1. The head on a sharp-crested rectangular weir of height 1.6 m and crest length 1.2 m was incorrectly observed to be 0.

13 m when it was actually 0.15 m. What was the percentage error in the computed value of flow rate? (a) 0.5% (b) 1.0% (c) 2.0% (d) 1.5% Ans. (c) 2. Consider the following with respect to measurement of stream flow during flood: l. Timing of the travel of floats released in the stream 2. Use of weir formula, for spillways provided on a dam 3. Calculation of flow through a contracted opening at a bridge 4. Using a current meter Which of the above is/are reliable and accurate? (a) 1 (b) 4 only (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 Ans. (b) 3. What is the most important design parameter used in designing a continuous flow rectangular sedimentation tank for removal of discrete particles? (a) Length of the tank (b) Surface overflow rate (c) Depth of the tank (D) Temperature of the water to be treated Ans. (b) 4. Effluent from a wastewater treatment plant (flow rate = 8640 m3/d, temperature = 25 C) is discharged to a surface stream (flow rate = 1.2 m3/s, temperature = 15 C). What is the temperature of the stream after mixing? (a) 10C (b) 15.77 C (c) 20 C (d) 24.99 C Ans. (b) 5.. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II (Type of impurity) (Harm caused) A. Excess of nitrates 1. Brackish water B. Excess of fluorides 2. Goiter C. Lack of iodides 3. Fragile bones D. Excess of chlorides 4. . Blue babies Code:

ABCD (a) 4 2 3 1 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 3 2 4 Ans. (c) 6. The concentration of OH- ion in a water sample is measured as 17 mg/L at 25 C. What is the pH of the water sample? (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13 Ans. (d) 7. Which one of the following types of samples is relevantly employed for the design of wastewater treatment plant? (a) Grab sample (b) Composite sample (c) Integrated sample (d) Any sample Ans. (a) 8. A drain carrying sewage of BOD = 200 mg/L and flow rate of 50 m3/s joins a river whose upstream BOD is 8 mg/L and flow rate is 500 m3/s. Assume immediate and complete mixing of drain with the river. What is the estimated downstream BOD of the river flow? (a) 20.4 mg/L (b) 25.4 mg/L (c) 104.4 mg/L (d) 70.4 mg/L Ans. (b) 9. A 12.5 mL sample of treated wastewater requires 187.5 mL of odor-free distilled water to reduce the odor to a level that is just perceptible. What is the threshold odor number (TON) for the wastewater sample? (a) 0.07 (b) 1.07 (c) 15 (d) 16. Ans. (d) 10. Which one of the following parameters is not included in the routine characterization of, solid waste for its physical composition? (a) Moisture content (b) Density (c) Particle size analysis (d) Energy value Ans. (d)

11. Which one of the following processes of water softening requires recarbonation? (a) Lime-soda ash process (b) Hydrogen-cation exchanger process (c) Sodium-cation exchanger process (d) Demineralization Ans. (a) 12. Math List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I List-II (Water/Wastewater treatment) (Operating problem) A. Trickling filter 1. Negative head B. Activated sludge process 2. Fly-breeding C. Rapid gravity filter 3. Sludge bulking D. Anaerobic sludge digester 4. pH reduction Code: ABCD (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 2 3 1 4 (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 2 1 3 4 Ans. (b) 13. Consider the following treatment process units in a water treatment plant: 1. Coagulation 2. Disinfection 3. Sedimentation 4. Filtration Which is the correct sequence of the process units in the water treatment plant? (a) 2-4-3-1 (b) 1-4-3-2 (c) 2-3-4-1 (d) 1-3-4-2 Ans. (d) 14. Which one of the following tests of water/ wastewater employs Erichrome Black T as indicator? (a) Hardness. (b) COD (c) Residual chlorine (d) DO Ans. (a) 15. Which of the following pollutants are generally not removed in a sewage treatment plant? (a) Inorganic suspended solids (b) Dissolved organic solids (c) Oil and grease

