APPSC Model Exam_Paper -I I I CI VI L

ACE
Engineering Academy
APPSC 2012 (Model Exam (PAPER III))
SUB: Civil Engineering Subjects
Branch: Civil Engineering
Time : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 150
01. For a flow of 5.7 MLD (million liters per day) and a detention time of 2 hours, the
surface area of a rectangular sedimentation tank to remove all particles having settling
velocity of 0.33 mm/s is
(a) 20 m
2
(b) 100m
2
(c) 200m
2
(d) 400m
2
02 A sewer pipe contains 1mm sand particles of specific gravity 2.65 and 5mm organic
particles of specific gravity 1.2, the minimum velocity required for removing the
sewerage, is
(a) 0.30m/sec (b) 0.35m/sec (c) 0.40m/sec (d) 0.45m/sec
03. Cement concrete sewers are only suitable if non-scouring velocity is between
(a) 2.5 to 3.0m/sec (b) 3.0 to 4.0m/sec (c) 3.5 to 4.5m/sec (d) 4.5 to 5.5m/sec
04. The spacing of man holes along a straight portion of a sewer is 300m, the diameter of
the sewer may be
(a) 0.9cm (b) 1.2m (c) 1.5m (d) > 1.5m
05. The standard B.O.D of water is taken for
(a) 1 day (b) 2 days (c) 10 days (d) 5 days
06. If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 2.5mg/litre after incubating 2.5ml of sewage
diluted to 250 ml for 5 days at 20
0
C. B.O.D of the sewage is
(a) 50mg/l (b) 100mg/l (c) 150mg/l (d) 250mg/l
07. In a sedimentation tank (length L, width B, depth D) the settling velocity of a particle for
a discharge Q, is
(a)
D B
Q

(b)
D L
Q

(c)
L
Q
(d)
L B
Q

08. Oxidation process results in the formation of

(a) carbon dioxide (b) nitrates (c)sulphates (d) all the above
09. Traps
(a) are water seals which prevent the entry of foul gases
(b) are used to trap the rats entering sewers
(c) dissolve the foul gases
(d) create symphonic action to increase the quick disposal of sewerage.
APPSC Model Exam_Paper -I I I CI VI L
10. The average domestic consumption under normal conditions in an Indian city per day
per person, is
(a) 105 litres (b) 115 litres (c) 125 litres (d) 135 litres
11. The process of passing water through beds of granular materials, is called.
(a) screening (b) sedimentation (c) filtration (d) none of these
12. Most satisfactory formula for an estimate of fire demand Q for a city of population P in
thousands for Indian conditions, is
(a)
|
.
|

\
|
+ = 20
5
P
1115 Q (b) , , P 1 . 0 1 P 1640 Q =
(c) P 3180 Q = (d) none of these
13. If G is the specific gravity of particles of diameter d, the velocity of settlement V in still
water at T
0
C, according to stoke slaw, is
(a) , ,
|
.
|

\
| +
=
100
70 T 3
d 1 G 418 V
2
(b) , ,
|
.
|

\
|
=
100
70 T 3
d G 1 418 V
(c) , ,
|
.
|

\
| +
=
100
70 T 2
d G 1 418 V
2
(d) , ,
|
.
|

\
| +
=
100
70 T 3
d 1 G 418 V
3
14 Detention time for plain sedimentation tank usually ranges from
(a) 2 to 4 hours (b) 4 to 8 hours (c) 6 to 10 hours (d) 8 to 12 hours
15. In moment distribution method the sum of distribution factors of all the members
meeting at any joint is always
(a) zero (b) <1 (c) >1 (d) = 1
16. The absolute stiffness of a prismatic member with one end hinged is
(a)

EI 2
(b)

EI 4
(c)

