1. Give the names of the following ions: CO32!, HCO3!, CN!, OCN!, SCN!, NO2!, NO3!, PO43!, HPO42!

, H2PO4!, SO32!, HSO3!, SO42!, HSO4!, S2O32!, HS2O3!, ClO!, ClO2!, ClO3!, ClO4!, BrO3!, IO3!, O2!, OH!, H3O+, NH4+, S2!, HS!, MnO4!, CrO42!, HCrO4!, Cr2O72!, HCr2O7!, CH3COO! 2. Give the names of the following compounds: H2CO3 , CH3COOH, H2Cr2O7, H2CrO4, HMnO4, H2S, NH3, H2O, H2O2, HIO3, HClO4, HBrO3, HClO3, HClO2, H2SO4, HClO, HI, HBr, HF, HCl, H2S2O3, H2SO3, HOCN, HCN, HSCN, HNO2, HNO3, H3PO4, NH4Cl, NH4Br, NH4F, NH4I, NH4NO3, (NH4)2SO4, (NH4)3PO4, (NH4)2CO3, NH4CH3COO, LiCl, LiBr, LiF, LiI, Li2O, LiNO3, Li2SO4, Li3PO4, Li2CO3, LiOH, LiCH3COO, NaCl, NaBr, NaF, NaI, NaCN, NaOCN, NaSCN, NaNO3, NaNO2, Na2SO4, NaHSO4, Na2SO3, NaHSO3, Na2S, NaHS, Na2S2O3, Na3PO4, Na2HPO4, NaH2PO4, Na2CO3, NaHCO3, NaOH, NaClO, NaClO2, NaClO3, NaClO4, NaBrO3, NaIO3, NaCH3COO, KCl, KBr, KF, KI, KCN, KOCN, KSCN, KNO3, KNO2, K2SO4, KHSO4, K2SO3, KHSO3, K2S, KHS, K2S2O3, K3PO4, K2HPO4, KH2PO4, K2CO3, KHCO3, KOH, KClO, KClO2, KClO3, KClO4, KBrO3, KIO3, K2CrO4, K2Cr2O7, KMnO4, KCH3COO, RbCl, RbBr, RbF, RbI, RbNO3, Rb2SO4, Rb3PO4, Rb2CO3, RbOH, RbCH3COO, CsCl, CsBr, CsF, CsI, CsNO3, Cs2SO4, Cs3PO4, Cs2CO3, CsOH, CsCH3COO, MgF2, MgCl2, MgBr2, MgI2, MgO, MgSO4, MgCO3, Mg(HCO3)2, Mg(OH)2, Mg(NO3)2, CaF2, CaCl2, CaBr2, CaI2, CaO, CaSO4, CaCO3, Ca(HCO3)2, Ca(OH)2, Ca(NO3)2, SrF2, SrCl2, SrBr2, SrI2, SrO, SrSO4, SrCO3, Sr(HCO3)2, Sr(OH)2, Sr(NO3)2, BaF2, BaCl2, BaBr2, BaI2, BaO, BaSO4, BaCO3, Ba(HCO3)2, Ba(OH)2, Ba(NO3)2, BeF2, BeCl2, BeBr2, BeO, Be(OH)2, BF3, BCl3, BBr3, BI3, B2O3, AlF3, AlCl3, AlBr3, AlI3, Al2O3, Al(NO3)3, Al2(SO4)3, Al(OH)3, AlPO4, GaF3, GaCl3, GaBr3, GaI3, Ga2O3, Ga(NO3)3, Ga2(SO4)3, Ga(OH)3, GaPO4, InF3, InCl3, InBr3, InI3, In2O3, In(NO3)3, In2(SO4)3, In(OH)3, InPO4, TlF3, TlCl3, Tl2O3, Tl(NO3)3, Tl2(SO4)3, Tl(OH)3, TlCN, TlF, TlCl, TlBr, TlI, Tl2O, Tl2CO3, Tl2SO4, CO2, CO, CCl4, CF4, SiO2, SiCl4, SiBr4, GeO2, GeF4, GeBr4, GeCl4, GeI4, Sn(CH3COO)2, Sn(CH3COO)4, SnBr2, SnBr4, SnCl2, SnCl4, SnF2, SnF4, SnI2, SnI4, SnO, SnO2, SnSO4, Sn(SO4)2, SnS, Pb(CH3COO)2, Pb(CH3COO)4, PbBr2, PbCO3, PbCl2, PbCrO4, PbF2, PbI2, PbO, PbO2, Pb(ClO4)2, PbSO4, PbS, NF3, NCl3, N2O, NO, N2O3, NO2, N2O4, N2O5, P2O5, P2O3, PBr5, PCl5, P2S5, PBr3, PCl3, P2S3, AsBr3, AsCl3, AsI3, As2O3, As2O5, As2S3, SbBr3, SbCl3, SbCl5, SbF3, SbF5, SbI3, Sb2O3, Sb2O5, Sb2S3, Sb2S5, Bi(CH3COO)3, BiBr3, BiCl3, BiF3, BiI3, Bi(NO3