as TS and was introduced by IBM for its multiprocessing System 360/370 computers. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: A 11. The classic problem of producers and consumers is one in which one process produces some data that another process consumes later. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A

12. Implied parallelism includes automatic detection by the compiler of instructions that can be performed in parallel. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B 13. Thread Information Blocks contain basic information about a thread such as its ID, state, and a pointer to the process that created it. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B 14. The universal serial bus (USB) controller acts as an interface between the operating system, device drivers, and applications and the devices that are attached via the USB host. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A 15. Direct access storage devices (DASDs) are devices that can directly read or write to a specific place on a disk. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A 16. Two of the most important measures of optical disc drive performance are sustained data-transfer rate and longest access time. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B 17. DASDs are good for files with low activity (the percent of records accessed) or for users who access records in a random fashion. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A 18. The job of the I/O control unit is to keep up with the I/O requests from the CPU and pass them down the line to the appropriate control unit. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: B 19. Most RAID configurations require fewer disk drives, which decreases hardware costs. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B 20. RAID Level 0 is the only one that does not provide error correction, or redundancy, and so it is not considered a true form of RAID because it cannot recover from hardware failure. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A 21. Additional complex configurations of RAID can be created by combining multiple levels. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A 22. The File Manager is in charge of the systems physical components, its information resources, and the policies used to store and distribute the files. A. True B. False Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A 23. Examples of batch commands are CREATE, DELETE, RENAME, and COPY. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 0/1

Correct Answer: B 24. Each volume can only contain a single file. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: B 25. In newer operating systems, a subdirectory is created when a user opens an account to access the computer system. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A 26. Tree structures are inefficient for searching because there are fewer entries in each directory. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B 27. An extension is usually two or three characters long and is separated from the relative name by a period. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1

Correct Answer: A 28. When someone creates a folder, the system creates a subdirectory in the current directory or folder. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: A 29. Sequential record organization is by far the easiest to implement because records are stored and retrieved serially, one after the other. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A 30. Access methods are dictated by a files organization; the most flexibility is allowed with indexed sequential files and the least with sequential. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A 31. A magneto-optical (MO) disk drive combines the technology of magnetic disks with that of optical discs. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 1/1

Correct Answer: A 32. First-come, first-served (FCFS) is the simplest device-scheduling algorithm. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: A 33. The SCAN algorithm moves the arm methodically from the inner to the outer track, servicing every request in its path. A. True B. False

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B 34. Interactive systems generally improve the use of resources through ____ resource sharing, but this resource sharing capability also increases the possibility of deadlocks. A. interspersed B. group C. dynamic D. static

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: C 35. Fill in the missing event that causes deadlock in a database. There are two processes (P1 and P2), each of which needs to update two records (R1 and R2) and the following sequence leads to a deadlock: 1. P1 accesses R1 and locks it. 2. P2 accesses R2 and locks it.

3. ____ 4. P2 requests R1, which is locked by P1. A. P2 releases R2. B. P1 requests R1 again. C. P1 requests R2, which is locked by P2. D. P2 releases R1.

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: C 36. ____ is when, in modern printing systems, a disk accepts output from several users and acts as a temporary storage area for all output until the printer is ready to accept it. A. Buffering B. Lagging C. Spooling D. Spoofing

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: C 37. A network thats congested or has filled a large percentage of its I/O buffer space can become deadlocked if it doesnt have ____ to control the flow of messages through the network. A. procedures B. protocols C. policies D. rules

Points Earned: 1/1

Correct Answer: B 38. ____ showed how the four conditions can be modeled using directed graphs. A. Havender B. Holt C. Dijkstra D. Lane & Mooney

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: B 39. ____ is necessary in any computer system because some resources such as memory, CPU, and dedicated devices must be exclusively allocated to one user at a time. A. Mutual exclusion B. Resource holding C. No preemption D. Circular wait

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A Your Response: A 40. ____ developed the Bankers Algorithm. A. Havender B. Holt C. Dijkstra D. Lane & Mooney

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: C

41. In the dining philosophers problem, a philosopher can pick up a fork when____. A. When there is one available B. When there are two available C. When no other philosopher is eating D. When it is his turn, going in numerical order from one philosopher to the next

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B 42. The ____ configuration is the most difficult to implement. A. master/slave B. loosely coupled C. symmetric D. shared load

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: C 43. When a computer evaluates the expression A = 3 * B * C + 4 / (D + E) ** (F G), in a sequential manner, ____ is evaluated as a first step. A. F G B. 3 * B C. C + 4 D. B * C

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: A 44. Most current operating systems support the implementation of threads, or ____, which have

become part of numerous application packages. A. parallel processes B. lightweight processes C. heavyweight processes D. semaphores

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B 45. Each active thread in a process shares the ____ and the resources allocated to its process. A. processor registers B. program counter C. data area D. status

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: C 46. Once a thread is in the ready state, the state it can enter next is ____. A. BLOCKED B. FINISHED C. WAITING D. RUNNING

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: D 47. A thread transitions from RUNNING to ____ when it has to wait for an event outside its control to occur. A. LOOPING

B. BLOCKED C. WAITING D. PENDING

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: C 48. The USB controller assigns bandwidth to each device depending on its priority, and the ____ priority is assigned to real-time exchanges where no interruption in the data flow is allowed, such as video or sound data. A. highest B. medium C. lowest D. standard

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: A 49. Movable-head magnetic disks, such as the computer hard drive, have ____ read/write head(s). A. zero B. one C. two D. four

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B 50. The data-transfer rate for an optical disc is measured in ____ and refers to the speed at which massive amounts of data can be read from the disc. A. kilobytes

B. megabytes C. gigabytes D. terabytes

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: B 51. ____ control the transfer of information between the disk drives and the rest of the computer system. A. System controllers B. Disk drive controllers C. System interfaces D. Disk drive interfaces

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: D 52. The File Manager writes the volume name and other descriptive information on an easy-to-access place on each unit: ____ of the CD or DVD. A. the outermost part B. the innermost part C. immediately following the master file directory D. stored at the beginning of the volume

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B 53. A ____ is created when a user opens an account to access the computer system. A. directory

B. volume C. subdirectory D. MFD

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: C 54. For every file request, the ____ is the point of entry. A. file location B. volume location C. subdirectory D. MFD

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: D 55. The purpose of an extension is to ____. A. identify the directory in which the file is stored B. identify the type of file C. identify the file size D. identify the file owner

Points Earned: 1/1 Correct Answer: B 56. On magnetic disks, files can be organized in one of three ways; ____. A. indexed direct, indexed indirect, or random B. sequential, indirect, or direct C. sequential, random, or indirect D. sequential, direct, or indexed sequential

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: D 57. When using random access files, the program used to store the data follows a set of instructions, called a ____ algorithm, that transforms each key into a number, the records logical address. A. hashing B. grouping C. translation D. lookup

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: A 58. The primary disadvantage of contiguous storage is that ____. A. it is hard to implement and manage B. it is difficult to find information in files C. file cant be expanded unless there is empty space available immediately following it D. it is an inefficient use of space

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: C 59. ____ allocation allows files to use any storage space available on the disk. A. Contiguous storage B. Noncontiguous storage C. Fragmented storage D. Add-on storage

Points Earned: 0/1

Correct Answer: B 60. The File Manager uses the address of the ____ to access the next sequential record. A. first byte read B. last byte read C. first byte in the file D. index record

Points Earned: 0/1 Correct Answer: B