Exam Name___________________________________

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) The analysis of the internal structure of individual cells is called A) anatomy. B) cytology. C) embryology. D) physiology. E) histology. 2) The thoracic cavity contains the A) coelom. B) pericardial cavity. C) pelvic cavity. D) pericardial and pleural cavities. E) pleural cavities. 3) The pituitary gland and thyroid gland are organs of the ________ system. A) cardiovascular B) respiratory C) lymphatic D) digestive E) endocrine 4) Terms of anatomical direction are used to describe A) the nervous system. B) living matter. C) surgical procedures. D) a supine position. E) one body part in relation to another. 5) A person who is standing facing forward with hands at the sides and palms facing forward is in the A) sagittal position. B) prone position. C) frontal position. D) anatomical position. E) supine position. 6) The liver is primarily located in the ________ quadrant. A) left upper B) hepatic C) right upper D) left lower E) right lower

7) Organ physiology is to ________ as gross anatomy is to ________. A) imbalance; microscopic anatomy B) cell physiology; microscopic anatomy C) macroscopic anatomy; unbalance D) equilibrium; macroscopic anatomy E) balance; equilibrium 8) ________ is considered the oldest medical science. A) Biology B) Physiology C) Anatomy D) Embryology E) Cytology 9) The study of the liver is to gross anatomy as the study of a liver cell is to A) systemic anatomy. B) physiology. C) radiographic anatomy. D) regional anatomy. E) cytology. 10) Which organ system provides support, protection of soft tissue, mineral storage, and blood formation? A) muscular B) skeletal C) integumentary D) nervous E) endocrine 11) This type of feedback exaggerates the effects of variations from normal. A) positive B) negative C) depressing D) neutral E) All of the answers are correct. 12) The maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment in an organism is termed A) integration. B) homeostasis. C) positive feedback. D) negative feedback. E) effector control. 13) Anatomical features that change during illness are studied in ________ anatomy. A) pathological B) surface C) gross D) microscopic E) regional

14) The serous membrane covering the stomach and most of the intestines is called the A) mediastinum. B) peritoneum. C) pericardium. D) abdomen. E) pleura. 15) A midsagittal section of the body would pass through the A) kidney. B) lung. C) spleen. D) leg. E) heart. 16) If a response increases a disturbance, the control system is classified as a ________ feedback system. A) neutral B) positive C) deficit D) negative E) polarized 17) Which of the following terms refers to the foot? A) femoral B) brachial C) cervical D) antebrachial E) pedal 18) The study of the first two months of development is termed A) embryology. B) pathology. C) cytology. D) organology. E) histology. 19) The integrating center for the negative feedback loop that regulates body temperature is the A) temperature sensor. B) skin. C) thermostat. D) hypothalamus. E) positive feedback center. 20) An anatomical term that means the same as ventral: A) anterior B) posterior C) abdominal D) superior E) inferior

21) In general, the nervous system does each of the following, except A) help to maintain homeostasis. B) direct long-term responses to change. C) interpret sensory information. D) direct very specific responses. E) respond rapidly to change. 22) Which plane divides the body into right and left parts? A) orthogonal B) proximal C) sagittal D) frontal E) transverse 23) The study of the function of specific organ systems is called A) systemic physiology. B) pathological physiology. C) histology. D) organ physiology. E) cell physiology. 24) Which organ system removes carbon dioxide from the bloodstream? A) cardiovascular B) lymphatic C) respiratory D) endocrine E) digestive 25) Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the most complex to the simplest? A) tissue, cellular, molecular, organ, system, organism B) organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular C) molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism D) cellular, tissue, molecular, system, organ, organism E) organ, organism, molecular, cellular, tissue, system 26) A cell or an organ that responds to commands of the control center in negative feedback is termed a(n) A) thermoregulator. B) effector. C) stimulus. D) hypothalamus. E) receptor. 27) Lungs are to the respiratory system as the liver is to the ________ system. A) lymphatic B) urinary C) nervous D) digestive E) cardiovascular

