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Question 1 Which of the following are true regarding bridges and switches? (Choose two) A.

Bridges are faster than switches because they have fewer ports. B. A switch is a multiport bridge. C. Bridges and switches learn MAC addresses by examining the source MAC address of each frame received. D. A bridge will forward a broadcast but a switch will not. E. Bridges and switches increase the size of a collision domain.

Answer: B C Question 2 Which two commands correctly verily whether port security has been configured on port FastEthernet 0/12 on a switch? (Choose two) A. SW1# show switchport port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12 B. SW1# show switchport port-secure interface FastEthernet 0/12 C. SW1# show port-security interface FastEthernet 0/12 D. SW1# show running-config

Answer: C D Explanation We can verify whether port security has been configured by using the show running-config or show port-security interface <interface> for more detail. An example of the output of show port-security interface <interface> command is shown below:

Question 3 Assuming the default switch configuration which vlan range can be added modified and removed on a Cisco switch? A. 2 through 1001 B. 1 through 1001

C. 1 through 1002 D. 2 through 1005

Answer: A Explanation VLAN 1 is the default VLAN on Cisco switch. It always exists and can not be added, modified or removed. VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs for FDDI & Token Ring and they cant be deleted or used for Ethernet.

Question 4 Refer to the exhibit. This command is executed on 2960Switch: 2960Switch(config)# mac-address-table static 0000.00aa.aaaa vlan 10 interface fa0/1 Which two of these statements correctly identify results of executing the command? (Choose two)

A. Port security is implemented on the fa0/1 interface. B. MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa does not need to be learned by this switch. C. Only MAC address0000.00aa.aaaa can source frames on the fa0/1 segment. D. Frames with a Layer 2 source address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1. E. MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa will be listed in the MAC address table for interface fa0/1 only.

Answer: B E Explanation The above command adds the MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa to the MAC address table of the switch. This is called static MAC address. Static addresses have the following characteristics: * Static addresses will not be removed from the address table when a given interface link is down. * Static addresses are bound to the assigned interface and will not be moved. When a static address is seen on another interface, the address will be ignored and will not be written to the address table. * A static address cannot be learned on another port until the address is removed with the no form of this command. Static MAC address is not a Port Security feature -> A is not correct. If the MAC address 0000.00aa.aaaa is seen again (on fa0/1 or other ports), it does not need to be learned because it already exists in the MAC address table of the switch -> B is correct. Although configured with a static MAC address, switch can still learn other MAC addresses dynamically -> C is not correct. Frames with a Layer 2 destination address (not source address) of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1 -> D is not correct. Question 5 Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer? A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1 B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1 C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1 D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1

Answer: C Explanation

Port security is only used on access port (which connects to hosts) so we need to set that port to access mode, then we need to specify the maximum number of hosts which are allowed to connect to this port -> C is correct. Note: If we want to allow a fixed MAC address to connect, use the switchport port-security macaddress <MAC address> command. Question 6 A Catalyst 2950 needs to be reconfigured. What steps will ensure that the old configuration is erased? (Choose three) A. Erase flash. B. Restart the switch. C. Delete the VLAN database. D. Erase the running configuration. E. Erase the startup configuration. F. Modify the configuration register.

Answer: B C E Question 7 The network administrator has discovered that the power supply has failed on a switch in the company LAN and that the switch has stopped functioning. It has been replaced with a Cisco Catalyst 2950 series switch. What must be done to ensure that this new switch becomes the root bridge on the network? A. Lower the bridge priority number. B. Change the MAC address of the switch. C. Increase the VTP revision number for the domain. D. Lower the root path cost on the switch ports. E. Assign the switch an IP address with the lowest value.

Answer: A Question 8 Which two of these are characteristics of the 802.1Q protocol? (Choose two) A. It is a layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains vlan configurations across network. B. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame. C. It is used exclusively for tagging vlan frames and dose not address network reconvergence following switched network topology changes. D. It modifies the 802.3 frame header and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed. E. It is a trunking protocol capable of earring untagged frames.

