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CODE - B

JEE-ADVANCED(2013)

PART TEST - 1 (Paper I I )

Ti me: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198

S y l l a bu s Cove red

Physics : Unit and dimension, Error Analysis, Kinematics, Laws of Motion and friction, Work, Energy and Power
Chemistry : Some Basic Concept, Atomic Structure, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, States of Matter (Gaseous & liquid)
Mathematics : Functions, Limits, Continuity and Differentiability, Application of Derivatives, Indefinite Integration

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General:
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions.
2. The Test ID is printed on the right hand top corner of this booklet. This should be entered on the OMR sheet.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers, and electronic gadgets in any form are
not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
4. The answer sheet, a machinereadable Optical mark recognition sheet (OMR Sheet), is provided separately.
5. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE OMR SHEET OR THE BOOKLET.
B. Questi on paper format:
6. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I: Physics, Part II: Chemistry, Part III: Mathematics). Each part has
3 sections.
7. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of which
only one i s correct.
8. Section II contains 3 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. There are 6 multiple choice questions
relating to three paragraphs with 2 questions on each paragraph. Each question of a particular paragraph has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE i s correct.
9. Section III contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), for its answer, out of
which one or more i s/are correct.
C. Marking Scheme:
10. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer
and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
11. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer,
and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
12. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct
choice(s) for the answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answers
in this Section.


TEST ID 00043390
JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper II)




B
1

PHYSICS
SECTION I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If the Plancks constant h, velocity of light C and time T are taken as fundamental units, then the
dimension of force in the new system will be
(A) hc
1
T
1
(B) hc
1
T
2
(C) hc
1
T
2
(D) h
1
c
1
T
2

2. Twelve persons are initially at the twelve corners of a regular polygon of twelve sides of side a.
Each person now moves with uniform speed V in such a manner that 1 is always directed towards
2, 2 towards 3, 3 towards 4 and so on. The distance travelled by each person before they meet is
(A)
2a
2 3 +
(B)
2a
2 3
(C)
2a
3
(D)
a
2 3 +

3. If coefficient of friction between all surfaces is 0.4, then the minimum
force F to have the equilibrium of the system will be, (take
g = 10 m/s
2
)
(A) 31.25 N (B) 150 N
(C) 135 N (D) 50 N



4. For the situation shown in the figure, the block is stationary w.r.t.
inclined fixed in an elevator. The elevator is having an acceleration of
5 a
0
whose components are shown in the figure. The surface is
rough and coefficient of static friction between the incline and block is

s
. Determine the magnitude of force exerted by incline on the block.
(take
0
g
a ,
2
= = 37,
s
= 0.6)

(A)
mg
10
(B)
3mg
41
25


(C)
9mg
25
(D)
13mg
2

5. A particle moves with a constant speed u along the curve y = sin x. The magnitude of acceleration
at the point corresponding to x = /2 is :
(A)
2
u
2
(B)
2
u
2
(C) u
2
(D)
2
2u

6. In the situation as shown in figure if acceleration of B is a then
find the acceleration of A
(A) a sin (B) a cot
(C) 2a tan (D) 2a cos


JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper II)


B
2
7. For the system shown in the figure, a small block of mass m and smooth irregular shaped block of
mass M, both free to move are placed on a smooth horizontal plane. The minimum velocity V
o

imparted to block so that it will overcome the highest point of M is


(A) 2gh (B)
m
2 1 gh
M
| |
+
|
\

(C)
2m
gh
M
(D)
M
2 1 gh
m
| |
+
|
\

8. If error in the measurement of mass is 0.8% and in volume it is 0.4%, then error in the
measurement of density is
(A) 1.2 % (B) 0.4 % (C) 0.8 % (D) 1%


SECTION II
Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 9 to 10

A particle initially (i.e. at time t = 0) moving with a velocity u is subjected to a retarding force, as
a result of which it decelerates at a rate a k = where is the instantaneous velocity and k is
a positive constant.
9. The particle comes to rest in a time
(A)
2 u
k
(B)
u
k
(C) 2k u (D) k u
10. The distance covered by the particle before coming to rest is
(A)
3/ 2
u
k
(B)
3/ 2
2u
k
(C)
3/ 2
3u
2k
(D)
3/ 2
2u
3k




