MICR 201 Summer 2012 Quiz 2

Chapter 12:

Student generated multiple choice questions for

1) The diagram above shows the growth curve of a bacteriophage. Each period is marked by a letter. Letter A refers to which period? a) cell lysis b) eclipse c) latent d) plateau e) rise

2) The diagram above shows the biosynthesis of which virus genome? a) +ssRNA b) ssDNA c) -ssRNA d) dsDNA e) dsRNA 3) By which mechanism can newly assembled viruses be released in the host? a) Biosynthesis b) Budding c) Endocytosis d) Receptors e) All of the above. 4) Viruses are surrounded by envelopes composed of: a) Viral glycoproteins b) Oligosaccharides c) Host cell membrane lipids d) Both A and B e) All of the above 5) Which of the following is not a term to describe the shape of virus capsids? a) Helical b) Icosahedral c) Complex d) Trapezoid e) None of the above 6) Uncoating is specific for animal virus. At which place(s) can uncoating occur?

MICR 201 Summer 2012 Quiz 2

Student generated multiple choice questions for

a) Plasma membrane b) Cytoplasm c) Nuclear membrane d) A and C e) All of the above 7) The phases of an acute viral infection DO NOT include which of the following: a) Decline b) Persistence c) Convalescence d) Incubation e) All of the above are part of an acute viral infection. 8) Which term involves subtle changes in virion structure and with cross protective immunity still existing? a) Acute viral infection b) Inclusion bodies c) Antigenic shift d) Innate response e) Antigenic drift 9) For animal viruses, there are six steps in lytic infection. Which of the following are not a part of the six steps? a) Uncoating b) Biosynthesis c) Release d) Maturation e) All of the above are a part of the six steps

10) Which statement is false regarding acute viral infections?

a) By the time people feel sick and begin to show symptoms, they have transmitted the infection to others. b) Acute infections are usually associated with epidemics. c) Some acute infections are asymptomatic d) They involve the rapid production of virions followed by a slow resolution of infection by host defense. e) All of the above are true. 11) What types of infections are often cause of fatal brain infections? a) Persistent infections b) Slow infections c) Latent infections d) Acute infections e) None of the above 12) Which virus can lead to a vesicular and very itchy type of skin rash? a) Measles virus b) Parvovirus c) Varicella-zoster virus d) Rubella Virus e) Coxsackievirus A16 13) Which feature is true of an antigenic shift? a) It involves minor changes in virion structure. b) It is due to point mutations in the genes. c) It is occurs through co-infection with two different viruses and gene re-assortment. d) All of the above. e) Only a) and b) are true 14) Which feature is true of the biosynthesis of positive single-stranded RNA viruses? a) The (+) strand is mRNA.

MICR 201 Summer 2012 Quiz 2

b) c) d) e)

Student generated multiple choice questions for

The (+) strand can be directly translated into viral proteins. The (+) strand is copied into a (-) template for the genome replication. The (-) template is used to make more (+) strands for the genome replication. All of the above.

15) Which statement is true of the growth curve of a bacteriophage? a) All viruses are still intact in the eclipse period. b) Virus progeny are absorbed in the rise period. c) Intra- and extracellular virions are detectable in the latent period. d) The burst size is the total number of virions produced per infected cell. e) None of the above. 16) The innate and adaptive human immune responses can usually eliminate most threats to the body, but, viruses tend to be harder for the body to locate and eliminate. What are some of the thing(s) that viruses can do to effectively evade host defenses ? a) They can produce decoy virions b) Viruses can become latent c) Viruses can incorporate host proteins as camouflage d) Both A and C e) All of the above 17) What is the immune response responsible for clearing a viral infection a) Memory response b) Innate response c) Threshold response d) Adaptive response e) None of the above Chapter 13 18) Which of the following is impermeable to virions? a) Skin b) Respiratory tract c) Capillary d) Digestive tract e) Urogenital tract 19) Which of the following is incorrect about antigenic drift? a) Minor changes b) Results from point mutations c) Cross protective immunity still exists d) Involves major changes in virion structure e) All of the above 20) Which statement(s) are false? a) Cytopathic viruses produce virions and kill host cells rapidly b) Acute viral infections are self limiting and slow c) Noncytopathic viruses produce virions but do not cause apparent cytopathology d) Oncogenic viruses can manipulate the normal host cell cycle e) B and D 21) Which of the following statements are false regarding persistent infections? a) Occurs when hose defenses are either modulated of completely bypassed. b) Persistent infections that are eventually cleared are referred to as chronic infections. c) Virions are produced for months or even years. d) Changes in the immune response to a viral infection can induce a persistent infection. e) All of the above are true regarding persistent infections. 22) Antigenic Shift can be defined as? a) Changes in virion structure. b) A slight change in the virion structure resulting from mutations, and occur after the infection has begun. c) A major change in the structure of the virion as a result of the acquisition of new genes either from co-infection or through recombination events.