Answer: D E Explanation

IEEE 802.1Q is the networking standard that supports Virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet network. It is a protocol that allows VLANs to communicate with one another using a router. 802.1Q trunks support tagged and untagged frames. If a switch receives untagged frames on a trunk port, it believes that frame is a part of the native VLAN. Also, frames from a native VLAN are not tagged when exiting the switch via a trunk port. The 802.1q frame format is same as 802.3. The only change is the addition of 4 bytes fields. That additional header includes a field with which to identify the VLAN number. Because inserting this header changes the frame, 802.1Q encapsulation forces a recalculation of the original FCS field in the Ethernet trailer. Note: Frame Check Sequence (FCS) is a four-octet field used to verify that the frame was received without loss or error. FCS is based on the contents of the entire frame. Question 9 What are two advantages of Layer 2 Ethernet switches over hubs? (Choose two) A. decreasing the number of collision domains B. filtering frames based on MAC addresses C. allowing simultaneous frame transmissions D. increasing the size of broadcast domains E. increasing the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices

Answer: B C Explanation Hub is considered a layer 1 device. When a packet arrives at one port, it is copied to the other ports without checking the content of that packet. Switch operates at layer 2. When a packet arrives at one port, it checks in its database (based on MAC address) to see which port it should forward that packet out -> B is correct. Remember that hubs can only communicate in half duplex mode, which means that a computer can only send data when it is not receiving. Switches can run in full duplex mode, which allows data to be sent and received at the same time. Switches effectively double the speed of the network when compared to hubs -> C is correct. Switch increases the number of collision domains (which is better) -> A is not correct. Switch does not have any effect on the size of broadcast domains. When using switch, the size of broadcast domains remain the same -> D is not correct. Both hub and switch increase the maximum length of UTP cabling between devices so it is not an advantage of switch over hub -> E is not correct. Question 10 Which command will show the MAC addresses of stations connected to switch ports? A. show mac-address B. show arp C. show table D. show switchport

Answer: B Explanation There is no show mac-address command. But notice the show mac-address-table and show mac address-table do exist. If option A is show mac-address-table then both A & B are correct!

CCNA TESTING Test 1 : NETWORKING ESSENTIALS Time : 90 minutes

1. Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP transport layer protocols? a. Ethernet b. HTTP c. IP d. UDP e. SMTP f. TCP g. PPP TL: D,F 2. Which of the following protocols are examples of TCP/IP network interface layer protocols? a. Ethernet b. HTTP c. IP d. UDP e. SMTP f. TCP g. PPP 1. TL: A,G 3. Which OSI layer defines the functions of logical network-wide addressing and routing? a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 3 d. Layer 4 e. Layer 5 f. Layer 6 g. Layer 7

TL: C 4. Which OSI layer defines the standards for cabling and connectors? a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 3 d. Layer 4 e. Layer 5 f. Layer 6 g. Layer 7 TL: A

5. Which OSI layer defines the standards for data formats and encryption? a. Layer 1 b. Layer 2 c. Layer 3 d. Layer 4 e. Layer 5 f. Layer 6 g. Layer 7 TL: F 6. Which of the following terms are not valid terms for the names of the seven OSI layers? a. Application b. Data link c. Transmission d. Presentation e. Internetwork f. Session TL: C,E 7. The process of HTTP asking TCP to send some data and make sure that it is received correctly is an example of what? a. Same-layer interaction b. Adjacent-layer interaction c. The OSI model d. All of the above e. None of the above TL: B 8. The process of TCP on one computer marking a segment as segment 1, and the receiving

computer then acknowledging the receipt of segment 1, is an example of what? a. Data encapsulation b. Same-layer interaction c. Adjacent-layer interaction d. The OSI model e. None of the above TL: B 9. The process of a web server adding a TCP header to a web page, followed by adding a TCP header, then an IP header, and then data link header and trailer is an example of what? a. Data encapsulation b. Same-layer interaction c. The OSI model d. All of the above e. None of the above TL: A 10. Which of the following terms is used specifically to identify the entity that is created when encapsulating data inside data-link headers and trailers? a. a. Data b. Chunk c. Segment d. Frame e. packet f. Nonethere is no encapsulation by the data link layer TL: D 11. Which of the following best describes the main function of OSI Layer 1 protocols? a. Framing b. Delivery of bits from one device to another c. Addressing d. CSMA/CD e. Defining the size and shape of Ethernet cards TL: B 12. Which of the following are part of the functions of OSI Layer 2 protocols? a. Framing b. Delivery of bits from one device to another c. Addressing d. Error detection e. Defining the size and shape of Ethernet cards