Paragraph for Questions Nos. 11 to 12



A string of length l is fixed at one end and carries a mass m at the other end. The string makes
2/ rps around a vertical axis through the fixed end so that the mass moves in the horizontal circle
(Figure)
M

JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper II)






B
3
11. The tension in string is
(A) ml (B) 16 ml (C) 4 ml (D) 2 ml
12. The angle of inclination of the string with vertical is
(A)
1
cos
g
l
| |
|
\
(B)
1
cos
16
g
l
| |
|
\
(C)
1
cos
4
g
l
| |
|
\
(D)
1
cos
8
g
l
| |
|
\


Paragraph for Questions Nos. 13 to 14


A block of mass 3M attached by one end of string of length L fixed by other end is just
touching smooth horizontal surface as shown in fig.

If block of mass M moving with velocity
0
3 5 V gL = collides perfectly elastically with block
of mass 3M block and mass 3M looses contact from string at peak point of its vertical circular
path.
13. The range obtained by 3M block from Q point is
(A) 29 L (B) 37 L (C) 5 L (D) 4 2 L
14. The tension in string, when string makes an angle
0
60 with vertical is
(A)
129
4
Mg (B)
17
4
Mg
(C)
63
8
Mg
(D)
5
2
Mg
SECTION III
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

15. Mark the correct statement(s).
(A) Work-energy theorem is valid only for particles
(B) Work-energy theorem is an invariant law of physics
(C) Work-energy theorem is valid only in inertial frames of reference
(D) Work-energy theorem can be applied in non-inertial frames of reference too
16. If S and V are one main scale and one varnier scale and n 1 divisions on the main scale are
equivalent to n divisions of the vernier, then
(A) Least count is
S
n

(B) Vernier constant is
S
n

(C) The same vernier constant can be used for circular verniers also
(D) The same vernier constant cannot be used for circular verniers
JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper II)


B
4

17. A small ball starts moving from A over a fixed track as shown in
figure. Surface AB has friction. From A to B the ball rolls without
slipping. Surface BC is frictionless. K
A
, K
B
and K
C
are kinetic
energies of the ball at A, B and C, respectively. Then


(A) h
A
> h
C
; K
B
> K
C
(B) h
A
> h
C
; K
C
> K
A

(C) h
A
= h
C
; K
B
= K
C
(D) h
A
< h
C
; K
B
> K
C


18. In the figure, a man of true mass M is standing on a weighing machine
placed in a cabin. The cabin is joined by a string with a body of mass m.
Assuming no friction, and negligible mass of cabin and weighing
machine, then
m

(A) measured mass of man is
Mm
(M m) +
(B) acceleration of man is
mg
(M m) +

(C) acceleration of man is
Mg
(M m) +
(D) measured mass of man is M
19. A particle travels in a straight line such that its position with respect to origin varies with time (t)
as 2 180 33 2
2 3
+ + = t t t x . Then correct statements are
(A) the acceleration of the particle at t = 5s is 6m/s
2

(B) minimum speed of particle is at
2
11
= t s
(C) the particle is retarded in the interval 0 = t s to 5 . 5 = t s
(D) the particle is retarded in the interval 0 = t s to 5 = t s and from t = 5.5 s to t = 6 s
20. A car has total mass 50 kg (including fuel). Gases are ejected backwards with a velocity 20 m/s
with respect to car. The rate of ejection of gas is 2 kg/s. If the mass of fuel is 20 kg and the car
starts from rest. If the coefficient of friction between car and road is = 0.1. Which of the
following statements is/are correct (
2
10 m/s g = and
4
ln 0.28
3
| |
=
|
\
)






(A) maximum speed of car will be 0.6 m/s
(B) car will start moving after time t = 5 sec
(C) car will stop after t = 10.6 sec
(D) maximum speed of car will be 1 m/s




h
A
h
C
B
A
JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper II)




B
5

CHEMISTRY
SECTION I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

21. In O
2
F
2
, which of the following statement is incorrect?
(A) O-F bond length in O
2
F
2
is longer than O-F bond length in OF
2