28) The two major divisions of the ventral body cavity are the A) pelvic and thoracic. B) lateral and medial. C) thoracic and abdominopelvic. D) cranial and sacral. E) dorsal and ventral. 29) While standing in the anatomical position, A) front refers to anterior. B) back refers to dorsal. C) back refers to posterior. D) front refers to ventral. E) All of the answers are correct. 30) When body temperature rises, a center in the brain initiates physiological changes to decrease the body temperature. This is an example of A) nonhomeostatic regulation. B) diagnostic regulation. C) negative feedback. D) positive feedback. E) fever. 31) The study of the superficial and internal features in a specific area of the body is called ________ anatomy. A) surface B) surgical C) pathological D) regional E) radiographic 32) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? A) releases chemical messengers called hormones B) produces an effect that involves several organs or tissues at the same time C) important homeostatic system D) produces a more rapid response than the nervous system E) produces effects that last for days or longer 33) Cardiovascular function is an example of A) organ physiology. B) pathological physiology. C) physiological chemistry. D) histophysiology. E) systemic physiology. 34) The quadrants of the abdominopelvic region include all of the following except: A) right upper quadrant (RUQ) B) left lower quadrant (LLQ) C) pelvic quadrant D) left upper quadrant (LUQ) E) right lower quadrant (RLQ)

35) Which of the following regions corresponds to the buttocks? A) lumbar B) thoracic C) cephalic D) gluteal E) pelvic 36) Which organ system transports nutrients, metabolic wastes, gases, and defense cells? A) muscular B) respiratory C) cardiovascular D) digestive E) urinary 37) The chin is ________ to the nose. A) superior B) inferior C) medial D) posterior E) anterior 38) Which of the following study methods are useful for anatomy and physiology courses? A) Read the lecture sections before class. B) Devote a block of time for study. C) Develop memorization skills. D) Do not procrastinate. E) All of the answers are correct. 39) Anatomy is to ________ as physiology is to ________. A) form; structure B) growth; form C) function; form D) structure; form E) structure; function 40) An example of a receptor in a negative feedback loop controlling body temperature would be A) regulatory centers that send commands to an effector. B) temperature sensors on the skin that detect a stimulus. C) sweat glands that act like effectors. D) effectors that cause blood vessels to dilate. E) sweat glands that increase secretion. 41) While standing erect, the direction of caudal is A) toward the head. B) lateral to the trunk. C) medial to the sides. D) toward the heel. E) posterior to the head.

42) Which of the following is not considered an abdominopelvic region? A) right inguinal region B) left lumbar C) upper D) left hypochondriac E) right hypochondriac 43) The wrist is ________ to the elbow. A) proximal B) horizontal C) lateral D) medial E) distal 44) Which of the following organs is located between the peritoneum and the body wall? A) kidney B) stomach C) spleen D) urinary bladder E) large intestine 45) The diaphragm muscle separates the ________ from the ________. A) pericardial cavity; pleural cavity B) abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity C) pericardial sac; pericardial cavity D) thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity E) pleural cavity; mediastinum 46) The plane that separates the abdominal and the pelvic cavities is A) midsagittal on the trunk. B) transverse at the hips. C) superior to the thorax. D) sagittal on the brachium. E) the mediastinum. 47) The mediastinum A) contains the pericardial cavity. B) separates the pleural cavities and includes the pericardial cavity. C) contains the pleural cavities. D) separates the pleural cavities. E) contains the pleural cavities and pericardial cavity. 48) Visceral pericardium is located A) on the heart itself. B) lining the peritoneal cavity. C) on the lung itself. D) lining the pericardial cavity. E) lining the pleural cavity.

49) The heart is ________ to the lungs. A) posterior B) distal C) medial D) proximal E) lateral 50) The kidneys and ureters are organs of the ________ system. A) urinary B) respiratory C) endocrine D) digestive E) lymphatic 51) Radioisotopes have unstable A) electron clouds. B) nuclei. C) protons. D) ions. E) isotopes. 52) Each of the following is an example of an inorganic compound, except A) salts. B) carbohydrates. C) acids. D) bases. E) water. 53) The maximum rate of an enzyme reaction occurs at A) dehydration. B) hydrolysis. C) reversible. D) saturation limit. E) synthesis. 54) By weight, which element is the second most abundant in the human body? A) carbon B) hydrogen C) nitrogen D) calcium E) oxygen 55) The molecule O2 is known as A) organic. B) oxide. C) oxygen. D) oxate E) a salt