EI 3
(d) none
17. The fixed end of a continuous beam in three moment method is replacement by an
addition at span of length
(a) zero length (b) equal to other span lengths
(c) infinite length (d) None of the above
18. The stiffness method in structural analysis is also known as
(a) unit load method (b) consistent deformation method
(c) force method (d) Displacement method
19. The force in member PQ of the truss PQR is
(a) F (compression)
(b) 2 F (compression)
(c) F (tension)
(d) 2 / F (tension)
p
Q
F
R
45
0
APPSC Model Exam_Paper -I I I CI VI L
20. In a linear elastic structural element
(a) stiffness is directly proportional to flexibility
(b) stiffness is inversely proportional to flexibility
(c) stiffness is equal to flexibility
(d) stiffness and flexibility are not related
21. For a linear elastic material. Where U = strain energy, C= complementary energy
(a) U > C (b) U = C (c) U < C (d) None of the
above
22. A single bay storey portal frame has a hinged left support and a fixed right support. It is
loaded with uniformly distributed load on the beam. Which one of the following
statements is true with regard to the deformation of the frame?
(a) It would sway to the left side (b) It would sway to the right side
(c) It would not sway at all (d) None of the above
23. In an indeterminate structure, when there is no lack of fit, the partial derivative of strain
energy with respect to any of the redundants
(a) is zero
(b) will give deflection in the direction of redundant
(c) will give slope in the direction of redundant
(d) is a maximum
24. The strain energy stored in simply supported beam of span l and flexural rigidity EI
due to a central concentrated load W is
(a)
EI 48
1 W
3 2
(b)
EI 48
1 W
2 2
(c)
EI 96
1 W
3 2
(d)
EI 96
1 W
3 2
25. A propped cantilever of span I carries a uniformly distributed load of W per unit run
over its entire span. The value of prop reaction to keep the beam horizontal is
(a)
3
wI
(b) wI
8
3
(c)
2
wI
(d) wI
8
5
26. In a plane truss, if M is the number of members, R is the number of reactions and J
is the number of jopints, then for this truss to be determinate
(a) J = M+R (b) J = 2M+R (c) 3J=M+2R (d) 2J = M+R
27. Thiesson polygons
(a) Define the zone of influence of each station
(b) Define the zones of equal precipitation
(c) Are graphical representation of arithmetic mean data
(d) An accurate method of estimating rainfall data
28. If the duration of the unity hydrograph decreases infinitely, approaching zero, the unit
hydrograph becomes
(a) Instantaneous unit hydrograph (b) Constant unit hydrograph
(c) straight line hydrograph (d) poly unit hydrograph
APPSC Model Exam_Paper -I I I CI VI L
29. A double mass analysis is made
(a) to find the missing rainfall at a station in a particular area
(b) to direct any change in exposure of a station
(c) to study change in rainfall pattern
(d) to predict rainfall in the following years
30 When I is the inflow, O is the outflow and As the change in storage then the hydrologic
equation can be written as
(a) I = O. As (b) O =I. As (c) O + I+As=02 (d) I = O+As
31. The methods of mitigating floods are
(a) by temporary evacuation of low lying areas and flood warnings
(b) by construction of levees, flood banks and dykes
(c) by channel improvement
(d) all of the above
32. In case a 4 hour unit hydrograph area catchment has a peak ordinate of 60 m
3
/s, the peak
ordinate of an 8 hour unit hydrograph for the same catchment will be
(a) 60m
3
/s (b) less than 60m
3
/s
(c) more than 60m
3
/s (d) none of the above
33. Balancing depth of excavation of a canal is one for which
(a) section is economical
(b) volume of excavation is equal to volume of filling in banks
(c) both the above
(d) depth of flow is equal to height of banks
34. The stone cover laid to protect the face of the guide bank at river bed level is called
(a) launching apron (b) blanket (c) cut-off (d) curtain.
35. Elementary profile of a gravity dam is
(a) a trapezoidal figure (b) a pyramid
(c) a right angled triangle (d) a rectangle
36. The curved swellings from the growth of layers or wounds left after branches are cut off
in an irregular manner, are known as
(a) knots (b) rindgalls (c) burls (d) none of these
37. Due to attack of dry rot, the timber
(a) cracks (b) shrinks (c) reduces to powder (d) none of these
38. Seasoning of timber is done for