(B) The O.N. of oxygen in O
2
F
2
is +1.
(C) The OO bond length in O
2
F
2
is shorter than OO bond length in H
2
O
2
.
(D) None of these
22. Virial equation of state for real gas
2 3
B C D
Z 1 ...
V V V
= + + +
Where B = IInd virial coefficient
C = IIIrd virial coefficient
D = IVth virial coefficient
Find out the value of
B
Z
at Boyles temperature.
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C)
a
b
RT
| |

|
\
(D)
a
bR

23. Equal masses of methane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25
o
C. The fraction of
total pressure exerted by hydrogen is:
(A)
1
2
(B)
8
9
(C)
1
9
(D)
16
17


24. A mixture of
3
( ) NH g and
2 4
( ) N H g is placed in a sealed container at 300K .The total pressure
of the gaseous mixture is 0.5atm. The container is heated to 1200 K at which both
3
NH and
2 4
N H decomposed completely according to the following equation .
3 2 2
2 ( ) ( ) 3 ( ) NH g N g H g +
2 4 2 2
( ) ( ) 2 ( ) N H g N g H g +
After decomposition is complete , the total pressure at 1200 K is found to be 4.5 atm. The mole %
of
2 4
N H in the initial mixture at 300 K was
(A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 75%
25. The Bohr orbit radius for the hydrogen atom (n = 1) is approximately 0.530. The radius for the
first excited state (n = 2) orbit is
(A) 0.13 (B) 1.06 (C) 4.77 (D) 2.12
26. When a certain metal was irradiated with light of frequency 3.2 10
16
Hz, photoelectrons emitted
had twice the kinetic energy as did photoelectrons emitted when the same metal was irradiated
with light of frequency 2.0 10
16
Hz. Hence, threshold frequency is
(A) 0.8 10
15
Hz (B) 8.0 10
15
Hz
(C) 0.8 10
14
Hz (D) 6.4 10
16
Hz
JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper II)


B
6
27. 10 g sample of zinc was dissolved in 200 ml of 0.1 N KMnO
4
solution acidified with H
2
SO
4
. The
KMnO
4
solution is totally discharged. It was found that a gas was produced which when allowed
reacting with the requisite amount of oxygen and sparked and condensed showed a total volume
contraction of 1500 ml at STP, then the mass percent of zinc in the sample is
(A) 35.5% (B) 45.5 % (C) 50.5% (D) 40.5%
28. Two flasks of equal volume connected by a narrow tube of negligible volume are at 27C and
contain Cl
2
at 1 atm pressure and Cl
2
O at 1.5 atm pressures respectively. The two gases were
allowed to mix and heated to react as given below:
Cl
2
O Cl
2
+ 1/2 O
2

after the reaction, one of the vessel was kept in a water bath maintained at 27C while the other
vessel was kept in another water bath maintained at 52C, then the pressure in both the vessels at
this temperature is
(A) 2.7 atm (B) 1. 7 atm (C) 2.5atm (D) 1.5 Atm

SECTION II
Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 29 to 30


A water is said to be a soft water if it produces sufficient foam with the soap and water that does
not produce foam with soap is known as hard water.
Temporary hardness is due to presence of calcium and magnesium bicarbonate. It is simply
removed by boiling as
( )
3 3 2 2
2
Ca HCO CaCO CO H O

+ +
Temporary hardness can also be removed by addition of slaked lime, Ca(OH)
2

( ) ( )
3 3 2
2 2
Ca HCO Ca OH 2CaCO 2H O + +
Permanent hardness is due to presence of sulphate and chlorides of Ca, Mg etc. It is removed as

2 2 3 3
CaCl Na CO CaCO 2NaCl + +

4 2 3 3 2 4
CaSO Na CO CaCO Na SO + +
The degree of hardness is measured in terms of ppm of CaCO
3
. 100 ppm means 100 gm of CaCO
3

is present in 10
6
gm of H
2
O. If any water contain 120 ppm of MgSO
4
its hardness in terms of
CaCO
3
= 100 ppm.
29. A sample of drinking water was found to be contaminated with chloroform. The level of
contamination was 15 ppm. The molality of chloroform in the water sample is
(A) 3.42 10
4
(B) 5.21 10
6
(C) 1.25 10
4
(D) 1.25 10
6