56) Identify which of the following is both an anion and a compound: A) NaCl B) Na+ C) K+ D) ClE) HCO3 57) The weakest bond between two atoms is the ________ bond. A) nonpolar B) covalent C) polar D) ionic E) hydrogen 58) Artificial sweeteners A) are naturally similar to sugars. B) are inorganic sugar substitutes. C) are usually not broken down by the body. D) provide the same number of calories as an equivalent amount of sucrose. E) are always some form of carbohydrate. 59) Identify the product formed from the phosphorylation of ADP. A) adenosine triphosphate B) ribose C) deoxyribonucleic acid D) adenine E) adenosine diphosphate 60) The nucleus of an atom consists of A) protons + neutrons. B) protons + electrons. C) protons. D) electrons. E) neutrons. 61) The chemical behavior of an atom is determined by A) the number of protons. B) the size of the atom. C) the number of neutrons. D) the outermost electron shell. E) the mass of the nucleus. 62) The atomic number represents the number of A) electrons in an atom. B) neutrons in an atom. C) protons in an atom. D) protons and neutrons in an atom. E) chemical bonds the atom may form.

63) In an aqueous solution, cations are attracted toward A) salt. B) sodium. C) hydrogen ions. D) anions. E) buffers. 64) Each amino acid differs from another in the A) nature of the side chain. B) size of the amino group. C) number of peptide bonds in the molecule. D) number of central carbon atoms. E) number of carboxyl groups. 65) A shortage of steroids in the body would result in a shortage of A) proteins. B) sex hormones. C) sex hormones and plasma membranes. D) plasma membranes. E) glycogen. 66) The mass of an atom is largely determined by the number of ________ it has. A) protons + electrons B) electrons C) protons D) neutrons E) protons + neutrons 67) If an element is composed of atoms with an atomic number of 6 and a mass number of 14, then a neutral atom of this element contains A) 6 protons. B) 8 electrons. C) 8 neutrons. D) 6 protons and 8 electrons. E) 6 protons and 8 neurons. 68) The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is A) vitamins. B) glucose. C) caffeine. D) protein. E) sucrose. 69) The monomers of protein are A) nucleotides. B) nitrogen base. C) amino acids. D) fatty acids. E) glucose.

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70) An example of an organic substance is: A) lipid B) lipid and protein C) nucleic acid D) protein E) lipid, nucleic acid, and protein 71) Indicate which of these lists contains only trace elements. A) selenium, hydrogen, calcium B) silicon, fluorine, tin C) boron, oxygen, carbon D) sulfur, chlorine, oxygen E) cobalt, calcium, sodium 72) Fructose is A) a hexose. B) found in male reproductive fluids. C) a carbohydrate. D) an isomer of glucose. E) All of the answers are correct. 73) Which of the following substances would be most acidic? A) lemon juice, pH = 2 B) white wine, pH = 3 C) tomato juice, pH = 4 D) stomach secretions, pH = 1 E) urine, pH = 6 74) In a molecule of nitrogen, three pairs of electrons are shared by two nitrogen atoms. The type of bond that is formed is an example of a(n) A) polar covalent bond. B) triple covalent bond. C) hydrogen bond. D) double divalent bond. E) single trivalent bond. 75) Ions in an ionic molecule are held together due to A) the attraction of opposite electrical charges. B) the presence of water molecules. C) each electron orbiting all of the ions in the molecule. D) the sharing of electrons. E) the attraction of similar charges of the ions' protons. 76) When a small amount of HCl or NaOH is added to a solution of Na2 HPO4 , the pH of the solution barely changes. Based on these observations, all of the following are true concerning the compound Na2 HPO4 , except A) Na2 HPO4 is a salt formed from reacting a strong base with a weak acid. B) Na2 HPO4 adsorbs excess H + and OH- directly onto the surface of its crystalline structure. C) Na2 HPO4 acts as a buffer. D) Na2 HPO4 is able to accept extra hydrogen ions from the HCl. E) Na2 HPO4 is able to donate hydrogen ions to the OH- from NaOH. 11

77) Molecules that have the same molecular formula but different structural formulas are called A) isomers. B) isotypes. C) isozymes. D) isotopes. E) isomoles. 78) The alpha-helix and pleated sheet are examples of ________ protein structure. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) pentanary E) quaternary 79) Isotopes of an element differ in the number of A) protons in the nucleus. B) neutrons in the nucleus. C) electrons in energy shells. D) electrons in the nucleus. E) electron clouds. 80) Carbohydrate molecules A) are the building blocks of cellular membranes. B) contain the genetic information found in cells. C) form the regulatory molecules known as enzymes. D) are composed of C, H, O, and N atoms. E) are the body's most readily available source of energy. 81) In an aqueous solution, sodium ions would move toward A) a positive terminal. B) the bottom. C) an organic terminal. D) a negative terminal. E) a pH terminal. 82) The "atomic weight" of an atom reflects the average number of A) protons + neutrons. B) protons. C) neutrons. D) electrons. E) protons + neutrons + electrons. 83) Which pH of the following is the most acidic? A) pH 1 B) pH 6 C) pH 2 D) pH 4 E) pH 3