TL: A 13. Which of the following is true about Ethernet crossover cables? a. Pins 1 and 2 are reversed on the other end of the cable. b. Pins 1 and 2 connect to pins 3 and 6 on the other end of the cable. c. Pins 1 and 2 connect to pins 3 and 4 on the other end of the cable. d. The cable can be up to 1000 m to cross over between buildings. e. None of the above. TL: B 14. Which of the following are true about the format of Ethernet addresses? a. Each manufacturer puts a unique code into the first 2 bytes of the address. b. Each manufacturer puts a unique code into the first 3 bytes of the address. c. Each manufacturer puts a unique code into the first half of the address. d. The part of the address that holds this manufacturers code is called the MC. e. The part of the address that holds this manufacturers code is called the OUI. f. The part of the address that holds this manufacturers code has no specific name. TL: B,C,E 15. Which of the following is true about the Ethernet FCS field? a. It is used for error recovery. b. It is 2 bytes long. c. It resides in the Ethernet trailer, not the Ethernet header. d. It is used for encryption. e. None of the above. TL: C 16. Which of the following are true about the CSMA/CD algorithm? a. The algorithm never allows collisions to occur. b. Collisions can happen, but the algorithm defines how the computers should notice a collision and how to recover. c. The algorithm works only with two devices on the same Ethernet. d. None of the above. TL: B 17. Which of the following would be a collision domain? a. All devices connected to an Ethernet hub b. All devices connected to an Ethernet switch c. Two PCs, with one cabled to a router Ethernet port with a crossover cable, and the other PC cabled to another router Ethernet port with a crossover cable. d. None of the above

TL: A 18. Which terms describe Ethernet addresses that can be used to communicate with more than one device at a time? a. Burned-in address b. Unicast address c. Broadcast address d. Multicast address e. None of the above TL: C,D

19. With autonegotiation on a 10/100 card, what characteristics are negotiated if the device on the other end does not perform negotiation at all? a. 100 Mbps, half duplex b. 100 Mbps, full duplex c. 10 Mbps, half duplex d. 10 Mbps, full duplex TL: C 20. Which of the following devices can an administrator use to segment their LAN? (Choose all that apply) a. Hubs b. Repeaters c. Switches d. Bridges e. Routers f. Media Converters g. All of the above TL: C,D,E 21. Routers perform which of the following functions? (Select three) a. Packet switching b. Collision prevention on a LAN segment. c. Packet filtering d. Broadcast domain enlargement e. Broadcast forwarding f. Internetwork communication TL: A,C,F 22. The 1NET Center LAN consists of one large flat network. You decide to segment this LAN

into two separate networks with a router. What will be the affect of this change? a. The number of broadcast domains will be decreased. b. It will make the broadcasting of traffic between domains more efficient between segments. c. It will increase the number of collisions. d. It will prevent segment 1s broadcasts from getting to segment 2. e. It will connect segment 1s broadcasts to segment 2. TL: D 23. Which of the following are benefits of segmenting a network with a router? (Select all that apply) a. Broadcasts are not forwarded across the router. b. All broadcasts are completely eliminated. c. Adding a router to the network decreases latency. d. Filtering can occur based on Layer 3 information. e. Routers are more efficient than switches and will process the data more quickly. f. None of the above TL: A,D 24. The MAC address for your PC NIC is: C9-3F-32-B4-DC-19. What is the address of the OUI portion of this NIC card, expressed as a binary number? A. 11001100-00111111-00011000 B. 11000110-11000000-00011111 C. 11001110-00011111-01100000 D. 11001001-00111111-00110010 E. 11001100-01111000-00011000 F. 11111000-01100111-00011001 G. 10110100-11011100-00011001 TL: D 25. The LAN needs are expanding at the Testking corporate office, which is quickly growing. You are instructed to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment on the TestKing network. Which of the following are layer 1 devices that you can use? (Choose all that apply.) A. A switch. B. A router. C. A network adapter card. D. A hub. E. A repeater

TL: D,E 26. You are experiencing intermittent issues relating to congestion with your network. What are the possible causes of congestion on a LAN? (Choose all that apply) A. A broadcast domain with too many hosts. B. Full duplex operation. C. Broadcast storms. D. Multicasting. E. Network Segmentation. F. Low bandwidth TL: A,C,F 27. Which of the statements below are true regarding the availability of bandwidth on a network? (Select all that apply.) A. Bandwidth availability is decreasing. B. Bandwidth availability is infinite. C. Bandwidth is used when analyzing network performance. D. Bandwidth availability is finite. E. Bandwidth availability is fixed TL: C,D 28. Which one of the following actions would actually increase congestion on an ethernet network? A. Increasing the number of collision domains. B. Micro-segmenting the network. C. Adding hubs for connectivity to the network. D. Putting additional switches in the network. E. Implementing VLANs in the network TL: C 29. Which one of the binary bit patterns below denotes a Class B address? A. 0xxxxxxx B. 10xxxxxx C. 110xxxxx D. 1110xxxx E. 11110xxx TL: B