(d) Dissolved inorganic, solids Ans. (b) 16. A clay sample, originally 26 mm thick at a void ratio of 1.22, was subjected to a compressive load. After the clay sample was completely consolidated, its thickness was measured to be 24 mm. What is the final void ratio? (a) 1.322 (b) 1.421 (c) 1.311 (d) 1.050 Ans. (d) 17. For a sandy soil with soil grains spherical in shape and uniform in size, what is the theoretical void ratio? (a) 0.61 (b) 0.71 (c) 0.91 (d) 0.81 Ans. (c) 18. A soil has liquid limit = 35, plastic limit = 20, shrinkage limit = 10 and natural moisture content = 25%. What will be its liquidity index, plasticity index and shrinkage index? (a) 0.67, 15 and 25 (b) 0.33, 15 and 10 (c) 0.67, 25 and 15 (d) 0.33, 20 and 15 Ans. (b) 19. A cohesive soil yields a maximum dry density of 16 kN/m3 during a standard Proctor Compaction test. If the specific gravity is 2.65, what would be its void ratio? (a) 0.552 (b) 0.624 (c) 0.712 (d) 0.583 Ans. (b) 20. Consider the following: 1. Increase in shear strength and bearing capacity 2. Increase in slope stability 3. Decrease in settlement of soil 4. Decrease in permeability Which of the above with respect to compaction of soil is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans. (d)

21. Which one of the following toxic gases has physiological action as asphyxiant? (a) SO2 (b) NO2 (c) Cl2 (d) CO Ans. (a) 22. Assuming annual travel for each vehicle to be 20000 km, what is the quantity of NOx produced from 50000 vehicles with emission rate of 2.0 g/km/vehicle? (a) 1800 tonnes (b) 1900 tonnes (c) 2000 tonnes (d) 2100 tonnes Ans. (c) 23. What are the air pollutants responsible for acid rain within and downwind areas of major industrial emissions? (a) Hydrogen sulfide and oxides of nitrogen (b) Sulfure dioxide and oxides of nitrogen (c) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulfide (d) methane and hydrogen sulfide Ans. (b) 24. Consider the following air pollutants: 1. NOx 2. PAN 3. CO2 4. CO Which of the above air pollutants is/are present in an auto exhaust gas? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 Ans. (d) 25. Which one of the following conditions is valid in case of unconfined compression test in comparison to triaxial test? (a) Minor principal stress = 0 (b) Minor principal stress = 0.5 major principal stress (c) Minor principal stress = major principal stress (d) Major principal stress = 3 minor principal stress Ans. (a) UPSC IES CIVIL Engineering Solved paper 2010 part 1 CIVIL Engineering Objective questions Solved objective civil engineering UPSC IES Paper Indian Engineering Services UPS Solved Papers 2010

1. Consider the following statements: 1. In work-breakdown structure top-down approach is adopted. 2. Bar-chart depicts inter dependencies of activities. 3. Controlling can be better achieved in milestone chart. Which of the above statements are correct? A 1 and 3 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 2.

A simple supported beam is loaded as figure. The bending moment at C is A 4 kN-m (Sagging) B. 4 kN-m (Hogging) C. 8 kN-m (Sagging) D. Zero 3. If the Euler load for a steel column is 1000 kN and crushing load is 1500 kN, the Rankine load is equal to? A 2500 kN B. 1500 KN C. 1000 kN D. 600 kN 4. A simply supported beam of T-section is subjected to a uniformly distributed load acting vertically downward. Its neutral point is located at 25 mm from the top of T-flange and the total depth of the beam is 100 mm. The ratio of maximum shear stress to maximum compressive strength the beam is A. 2.0 B. 2.5 C. 3.0 D. 4.0 5. A two-dimensional stress system has like stresses mx = 100 N/mm2 and my = 200 N/mm2 in two mutually perpendicular directions. The x, y coordinates of the centre of the Mohrs circle are A (0, 150) B. (150, 0) C. (50, 0) D. (50, 0)

6. A cement bag contains 0.035 cubic meter of cement by volume. How many bags will one tonne of cement comprise ? A 16 B. 17 C. 18 D. 20 7. Consider the following statements: 1. Total float can affect all activities in the chain. 2. Free float can affect only the preceding. activities. 3. Independent float affects only the particular concerned activity. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 8. Consider the following statements: 1. Cambium layer is between sapwood and heartwood. 2. Heartwood is otherwise termed as deadwood. 3. Timber used for construction is obtained from heartwood. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1,2and.3 B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 only 9. Consider the following statements 1. The resources are considered to be unlimited. 2. The resources are considered to be unlimited. 3. The start times of some of the activities are so shifted within their available floats that the uniform demand is created for the resources. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A 1 only B. 1, and 3 C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 3 only 10.