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84) Substrate molecules bind to enzymes at the ________ sites. A) amino B) carboxyl C) reactant D) neutral E) active 85) One mole of any element A) has the same number of atoms. B) has the same mass. C) has the same number of electrons. D) has the same weight. E) All of the answers are correct. 86) Oppositely charged ions in solution are prevented from combining by A) heat capacity of water. B) hydrogen bonding. C) free radicals. D) water's nonpolar nature. E) hydration spheres. 87) The most abundant high-energy compound in cells is A) adenosine diphosphate. B) adenosine monophosphate. C) adenosine triphosphate. D) DNA. E) RNA. 88) A nucleotide consists of A) a five-carbon sugar and phosphate group. B) a five-carbon sugar and an amino acid. C) a five-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group. D) a five-carbon sugar and a nitrogenous base. E) a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base. 89) Helium (He) has an atomic number of 2. It is chemically stable because it A) readily ionizes to react with other atoms. B) will form a covalent bond with another He atom. C) is neutral in electrical charge. D) has a full outer electron shell. E) lacks electrons, thus the He atom is stable. 90) If an isotope of oxygen has 8 protons, 10 neutrons, and 8 electrons, its mass number is A) 18. B) 16. C) 12. D) 26. E) 8.

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91) An example of an inorganic substance is A) fructose. B) water and carbon dioxide. C) carbon dioxide. D) water. E) glycerol. 92) An amino acid is to a protein as ________ is to a nucleic acid. A) a neutron B) a nucleotide C) a protein D) a proton E) a purine 93) A dust particle floating on a water surface illustrates A) surface tension. B) hydrophilic attraction. C) static electricity. D) heat capacity. E) chemical tension. 94) If a substance has a pH that is greater than 7, it is A) neutral. B) a buffer. C) acidic. D) alkaline. E) a salt. 95) The phosphorylation of adenosine forms A) ATP. B) 2ATP. C) AMP. D) ribose. E) ADP. 96) Nonpolar organic molecules are good examples of A) hydrophilic compounds. B) hydrophobic compounds. C) solutes. D) molecules that will dissociate when placed into water. E) electrolytes. 97) Interaction between individual polypeptide chains to form a protein complex is ________ structure. A) primary B) tertiary C) pentagonal D) secondary E) quaternary

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98) Of the list below, which has the highest concentration of hydroxide ions? A) pH 2 B) pH 14 C) pH 7 D) pH 10 E) pH 1 99) AMP + P A) adenine B) ATP C) ADP D) DNA E) 2ADP 100) A(n) ________ removes hydrogen ions and a(n) ________ releases hydrogen ions. A) element; compound B) compound; element C) molecule; acid D) base; acid E) acid; base 101) Generally, cells with a very brief interphase and lacking a G0 phase A) have brief life spans. B) do not exhibit cytokinesis. C) are reproductive cells. D) lack the enzyme DNA polymerase. E) are stem cells. 102) The components of ribosomes are formed within A) lysosomes. B) Golgi complexes. C) the endoplasmic reticulum. D) mitochondria. E) nucleoli. 103) Water molecules and small ions enter a cell through A) lipid channels. B) peripheral carbohydrates. C) defects in the lipid layer of the membrane. D) channels formed by integral proteins. E) peripheral proteins. 104) The skin swells and puckers during a long bath. This suggests that bath water is a(n) ________ fluid. A) toxic B) isotonic C) diffusion D) hypotonic E) hypertonic