30. The IP network 210.106.14.0 is subnetted using a /24 mask. How many usable networks and host addresses can be obtained from this? A. 1 network with 254hosts B. 4 networks with 128 hosts C. 2 networks with 24 hosts D. 6 networks with 64 hosts E. 8 networks with 36 hosts TL: A 31. Given that you have a class B IP address network range, which of the subnet masks below will allow for 100 subnets with 500 usable host addresses per subnet? A. 255.255.0.0 B. 255.255.224.0 C. 255.255.254.0 D. 255.255.255.0 E. 255.255.255.224 TL: C 32. Which one of the binary number ranges shown below corresponds to the value of the first octet in Class B address range? A. 10000000-11101111 B. 11000000-11101111 C. 10000000-10111111 D. 10000000-11111111 E. 11000000-10111111 TL: C 33. How would the number 231 be expressed as a binary number? A. 11011011 B. 11110011 C. 11100111 D. 11111001 E. 11010011 TL: C 34. The 201.145.32.0 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many networks and IP hosts per network exists using this subnet mask? A. 4 networks with 64 hosts

B. 64 networks and 4 hosts C. 2 networks and 62 hosts D. 62 networks and 2 hosts E. 6 network and 30 hosts TL: C 35. You have a class B network with a 255.255.255.0 mask. Which of the statements below are true of this network? (Select all valid answers) A. There are 254 usable subnets. B. There are 256 usable hosts per subnet. C. There are 50 usable subnets. D. There are 254 usable hosts per subnet. E. There are 24 usable hosts per subnet. F. There is one usable network TL: A,D 36. How many usable IP addresses can you get from a conventional Class C address? a. 128 b. 192 c. 254 d. 256 e. 510 TL: C 37. Your ISP assigned you a full class B address space. From this, you need at least 300 sub-networks that can support at least 50 hosts each. Which of the subnet masks below are capable of satisfying your needs? (Select two). A. 255.255.255.0 B. 255.255.255.128 C. 255.255.252.0 D. 255.255.255.224 E. 255.255.255.192 F. 255.255.248.0 TL: B,E 38. On a point-to-point WAN link between two routers, what device(s) are considered to be the DTE devices? a. The routers b. The CSU/DSUs c. The central office equipment d. A chip on the processor of each router e. None of the above

TL: A 39. Which of the following does a router normally use when making a decision about routing TCP/IP? a. Destination MAC address b. Source MAC address c. Destination IP address d. Source IP address e. Destination MAC and IP address TL: C 40. Which of the following are valid Class C IP addresses? a. a. 1.1.1.1 b. 200.1.1.1 c. 128.128.128.128 d. 224.1.1.1 e. 223.223.223.255 TL: B

41. What is the range for the values of the first octet for Class A IP networks? a. a. 0 to 127 b. 0 to 126 c. 1 to 127 d. 1 to 126 e. 128 to 191 f. 128 to 192 TL: D

42. PC1 and PC2 are on two different Ethernets that are separated by an IP router. PC1s IP address is 10.1.1.1, and no subnetting is used. Which of the following addresses could be used for PC2? a. a. 10.1.1.2 b. 10.2.2.2 c. 10.200.200.1 d. 9.1.1.1 e. 225.1.1.1 f. 1.1.1.1

TL: D,F

43. How many valid host IP addresses does each Class B network contain? a. a. 16,777,214 b. 16,777,216 c. 65,536 d. 65,534 e. 65,532 f. 32,768 g. 32,766 h. 32,764 TL: D

44. How many valid host IP addresses does each Class C network contain? a. a. 65,536 b. 65,534 c. 65,532 d. 32,768 e. 32,766 f. 256 g. 254 TL: G 45. PDUs at the Network layer of the OSI are called what? a. a. Transport b. Frames c. Packets d. Segments TL: C 46. Segmentation of a data stream happens at which layer of the OSI model? a. a. Physical b. Data Link c. Network d. Transport

TL: D 47. When data is encapsulated, which is the correct order? a. Data, frame, packet, segment, bit b. Segment, data, packet, frame, bit c. Data, segment, packet, frame, bit d. Data, segment, frame, packet, bit TL: C 48. Why does the data communication industry use the layered OSI reference model? (Choose two.) a. It divides the network communication process into smaller and simpler components, thus aiding component development, design, and troubleshooting. b. It enables equipment from different vendors to use the same electronic components, thus saving research and development funds. c. It supports the evolution of multiple competing standards, and thus provides business opportunities for equipment manufacturers. d. It encourages industry standardization by defining what functions occur at each layer of the model. e. It provides a framework by which changes in functionality in one layer require changes in other layers. TL: A,D 49. What are two purposes for segmentation with a bridge? a. Add more broadcast domains. b. Create more collision domains. c. Add more bandwidth for users. d. Allow more broadcasts for users. e. Reduce collisions within a broadcast domain. f. Increase the number of collision domains. TL: B,C 50. Which of the following are unique characteristics of half-duplex Ethernet when compared to full-duplex Ethernet? a. Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a shared collision domain. b. Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a private collision domain. c. Half-duplex Ethernet has higher effective throughput. d. Half-duplex Ethernet has lower effective throughput. e. Half-duplex Ethernet operates in a private broadcast domain TL: A,D

1. Catalyst switches utilize a special technology to identify and prevent topology loops and ensure that data flows properly through a single network path. What is the name of this technology?

