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c. IX, X XI d. V, X, XI 5. In undisplaced fracture of neck of femur the ideal treatment includes a. Skeletal traction b. Internal fixation c. Femoral head prosthesis d. Each of the above has similar prospects and results 6. A person skying on a slope falls and presents with pain in the wrist. On examination there is no deformity. The diagnosis is a. Colles fracture b. Scaphoid fracture c. Trapezius dislocation d. Lunate subluxation 7. A patient with Hb level 6 gms/dl, TLC -3500 and platelet count 50,000. The most probable diagnosis is a. Leukemia b. Multiple myeloma c. Aplastic anemia d. Megaloblastic anemia

IMHANS PG Entrance Questions


1. A 17 yr nonsmoking man presents with deep venous thrombosis and a pulmonary embolus. This is his second hospital admission for a similar presentation 1 yr ago. The patient has a family history for reccurent pulmonary emboli. The PTT remains normal after initiation of heparin therapy. Another dose of heparin produces similar results. The patient most likely has a. von Willibrands disease b. Antithrombin III deficiency c. Antibodies against heparin d. Protien C defect 2. All of the following are hypercoagulable conditions except a. AT III deficincy b. Protien C deficiency c. Protien S defieciency d. Anti Lupus anticoagulant deficiency

8. Fresh frozen plasma is best given in which of the following situations a. Post op bleeding b. Elective endoscopy where PT has been found to have increased due to effect of coumarin 3. All of the following are responsible for c. Bleeding due to thrombocytopenia internal rotation of shoulder joint except d. In burns patient a. Infraspinatus 9. A patient presented with pulmonary b. Teres Major embolism the treatment to be given is c. Deltoid a. Urokinase with fibrinolytics d. Pectoralis Major b. IV heparin with continous infusion followed by coumarin for 4-5 months 4. In a patient presenting with hoarseness of c. Subcutaneous Heparin 5000 units voice, inability to turn head to left against d. Warfarin with INR 1-1.5 resistance was on examination found to have 10. In a patient post myocardial infarction a swelling in the cervical region. The nerves developed atrial fibrillation. Subsequently affected in the lesion are the ECHO showed a mural thrombus. The a. IX, XII XII management is by b. VII, X, XI Visit our PLAB section www.aippg.com/plab-uk/ Page 1 of 12

www.Aippg.com Medical Post Graduation Information For ALL Medical PG papers visit www.aippg.com/pg/ a. Warfarin b. Cardioversion c. Digoxin d. Propranolol 11 The first step on priority basis required in the management of status epilepticus is a. IV Diazepam b. IV phenytoin c. Airway mainetenance d. IV phenobarbitone 12. A patient develops mitral regurgitation following myocardial infarction. The likely cuase for this complication is a. Infarction involving the valve b. Rupture of chordae tendinae c. Dilatation of the ventricle d. Atrial fibrillation 13. A patient with congestive heart failure was started on digoxin and diuretics. He later presents with bradycardia and GIT upset and visual disturbances. His K+ was found to be 2.5. The reason for these features is a. Left ventricular aneurysm b. Digoxin toxicity c. Viral gastroenteritis d. Hypokalemia d. Opposition 16. Supracondylar fracture is associated most commonly with which of the following nerve lesions a. Ulnar nerve b. Radial nerve c. Median nerve d. Posterior interossios nerve 17. In Dupytrens contracture true is a. It is due to acute tenosynovitis b. The treatment is total excision of the palmar fascia c. The mainstay of treatment is steroids and physiotherapy d. The little finger is rarely involved 18. Infection from flexor pollicis longus sheath would most likely spread to a. 2nd digit b. 3rd digit c. 4th digit d. 5th digit