30. The weight of Ca(OH)
2
required for 10 litre of water to remove the temporary hardness of
100 ppm due to Ca(HCO
3
)
2
?
(A) 16.6 g (B) 1.66 g (C) 0.74 g (D) 7.4 g



JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper II)




B
7
Paragraph for Questions Nos. 31 to 32

de-Broglie proposed dual nature of particle by giving an equation =
h
mv

whereas Heisenberg proposed uncertainty principle as
h
x p
4

.
On the contrary particle nature of electron was established on the basis of photoelectric effect.
When a photon strikes the metal surface it gives up its energy to the electron. Part of this energy
(say W) is used by the electrons to escape from the metal and the remaining imparts the KE
2
1
mv
2
| |
|
\
to the photoelectron. The potential applied on the surface to reduce the velocity of
photoelectron to zero is known as stopping potential; the stopping potential is plotted against
1/ of incident radiation for two different metals as:

1/ (m
-1
)
V
o

(volts)
Metal I Metal II

Work function of metal I is 0.24 eV.
31. Select the incorrect statement.
(A) KE of photo-electron does not depend upon the wavelength of incident radiation.
(B) Photoelectric current depends on intensity of incident radiation and not on frequency.
(C) Stopping potential depends on frequency of radiation and not on intensity.
(D) None of these
32. Energy required to stop the ejection of electrons from Cu plate is 0.24 eV. Calculate the work
function when radiations of wavelength 253.7 nm strikes the plate.
(A) 24.3 eV (B) 24 eV (C) 4.95 eV (D) 4.65 eV

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 33 to 34


Lewis concept of covalency of an element involved octet rule. Later on it was found that many
elements in their compounds e.g. BeF
2
, BF
3
etc. have incomplete octet whereas PCl
5
, SF
6
etc.
have expanded octet. This classical concept also failed in predicting the geometry of molecules.
Modern concept of covalence was proposed in terms of valence bond theory. Hybridization
concept along with V.B. Theory successfully explained the geometry of various molecules but
failed in many molecules. The geometry of such molecules was explained by VSEPR concept.
Finally molecular orbital theory was proposed to explain many other molecules.
33. Which are true statements among the following?
(I) p

- p

bonds are present in SO


2

(II) SeF
4
and CH
4
has same shape
(III) XeF
2
and CO
2
has same shape
(IV) SF
4
is sea-saw structure whereas ICl
3
is T-shaped.
(A) I, IV (B) I, II, III
(C) I, III (D) I, II, III, IV
34. The bond angles
2
NO
+
, NO
2
and
2
NO

are respectively:
(A) 180, 134, 115 (B) 134, 180, 115
(C) 115, 134, 180 (D) 115, 180, 130
JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper II)


B
8
SECTION III
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

35. Which of the following statement is incorrect :
(A) O
2
is paramagnetic, O
3
is also paramagnetic
(B) O
2
is paramagnetic
2
2
N
+
is also paramagnetic
(C) B
2
is paramagnetic, C
2
is also paramagnetic
(D) Different observation is found in their bond length when NO NO
+
and CO CO
+

36. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) All CO bonds in
2
3
CO

are equal but not in
2 3
H CO
(B) All CO bonds in HCO
2
H are equal but not in
2
HCO


(C) CO bond length in
2
HCO

is longer than CO bond length in


2
3
CO


(D) CO bond length in
2
HCO

and CO bond length in


2
3
CO

are equal.
37. Which of the following represents schrodinger equations
(A)
2 2 2 2
2 2 2 2
8
[ ] 0
m
E V
x y z h
| |
+ + + =
|

\

(B)

H E =
(C)

( ) T V E + =
(D)

( ) 1 T H + =
38. A sample of metal contains 2.516 10
23
atoms and has a mass of 82.29 g. Select correct
statements for this case:
(A) Atomic mass of the metal is 197
(B) Number of moles present in the given amount is 0.42
(C) The probable metal is coin metal
(D) It is natural occurring metal
39. In which of the following pairs of species the central atom has same hybridization?
(A) (ClF
4
O)