A. VTP B. ISL C. 802.1Q D. STP

2. What are two characteristics of store and forward switching? (Select two answer choices) A. Latency fluctuates regardless of frame size. B. The switch receives the complete frame before beginning to forward it. C. Latency through the switch varies with frame length. D. The switch checks the destination address upon receipt of headers. 3. You want your Catalyst switch to implement a switching method that holds a packet in its memory until the data portion of the respected packet reaches the switch. Which method should you employ on your Catalyst switch? A. Fast Forward B. Store and forward C. Frag-free D. None of the above 4. What are some characteristics of the typical VLAN arrangement? (Select all that apply) A. VLANs logically divide a switch into multiple, independent switches at Layer 2. B. Trunk links can carry traffic for multiple VLANs. C. VLAN implementation significantly increases traffic due to added trunking information. D. A VLAN can span multiple switches. E. VLANs extend the collision domain to include multiple switches. F. VLANs typically decrease the number of multiple switches. 5. Which of the following answers are correct characteristics of microsegmentation, in the context of a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Select two answer choices) A. Dedicated paths between sending and receiving hosts are established. B. Multiple subnetwork broadcast addresses are created. C. Multiple ARP tables are needed. D. The decrease in the number of collision domains. E. Broadcast domains are enhanced. F. Additional bandwidth is used to connect hosts 6. You are an administrator of a switched network and your goal is to reduce some of the administrative overhead on your network. You plan on achieving this by configuring a new VLAN for

each department in your network. However, you need to share the VLAN information across numerous switches throughout your network. Which of the following would allow you accomplish this?

A. STP B. GVRP C. SNMP D. VTP E. DHCP

7. Which one of the following characteristics is true regarding the use of hubs and switches? A. Hubs can have their ports be configured with VLANs B. Using hubs is costly with regard to bandwidth availability. C. Switches can not forward broadcasts. D. Switches are more efficient than hubs in processing frames. E. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network 8. You wish to segment your LAN into multiple broadcast domains. Which technology method should you implement in order to do this? A. Transparent bridging B. Cut-through switching C. Fragment-free switches D. Virtual LANs E. Store-and-forward switching 9. When comparing and contrasting the similarities and differences between bridges and switches, which of the following are valid statements?(Choose all the valid answer choices) A. Bridges are faster than switches because they have fewer ports. B. A switch is a multiport bridge, C. Bridges and switches learn MAC addresses by examining the source MAC address of each frame received. D. A bridge will forward a broadcast but a switch will not. E. Bridges and switches increase the size of a collision domain. F. None of the above statements are true 10. Network topology exhibit: Which destination addresses will the computer XPNetworkA use to send data to the computer XPNetworkC? (Select two answer choices) A. The IP address of Switch XPNetwork2 B. The MAC address of Switch XPNetwork2 C. The IP address of XPNetworkC D. The MAC address of XPNetworkC E. The IP address of the route XPNetwork1's E0 interface. F. The Mac address of the router XPNetwork1's E0 interface

11. Study the network below:

Router B has to forward an IP datagram to 10.10.10.10; which of the interfaces will be used by router B when forwarding this datagram?

A. S0 B. E0 C. E1 D. E2 E. E0, E1, E2 F. None of the above

12. Which of the following steps are necessary in order to add a new VLAN to a switched network? (Select all that apply.) A. Create the VLAN. B. Name the VLAN. C. Configure an IP address for the VLAN. D. Add the desired ports to the new VLAN. E. Add the VLAN to the VTP domain 13. You are bringing up a new Cisco Catalyst switch, and wish to connect it via a trunk to another switch from a different vendor, which uses the IEEE standard for the trunking method. When setting the encapsulation type on the trunk, what should you configure on the Cisco switch? A. Switch(config)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl B. Switch(config)# switchport trunk encapsulation ietf C. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl D. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation ietf E. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q 14. A new switch is being installed and you have been assigned the task of connecting it to an existing switch. In doing this, you want to set up the VLAN Trunking Protocol so that VLAN information can be passed between the switches. Which of the following must you do to accomplish this? (Choose all that apply). A. You must set each end of the trunk line to IEEE 802.1e encapsulation. B. You must set the same VTP management domain name on both switches. C. You must set all ports on the two switches as access ports. D. You must configure one of the switches as a VTP server.