(a) increasing moisture content (b) decreasing moisture content
(c) increasing strength of timber (d) none to these
39. Dry rot
(a) cracks the timber (b) reduces the strength of timber
(c) reduces the timber to powder (d) shrinks the timber
APPSC Model Exam_Paper -I I I CI VI L
40. The weight of a good quality brick when immersed in water for a period of 16 hours
should not exceed the weight of dry brick
(a) 20% (b) 15% (c) 10% (d) None of these
41. Sea sand used in structures causes
(a) dampness (b) efforescence (c) disintegration (d) all of these
42. Pick up the compound responsible for early strength of cement, from the following:
(a) Tetra-calcium alumino-ferrite (b) Tricalcium silicate
(c) Tricalcium aluminate (d) Dicalcium silicate
43 The presence of original rounded surface on the manufactured piece of timber, is called
(a) wane (b) Torn grain (c) Diagonal grain (d) Chipmark
44. For a 50kg cement bag water required, is
(a) 16.5 liters (b) 18.5 liters (c) 20.5 liters (d) 22.5 liters
45. A badly mixed cement concrete results in
(a) segregation (b) bleeding (c) honey combing (d) none to these.
46. Slump test for concrete is carried out, to determine
(a) strength (b) durability (c) workability (d) water content
47. Soundness test of cement determines
(a) quality of free lime (b) ultimate strength
(c) durability (d) initial setting
48. Ultimate strength to cement is provided by
(a) Tricalcium silicate (b) Di-calcium silicate
(c) Tri-calcium aluminate (d) Tri calcium aluminate
49. To retard the initial setting time of cement, the compound responsible, is
(a) Tricalcium silicate (b) Gypsum
(c) Di-calcium aluminate (d) Tricalcium aluminate
50. The commonly used raw material in the manufacture of cement, is
(a) slate (b) sand stone (c) lime stone (d) basalt
51. The ratio of Youngs modulus of elasticity for steel to that for concrete is known as
(a) specific ration (b) modular ratio (c) poissons ratio (d) elasticity ratio
52. A rectangular simply supported prestressed concrete beam of span L is subjected to a
prestressing force of P acting centrally at endsection and the prestress tendons are
parabolically draped with maximum eccentricity of e
max
at the mid-span section.
The uniform distributed upward load(w) on the beam due to prestressing will be
(a)
2
max
L
e . P 16
(b)
2
max
L
e . P 4
(c)
2
max
L
e . P 12
(d)
2
max
L
e . P 8
APPSC Model Exam_Paper -I I I CI VI L
53. The lateral ties in a reinforced concrete rectangular column under axial compression are
used to
(a) avoid the buckling of the longitudinal steel under compression
(b) provide adequate shear capacity
(c) provide adequate confinement to concrete
(d) reduce the axial deformation of the column
54. A reinforced concrete member is subjected to a combined action of compressive axial
force and bending moment. If c
c
is the least compressive strain in the member f
y
, the
yield stress of steel and E
s
, the modulus of elasticity of steel, the maximum permissible
compressive strain in concrete member will be
(a) 0.002 (b) 0.002+f
y
/(1.15E
s
) (c) 0.00350.75c
c
(d) 0.0035
55. A uniformly distributed load intensity, w, acting on a simply supported prestressed
concrete beam of span L, producing a bending moment M at mid-span is to be balanced
by a parabolic tendon with zero eccentricity at ends and eccentricity e at mid-span. The
prestressing force required depends on
(a) w and e (b) w and L (c) L and e (d) M and e
56. The maximum value of span/depth ratio permissible in case of simply supported RCC
beam is
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 40
57. The effective depth of R.C.C. beam is taken as the depth from topmost compressive
fibre to the
(a) top of the tensile steel reinforcement
(b) bottom of the tensile steel reinforcement
(c) centre of gravity of the tensile steel
(d) bottom of the beam
58. In the limit state design of concrete structure, the strain distribution is assumed to be
(a) linear (b) non linear
(c) parabolic (d) parabolic and rectangular
59. For a reinforced concrete section the shape of shear stress diagram is
(a) wholly rectangular (b) wholly parabolic
(c) rectangular above neutral axis and parabolic below neutral axis
(d) parabolic above neutral axis and rectangular below neutral axis
60. If a beam fails in bond, it would be best to