MICR 201 Summer 2012 Quiz 2

Student generated multiple choice questions for

d) Viruses that produce virions but do not cause cytopathology. e) None of the above.

23) Cytopathic viruses a) Produce virions but do not cause apparent changes in cell morphology b) Do not produce virions c) Produce virions and kill host cells rapidly d) None of the above e) All of the above 24) The incubation periods of viral diseases differ from days to years.. What is the incubation period for influenza? a) 1-2 days b) 6-12 days c) 2 3 weeks d) 12 18 months e) None of the above 25) Which virus causes a persistent disease? a) Varicella-zoster virus b) Herpes simplex 1 virus c) Hepatitis C virus d) All of the above e) None of the above 26) What viral disease has the shortest incubation period? a) AIDS b) Influenza c) Herpes d) Chickenpox e) All of the above 27) What virus causes a vesicular rash type? a) Rubella virus b) Parvo virus c) Varicella-zoster virus d) Measles virus e) None of the above 28) What best describes the underlying cause for antigenic drift? a) Major changes in virion structure b) Acquisition of new genes c) Results from point mutations d) Transformation e) None of the above 29) The term _________ is used when viruses and other infectious disease agents are transmitted by health care workers. a) Oncogenic Transmission b) Iatrogenic transmission c) Urogenital transmission d) Antigenic transmission e) Cytopathic transmission 30) ____________ are characterized by rapid production of virions and action of host defense. a) Acute viral infections b) Chronic infections c) Latent infections d) Transforming infections e) None of the above 31) Which of the following are characteristics of latent infections? a) No large-scale production of virions

MICR 201 Summer 2012 Quiz 2

b) c) d) e)

Student generated multiple choice questions for

Reduced or absent host immune response Persistence of an intact viral genome so that productive infections can occur later All of the above None of the above

32) Which type of vaccine is safest and why? a) Inactivated Vaccines because they are composed of dead particles b) Subunit Vaccines because they are composed of immature particles c) Live Vaccines because they are composed of intact virions. d) Subunit Vaccines because there are no intact virions present. e) Inactivated Vaccines because they are composed of non-infectious parts of the virus 33) Cytopathic viruses ___ a) Produce virions but do not cause apparent cytopathology b) Produce virions and kill host cells rapidly c) Do not produce virions or cause cytopathology but still cause infection d) Produce virions and kill host cells slowly e) None of the above 34) Which of the following describes best viruses can cause cancer in animals? a) Oncogenic Viruses b) Iatrogenic Viruses c) Antigenic Viruses d) All of the Above e) None of the Above

Chapter: ___14 35) Which of the following is the correct order of the life cycle for Malaria? a) Merozoite, sporozoites gametocytes, zygote, oocyst b) Oocyst, gametocytes, zygote, sporoites, merozoite c) Sporozoites, Merozoite, gametocytes, zygote, oocyst d) Gametocytes, merozoites, oocyst, zygote, sporozoites e) None of the above 36) All of the following statements are true regarding parasitic helminthes except: a) They have differentiated organs b) They have primitive nervous systems c) They have primitive excretory systems d) They have highly developed reproductive systems e) All of the statements are true. 37) By which vector is sleeping disease transmitted? a) Kissing bug b) Tick c) Tse tse fly d) Mosquito e) There is no vector involved. 38) All of the following statements are true about protozoans except? a) Protozoans are microscopic, single cell eukaryotes. b) Protozoans are macroscopic, multicellular eukaryotes with organ systems, c) Protozoans are facultative anaerobes and heterotrophs that engulf nutrients into the digestive vacuoles either through pinocytosis or phagocytosis. d) Protozoans are able to create cysts as a way of protecting themselves. e) Protozoans reproduce by using simple binary fission. 39) All of the following statements are true about protozoans except? a) Protozoans are microscopic, single cell eukaryotes.