)3, Bi2O3, Bi2S3, OF2, SO2, SO3, SCl2, SF6, SeO2, SeS2, SeBr4, SeCl4, TeO2, TeBr4, TeCl4, TeI4, Po(NO3)2, ClF, ClF3, ClF5, Cl2O, ClO2, BrCl, BrF, BrF3, BrF5, Br2O, Br2O3, IF, IF3, IF5, ICl, IBr, I2O5, AtI, AtBr, XeF2, XeF4, XeF6, XeO3, XeO4, KrF2, Sc(CH3COO)3, ScCl3, Sc(NO3)3, Sc2O3, Sc(ClO4)3, YBr3, Y2(CO3)3, YCl3, YF3, YI3, Y(NO3)3, Y2O3, Y(ClO4)3, La(CH3COO)3, LaBr3, La2(CO3)3, LaCl3, LaF3, La(OH)3, LaI3, La(NO3)3, La2O3, La(ClO4)3, La2(SO4)3, TiBr4, TiCl2, TiCl3, TiCl4, TiF3, TiF4, TiI4, TiO2, TiS2, ZrBr4, ZrCl4, ZrF4, ZrI4, ZrO2, Zr(SO4)2, HfCl4, HfF4, HfO2, Hf(SO4)2, VBr3, VCl2, VCl3, VCl4, VF3, VF4, VI3, V2O3, V2O5, NbBr5, NbCl5, NbF5, NbO, NbO2, Nb2O5, TaBr5, TaCl5, TaF5, Ta2O5, CrCl2, CrCl3, CrF2, CrF3, Cr(NO3)3, Cr2O3, CrO2, CrO3, MoBr3, MoCl3, MoCl4, MoCl5, MoF4, MoO2, MoO3, MoS2, WBr5, WCl4, WCl6, WF6, WO2, WO3, WS2, Mn(CH3COO)2, Mn(CH3COO)3, MnBr2, MnCO3, MnCl2, MnF2, MnF3, MnI2, Mn(NO3)2, MnO, Mn2O3, MnO2, Mn2O7, Mn(ClO4)2, MnSO4, MnS, TcCl4, TcCl6, TcF5, TcF6, TcO2, Tc2O7, ReCl3, ReCl5, ReF6, ReO2, ReO3, Re2O7, Re2S7, Fe(CH3COO)2, FeBr2, FeCl2, FeCl3, FeF2, FeF3, FeI2, Fe(NO3)3, FeO, Fe2O3, Fe(ClO4)2, Fe(ClO4)3, FePO4, FeSO4, FeS, RuBr3, RuCl3, RuI3, RuO2, OsCl3, OsO4, Co(CH3COO)2, CoBr2, CoCO3, CoCl2, CoF2, Co(OH)2, CoI2, Co(NO3)2, CoO, Co(ClO4)2, CoSO4, Co(SCN)2, RhBr3, RhCl3, RhI3, Rh(NO3)3, Rh2O3, RhPO4, Rh2(SO4)3, IrBr3, IrCl3, IrCl4, IrO2, Ni(CH3COO)2, NiBr2, NiCl2, NiF2, Ni(OH)2, NiI2, Ni(NO3)2, NiO, Ni(ClO4)2, NiSO4, NiS, Pd(CH3COO)2, PdBr2, PdCl2, Pd(CN)2, PdI2, Pd(NO3)2, PdO, PdSO4, PdS, PtBr2, PtBr4, PtCl2, PtCl4, Pt(CN)2, PtI2, Pd(NO3)2, PtO2, PtS2, Cu(CH3COO)2, CuBr, CuBr2, CuCl, CuCl2, CuCN, CuF2, Cu(OH)2, CuI, Cu(NO3)2, Cu2O, CuO, Cu(ClO4)2, CuSO4, Cu2S, CuS, CuSCN, AgCH3COO, AgBrO3, AgBr, Ag2CO3, AgCl, Ag2CrO2, AgOCN, AgCN, AgF, AgIO3, AgI, AgNO3, AgNO2, Ag2O, AgO, AgClO4, AgMnO4, Ag3PO4, Ag2SO4, Ag2S, AgSCN, AuBr3, AuCl3, AuCN, Au(OH)3, AuI, AuI3, Au2O3, Au2S, Au2S3, Zn(CH3COO)2, ZnBr2, ZnCO3, ZnCl2, Zn(CN)2, ZnF2, Zn(OH)2, ZnI2, Zn(NO3)2, ZnO, Zn(ClO4)2, ZnSO4, ZnS, Cd(CH3COO)2, CdBr2, CdCO3, CdCl2, CdF2, Cd(OH)2, CdI2, Cd(NO3)2, CdO, Cd(ClO4)2, CdSO4, CdS, Hg(CH3COO)2, HgBr2, Hg2Cl2, HgCl2,