(a) increase the depth of beam (b) use thinner but more number of bars
(c) use thicker but less number of bars (d) providing vertical stirrups
61. M
ult
of a singly reinforced balanced RC rectangular beam section is
(a) 0.115 f
ck
bd
2
(b) 0.135 f
ck
bd
2
(c) 0.185 f
ck
bd
2
(d) 0.225 f
ck
bd
2
APPSC Model Exam_Paper -I I I CI VI L
62. The loads to be taken corresponding to limit states of strength, deflection and crack
width are respectively
(a) working load, working load and working load
(b) ultimate load, working load and ultimate load
(c) ultimate load, ultimate load and working load
(d) ultimate load, working load and working load
63. The maximum deflection due to load in RCC beams in buildings is limited to
(a)
100
span
(b)
250
span
(c)
350
span
(d)
500
span
64. A doubly reinforced beam is used when
(a) extra safety is needed
(b) beam experiences tension in top as well as bottom fibres
(c) large moment is experienced by the beam
(d) depth of the beam have to be restricted in size
65. Concordant profile represents, for a certain set of external loads to some scale, the
(a) bending moment diagram (b) Willot-Mohr diagram
(c) shear force diagram (d) influence line diagram
66. Primary torsion occurs in the ease of
(a) a simply supported, but laterally restrained beam subjected to eccentric loading along
the span
(b) the edge beam of a building frame
(c) shells elastically resttained by edge beams
(d) a cantilever beam subjected to uniformly distributed load along the span
67. For RCC columns, a column is considered to be short if the effective length oto the lease
side ratio is less than
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 24 (d) 30
68. For maximum sagging bending moment at support in a continuous RC beam, live load
should be placed on
(a) spans adjacent to the support plus alternate span
(b) all the spans except the spans adjacent to the support
(c) spans next to the adjacent span of the support plus alternate spans
(d) spans adjacent to supports only
69. True meridian passes through
(a) actual line of control (b) a fixed point
(c) true north and true south (d) equatorial line
70. The graduated ring of a prismatic compass is graduated in
(a) whole circle bearing system (b) quadrantal bearing system
(c) radian bearing system (d) any of the system mentioned above
71. Any convenient direction towards a permanent or prominent mark is called
(a) fixed meridian (b) set meridian
(c) convenient meridian (d) arbitrary meridian
APPSC Model Exam_Paper -I I I CI VI L
72. If n is the number of sides, then the total sum of exterior angles of a closed traverse
should be
(a) n + 2 (b) 2n 4 (c) 2n + 4 (d) 4n 2
73. The imaginary line joining the points of zero declination on the surface of the earth is
called as
(a) isogonic line (b) isoclinic line
(c) agonic line (d) magnetic declination line
74. When the length of a chain along a slope of u is (l), the correction for slope required is
(a) l(1 - sinu) (b) l(1 - tanu) (c) l(1 - cosu) (d) l(1 cos
2
u)
75. In case where there is no obstacle to chaining but ranging is obstructed, the two end
stations (to be connected by a lir.e) being not intervisible, if both end stations are visible
from intermediate points on the line, then the problem can be resolved by
(a) reciprocal leveling (b) reciprocal ranging
(c) random line ranging (d) line ranger
76. Geodetic survey is different from plane surveying because of
(a) very large area is covered
(b) the curvature of the earth is considered
(c) the topography is bad
(d) the large difference of elevations
77. The representative fraction is
000 , 00 , 1
1
signifies a scale of
(a) 1 cm = 100000 m (b) 1 cm = 10 kilometres
(c) 1 cm = 1 kilometre (d) None of the above
78. The errors which are variable in sign (plus error tending to be as frequent as minus
errors) and tends to balance out in the final results are called
(a) cumulative errors (b) compensating erros
(c) chord scale (d) vernier scale
79. Concrete pavement is provided if daily traffic per lane exceeds
(a) 500 tonnes (b) 750 tonnes (c) 1000 tonnes (d) 1250 tonnes
80. The width formation of a road means the width of
(a) carriageway (b) pavement and shoulders
(c) embankment at ground level (d) embankment at the top level
81. Raising of outer edge of a road with respect to inner edge, is known