A prismatic bar AB.C is subjected to an axial load of 25 kN; the reactions RA and RC will be . A RA = 10 kN and RC = 15 kN B. RA =10kN and RC=55 kN C. RA =15kN and RC=10kN D. RA =15kN nd RCc=40kN 11. The capacity of a single ISA 100 x 100 x 10 mm as tension member connected by one leg only using 6 rivets of 20 mm diameter is A 333kN B. 253 kN C. 238 kN D. 210 kN The allowable stress is 150 N/mm2. 12. Consider the following statements: 1. Strength of brick masonry is inf1uenced by type of mortar. 2. Brick masonry with lime mortar achieves full strength earlier than cement mortar masonry. 3. Mortar strength decides the strength of masonry. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A 1,2and3 B. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 3 only 13. A single-acting reciprocating pump has a stroke of 30 cm, speed of 115 rpm and a piston of 30 cm diameter. It discharges 39 l.p.s. through a height of 15 m. The slip of the pump is A 2.8% B. 3.2% C. 3.6% D. 4.0% 14. Consider the following statements for a beam of rectangular cross-section and uniform flexural rigidity El subjected to pure bending: 1. The bending stresses have the maximum magnitude at the top and bottom of the cross-section. 2. The bending stresses vary linear through the depth of the cross section. 3. The bending stresses vary parabolically through the depth of the crosssection. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A 1,2 and 3 B. 1 only C. 2 only D. 1 and 2 only

15. If the load acting on a commonly conventional sized RC column increases continuously from zero to higher magnitudes, the magnitude of the uniaxial ultimate moment that can be allowed on the column A Increases B. Decreases C. Increases and then decreases D. Remains constant 16. In RCC beams, as the percentage areas of tensile steel increases A. Depth of neutral axis increases B. Depth of neutral axis decreases C. Depth of neutral axis does not change D. Lever arm increases 17. The average compressive strength burnt clay brick is less than 10 N/mm2.. The allowable rating of efflorescence A Moderate B. Severe C. Heavy D. Zero 18. Two beams carrying identical loads, simply supported, are having same depth but beam A has double the width as compared to that of beam B. The ratio of the strength of beam A to that of beam B is? A.1/2 B. 1/4 C.2 D.4 19. Shear span is defined as the zone where A. Bending moment is zero B. Shear force is zero C. Shear force is constant D. Bending moment is constant 20. If the hinged end of a propped cantilever, of span L settles by an amount Delta, then the rotation of the hinged end will be A Delta/L B 2Delta/L C 3Delta/2L D 4Delta/3L Directions: Each of the following items consists of two statements, one labelled as the Assertion A. and the other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below: Codes: A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of At

B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A C. A is true but R is false D A is false but R is true 21. Assertion A. : A hollow circular shaft has more power transmitting capacity than a solid shaft of same material and same weight per unit length. Reason (R) : In a circular shaft, shear stress developed it a point due to troion is proportional to its radial distance fromm the centre of the shaft. 22. Assertion A. : Load deflection characteristics of a fixed beam subjected to uniformly distributed load is linear up to collapse. Reason (R) : Except at the zones of plastic hinge, rest of the components are in the elastic range. 23. Assertion A. : Low heat cement is used in the construction of large dams. Reason (R) : Very high compressive strength is achieved by low heat cement in 28 days. 24. Assertion A. : Higher strength is achieved when superplasticizer is added to cement concrete mix. Reason (R) : By adding superplasticizer, the quantity of mixing water is reduced. 25. Assertion A. : In order to obtain higher degree of workability in cement concrete, both water content and proportion of cement should be increased. Reason (R) : Increase in water-cement ratio decreases the strength of cement concrete; a mix with higher workability must have higher proportion of cement in it. 26. Assertion A. : The principle of superposition is valid whenever the strain or stress to be obtained is directly proportional to the applied loads. Reason (R) : Strain energy depends on the product of stress and strain. 27. Assertion A. : Force method of analysis is not convenient for computer programming. Reason (R) : Band width of flexibility matrix is much larger compared fo that of stiffness matrix. 28. Assertion A. : The moment distribution and slope-deflection methods of structural analysis are essentially stiffness methods. Reason (R) : In the moment distribution method, the slope-deflection equations are solved without writing them explicitly. 2. Assertion A. : Compared to rectangular hollow section circular hollow section possesses more plastic moment of resistance over its yield moment. Reason (R) : Circular hollow section has higher shape factor than rectangular hollow section. 30. Assertion A. : In a helically reinforced concrete column, the concrete core is subjected to triaxial state of stress.