, (XeOF
4
) (B) (ClF
2
O)
+
, (ClF
4
O)


(C) ClF
3
, ClF
3
O (D) ClF
3
O, ClF
3
O
2

40. Chlorine gas is prepared in laboratory by the reaction:

2 2 7 3 2 2
K Cr O HCl KCl CrCl Cl H O + + + +
If a 61.3 g sample of 96% K
2
Cr
2
O
7
is allowed to react with 320 ml of hydrochloric acid solution
having density 1.15 g/mol and containing 30% HCl by mass. Now select the correct statement (s)
among the following:
(A) The mass of Cl
2
generated is 55.5 g (B) Equivalent weight of K
2
Cr
2
O
7
is 49 g
(C) Equivalent weight of HCl is 85.16 g (D) The stoichiometric coefficient of HCl is 14.


JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper II)




B
9

MATHEMATICS
SECTION I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

41. The domain of the function f(x) = ( )
(sin x cos x)
log | cos x | cos x , 0 x
+
+ is
(A) (0, ) (B) 0,
2
| |
|
\
(C) 0,
3
| |
|
\
(D) none of these
42. If the positive numbers x and y are connected by the relation x
2
xy + y
2
= 12, then maximum
value of 2x + 3y, is
(A)
20
19
(B)
74
19
(C)
67
19
(D)
76
19

43.
( )
2
7 2 7
1 7cos x f (x)
dx C,
sin xcos x
sin x

= +

then f(x) is equal to


(A) sin x (B) cos x (C) tan x (D) cot x
44. Let f(x) = (x + 1) (x + 2) (x + 3) . . . (x + 100) and g(x) = f(x). ( )
2
f (x) f (x) , then
g(x) = 0, has
(A) no solution (B) exactly one solution
(C) exactly two solutions (D) minimum three solutions
45. Let
2
0, x 0
f (x)
x , x 0
<
=

, then for all values of x


(A) f is continuous but not differentiable (B) f is differentiable but not continuous
(C) f is continuous but not differentiable (D) f is continuous and differentiable
46. If
loglogx
y (xlogx) , = then
dy
dx
=
(A)
loglogx
1 1 1
(xlog x) (logx loglog x) (loglogx)
xlog x x xlog x
| |

+ + +
` |
\
)

(B)
xlogx
2 1
(xlogx) loglogx
logx x
(
+
(


(C)
xlogx
loglogx 1
(xlogx) 1
x logx
(
+
(


(D) None of these
47. Let f(x) = 2 cosec 2x + sec x + cosec x, then minimum value of f(x), for x (0, /2), is
(A)
1
2 1
(B)
2
2 1
(C)
1
2 1 +
(D)
2
2 1 +

48. The global maximum value of f (x) = log
10
(4x
3
12x
2
+ 11x 3), x [2, 3] is
(A)
10
3
log 3
2
(B) 1 + log
10
3 (C) log
10
3 (D)
10
3
log 3
2


JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper II)


B
10
SECTION II
Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Each
question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 49 to 50


Among several applications of maxima and minima one is finding the largest term of a sequence.
Let <a
n
> be a sequence. Consider f(x) obtained by replacing x by n in a
n
e.g. for
n
n
a
n 1
=
+

consider
x
f (x)
x 1
=
+
on [1, ).
49. The largest term of
2 3
n
a n / (n 200) = + is
(A) 29/453 (B) 49/543 (C) 43/543 (D) 41/451
50. The largest term of the sequence
2
n
a n / (n 10) = + is
(A) 3/19 (B) 2/13 (C) 1 (D) 1/7


Paragraph for Questions Nos. 51 to 52

If f is a continuous function on [a, b] and f(a) f(b) < 0, then there exists a point c in (a, b) such that
f(c) = 0 equivalently if f is continuous on [a, b] and x R is such that f(a) < x < f(b) then there is
c (a, b) such that x = f(c). It follows from the above result that the image of a closed interval
under a continuous function is a closed interval.
51. Suppose that f(1/2) = 1 and f is continuous on [0, 1] assuming only rational value in the entire
interval. The number of such function(s) is
(A) infinite (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 1
52. Let f be a continuous function on [1, 1] satisfying (f(x))
2
+ x
2
= 1 for all x [1, 1]. The number
of such functions is
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) infinitely many