(a) super elevation (b) cant (c) banking (d) all the above
82. Non-passing sight distance along a road is the longest distance at which the driver of a
moving vehicle, may see an obstacle on the pavement
(a) 10 cm high (b) 25 cm high (c) 50 cm high (d) 100 cm high
APPSC Model Exam_Paper -I I I CI VI L
83. The distance traveled by a moving vehicle during perception and brake reaction times, is
known as
(a) sight distance (b) stopping distance (c) lag distance (d) none of these
84. Any gradient on a road is said to be an exceptional gradient, if it is
(a) more than ruling gradient (b) less than average gradient
(c) more than floating gradient
(d) less than minimum gradient or more than maximum gradient
85. If A is the projected area of a vehicle in square metres, V is speed of the vehicles in
kilometers per hour and C is a constant, then the wind resistance R to the moving
vehicles, is given by
(a) R = CAV (b) R = CAV
2
(c) R = CAV
3
(d)
C
AV
2
86. To compensate the loss of tractive force of vehicles along curves of radius R, the
percentage reduction of gradient, is
(a)
R
50
(b)
R
75
(c)
R
100
(d)
R
125
87. An ideal vertical curve is
(a) true spiral (b) cubic spiral (c) cubic parabala (d) none of these
88. Maximum super-elevation on hill roads should not exceed
(a) 5% (b) 7% (c) 8% (d) 10%
89. If N is the algebraic difference of grades, S is the head light beam distance in metres, the
length (L) of a valley curve, is
(a)
4
2
NS
(b)
6
2
NS
(c)
6 . 9
2
NS
(d)
8 . 4
2
NS
90. Transverse joints are provided at distances varying from
(a) 10 m to 15 m (b) 12 m to 18 m (c) 16 m to 24 m (d) 17 m to 27 m
91. If the velocity of moving vehicles on a road is 24 km/per hour, stopping distances is 19
metres and average length of vehicles is 6 metres, the basic capacity of lane, is
(a) 500 vehicles per hour (b) 700 vehicles per hour
(c) 1000 vehicles per hour (d) 1250 vehicles per hour
92. If cross slope of a country is greater than 60%. the terrain is classified as
(a) rolling (b) mountainous (c) steep (d) plain
93. The total value of extra widening required at a horizontal curve on a two lane hill road
of radius 42 m for a design speed of 50 kmph and for vehicles with wheel base 6m, is
(a) 0.500m (b) 0.589m (c) 1.089m (d) 0.089m
94. Enoscope is used to determine
(a) spot speed (b) average speed (c) travel time (d) none of these
APPSC Model Exam_Paper -I I I CI VI L
95. Increase in percentage carbon content in steel causes
(a) Decrease in strength (b) decrease in hardness
(c) Decrease in ductility (d) decrease in brittleness
96. Which of the following member is a strut
(a) Tension member (b) flexural member
(c) Torsion member (d) compression member
97. If a member is likely to be subjected to torsion, which of the most efficient section is
(a) Angle (b) Channel (c) Box (d) any one of above
98. Economic range of spacing of roof truss is
(a) span/2 to span/3 (b) span/3 to span/5
(c) span/2 to span/4 (d) span/3 to span/ 4
99. Web crippling in steel beams generally occur at the point
(a) Bending moment is maximum (b) Deflection is maximum
(b) Heavy concentrated load (d) shear foce is maximum
100. For simply supported steel beam a maximum deflection allowed is
(a) span/1000 (b) span/750 (c) span/600 (d) span/325
101. Bureau of Indian standard proposed to use angle purlin when slope of roof is
(a) Greater than 30
0
(b) less than 30
0
(c) Greater than 60
0
(d) less than 60
0
102. For determination of allowable axial compressive stress as per IS 800-1984 has
recommended to use
(a) Merchant rankine formula (b) Eular formula
(c) Secant formula (d) Perry Robertson formula
103. The maximum size of the fillet weld that can be applied to toe of an angle or the round
edge should be
(a) 1.5mm less than thickness of round edge (b) 0.75 times thickness of round edge
(c) Thickness of round edge (d) 1.5 mm more than thickness of edge
104. The effective throat thickness of a fillet weld is
(a) Equal to size of weld (b) 2 times size of weld
(c) Function of angle between fusion faces (d) Hypotenuse of the fillet weld
105. Which of the following joint is having highest efficiency
(a) Riveted joint (b) bolted joint (c) Pin joint (d) welded joint
APPSC Model Exam_Paper -I I I CI VI L
106. Match list I (Type of load/application) with List-II (maximum pitch) and select correct