MICR 201 Summer 2012 Quiz 2

Student generated multiple choice questions for

b) Protozoans are macroscopic, multicellular eukaryotes with organ systems, c) Protozoans are facultative anaerobes and heterotrophs that engulf nutrients into the digestive vacuoles either through pinocytosis or phagocytosis. d) Protozoans are able to create cysts as a way of protecting themselves. e) Protozoans reproduce by using simple binary fission. 40) Which type of parasitic protozoan does not use binary fission as a method of reproduction? a) Rhizopods b) Ciliates c) Flagellates d) Sporozoans e) All of the above use binary fission as a method of reproduction. 41) Which of the following do not match in regards to disease causing trematodes? a) Lung Flukes- Clonorchis species b) Liver Flukes- Paragonimus species c) Blood Flukes- Clostridium species d) All of the above match e) None of the above match 42) The three types of parasitic helminthes are: a) Nematodes, bezmatodes and cestodes b) Ematodes, trematodes and cestodes c) Nematodes, trematodes and cestodes d) Kematodes, rematodes and cestodes e) Cestodes, nematodes and bezmatodes 43) The mode of reproduction, binary fussion, is used in all of the following, except: a) Rhizopods b) Ciliates c) Flagellates d) Sporozoans e) Both A and C 44) Which of the following uses a venereal (direct) mechanism of transmission? a) Trichomonas vaginalis b) Ascaris lumbricoides c) Plasmodium falciparum d) Entamoeba histolytica e) None of the above. 45) Which of these flagellates cause human disease? a) Trichomonas b) Giardia c) Leishmania d) Trypanosoma e) All of the above. 46) Certain insects can be vectors for pathogens; what is the vector for Malaria? a) Aedes aegypti mosquito b) Anopheles mosquito c) Tse Tse fly d) Both A and B e) None of the above 47) Which of following is a Rhizopod that causes humans to infectious cysts in their feces? a) Enterobius vermicularis b) Trichinella spiralis c) Taenia saginata d) Entamoeba histolytica e) Tinea nigra 48) Which organ does Plasmodium infect first in humans after having been transmitted? a) Kidney b) Small Intestine

MICR 201 Summer 2012 Quiz 2

c) Liver d) Large Intestine e) Stomach

Student generated multiple choice questions for

49) Rhizopds, considered to be the most primitive form of protozoans ______. a) multiply by simple binary fission b) move by using pseudopodia c) produce a chitin wall for protection d) All of the above e) Only A and C. 50) The characteristics of molds are a) Unicellular, from hyphae, reproduce sexually/asexually b) Form hyphae, budding, reproduce sexually /asexually c) Multicellular, have distinct morphology used for diagnostics, form hyphae d) None of the above e) All of the above 51) All of the following are part of the classification of fungal diseases except? a) Superficial mycoses b) Cutaneous and mucocutaneous mycoses c) Subcutaneous mycoses d) Deep mycoses e) Multicutaneous mycoses 52) The classification of pathogenic fungi is NOT based on __________. a) septation of the hyphae b) mRNA c) the diseases they produce d) the tissue type they invade e) the nature of their sexual spores

53) All of the following protozoan organisms reproduce by binary fission except
a) Ciliates b) Rhizopods c) Sprozoans d) Flagellates e) All reproduce by binary fission 54) Trematodes: a) Are known as tapeworms b) Generate proglottids c) Have a flat-ribbon shaped body d) Use hooks for attachments e) None of the above 55) What type of locomotion is used by Rhizopods? a) Flagella b) Cilia c) Both A & B d) Pseudopods e) None of the above 56) Which of the following is correct about parasites? a) Parasites can be divided into two groups. b) Parasitic infections are a major problem worldwide. c) Parasites depend on their infected hosts for survival. d) Malaria is caused by a parasite. e) All are correct 57) Which statement regarding dimorphism of human fungal pathogens is false: a) Some fungi can grow in mold or yeast form b) Yeast form requires increased nutrients c) Mold form requires minimal nutrients