Hg(CN)2, Hg2F2, HgF2, Hg2I2, HgI2, Hg2(NO3)2, Hg(NO3)2, HgO, Hg(ClO4)2, Hg2SO4, HgSO4, HgS, Hg(SCN)2, Ce(CH3COO)3, CeBr3, Ce2(CO3)3, CeCl3, CeF3, CeF4, Ce(OH)4, CeI3, Ce(NO3)3, CeO2, Ce(ClO4)3, Ce2(SO4)3, Ce(SO4)2, Pr(CH3COO)3, PrBr3, PrCl3, PrF3, Pr(NO3)3, Pr(ClO4)3, Pr2(SO4)3, Nd(CH3COO)3, NdBr3, Nd2(CO3)3, NdCl3, NdF3, NdI3, Nd(NO3)3, NdO, Nd2O3, Nd(ClO4)3, Nd2(SO4)3, PmF3, Pm(OH)3, Pm2(SO4)3, Sm(CH3COO)3, SmBr3, SmCl3, SmF3, SmI2, Sm(NO3)3, SmO, Sm2O3, Sm(ClO4)3, Sm2(SO4)3, Eu(CH3COO)3, Eu2(CO3)3, EuCl2, EuCl3, EuF3, Eu(NO3)3, EuO, Eu2O3, Eu(ClO4)3, Eu2(SO4)3, Gd(CH3COO)3, GdBr3, Gd2(CO3)3, GdCl3, GdF3, Gd(NO3)3, Gd2O3, Gd(ClO4)3, Gd2(SO4)3, Tb(CH3COO)3, TbBr3, Tb2(CO3)3, TbCl3, TbF3, TbI3, Tb(NO3)3, Tb(ClO4)3, Tb2(SO4)3, Dy(CH3COO)3, DyBr3, DyCl3, DyF3, DyI3, Dy(NO3)3, Dy2O3, Dy(ClO4)3, Dy2(SO4)3, HoBr3, Ho2(CO3)3, HoCl3, HoF3, HoI3, Ho(NO3)3, Ho2O3, Ho(ClO4)3, Ho2(SO4)3, Er(CH3COO)3, ErBr3, Er2(CO3)3, ErCl3, ErF3, ErI3, Er(NO3)3, Er2O3, Er(ClO4)3, Er2(SO4)3, Tm(CH3COO)3, TmBr3, Tm2(CO3)3, TmCl3, TmF3, TmI3, Tm(NO3)3, Tm2O3, Tm(ClO4)3, Tm2(SO4)3, Yb(CH3COO)3, YbBr3, YbCl3, YbF3, Yb(NO3)3, YbO, Yb2O3, Yb2(SO4)3, Lu(CH3COO)3, LuCl3, LuF3, Lu(NO3)3, Lu2O3, Lu(ClO4)3, Lu2(SO4)3, ThO2, PaO2, Pa2O5, PaI5, UF3, UF6, UO2, U2O5, UO3, NpF3, NpO2, PuF3, Pu2O3, PuO2, AmF3, AmI2, Am2O3, AmO2, CmF3, Cm2O3, CmO2, BkF3, Bk2O3, BkO2, CfF3, CfI2, Cf2O3, CfO2, EsCl3, Es2O3 3. Give the formulas of the following compounds: (see complete list in question 2). 4. Give the formulas of the chemicals for the following Latin names natrium chloratum, natrium hypochlorosum, natrium chlorosum, natrium chloricum, natrium perchloricum, natrium hydroxydatum, natrium sulfuricum, natrium sulfurosum, natrium nitricum, natrium nitrosum, natrium carbonicum, natrium flouratum, natrium bromatum, natrium iodatum, kalium chloratum, kalium hypochlorosum, kalium chlorosum, kalium chloricum, kalium perchloricum, kalium hydroxydatum, kalium sulfuricum, kalium sulfurosum, kalium nitricum, kalium nitrosum, kalium carbonicum, kalium flouratum, kalium bromatum, kalium iodatum, magnesium chloratum, magnesium perchloricum, magnesium hydroxydatum, magnesium sulfuricum, magnesium carbonicum, magnesium flouratum, magnesium bromatum, magnesium oxydatum, acidum perchloricum, acidum sulfuricum, acidum nitricum, acidum carbonicum 5. Give the oxidation numbers of all atoms in the following compounds: H2CO3 , H2Cr2O7, H2CrO4, HMnO4, H2S, NH3, H2O, H2O2, HIO3, HClO4, HBrO3, HClO3, HClO2, H2SO4, HClO, HI, HBr, HF, HCl, H2S2O3, H2SO3, HNO2, HNO3, H3PO4, NH4Cl, NH4Br, NH4F, NH4I, NH4NO3, (NH4)2SO4, (NH4)3PO4, (NH4)2CO3, LiCl, LiBr, LiF, LiI, Li2O, LiNO3, Li2SO4, Li3PO4, Li2CO3, LiOH, NaCl, NaBr, NaF, NaI, NaNO3, NaNO2, Na2SO4, NaHSO4, Na2SO3, NaHSO3, Na2S, NaHS, Na2S2O3, Na3PO4, Na2HPO4, NaH2PO4, Na2CO3, NaHCO3, NaOH, NaClO, NaClO2, NaClO3, NaClO4, NaBrO3, NaIO3, KCl, KBr, KF, KI, KNO3, KNO2, K2SO4, KHSO4, K2SO3, KHSO3, K2S, KHS, K2S2O3, K3PO4, K2HPO4, KH2PO4, K2CO3, KHCO3, KOH, KClO, KClO2, KClO3, KClO4, KBrO3, KIO3, K2CrO4, K2Cr2O7, KMnO4, RbCl, RbBr, RbF, RbI, RbNO3, Rb2SO4, Rb3PO4, Rb2CO3, RbOH, CsCl, CsBr, CsF, CsI, CsNO3, Cs2SO4, Cs3PO4, Cs2CO3, CsOH, MgF2, MgCl2, MgBr2, MgI2, MgO, MgSO4, MgCO3, Mg(HCO3)2, Mg(OH)2, Mg(NO3)2, CaF2, CaCl2, CaBr2, CaI2, CaO, CaSO4, CaCO3, Ca(HCO3)2, Ca(OH)2, Ca(NO3)2, SrF2, SrCl2, SrBr2, SrI2, SrO, SrSO4, SrCO3, Sr(HCO3)2, Sr(OH)2, Sr(NO3)2, BaF2, BaCl2, BaBr2, BaI2, BaO, BaSO4, BaCO3, Ba(HCO3)2, Ba(OH)2, Ba(NO3)2, BeF2, BeCl2, BeBr2, BeO, Be(OH)2, BF3, BCl3, BBr3, BI3, B2O3, AlF3, AlCl3, AlBr3, AlI3, Al2O3, Al(NO3)3, Al2(SO4)3, Al(OH)3, AlPO4, GaF3, GaCl3, GaBr3, GaI3, Ga2O3, Ga(NO3)3, Ga2(SO4)3, Ga(OH)3, GaPO4, InF3, In2O3, In(NO3)3, In2(SO4)3, In(OH)3, InPO4, TlF3, Tl2O3, Tl(NO3)3, Tl2(SO4)3, Tl(OH)3, TlF, Tl2O, CO2, CO, CF4, SiO2, GeO2, GeF4, SnF2, SnF4, SnO, SnO2, PbF2, PbO, PbO2, NF3, N2O, NO, N2O3, NO2, N2O4, N2O5, P2O5, P2O3, As2O3, As2O5, SbF3, SbF5, Sb2O3, Sb2O5, BiF3, Bi2O3, SO2, SO3, SF6, SeO2, TeO2, ClF, ClF3,ClF5, Cl2O, ClO2, BrF, BrF3, BrF5, Br2O, Br2O3, IF, IF3, IF5, I2O5, XeF2, XeF4, XeF6, XeO3, XeO4, KrF2, Sc2O3, YF3, Y2O3, LaF3, La(OH)3, La2O3, TiF3, TiF4, TiO2, ZrF4, ZrO2, HfF4, HfO2, VF3, VF4, V2O3, V2O5, NbF5, NbO, NbO2, Nb2O5, TaF5, Ta2O5, CrF2, CrF3, Cr2O3, CrO2, CrO3, MoF4, MoO2, MoO3, WF6, WO2, WO3, MnF2, MnF3, MnO, Mn2O3, MnO2, Mn2O7, TcF5, TcF6, TcO2, Tc2O7, ReF6, ReO2, ReO3, Re2O7, FeF2, FeF3, FeO, Fe2O3, RuO2, OsO4,

CoF2, Co(OH)2, CoO, Rh2O3, IrO2, NiF2, Ni(OH)2, NiO, PdO, PtO2, CuF2, Cu(OH)2, Cu2O, CuO, AgF, Ag2O, AgO, Au(OH)3, Au2O3, ZnF2, Zn(OH)2, ZnO, CdF2, Cd(OH)2, CdO, Hg2F2, HgF2, HgO, CeF3, CeF4, Ce(OH)4, CeO2, PrF3, NdF3, NdO, Nd2O3, PmF3, Pm(OH)3, SmF3, SmO, Sm2O3, EuF3, EuO, Eu2O3, GdF3, Gd2O3, TbF3, DyF3, Dy2O3, HoF3, Ho2O3, ErF3, Er2O3, TmF3, Tm2O3, YbF3, YbO, Yb2O3, LuF3, Lu2O3, ThO2, PaO2, Pa2O5, UF3, UF6, UO2, U2O5, UO3, NpF3, NpO2, PuF3, Pu2O3, PuO2, AmF3, Am2O3, AmO2, CmF3, Cm2O3, CmO2, BkF3, Bk2O3, BkO2, CfF3, Cf2O3, CfO2, Es2O3 6. Balance the following chemical equations. ....CaO + ....H2O = ....Ca(OH)2 ....N2O4 = ....NO2 ....Ca(OH)2 + ....H3PO4 = ....Ca3(PO4)2 + ....H2O ....Al(OH)3 + ....HCl = ....AlCl3+ ....H2O ....AgNO3 + ....H2SO4 = ....Ag2SO4+ ....HNO3 ....N2 + ....H2 = ....NH3 ....HgO = ....Hg + ....O2 ....NaCl + ....H2SO4 = ....Na2SO4 + ....HCl ....H2 + ....Cl2 = ....HCl ....NaHCO3 + ....C6H8O7 = ....CO2 + ....Na3C6H5O7 + ....H2O ....HNO3 + ....P4O10 = ....