19. A 60 year old patient came with 4 episodes of massive bleeding per rectum. On examination the abdomen is soft and there is no tenderness, with bowel sounds being normal. The most likely diagnosis is a. Diverticulitis b. Carcinoma rectum 14. Oculomotor nerve passes between which c. Heamorroids of the following d. Peptic ulcer disease a. Superior cerebellar artery and posterior cerebral artery 20. In intestinal obstruction true is b. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery and a. Closed loop obstruction is to be treated as middle cerebral artery an emergency c. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery and b. Long tubes used to treat obstruction are posterior cerebellar artery now outdated and not used in modern d. Posterior cerebral artery and anterior practice communicating artery c. A delay in operation in a patient with 15. In a patient with complete median nerve partial loop obstruction is not beneficial as palsy the function totally lost is compared to an early operation a. Flexion d. In strangulated obstruction the events b. Abduction occur so fast that fluid and electrolyte c. Adduction Visit our PLAB section www.aippg.com/plab-uk/ Page 2 of 12

www.Aippg.com Medical Post Graduation Information For ALL Medical PG papers visit www.aippg.com/pg/ disturbances do not occur at the time of presentation 21. A patient was found to have flushing and episodes of hypotension. Ultrasound scan showed multiple small nodular lesions in the liver. The patient was found to have carcinoid syndrome. The site from which the tumor has most likely arisen from is a. Small intestine b. Apendix c. Descinding colon d. Ascending colon c. As the subphrenic space is surrounded by the falciform ligament and other hepatic ligament anteriorly the subphrenic space is best approached through the bed and 12th rib d. It occurs most commonly following hepatic abscess rupture 26. A patient was operated 2 months back and at that time a midline inscicion was used. Now he requires a second operation and this the ideal incision to be used now is a. A fresh transverse incision b. The scar of the previous incision is 22. A patient presented with headache and excised and the same incision is used episodes of hypertension. In between the c. The same incision used without excision episodes he was found to be normal. His of old scar urinary VMA levels were found to be raised. d. A paramedian incision is to be used The diagnosis is 27. In a trauma patient presenting to the a. Carcinoid syndrome casualty the fluid to be given initially is b. Pheochromocytoma a. Normal saline c. Small cell carcinoma b. Ringers Lactae d. Adissons disease c. Dextrose 5% d. Blood 23. A patient on colonoscopy was found to have tubular adenoma which was removed. 28. Most common complication in varicose The pathology report suggested that the vein surgery is adenoma was found to extend upto the a. Echymosis muscularis mucosae. The management now b. Deep vein thromosis includes c. Recurrence of varicosity a. Fulguration at the site of the polypectomy d. Venous ulcer b. Sigmoid colectomy c. Observation 29. Infection draining the index finger goes d. Left hemicolectomy to a. Thenar space 24. True regarding anaerobic infection is b. Mid palmar space a. Anaerobic bacteria are present in the skin c. Ulnar bursa and mucosae d. Radial bursa b. If properly cultured then bacteroides account for 20% of cases causing peritonitis 30. True regarding akathasia is c. Penicillin is ineffective in the treatment of a. Treatment is by anticholinergics anaerobic infections b. Patient wanders away from home 25. True regarding subphrenic abscess is c. Presents with hallucinations a. Subphrenic abscess is most common d. Behavioral therapy is required following stomach surgery 31 Most common complication in colles b. It is most commonly seen following fracture is biliary tract surgery a. Malunioin Visit our PLAB section www.aippg.com/plab-uk/ Page 3 of 12