E. You must use a rollover cable to connect the two switches 15. A new switch is installed into an existing LAN and a new VTP trunk is set up with an existing switch. Which VLANs will be allowed on this new trunk? A. All defined VLANs are allowed on the trunk by default. B. Each VLAN, or VLAN range, that is specified with the switchport mode command. C. Each VLAN, or VLAN range, that is specified with the vtp domain command. D. Each VLAN, or VLAN range, that is specified with the vlan database command 16. Which of the following a true statements regarding the use of VLANs to segment a network? (Select all that apply.) A. They increase the size of collision domains B. They allow logical grouping of users by function. C. They can enhance network security. D. They increase the size of the broadcast domain while decreasing the number of collision domains. E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains. F. They simplify switch administration 17. What is a characteristic of ISL and 802.1q frame tagging in a switched LAN environment? A. They are used to find the best path through a network. B. They allow the exchange of filtering tables. C. They specify different implementations of the Spanning-Tree Protocol. D. They allow the exchange of routing tables E. They provide inter-switch VLAN communication 18. A new VLAN needs to be created for an existing network. Which of the following are the minimum tasks that must be accomplished in order to create the new VLAN? (Select three answer choices) A. The VLAN must be created B. The VLAN must be named C. An IP address and subnet mask must be configured for the new VLAN D. The desired ports must be added to the new VLAN E. The VLAN must be added to the existing VTP Domain 19. What are some of the characteristics of a typical VLAN arrangement? (Select all that apply) A. VLANs logically divide a switch into multiple, independent switches at Layer 2. B. Trunk links can carry traffic for multiple VLANs. C. VLAN implementation significantly increases traffic due to added trunking information. D. A VLAN can span multiple switches. E. VLANs typically increase the number of switches needed F. VLANs typically decrease the number of switches needed

20. Which one of the following protocols allows the information about the configuration of a new VLAN to be distributed across entire switched network?

A. STP B. VTP C. EIGRP D. SNMP E. CDP F. None of the above

21. Which encapsulation types are configurable on a Cisco switch for a trunk? (Select two answer choices)

A. VTP B. ISL C. CDP D. 802.1Q E. 802.1p F. LLC G. IETF

22. You need to create a new VLAN on your Catalyst switch. This VLAN is to be named XP. Which of the following need to be completed for the creation of this new VLAN? (Select all that apply) A. The XP VLAN must be created. B. The desired ports must be added to the new XP VLAN C. The XP VLAN must be added to all of the domains. D. The XP VLAN must be named. E. An IP address must be configured for the XP VLAN. F. None of the above. VLAN creations are automatic 23. When a switch port is used as a VLAN trunk, which of the following trunk modes are valid? (Select all that apply.)

A. blocking B. auto C. desirable D. on E. transparent F. learning G. off

24. Which of following VLAN frame encapsulation types are configurable on a Cisco switch? (Select two answer choices.)

A. VTP B. 802.1Q C. LLC D. ISL E. CDP F. PAP

25. Which VTP mode should a Cisco switch be set to if this switch is to add or delete VLANs to a management domain?

A. Transparent B. Server C. Auto D. Client E. User


c sa bi Admin ngy Fri Jun 27, 2008 10:57 am; sa ln 1.

Admin
Admin

Tiu : Test 3 : LAN SWITCHING (tt)

Wed Jun 25, 2008 11:52 am

Tng s bi gi: 12 Join A. Set each end of the trunk line to IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation. date: 25/06/2008

26. What must an administrator do in order to successfully configure a VLAN trunk between two switches? (Select two answer choices)

B. Set the same VTP management domain name on both switches. C. Set all ports on the two switched as access ports. D. Configure one of the two switches as a VTP server. E. Connect the two switches using a rollover cable. F. Use a router to forward VTP traffic between the VLANs 27. Which of the following can be an expected outcome of a VLAN? (Select all that apply) A. VLANs logically divide a switch into multiple, independent switches at Layer 2. B. Trunk links can carry traffic for multiple VLANs. C. VLAN implementation significantly increases traffic due to added trunking information. D. VLANs can span multiple switches. E. VLANs typically decrease the number of switches needed

28. How could a large corporation with many specialized divisions benefit from using VLANs on their networks? (Select three answer choices.) A. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location. B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security. C. VLANs provide a low-latency, high bandwidth internetworking alternative. D. VLANs provide a method of communication between IP addresses in large networks. E. VLANs establish segmented broadcast domains in switched networks. F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network 29. Which commands, when used together, would create an 802.1Q link? (Select two answer choices) A. Switch(vlan)# mode trunk B. Switch(config)# switchport access mode trunk C. Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk D. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q E. Switch(config)# switchport access mode 1 F. Switch(vlan)# trunk encapsulation dot1q 30. A router is configured as shown in the graphic. The switch is connected to the router over a VLAN trunk. The switch has been configured with three VLANs: VLAN1, VLAN2, and VLAN3. In addition, the IP address of the switch is 192.168.1.2. A host is being added to the switch on VLAN 2. What is the correct default gateway for this computer?