(HPO3)3 + ....N2O5 ....CO2 + ....H2O = ....C6H12O6 + ....O2 ....NaHCO3 = ....Na2CO3 + ....H2O + ....CO2 ....Fe + ....O2 = ....Fe2O3 ....FeO + ....O2 = ....Fe2O3 ....FeS2 + ....O2 = ....Fe3O4 + ....SO2 ....CuFeS2 + ....O2 = ....Fe3O4 + ....CuO + ....SO2 ....C8H18 + ....O2 = ....CO2 + ....H2O ....NH3 + ....O2 = ....HNO3 + ....H2O ....Fe2O3 + ....CO = ....Fe3O4 + ....CO2 ....Fe3O4 + ....CO = ....FeO + ....CO2 ....Au2S3 + ....H2 = ....Au + ....H2S ....Ce + ....HCl = ....CeCl3 + ....H2 ....Eu + ....HF = ....EuF3 + ....H2 ....Ca + ....H2O = ....Ca(OH)2 + ....H2 ....Al + ....H2O + ....NaOH = ....Na[Al(OH)4] + ....H2 ....Zn + ....H2O + ....NaOH = ....Na2[Zn(OH)4] + ....H2 ....Cu + ....AgNO3 = ....Cu(NO3)2 + ....Ag ....Cu + ....HNO3 = ....Cu(NO3)2 + ....NO + ....H2O ....P + ....HNO3 = ....H3PO4 + ....NO2 + ....H2O ....Ag + ....H2SO4 = ....Ag2SO4 + ....SO2 + ....H2O ....CS2 + ....NH3 = ....H2S + ....NH4SCN ....Cu(OH)2 + ....NH3 = ....[Cu(NH3)4](OH)2 ....Na[Cr(OH)4] + ....H2O2 + ....NaOH = ....Na2CrO4 + ....H2O ....KI + ....H2O2 = ....I2 + ....KOH ....H2S + ....H2SO3 = ....S + ....H2O ....Hg2I2 + ....KI = ....K2[HgI4] + ....Hg ....CuCl2 + ....NaCN = ....Na[Cu(CN)2] + ....(CN)2 + ....NaCl ....NO2 + ....NaOH = ....NaNO2 + ....NaNO3 + ....H2O ....NO + ....CsOH = ....CsNO2 + ....N2 + ....H2O ....NH4NO3 = ....N2O + ....H2O ....CaH2 + ....H2O = ....Ca(OH)2 + ....H2 ....NaBH4 + ....H2O = ....NaB(OH)4 + ....H2 ....C6H4O2 + ....H2O = ....C6H6O2 + ....O2 ....MnO4 + ....(COOH)2 + ....H+ = ....Mn2+ + ....CO2 + ....H2O

....Cr2O72 + ....NH2Cl + ....H+ = ....Cr3+ + ....N2 + ....Cl + ....H2O ....MnO4 + ....NH2OH + ....H+ = ....Mn2+ + ....N2 + ....H2O ....KMnO4 + ....Na2SO3 + ....H2O = ....MnO2 + ....Na2SO4 + ....KOH ....CH3CHO + ....