Reason (R) : Helically reinforced concrete columns are very much suitable for earthquake resistant structures. 31. Assertion A. : In the case of mild steel, the tensile strength (expressed as per unit area) of smaller diameter bars are more than that of larger diameter bars. Reason (R) : In the case of smaller diameter mild steel bars, the ratio of outer hard core to total area (outer hard core + inner soft core) is more. 32.Assertion A. : The behavior of an over- reinforced beam is more ductile than that of under-reinforced beam. Reason (R) Over-reinforced beam contains more steel and steel is more ductile than concrete. 33. Assertion A. : Activity-on-node network eliminates the use of dummy activities. Reason (R) It is self-sufficient as.it contains all activity times on the nodes itself. 34. Assertion A. : A dummy job is assigned zero, time to perform. Reason (R) : It is used mainly to specify precedence relationship. 35. Assertion A. The time grid diagram facilitates to readout the float for any activity by inspecting the diagram. Reason (R) : In the time-grid diagram, floats are represented by broken horizontal lines as appropriate. 36. Assertion A. : The probability of completion of a multipath project at the expected project completion duration is 50%. Reason (R) The standard deviate for the critical path duration is zero. 37. Assertion A. In the analysis of statically determinate planer trusses by the .method of joints, not more than two unknown bar forces can be determined. Reason (R) : There are only two equations of force equilibrium available for a coplanar concurrent system. 38. Assertion A. : A drag line is a suitable equipment for excavating or digging earth and depositing it on nearby bank. Reason (R) : In drag-line, there is no need of a separate hauling unit. 39. Assertion A. : Mueller-Breslau priniple is a most widely. used method to determine qualitative influence lines in an indeterminate structure. Reason (R) : The determination of the qualitative influence lines is often of great value in ascertaining the most severe stresses at specified sections of a structure. 40. Assertion A. Losses in prestress in pretensioned beams are more than the losses in post-tensioned beams. Reason (R) : This is partially due to the effect of elastic shortening.

41. The use of Concordant cables in prestressed continuous beams induces A Initial support reactions B. No initial support reactions C. Excess cracking D. Excess deflection 42. Which one of the following is not a requirement in concrete mix-design? A Degree of quality control of concrete B. Workability of concrete C. Characteristic compressive strength of concrete at 28 days D. Initial setting time of cement 43. The absolute maximum bending moment that a simply supported girder of span 10 m experiences when two concentrated loads 20 kN and 30 kN spaced 2 m apart (30 kN as, leading at the right) crosses the girder from left to right, is A 112.2 kN-m C. 136.8 kN-m B. 96.6 kN-m D. 105.8 kN-m 44. A solid shaft rotating at 180 rpm is subjected to a mean torque of 5000 Nm. What is the power transmitted by the shaft in kW? A 25 *22/7 B. 20*22/7 C. 6O*22/7 D. 30*22/7 45.

For the roof truss shown in figure, bottom chord is of ISMB 200 [rx = 83 mm, ry= 22 mm. Bottom chord bracings are ayailable at C and D. Bottom member AE will be in compression due to wind. What is the critical slenderness ratio used for the design of member AE? A 18 B. 36 C. 68 D. 136 46. Consider the following statements: In a simply supported beam subjected to uniformly distributed load throughout the length, at which points is the stress due to(i) Flexure and (ii) Shear equal

to zero selectively: 1. At support section at neutral fibre. 2. At mid span section at neutral fibre. 3. At mid span section at top fibre. 4. At support section at bottom fibre. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3 D. 2 and 4 47. Consider the following statements: Ultrasonic pulse velocity test to measure the strength of concrete is 1. Used to measure. the strength of wet concrete. 2. Used to obtain estimate of concrete strength of finished concrete elements. 3. A destructive test. 4. A non-destructive test. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 2 only B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 4 48. A solid shaft has length and diameter Ls and D respectively. A hollow shaft C length Lh, external diameter D, and internal diameter d respectively. Both are of the same material. The ratio of torsional stiffness of hollow shaft to that of solid shaft is 49. A live load 20 kN/m, 6 m long, moves on a simply supported girder AB 12 m long. For maximum bending moment to occur at 4 m from left end A, where will the head of load be, as measured from A? A 4m B. 6m C. 8m D.10 m 50. A building with a gabled roof will experience pressure on its leeward slope which is A Always positive B. Always negative C. Sometimes positive and otherwise negative D. Zero

ANSWERS: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 A D D C B D D B C C D C D D C A A C C C B B C A A B C B A D A D A A

35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

# A A C B A B D D D D B C C C B