www.Aippg.com Medical Post Graduation Information For ALL Medical PG papers visit www.aippg.com/pg/ b. Non union c. Sudecks osteodystrophy d. Rupture of extensor pollicis b. The ascending colon and descending colon are retroperitoneal c. The transverse colon is largely extraperitoneal 32. Regarding testicular torsion all of the d. The whole of colon is supplied by the following are true except vagus a. Is to be differentiated from acute 38. The vagus nerve supplies the large epididymitis intestine closest upto b. Immediate management is mainly medical a. Hepatic flexure and surgery indicated later b. Splenic flexure c. Billaterality common c. Ceacum d. May not present with dysuria d. Rectosigmoid junction 33. In Webers syndrome true is a. Lesion is in pons 39. True about histology of large intestine is b. Associated with 3rd nerve palsy a. The outer longitudinal and inner circular c. Hemiplegia on ipsilateraal side of lesion muscle are complete d. Immediate surgery is the treatment b. The pilcae circularis form the haustra 34. A child suffered through trauma and had c. The mucous cells line only the ascending to undergo splenectomy for splenic injury colon and blood loss. The further management 40 True about the pancreas is includes all of the following except a. The uncinate process is just ventral to a. Continous pencillin treatment where the splenic and the superior b. Continous aspirin to prevent coagulation mesenteric vein unite c. The parents are advised of the possible b. Duct of santorinin is ventral to the duct of complications the child is prone for wirsung d. Repeated evaluation for potential c. The two ducts rarely unite to form complications common entry into the duodenum 35. True regarding mammography is d. The main blood supply to the pancreas is a. 2 rads of exposure is given each time from the splenic artery hence it is not generally preferred 41. Which of the following is true b. It can detect small lesions which are not a. The right gastric artery arises from the palpable clinically common hepatic artery c. It can accurately diagnose carcinoma b. Ligation of the splenic artery causes d. Not very useful as a screening tool infarction of the greater curvature of the 36 . A patient presented with epidoses of stomach flushing and hypotension. His urinary c. Gastroepiploiec arteries arise from 5HIAA levels were found to be increased. gastrodoudenal and splenic arteries The diagnosis is d. The lesser cuvature gets its blood supply a. Pheochromocytoma mainly from the short gastric vessels b. Carcinoid syndrome 42. A smoker presented with altered c. Adissons disease sensorium. His blood osmolality was found d. SIADH to be 240 and urine osmolality 340. His Na+ is 122 meq/L. The diagnosis is 37. True regarding the large intestine is a. Diabetes insipidus a. The rectum is partly retroperitoneal and b. SIADH partly free c. Renal tubular acidosis Visit our PLAB section www.aippg.com/plab-uk/ Page 4 of 12

www.Aippg.com Medical Post Graduation Information For ALL Medical PG papers visit www.aippg.com/pg/ d. Cerebellar degeneration 43. A patient came with history of fall and on examination there was tenderness between the extensor pollicis longus and brevis. The likely lesion is a. Scaphoid # b. 1st metacarpal # c. Lower end of radius # d Trapezoid # 44. A child when playing had cat scratches over his hand. After 2 days he developed lymphadenopathy. Which group of the lymphnodes are involved if the scatches are over the region where the cephalic vein penetrates into the deeper fascia. a. Deltopectoral group b.Lateral group c. Clavipectoral group d. Central group 45 Inability to abduct left eye with LMN fascial palsy on same side. The lesion is in a. Left pons b. Right pons c. CP angle tumor d. Cerebellar lesions 46. In a patient with burns a. Carbon monoxide is highly toxic to the pulmnory tract b. Early tracheostomy is indicated because it is difficult to to pass tube through inflamed pharynx c. The laryngeal edema can occur as late as 48 hours 47 In a patient presenting odynophagia with oral thrush the chest xray was found to be normal. The CD4 count was found to be 2400. The next step in management is a. Fluconazole b. Acyclovir c. Endoscopy with biopsy of lesion d. IV amphotericin B 48. Pulmonary fibrosis is caused by all of the following except a. Clindamycin b. Nitrofurantoin c. Methysergide d. Amidarone 49. A drug which causes parkinsonism and is not to be used in patients with this type of disease is a. Methysergide b. Haloperidol c. Riluzole d. Phenytoin 50. In a child with hernia on the right side the management is a. High ligation of the lesion is done b. The distal sac needs to be excised as it can develop hydrocele c. Opposite side needs to be explored as bilaterality is common d. X ray of the abdomen is useful for diagnosis 51. In a patient with subclavian steel syndrome true is a. The flow of blood in the vertebral arteries is normal b. The BP is decreased on the ipsilateral side c. The patients commonly present with cluadication features d. The patients commonly present with neurological features 52 In a patient with cervical disc prolapse the management includes a. Immediate restrictive excercises b. Skeletal traction and manipulation