[Cu(NH3)4](OH)2 = ....CH3COOH + ....Cu2O + ....H2O +....NH3 7. Give the usual letter used to refer to the following physical properties or constants: amount of substance, mass, length, temperature, volume, pressure, density, energy, internal energy, enthalpy, entropy, free energy, rate constant, equilibrium constant, degree of dissociation, stability product, concentration, mole fraction, gas constant, molar weight, osmotic pressure, heat, heat capacity, specific heat, principal quantum number, angular-momentum quantum number, magnetic quantum number, spin quantum number, speed of light, Plancks constant, wavelength, frequency, atomic number, mass number, effective nuclear charge, half-life 8. Give the definition of the following physical or chemical terms: percent yield, molarity, molality, mole fraction, atomic number, mass number, pressure, density, average molar weight of a mixture, weight percent, ppm, ppb 9. Decide if the following compounds are non-electrolytes, weak electrolytes, or strong electrolytes: HCl, HBr, HI, HF, HClO4, CH3COOH, CH3OH, HNO3, HCOOH, C2H5OH, H2SO4, H3PO4, C12H22O11 (common sugar), KBr, NaCl, NaOH, KOH 10. Select the properties the precise absolute value of which can be determined by measurements. temperature, internal energy, heat, pressure, enthalpy, electric potential, entropy, specific heat, free energy, viscosity 11. Select the properties for which only changes, but not the precise absolute values can be determined by measurements. temperature, internal energy, heat, pressure, enthalpy, electric potential, entropy, specific heat, free energy, viscosity

12. How many of the following numbers have 4 significant figures? 3.0156 16.00 0.004 1.35 104 0.001405 a) 5 b) 2 c) 1 d) 4 e) 3 13. How many of the following numbers have 4 significant figures? 0.001409 4.009 21.00 0.4023 2.160 104 a) 3 b) 1 c) 4 d) 2 e) 5 14. How many significant figures are in the number 3.0 10-6? a) four b) three c) two d) six e) five 15. Calculate the following to the correct number of significant figures. 2123.1 + 1.2340 = _____ a) 2124 b) 2124.3340 c) 2124.3 d) 2124.33 e) 2124.334 16. Calculate the following to the correct number of significant figures. 4.302 0.0122 = _____ a) 4.2898 b) 4.289 c) 4.290 d) 4.29 e) 4.30 17. Calculate the following to the correct number of significant figures. 10.23 + 4.355 = _____ a) 15 b) 14.59 c) 14.585 d) 14.6 18. Calculate the following to the correct number of significant figures. 4.32 / 0.2432 = _____ a) 18 b) 17.8 c) 17.76 d) 17.763 e) 17.76315789 19. Calculate the following to the correct number of significant figures. 2.34 / 0.12 = _____ a) 0.281 b) 19.5 c) 2.0 101 d) 0.28 e) 2 101 20. Calculate the following to the correct number of significant figures. 