Paragraph for Questions Nos. 53 to 54

If f(A) = g(A) = 0 or f(A) = g(A) = , f(x), g(x) exists at x = a then
x a x a
f (x) f (x)
Lt Lt
g(x) g (x)

. The
existence of RHS is only sufficient for the existence of LHS. But it is not necessary. Answer the
following questions.
53.
tanx
x 0
1
Lt
x

| |
|
\
is
(A) e (B)
1
e
(C)
e
1
e
e
| |
|
\
(D) 1
54.
x a
Lt

x a
cos x.log(x a)
log(e e )

is
(A) cos a (B)
1
e
cos a (C) e cos a (D) none of these

JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper II)




B
11
SECTION III
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer,
out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

55. If composite function f
1
(f
2
(f
3
(......(f
n
(x))))) n times is an increasing function and if r of f
i
s are
decreasing function while rest are increasing, then maximum value of r(n r) is
(A)
2
n 1
,
4

when n is an even number (B)


2
n
,
4
when n is an odd number
(C)
2
n 1
,
4

when n is an odd number (D)


2
n
,
4
when n is even number
56. A curve g (x) =
27 2 6 2
(1 ) (6 5 4)d + + + +

x x x x x x is passing through origin, then


(A)
7
3
g(1)
7
= (B)
7
2
g(1)
7
= (C)
1
g( 1)
7
= (D)
7
3
g( 1)
14
=
57. Given a real-valued function f such that
2
2 2
tan { }
, for
( [ ] )
( ) 1 , for 0, where [ ] is the integral
{ }cot{x}, for x < 0

= =

x
x >0
x x
f x x x
x

part and {x}is the fractional part of x, then
(A) lim ( ) 1
0
=
+

f x
x
(B)
0
lim ( ) cot1
x
f x

=
(C)
2
1
0
cot lim ( ) 1

| |
=
|
\ x
f x (D)
1
0
tan lim ( )
4 x
f x

| |
=
|
\

58. Let f(x) = Ax
2
+ Bx + C, where A, B, C are real numbers. If f(x) is an integer whenever x is an
integer, then
(A) A is an integer (B) B is an integer
(C) C is an integer (D) A + B is an integer
59. If
1 2
x
x 1
lim4x tan y 4y 5
4 x 2

+ | |
= + +
|
+ \
, then y can be equal to
(A) 1 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 3
60. Let L =
0
lim
x

2
2 2
4
2
x
a a x
x

, a > 0. If L is finite, then
(A) a = 1 (B) a = 2 (C)
1
8
= L (D)
1
16
= L




JEE-ADVANCED Part Test 1 (Paper II)




B
1


JEE-ADVANCED PART TEST - 1

ANSWERS

Paper II

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS

1. (C)
2. (B)
3. (A)
4. (D)
5. (C)
6. (D)
7. (B)
8. (A)
9. (A)
10. (D)
11. (B)
12. (B)
13. (A)
14. (A)
15. (A), (B), (D)
16. (A), (B), (C)
17. (A), (D)
18. (A), (C)
19. (A), (D)
20. (A), (B), (C)


21. (D)
22. (A)
23. (B)
24. (B)
25. (D)
26. (B)
27. (A)
28. (B)
29. (C)
30. (C)
31. (A)
32. (D)
33. (D)
34. (A)
35. (A), (C) (D)
36. (B), (C), (D)
37. (A), (B), (C)
38. (A), (B), (C), (D)
39. (A), (C), (D)
40. (B), (C), (D)


41. (D)
42. (D)
43. (C)
44. (A)
45. (C)
46. (A)
47. (B)
48. (B)
49. (B)
50. (A)
51. (D)
52. (A)
53. (D)
54. (A)
55. (C), (D)
56. (A), (C)
57. (A), (B), (C), (D)
58. (C), (D)
59. (B), (D)
60. (A), (C)




B

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