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www.Aippg.com Medical Post Graduation Information For ALL Medical PG papers visit www.aippg.com/pg/ c. Immediate surgery to prevent neurological complications d. Medical management only 53. True regarding lymphatics is a. Arise just below the derrnis b. Flow is because of pulsation of arteries and muscular contractions c. RBC's and WBC's are not seen in the lymphatic flow d. These are valveless 54. Vitamin D deficiency is caused by all of the following except a. Cirrhosis b. Celiac sprue c. Hypoprotienemia d. CRF 55. True regarding osteosarcoma is a. Pain is 1st due to pathologic fractures b. 10% arise from pagets disease c. Spread is mainly by lymphatic route d. Most common site is Diaphysis of femur 56. True about follicular carcinoma is a. Discrete capsule excludes carcinoma b. Multicentricity same as in papillary carcinoma c. Spreads more to distal sites then to the regional lymphnodes d. FNAC is very useful in making a diagnosis 57 In a 3yr child fever with nuchal rigidity and other signs of meningitis is most likely caused by which of the following a. Gram negative bacilli b. Gram positive bacilli c. Gram positive cocci d. Gram negative cocci 58. In a patient with eye opening to pain , no motor and verbal response the GCS score is a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 59. In a lady presenting with preeclampsia all of the following drugs can be used in treatment except a. Labetalol b. Methyl dopa c. Enalapril d. Hydralizine 60. In trauma to chest the region of aorta most commonly injured is a. The site of origin of the aorta b. The descending aorta where it is passing though the diaphragm c. The arch just distal to the attachment of the ligamentus arteriosis d. Ascending aorta 61. Drug of choice in the treatment of onchocerciasis is a. DEC b. Ivermectin c. Ketoconazole d. Cotrimoxazole 62. Most common complication following splenectomy is a. Left lower lobe atelectasis b. Wound dehiscence c. Pneumococcal septicemia d. Deep vein thrombosis 63. True regarding aortic aneurysm is a. The mortality in emergency operation is less then 10%

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www.Aippg.com Medical Post Graduation Information For ALL Medical PG papers visit www.aippg.com/pg/ b. The size does not correlate with chances of rupture c. Renal infarction is common in surgery for rupture d. Thoraxic aneurysms have better prognosis 64. Full thickness graft is indicated in a. Deep burns b. Burns over large areas c. Fascial regions for cosmetic effect d..Over the back 65. TSH secreted from the pituitary gland is under control by a. TRH and T3 ,T4 b. Releasing factors same as those of cortisol c. Releasing factors bypass neurohypophysis to act on the anterior pituitary d. TRH only 66. In a patient with thrombotic Thrombocytopenia all of the following are seen except a. Anemia b. Neurologic features c. Thrombocytopenia d. Coomb's positive 67. In a 32 weeks preterm baby the X ray showed diffuse opacities bilaterally. The diagnosis is a. Congenital cystic lungs b. RDS c. Diaphramatic hernia d. Tracheo-esophageal fistula 68. All of the following are true regarding hyaline membrane disease except a. Corticosteroids will prevent the disease b.Artificial surfactant will decrease features c. More common in females d. PEEP is used in the treatment

Multiple choice questions (MCQs)


a. b. c. d. 1 and 3 are correct 1 and 2 are correct 1,2 and 4 are correct 1, 2,3,4 are correct

69. Complications of chicken pox include 1. Pancreatitis 2. Pneumonia more in children then in adults 3. Proliferative glomerulonephritis 4. Encephalitis 70. Non metastatic complications of carcinoma lung include 1. Myasthenia gravis 2. Cerebellar dysplasia 3. Polyneuropathy 4. SIADH

True False Type Questions.


Answer as true or false for each option 1. In Normal distribution curve a. Is bell shaped , symmetrical and on the x axis b. Occurs only in normal people c. Median=mode=mean 2. Regarding mean, median and mode a. Mode-nominal value b. Mean -is sensitive to extreme values c. Median - is not sensitive to extreme values 3. Categorical values are a. Age b. Weight c. Gender