23.1 x 0.0012 = _____ a) 0.03 b) 2.77 102 c) 0.028 d) 0.0277 e) 0.2772 21. Calculate the following to the correct number of significant figures. ( 42.7 + 0.259 ) / 28.4445 = _____ a) 1.5103 b) 1.510 c) 1.51 d) 1.5 e) 2 22. Do the indicated arithmetic and give the answer to the correct number of significant figures. (0.00015 x 54.6) + 1.0020 = _____ a) 1.010 b) 1.0102 c) 1.01019 d) 1.01 e) 1.0 23. The correct value of the following expression is: (1050 x 10-20)2 / (10-60)1/3 = _____ 90 a) 10 b) 1060 c) 1040 d) 1080 24. Round off the quantity 785.4 g to the nearest 0.1 kg. a) 1.0 kg b) 0.79 kg c) 0.785 kg d) 0.8 kg

e) 14.58

e) 1070

e) 7.8 kg

25. Express the quantity 956 mL in L rounded to the nearest 0.1 L. a) 1 L b) 0.9 L c) 0.95 L d) 0.96 L e) 1.0 L

26. Round off the quantity 10.256 m to the nearest 0.1 m. a) 10.2 m b) 10.3 m c) 10.25 m d) 10.26

e) 10.256

27. Which of the following metric relationships is incorrect? a) 1 kilogram = 104 decigrams b) 1 nanogram = 103 micrograms c) 1 microliter = 10-6 liters d) 1 kilogram = 106 milligrams e) 100 centimeters = 1 meter 28. In which of the following sequences are the prefixes of the metric system listed in order of increasing size? a) nano, milli, micro b) deci, mega, kilo c) deci, micro, kilo d) micro, deci, centi e) nano, milli, centi 29. A frog's egg is about 1.5 103 micrometers in diameter. What is the equivalent diameter is nanometers? b) 1.5 c) 1.5 106 d) 1.5 10-3 e) 1.5 101 a) 1.5 103 30. How many 0.1-g doses of tetracycline can be supplied from 1 kg of tetracycline? a) 1 107 b) 1 102 c) 1 105 d) 1 104 e) 1 103 31. How many 50 cg tablets of aspirin can be produced from 5 kg of aspirin? a) 1 102 b) 1 106 c) 1 105 d) 1 104 e) 1 103 32. A cigarette contains 2.5 102 milligrams of nickel. How many micrograms of nickel are in the cigarette? a) 0.0025 g b) 0.25 g c) 2.5 g d) 25 g e) 0.025 g 33. During a severe pollution period in a European city, the concentration of lead in the air was 3.0 x 10-6 g per cubic meter. What was the concentration expressed in milligrams per liter? a) 3.0 10-12 mg/L b) 3.0 10-9 mg/L c) 3.0 10-3 mg/L d) 3.0 10-6 mg/L e) 3.0 mg/L 34. The melting point of methane is -182oC. What is the equivalent temperature on the Kelvin scale? a) 123 K b) -230 K c) -91 K d) 230 K e) 91 K 35. A sample of 6 g of lead at 20oC and a sample of 8 g of zinc at 30oC are placed in contact with each other. We can conclude