answers using the code given below list (where t is the thickness of thinner member)
List I List-II
A. Tensile 1. 12 t or 200 mm whichever is less
B.Compressive 2. 32 t or 300 mm whichever is less
C. Stitch rivets 3. 16 t or 200 mm whichever is less
Codes A B C A B C
(a) 3 1 2 (b) 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 3 (d) 2 3 1
107. For stiff clays with permeability less than 1 x 10
-6
cm/sec, the permeability test
recommended is
a) constant head test b) variable head test
c) consolidation test d) capillarity permeability test
108. Due to rise in temperature the viscosity and the unit weight of the percolating fluid are
reduced by 25% and 10 % respectively. If other parameters remain constant, the
coefficient of permeability
(a) increaser by 25% b) decrease by 2.5%
(c) increase by 50% (d) increase by 20%
109. The pressure head at the intersection of the phreatic line and any equipotential line is
(a) zero b) unity c) > 0 d) < 0
110. Soils, that are most susceptible to piping failure are
a) clays and silts b) sands and Gravel
c) Gravel and silts d) fine sand and silts
111. The floating foundation is one that
(a) floats on water (b) transfer no load t the underneath soil
(c) is subjected to uplift pressure equal to the structural load
(d) transfers no net pressure to the sub soil
112. Westergaards equation is best suited to estimate vertical stress in the case of
a) Caliche b) Talus c) Varved clay d) loess
113. During consolidation process, degree of saturation of the soil
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) remain same
d) initially decrease afterwards increases
114. The phenomenon of increase in volume of dense sand and over consolidated clays
during shearing is called
(a) liquefaction (b) Thixotropy (c) Dilation (d) Dessication
115. Standard penetration test (SPT) was conducted at a site. The recorded values of blow
count for every 15 cm penetration at a depth of 2 m are 8, 10, 15 respectively. The
value of SPT blow count (N) is
(a) 25 (b) 18 (c) 33 (d) 11
APPSC Model Exam_Paper -I I I CI VI L
116. A canal is excavated to a depth of 5 m below G.L. in a soil with c is 1.5 t/m
2
,
saturated unit weight is 2 t/m
3
. if the stability number for the condition is 0.1 the
factor of safety of slope when it runs full is
(a) 1 (b) 1.5 (c) 2 (d) 3
117. Lime stabilization technique for ground improvement is effective in case of
(a) Loose sand (b) silt (c) plastic clay (d) silty sand
118. When the water table rises to the G.L. then the bearing capacity of clayey soils
(a) decrease about 50 % (b) increases about 50 %
(c) decrease about 25% (d) doesnt vary
119. The depth of water for a crop having duty equal to 864 hectares / cumec and base
period 150 days is
(a) 120 cm (b) 150 cm (c) 200 cm (d) none of the above
120. The entry of silt into the canal can be controlled by
(a) Slit extractor (b) Slit excluder (c) Slit ejector (d) Head regulator
121. The ratio of quantity of water stored into the root zone of the crop to the quantity of
water delivered in the field is called
(a) Efficiency of water conveyance (b) Efficiency of water application
(c) Efficiency of water storage (d) Efficiency of water use
122. A canal aligned along a watershed and running along the watershed is called
(a) Side slope canal (b) ridge canal (c) Contour canal (d) Feeder canal
123. The hydraulic gradient using Blighs creep theory for a given diagram is
(a) 1 in 12 H = 5 m
(b) 1 in 10
(c) 1 in 20
(d) none of the above 4 m 32 m
5 m
124. The coefficient of discharge of an ogee spillway is about
(a) 2/3 (b) 1.5 (c) 1.85 (d) 2.2
125. The units of intrinsic permeability are
(a) cm
2
/sec (b) cm/sec (c) cm
2
(d) cm
126. The direct runoff Hydrograph of a storm obtained from a catchment is in the form of a
triangle with a base of 60 hours and a peak discharge of 30 m
3
/sec. If the catchment area
is 90 km
2
then the rainfall excess that has resulted the above hydrograph is
(a) 6.18 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 4.4 cm (d) 3.6 cm
127 A 6 h storm occurred with hourly intensities of 7, 18, 25, 12, 10 and 3 mm/h. If the |
- index is 6mm/h, then the resulting run off will be
(a) 42mm (b) 33 mm (c) 39mm (d) zero
APPSC Model Exam_Paper -I I I CI VI L
128. The most commonly used probability distribution to fit the flood data is
(a) Normal distribution (b) Gumbels distribution