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www.Aippg.com Medical Post Graduation Information For ALL Medical PG papers visit www.aippg.com/pg/ 4. Atypical antipshycotics are a. Clozapine b. Olanzapine c. Metrizamide 5. Regarding Pick's disease a. Neurofibrillary tangles are seen b. Posterior 2/3rd temporal lobe atrophy accurs c. Sparing of caudate lobe and putamen 6. About Prion disease correct are, it is a. Fatal familial insomnia b. Lewy body disease c. Lyme's disease 7. Sleep in the elderly true is a. REM sleep decreased to 5 % b. Stage 4 sleep increased c. Sleep cycle unlatered 8. True about treatment of menorrhagia is a. Naproxen b. Traneaxamic acid c. Diazoxide 9. In clinical trials true are a. Step I: animal trial b. Step II: trial in healthy volunteers c. Step III: concerns drug marketing 10. The correct matches are a. Arsenic - blue gum's line b. Manganese- parkinsonism c. Asbestos - lung carcinoma 11. Correct matches are a. Aspergillosis- cell mediated cytotoxicity b. Serum sickness- immune mediated reaction c. Erthroblastosis - cell mediated immunity 12. About dopamine receptors true is/are a. D1 recptors are auto receptors b. D2 D5 mediate through adenyl cyclase c. D4 receptors act via kinase 13. True about mechanism of action of drugs is a. Erythromycin -attaches to ribososme and inhibits DNA replication b. Rifampicin- inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase c. Vancomycin acts on cell wall 14. Left shift of oxygen dissociation curve occurs due to a. Increased temperature b. Metabolic acidosis c. Chronic hypoxia 15. True about akathesia is a. Most common complication of SSRI use b. Anticholinergics are used for treatment c. Wanders away from home 16. Correctly matched choices are a. Lady Macbeth - Obsessive compulsive disease b. Othello- Delusional jealousy c. Helmet- Multiple personality 17. Prolactin is inhibited by a. Serotonin b. Estrogen c. Oxytocin 18. Regarding post traumatic stress disorder true is a. Anxiety is a feature b. Occurs after days after stress c. Hallucinations are a prominent feature 19.True about feautures in catotonic schizophrenia is/are a. Echolalia b. Anhedonia c. Ambitendency 20. Complications in anorexia nervosa include a. Esophagitis

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www.Aippg.com Medical Post Graduation Information For ALL Medical PG papers visit www.aippg.com/pg/ b. Ammenorrhea c. Osteoporosis 21. EEG changes seen correctly matched are a. Hypsarrhythmia's- CJ disease b. Absent seizures- 3 Hz spike and dome pattern c. Infantile seizures- focal lateralized slow wave discharges a. Hypothyroidism b. Trisomy 21 c. XII th nerve palsy 29. Blindness can occur due to a. Toxoplasmosis b. Cysticercosis c. Oncocerciasis

30. True about carotid artery stenosis is 22. In histolopathology findings correctly a. Bruit relates to severity matched are b. Lesion more common in external carotid a. Dysplasia- change of histology from one artery form to another c. Surgery is most commonly performed b. Anaplasia - complete change of cells c. Metaplasia- involving basement 31.About abdominal aneurysm is membrane a. Size relates to chances of rupture b. Usually asymptomatic till rupture 23. Drugs with acetyl cholinesterase activity c. 30 day mortality in emergency operation used in alziemers disease are is less then 10% a. Donezepil b. Galamatine 32. True about bladder carcinoma is c. Piracetam a. Painless heamturia is most common symptom 24. MRI is contraindicated in b. Alcohol consumption is a predisposing a. IUD device factor b. 3rd trimester pregnancy c. >90% are squamous cell carcinoma c. Pace maker implants 33. Second messengers are 25. Diseases which can lead to dementia a. Inositol P a. Syphillis b. DAG b. Gonorrhea c. PLC c. Prion disease 34. In Nicotine addiction the treatment is 26. Cryptococcus meningitis true is a. Nicotine nasal spray a. Cryptococcal memningitis is more b. Diazepam common then crypticoccal pneumonia c. Naltrexone b. Leucopenia is a distinct feature c. Ketoconazole is used in treatment 35. Alcohol craving is decreased by a. Disulfiram 27. Correctly matched stains used include b. Acomprosite a. Giemsa-Pneumocystis carinii c. Naltrexone b. Mucicarmine- leishmaniaisis c. Warthin starry- H.Pylori 36. MDMA a. Ecstasy is another name for it 28. Enlarged tongue is seen in b. It's a cocaine congener Visit our PLAB section www.aippg.com/plab-uk/ Page 9 of 12