A. 192.168.1.1 B. 192.168.1.2 C. 192.168.2.1 D. 192.168.2.2 E. 192.168.3.1 F. 192.168.3.2 31. Which switching mode provides the highest level of integrity and error-free transport, rather then maximizing speed?

A) 802.1q forwarding B) VTP transparent mode C) cut-through D) store-and-forward E) fragment-free F) frame-filtering

32. A new switch is installed in the XP network. This switch is to be configured so that VLAN information will be automatically distributed to all the other Cisco Catalyst switches in the network. Which of the conditions below have to be met in order for this to occur? (Choose all that apply). A. The switch that will share the VLAN information must be in the VTP Server mode. B. The switches must be in the same VTP domain. C. The switch that will share the VLAN information must be configured as the root bridge. D. The switches must be configured to use the same VTP version. E. The switches must be configured to use the same STP version. F. The switches must be configured to use the same type of ID tagging. 33. There are 2 switches in the XP LAN, with no routers. Ports 1, 2 & 3 are assigned to VLAN 1 in switch 1 and 2 and ports 4, 5 & 6 are assigned to VLAN 2 in both switches. These two switches are connected together via a trunked link. Which of the conditions below would verify trunk and VLAN operation? (Select all valid answers) A. Host 1 on VLAN 1 can ping Host 2 on VLAN 1 B. Host 1 on VLAN 1 can ping Host 4 on VLAN 2 C. Host 1 on VLAN 1 can not ping Host 2 on VLAN 1 D. Host 4 on VLAN 2 can not ping Host 1 on VLAN 1 E. Host 4 on VLAN 2 can ping Host 2 on VLAN 2 34. Study the exhibit below, which displays 2 XP switches in the LAN You are a network analyst on a network which contains two VLANs as portrayed in the exhibit. Ports 1 through 4 on each switch are assigned to VLAN1 Ports 5 through 8 on each switch are assigned to VLAN2. An ISL trunk link connects the two switches. Based on this information, which of the following will be true? (Select all that apply) A. Host 2-1 can ping Host 2-2 B. Host 2-1 can ping Host 7-2 C. Host 2-1 can not ping Host 2-2 D. Host 7-1 can not ping Host 2-2 E. Host 7-1 can ping Host 7-2

35. You are a senior network administrator at XP and your trusty junior administrator tells you that he failed his task of adding VLAN 50 to a Catalyst switch in the network. You enter in the show vtp status command and get this output: TK2# show vtp status VTP Version :2 Configuration Revision :7 Maximum VLANs supported local :68 Number of existing VLANs :8 VTP Operating Mode :Client VTP Domain Name :corp VTP Pruning Mode :Disabled VTP V2 Mode :Disabled VTP Traps Generation :Disabled MD5 digest :0x22 0xF3 0x1A Configuration last modified by 172.18.22.15 at 5-28-03 1t:53:20 What commands must be issued on this switch to add VLAN 50 to the database? (Choose two.) Which commands would you enter to add VLAN 50 to the database on this switch? (Select two) A. TK2(config-if)# switchport access vlan 50 B. TK2(vlan)# vtp server C. TK2(config)# config-revision 20 D. TK2(config)# vlan 50 name Tech E. TK2(vlan)# vlan 50 F. TK2(vlan)# switchport trunk vlan 50 36. Which of the following IOS commands could you use to troubleshoot a router connectivity problem on an IP network? (Select all valid answers)

A. show ip route B. ipconfig C. tracert D. show interfaces E. traceroute F. ping G. All of the above

37. What command verifies connectivity between two hosts by sending and receiving ICMP echo messages?

A. ping B. tracert C. netstat

D. show cdp neighbors detail E. show ip route F. traceroute

38. You are working as a network technician at XP University, when you get a call from the Engineering Faculty. Theyre complaining that theyre receiving obsolete information from the Business Facultys network traffic broadcasts. What can you do to contain the Business Facultys broadcast while still keeping it connected to the internet and the enterprise services of the University? (Select all valid answer choices) A. Use half and full-duplex Ethernet on the Engineering Department LAN B. Establish a VTP domain to minimize the obsolete traffic C. Change the switch IP address of the switch D. Create separate VLANs and subnets for the two departments and route between the two E. Provide greater bandwidth to the Engineering Department LAN F. Place the business department on a separate subnet and route between networks 39. Study the exhibit below:

The London switch and Madrid switch have both been configured for VTP, but they arent sharing any VTP messages. Based on the above output, what do you suspect is the cause of this problem? A. VTP V2 mode is not in operation. B. VTP pruning mode is disabled. C. The VTP domain name is configured incorrectly. D. The VTP operating mode is not configured. F. The VTP version is configured incorrectly 40. You are attempting to troubleshoot some problems within your local network. Which of the following are router IOS commands that can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose all that apply) A. ping B. tracert C. ipconfig D. show ip route E. winipcfg F. show interfaces G. All of the above

41. By default, which of the following factors determines the spanning-tree path cost? A. It is the individual link cost based on latency B. It is the sum of the costs based on bandwidth C. It is the total hop count D. It is dynamically determined based on load 42. What is the purpose of the spanning-tree algorithm in a switched LAN? A. To provide a monitoring mechanism for networks in switched environments. B. To manage VLANs across multiple switches. C. To prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched paths. D. To segment a network into multiple collision domains. E. To prevent routing loops in networks 43. Which two of the following values does STP take into consideration when it elects the root bridge? (Select two answer choices) A. The BPDU version number B. The access layer bridge setting C. The Bridge ID D. The spanning-tree update number E. The bridge priority F. The VLAN number 44. The spanning tree information from 4 switches on the XP network is displayed below. Despite their names, all four switches are on the same LAN. Tampa#show spanning-tree Spanning tree 1 is executing the IEEE compatible Spanning Tree protocol Bridge Identifier has priority 32768, address 0002.fd29.c505 Configured hello time 2, max age 20. forward delay 15 ----------------------------------------------------------------------Miami#show spanning-tree Spanning tree 1 is executing the IEEE compatible Spanning Tree protocol Bridge Identifier has priority 16384, address 0002.fd29.c504 Configured hello time 2, max age 20, forward delay 15 -------London#show spanning-tree Spanning tree 1 is executing the IEEE compatible Spanning Tree protocol Bridge Identifier has priority 8192, address 0002.fd29.c503 Configured hello time 2, maxage 20, forward delay 15 -----------------------------------------------------------------------Cairo#show spanning-tree

Spanning tree 1 is executing the IEEE compatible Spanning Tree protocol Bridge Identifier has priority 4096, address 0002.fd29.c502 Configured hello time 2, maxage 20, forward delay 15 Based on the outputs of the above exhibit, which one of the switches is the spanning tree root bridge?

A. Miami B. London C. Tampa D. Cairo

45. Which of the following are spanning tree port states? (Select three answer choices)

A. learning B. spanning C. listening D. forwarding E. initializing F. filtering G. Permitting

46. What are the switch and bridge port characteristics of a layer two spanning-tree network that is fully converged? A. All switch and bridge ports are in the forwarding state. B. All switch and bridge ports are in the stand-by state. C. All switch and bridge ports are assigned as either root or designated ports. D. All switch and bridge ports are in either the forwarding or blocking state. E. All switch and bridge are either blocking or looping 47. In a switched LAN network, what is the Spanning-Tree algorithm used for? A. It is used to provide a mechanism for routing updates in switched environments. B. It is used to prevent routing loops in networks with redundant routes. C. It is used to prevent switching loops in networks with redundant switched routes. D. It is used to manage, the addition, deletion, and naming of VLANs across multiple switches. E. It is used to segment a network into multiple collision domains. F. None of the above. G. All of the above are functions of STP

48. You have a server thats directly connected to a Cisco switch by way of its Fa0/1 ort, and you dont want any other MAC addresses from any other servers to access this port. How would you accomplish this? (Select two answer choices) A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server. B. Employ a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incompatible with other host connectors. C. Configure the MAC address of the server as a static entry associated with port a0/1. D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from spoofing the server IP address. E. Configure port security on Fa0/1 to reject traffic with a source MAC address other than that of the server. F. Configure an access list on the switch to deny server traffic from entering any port other than Fa0/1. 49. Which switching mode provides the highest level of integrity and error-free transport, rather then maximizing speed? A. 802.1q forwarding B. VTP transparent mode C. cut-through D. store-and-forward E. fragment-free F. frame-filtering

50. The XPNetwork Network consists of a router, switch, and hub as shown below:

In accordance with the above diagram; which of the statements below correctly describe the switch port configuration and the router port configurations? (Select three answer choices) A. The XPNetwork1 WAN port is configured as a trunking port. B. The XPNetwork1 port connected to Switch1 is configured using subinterfaces. C. The XPNetwork1 port connected to Switch1 is configured as 10 Mbps. D. The Switch1 port connected to XPNetwork1 is configured as a trunking port. E. The Switch1 port connected to Host B is configured as an access port. F. The switch1 port connected to Hub1 is configured as full duplex

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