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105) The endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for A) modification of new proteins. B) lipid synthesis. C) shipping molecules to the Golgi apparatus. D) drug and toxin neutralization. E) All of the answers are correct. 106) Osmotic pressure A) increases as solute concentration increases. B) can be opposed by hydrostatic pressure. C) forces water to move across a semipermeable membrane. D) forces water to move toward the higher solute concentration. E) All the answers are correct. 107) Microscopic analysis of a tissue sample indicates that it contains abundant myosin filaments. This tissue is probably contains A) reproductive cells. B) bone cells. C) nerve cells. D) muscle cells. E) liver cells. 108) Imagine two rigid chambers separated by a rigid membrane that is freely permeable to water but impermeable to glucose. Side 1 contains a 10 percent glucose solution and side 2 contains pure water. At equilibrium, what will be the situation? A) Water will continue to move from side 1 to side 2. B) The hydrostatic pressure will be higher in side 2. C) Water will continue to move from side 2 to side 1. D) The hydrostatic pressure will be higher in side 1. E) no way to tell what the situation will be 109) Which of following properties of microtubules is true? A) found only in the terminal web B) interact with dynein and kinesin C) another term for microfilaments D) made of actin E) made of myosin 110) Breathing faster and deeper eliminates more carbon dioxide from the body than normal breathing. Under these circumstances A) more carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood. B) more carbon dioxide will diffuse into the blood. C) the amount of carbon dioxide diffusion will remain unchanged. D) less carbon dioxide will diffuse into the blood. E) less carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood.

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111) The process of forming mRNA is called A) translation. B) replication. C) ribolation. D) transcription. E) auscultation. 112) The watery component of the cytoplasm is called A) protoplasm. B) interstitial fluid. C) extracellular fluid. D) a colloidal gel. E) cytosol. 113) Specific proteins are manufactured through the interaction of ________ and ________. A) multiple enzymes; three types of RNA B) multiple carbohydrates; three types of DNA C) multiple proteins; three types of DNA D) multiple enzymes; three types of DNA E) multiple enzymes; two types of RNA 114) Assume that the transport of a particular amino acid across the plasmalemma is observed (1) to occur only down its concentration gradient and (2) to slow when a similar amino acid is added to the extracellular fluid. The movement of the amino acid through the membrane is most likely by A) pinocytosis. B) facilitated diffusion. C) diffusion. D) osmosis. E) active transport. 115) The plasma membrane is composed of A) carbohydrate molecules. B) a bilayer of phospholipids. C) a bilayer of proteins. D) carbohydrates and proteins. E) carbohydrates and lipids.

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Figure 3-2 The Plasmalemma Use Figure 3-2 to answer the following questions:

116) What part of the plasmalemma is hydrophobic? A) 6 B) 1 C) 3 D) 2 E) 4 117) A cell duplicates its chromosomes during the ________ phase. A) Go B) G1 C) S D) Gm E) G2 118) An impermeable carbohydrate that is often administered to patients suffering blood loss is A) isotonic saline. B) dextran. C) glucose. D) salt solution. E) saline solution.

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119) As genes are functionally eliminated, the cell becomes limited in the range of proteins it can make. This specialization process is termed A) structural integration. B) apoptosis. C) differentiation. D) cellular activation. E) adaptation.

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Figure 3-1 The Anatomy of a Representative Cell Use Figure 3-1 to answer the following questions:

120) The structure labeled "1" permits the cell to A) trap bacteria. B) produce more cells. C) increase surface area for increased membrane transport. D) attach to neighboring cells. E) swim in extracellular fluid.

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121) Which statement best describes osmosis? A) movement of water into a solute B) diffusion of water from a greater to a lesser water concentration across a selectively permeable membrane C) active transport of water across the cell membrane D) diffusion of water from a greater to a lesser water concentration E) random movement of water due to kinetic energy 122) The triplet codes needed to specify a specific polypeptide chain are found in the A) cytoplasm. B) anticodon. C) codon. D) gene. E) polypeptide itself. 123) If an animal cell lacked centrioles, it would not be able to A) metabolize sugars. B) produce DNA. C) synthesize proteins. D) move. E) form the mitotic spindle. 124) The stage in a cell's life cycle in which the cell performs its normal functions and prepares for division is called A) anaphase. B) telophase. C) prophase. D) metaphase. E) interphase. 125) When activated, lysosomes function in A) formation of new cell membranes. B) digestion of foreign material. C) synthesis of proteins. D) synthesis of lipids. E) cell division. 126) The control center for cellular operations is the A) Golgi apparatus. B) ribosome. C) endoplasmic reticulum. D) mitochondria. E) nucleus. 127) The mRNA sequence that is complementary to the sequence ATC on DNA is A) UAG. B) ATC. C) TAG. D) AUC. E) AUG.