(c) | - distribution (d) All the above
129. Muskingum method is used for
(a) channel routing (b) Reservoir routing
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) Recurrence interval calculation
130. The ratio of the total number of streams draining the basin to the basin area is known
as
(a) Drainage density b) Stream density
(c) Drainage efficiency (d) All the above
131. The cost slope is defined as
a) Crash cost - Normal cost b) Crash cost - Normal cost
Normal time Crash time
c) Crash cost - Normal cost d) Normal cost - Crash cost
Normal time- Crash time Normal time - Crash time
132. The optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic estimates of time for an activity are 4 days,
11 days and 12 days respectively. The expected completion time of this activity is
a) 8 days b) 9 days c) 10 days d) 11 days
133. The phreatic line in an earth dam may be
(a) Circular (b) elliptical (c) parabolic (d) a straight line
134. The maximum shear stress occurs on the filament which makes an angle with the
horizontal plane equal to
(a) 30 (b) 45 (c) 60 (d) 90
135. A soil mass is said to be in plastic equilibrium if
(a) it is stresses to maximum (b) it is on the verge of failure
(c) it is in plastic stage (d) it starts flowing
136. The intensity of active earth pressure at a depth of 10 metres in dry cohesionless sand
with an angle of internal friction of 30 and with a weight of 1.8 t/m
3
, is
(a) 4 t/m
2
(b) 5 t/m
2
(c) 6 t/m
2
7 t/m
2
137. Pile foundations are generally preferred to for
(a) bridge foundations (b) sky scrapper buildings
(c) residential buildings (d) runways
138. A pile is being driven with a drop hammer weighing 1800 kg and having a free fall of
1.00m. If the penetration with last blow is 5 mm, the load carrying capacity of the pile,
according to the Engineering News formula, is
(a) 100 tonnes (b) 50 tonnes (c) 20 tonnes (d) 10 tonnes
139. A stratum of clay 2 m thick will get consolidated 80% in 10 years. For the 80%
consolidation of 8 m thick stratum of the same clay, the time required is
(a) 100 years (b) 120 years (c) 140 years (d) 160 years
APPSC Model Exam_Paper -I I I CI VI L
140. Si particles
(a) show dilatancy (b) swell when moist
(c) possess high strength when dry (d) disintegrate easily
141. Military organization is known as
(a) line organization (b) line and staff organization
(c) functional organization (d) none of these
142. Final technical authority of a project lies with
(a) Assistant Engineering (b) Executive Engineer
(c) Superintending Engineer (d) Chief Engineer
143. The difference between the time available to do a job and the time required to the job,
known as
(a) event (b) float (c) duration (d) constraint
144. Critical path lies along the activities having total float
(a) positive (b) negative (c) zero (d) same
145. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(a) The activity is the time consuming part of a project
(b) The beginning and end of a job, are called events
(c) The activity which consumes maximum time, is called a node
(d) Logically and sequentially connected activities and events form a network
146. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(a) The difference of latest occurrence time and earliest expected time, is called slack
(b) The activities connecting the events having zero slack, lie on the critical path
(c) The critical path consumes the maximum time
(d) All the above
147. Lacys regime condition is obtained if
(a) silt grade in the channel is variable (b) discharge in the channel is variable
(c) silt charge in the channel is variable
(d) channel flows in unlimited, incoherent alluvium of the same character as that
transported material
148. For cereal crops the most commonly adopted method of irrigation, is
(a) free flowing method (b) check method
(c) furrow method (d) sprinkling method
149. An outlet which maintains a constant discharge irrespective of fluctuation in the water
levels of the supplying channel or water course, is known as
(a) non-modular outlet (b) semi-modular outlet
(c) flexible modular outlet (d) right modular outlet
150. A fall in a canal bed is generally provided, if
(a) ground slope exceeds the designed bed slope
(b) designed bed slope exceeds the ground slope
(c) ground slope is practically the same as the designed bed slope
(d) none of these