MICR 201 Summer 2012 Quiz 2

Student generated multiple choice questions for

d) Mold form requires ambient temperatures e) All of the above are true 58) Which of the following statements is true a) Parasites can be protozoans but not helminths b) Parasites can be protozoans or helminths c) All protozoans are parasites d) All helminthes and protozoans are parasites e) None of the above 59) Which of the following are flagellates?? a) Trichomonas vaginalis and Trypansoma species. b) Plasmodium species, and Toxoplasma gondii c) Trypanosoma species and Toxoplasma gondii d) Trichomonas vaginalis and Plasmodium species. e) None of the Above 60) What is the cell wall of fungi composed of? a) Chitin b) Glucan c) Mannan d) A and C e) All of the above 61) Which of the following are matched incorrectly? a) Rhizopods and Binary fission b) Cilates and Cilia c) Flagellates and Budding d) Rhizopods and Pseudopods e) All of the above are correct 62) Which of the following protozoa & organelle for locomotiondoes not match? a) Rhizopods: Pseudopods b) Ciliates: Flagella c) Sporozoans: None d) All the above e) None of the above 63) Which of the following describes features of the pathogenesis of cerebral malaria? a) Erythrocyte aggregation in small blood vessels b) Inflammation c) Coagulation disorder d) Multiple petechial hemorrhages e) All the above 64) Cestodes are: a) A type of sporozoa. b) Round worms, which have a cylindrical body. c) Tapeworms, which have a flat ribbon-shaped body. d) Flukes, which are leaf-shaped and have a blind branched alimentary tract. e) None of the above.

MICR 201 Summer 2012 Quiz 2

Student generated multiple choice questions for

65) The diagram above shows the life cycle of the Plasmodium. Letter B represents which stage?
a) sporozoites b) oocyst c) zygote d) gametocytes e) merozoites 66) The diagram above shows the life cycle of the Plasmodium. Letter C represents which stage? a) sporozoites b) oocyst c) zygote d) gametocytes e) merozoites 67) The diagram above shows the life cycle of the Plasmodium. Letter D represents which stage? a) sporozoites b) oocyst c) zygote d) gametocytes e) merozoites Chapter 15 68) Among the key functions of sebum is a) to secrete waste material from the body b) to form a protective layer on the skin c) to form of mechanical barrier d) to regulate body temperature e) All of the above 69) Which of the following can be also considered as a mechanical barrier against infection? a) Sebum b) Blood c) Gastric Juice d) Saliva e) Perspiration 70) Which of the following leukocyte types is not involved in the innate immune response? a) Basophil b) Lymphocyte c) Monocyte d) Eosinophil e) Neutrophil

MICR 201 Summer 2012 Quiz 2

Student generated multiple choice questions for

71) Activation of TLRs leads to the release of which of the following with direct antibacterial action?. a) Phagocytes b) Cytokines c) Chemokines d) Erythrocytes e) Antimicrobial Peptides 72) A harsh pH environment caused by gastric juices is one of the human bodys chemical defenses limits microbial growth. However, which microorganism is capable of sustaining life in this environment, and if left unchecked can cause stomach ulcers and may lead to cancer? a) P. aeruginosa b) B. megaterium c) H. pylori d) Both B and C e) None of the above 73) Which of the following is not considered a mechanical barrier to infection? a) Skin b) Mucous Membrane c) Saliva d) Sebum e) Epiglottis 74) Which of the following is false about innate immune response? a) Develops memory b) Immediately available c) Limited Specificity d) Initiates adaptive response e) None of the above 73) Sebum, perspiration, gastric juice and urine are all examples of? a) Chemical Barriers b) Mechanical Barriers c) Microbiological Barriers d) Both A and B e) None of the above 74) All of these white blood cells are a part of the innate immune response except? a) Basophil b) Neutrophil c) Eosinophil d) Monocyte e) Lymphocyte 75) Innate immune responses_______________ a) are highly specific. b) lead to immunological memory. c) occur within hours after infection d) All are correct. e) None is correct. 76) The classification of pathogenic fungi is NOT based on __________. a) septation of the hyphae b) mRNA c) the diseases they produce d) the tissue type they invade e) the nature of their sexual spores 77) All of the following cells are involved in the innate immune response except a) Eosinophil b) Monocyte c) Basophil d) Neutrophil e) Lymphocyte 78) Which of the following is correctly matched?

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MICR 201 Summer 2012 Quiz 2

Student generated multiple choice questions for

a) Redness: rubor b) Pain: dolor c) Heat: calor d) Swelling: tumor e) All of the above. 79) The characteristics of cytokines include all of the following, except: a) They are secreted from white blood cells (and other cells) when the body has been invaded by pathogens. b) They regulate inflammation and the immune response. c) They have overlapping functions that act as a network. d) The react with specific receptors on their target cells and alter the activity of those cells. e) All of the above are correct. 80) Which of the following can represents uo to 70% of the white blood cell population? a) Eosinophils b) Neutrophils c) Basophils d) Monocytes e) Lymphocytes 81) All of these are true statements about normal microbiota except? a) Mucosal surfaces are more populated than skin. b) Sites far to body entrances are more populated. c) The normal microbiota stimulates the immune system. d) Members of the microbiota produce antimicrobials. e) All of the above are true statements about normal microbiota.

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