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128) A patient suffers blood loss and is given IV fluids that contain an impermeable carbohydrate called dextran which serves to A) make the blood hypertonic. B) provide nutrition. C) reduce blood clotting. D) increase the osmolarity of the blood. E) decrease the osmolarity of the blood. 129) In order to maintain cellular homeostasis, an exchange pump ejects ________ ions from the cell and imports ________ ions. A) sodium; potassium B) sodium; calcium C) potassium; calcium D) potassium; sodium E) calcium; sodium 130) Cancer cells A) have a slow mitotic rate. B) generally form benign tumors. C) are indistinguishable from normal body cells. D) do not form neoplasms. E) may exhibit metastasis. 131) Endocytosis is A) a method for transporting substances into the cell. B) a form of anabolism. C) a method for metabolizing within the cytosol. D) a method for packaging secretions. E) a viral infection. 132) Which of the following about a cell's resting transmembrane potential is false? A) represents potential energy B) controls muscular contraction and nervous signaling C) inside slightly more negative than outside D) inside slightly more positive than outside E) depends on separation of + and charges 133) Before the mRNA transcribed from a gene can be used to translate into a protein, it must be A) edited to remove introns and transported into the cytoplasm. B) coated with phospholipids for transport out of the nucleus. C) edited to remove exons. D) edited to remove introns. E) transported into the cytoplasm. 134) Each of the following statements concerning mitochondria is true, except one. Identify the exception. A) The mitochondria produce most of a cell's ATP. B) The matrix contains metabolic enzymes involved in energy production. C) The cristae increase the inner surface area of the organelle. D) The mitochondria require carbon dioxide and produce oxygen in the process of energy production. E) Respiratory enzymes are attached to the surface of the cristae.

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135) If a cell has 18 chromosomes and undergoes mitosis how many chromosomes would each daughter cell have? A) 18 B) cannot be determined C) 9 D) 36 E) 23 136) The intake of small membrane vesicles from the extracellular fluid is called A) active transport. B) an ion exchange pump. C) facilitated transport. D) osmosis. E) endocytosis. 137) Changes in the transmembrane potential of a cell are involved in A) thought. B) glandular secretion. C) nerve cell communication. D) movement. E) All of the answers are correct.

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Figure 3-1 The Anatomy of a Representative Cell Use Figure 3-1 to answer the following questions:

138) Which structure produces ATP for the cell? A) 5 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1 E) 6

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139) As each codon arrives at the active site of a ribosome, it attracts another molecule containing the anticodon. This molecule is called A) mRNA. B) DNA. C) RER. D) rRNA. E) tRNA. 140) If the concentration of sodium chloride in the interstitial fluid surrounding cells decreases and the concentration of other solutes remains constant, A) the fluid outside of the cells will become hypertonic. B) the cells will swell. C) the cells will shrink. D) the cells will not change. E) the fluid outside of the cells will become isotonic. 141) If a cell lacked the enzyme DNA polymerase, it could not A) form complementary sequences of DNA. B) link segments of DNA together. C) form spindle fibers. D) form protein. E) form a new nuclear membrane during telophase. 142) The plasmalemma includes A) cholesterol. B) glycolipids. C) phospholipids. D) integral proteins. E) All of the answers are correct. 143) Which of the following statements about the Golgi apparatus is false? A) produces secretory vesicles B) receives transport vesicles from the RER C) produces lysosomes D) sends transport vesicles to the RER E) supplies new membrane components 144) Which of these transport processes always requires metabolic energy? A) impermeable B) diffusion C) freely permeable D) vesicular transport E) carrier-mediated transport 145) mRNA is needed to synthesize ________ in the cytoplasm. A) carbohydrates B) proteins C) salts D) lipids E) phospholipids

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146) Molecular motors that carry materials in opposite directions along microtubules are called A) kinesin and myosin. B) dynein and myosin. C) actin and myosin. D) dynein and actin. E) dynein and kinesin. 147) Organelles that break down fatty acids and hydrogen peroxide are A) lysosomes. B) toxisomes. C) peroxisomes. D) nuclei. E) endocytic vesicles.

Figure 3-2 The Plasmalemma Use Figure 3-2 to answer the following questions:

148) Which structure is water most likely to pass through? A) 8 B) 1 C) 4 D) 3 E) 2

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149) The process by which molecules such as glucose are moved into cells along their concentration gradient with the help of membrane-bound carrier proteins is called A) endocytosis. B) active transport. C) osmosis. D) facilitated diffusion. E) exocytosis. 150) An alternate term for tumor is A) cytoplasm. B) nucleoplasm. C) neoplasm. D) primary metastasis. E) benign malignancy.

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