www.Aippg.com Medical Post Graduation Information For ALL Medical PG papers visit www.aippg.com/pg/ c. Cuases parkinsonism like syndrome 37. A 3 year old child can a. Hop on one foot b. Copy a square c. Match as per shape 38. Hallucination is seen in a. Delusional syndrome b. Delirium c. Mania 39. Regarding ovarian neoplasm true is a. Most common from epithelium b. Most commonly benign c. Germ cell tumors are mostly malignant 40. In HIV vaccines that can be given are a. Measles b. Oral typhoid vaccine c. Hepatitis A vaccine 41. True about Fragile X syndrome is a. Father to son transmission b. CGG repeats c. Mental retardation present 42. Regarding Meiosis true is a. Do not occur in X and Y chromosome b. Halves the diplopiod number c. It is longer in males then females 43. Mendalian theory cannot explain a. Polygenic inheritance b. Genetic linkages c. Autosomal recessive inheritance 44. Diseases with trinucloetide repeats occurs in a. Friedricks ataxia b. Alzheimers disease c. Fatal familial insomnia 45. Babinski's reflex is weak in a. Hypothyroidism b. Parkinsonism c. Disc herniation 46. True are a. Cerebellar nystagmus are gaze evoked nystagmus b. Sea saw nystagmus is associated with homonymous heminaopia c. Down beat nystagmus - is seen in brianstem herniation 47. In vestibular dysfunction causing dizziness a. It is continous b. More on moving head c. Worsens on lying down 48. True about ASPERGERS syndrome is a. Language development delayed b. Retts syndrome is more common in boys c. Treatment is mainly behavioral therapy 49. True about memory is a. Riding tricycle is-implicit memory b. Mathemetical calculation is episodic memory c. Naming is declerative memory 50. Correctly matched are a. Stalking-deUamberlauts syndrome b. Frued- Caapgras syndrome c. ***- Cotards syndrome 51. Regarding medical ethics a. Primus non onre means patient comes first b. Res ipsa laquire means the thing speaks for itself 52. In trichotillomania features seen are a. Nail biting b. Associated with alopecia c. Antipsychotics are used in treatment 53. Restless leg syndrome true is a. Feautures are more common in day time

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www.Aippg.com Medical Post Graduation Information For ALL Medical PG papers visit www.aippg.com/pg/ b. Legs are restless in the day c. Treatment is dopaminergic medications 54. Large pulmonary embolism can present as a. Bradycardia b. Decreased JVP c. Syncope 55. True regarding succinyl choline is a. Succinyl choline has increased activity in pseudocholinesterase dysfunction b. Causes increase in IOT c. Is a competitive muscle relaxant 56. True about muscle relaxants are a. Vecuronium is a depolarizing agent b. Mivacurium is shortest acting non depolarizing agent c. Succinyl choline causes phase 2 block 57. Correctly matched are a. Koch-Germ theory b. Halsted- heart transplant c. Pastuer -chicken pox vaccine 58. Correctly matched are a. Gluconeogenesis- Cortisol b. Hepatic glycogenesis- insulin c. Hepatic glygenolysis- growth hormone 59. Treatment of hyperkalemia is a. Sodium bicarbonate and calcium gluconate b. Glucose and insulin c. Na+ K+ exchange resin 60. Treatment in rapid cyclers is a. Valproate b. Carbamazpine c. Phenytoin 61. Correctly matched are a. Erythema multiforme- orf b. Erythema marginatum - lymes disease c. Erythema induratum- Syphillis 62. True about Schizophrenia in female is a. Insidious in onset in females b. Occurs later in life in females c. Poorer prognosis 63. OCD in female patients is a. Depressive episode is more in men b. Bipolar more in females c. Duration of depression more in females 64. Kline Levine syndrome true is a. Hyposexuality b. Polyphagia c. Due to frontal lobe excision 65. In frontotemporal lesion true is a. Intact memory b. Speech disturbance c. Primitive reflexes 66. In benign intracranial hypertension a. Treatment is needed in all cases b. Mostly asymptomatic c. CT shows diffuse opacities 67. In accommodation reflex a. Sphincter muscle of iris dilates b. Lens curvature increases c. Cilliary muscles relax 68. As per revised national tuberculosis programme a. Chest xray is valued as most diagnostic b. HIV status is taken as separate category c. Treatment are supervised on daily basis 69. Pottasium sparing diuretics are a. Tiamterine b. Ethacrinic acid c. Metrizamide 70. In trichotillomania features seen are a. Nail biting b. Associated with alopecia c. Treatment is by antipsychotics

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www.Aippg.com Medical Post Graduation Information For ALL Medical PG papers visit www.aippg.com/pg/ Visit our PG medical Message board www.aippg.com/question_forum.html This NIHMANS Contributed by DR Shrivastava , Hyderabad. 2001-2002 Aippg.com Inc All Rights Reserved

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