that: a) the lead will cool b) heat will flow from lead to zinc c) the temperature of the lead will decrease d) the temperature of the zinc will decrease 36. A brand of gasoline can be shown to be a mixture by: a) reacting it with oxygen b) burning it c) smelling it d) determining its density e) separating it into its components 37. The best way to determine whether a sample of a white solid is table sugar would be to: a) taste it b) dissolve it in water c) burn it d) weigh it e) determine its melting point 38. Which of the following contains the largest number of neutrons? a) 19482Pb b) 19080Hg c) 19281Tl d) 20680Hg e) 19682Pb 39. Which of the following pairs of subatomic particles have essentially the same mass? a) neutron and nucleus b) proton and electron c) proton and neutron d) anion and cation e) neutron and electron

40. A cation has a positive charge because: a) there are more protons than neutrons b) there are fewer electrons than protons c) the neutrons in the nucleus are charged d) it has a positively charged nucleus e) there are more electrons than protons 41. Gain of two electrons by a neutral atom results in the formation of: a) a cation b) a polyatomic ion c) a neutron d) an anion e) an isotope 42. The total number of atoms represented by UO2 (ClO4)2 is: a) 9 b) 13 c) 10 d) 11 e) 12 43. The total number of atoms represented by Ca(C2H3O2)2 is: a) 17 b) 15 c) 14 d) 13 e) 11 44. The total number of atoms represented by Cd(MnO4)2 is: a) 12 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11 e) 8 45. A reaction mechanism is composed of the following two gas-phase elementary steps: N2O N2 + O N2O + O N2 + O2 45.1. What is the overall reaction? (1 correct answer) a) N2 + O N2O b) N2O N2 + O c) N2O + O N2 + O2 d) 2N2O 2N2 + O2 e) N2 + O2 N2O + O 45.2. What is the reactant? (1 correct answer) a) N2 b) O2 c) N2O d) O e) none of these species 45.3. What is the intermediate? (1 correct answer) a) N2 b) O2 c) N2O d) O e) none of these species 45.4. What is the catalyst? (1 correct answer) b) O2 c) N2O d) O e) none of these species a) N2 45.5. What are the products? (2 correct answers) a) N2 b) O2 c) N2O d) O e) none of these species 46. A reaction mechanism is composed of the following two solution-phase elementary steps: H2O2 + I H2O + IO H2O2 + IO H2O + O2 + I 46.1. What is the overall reaction? (1 correct answer) a) 2 H2O2 2 H2O + O2 b) IO + H2O H2O2 + IO d) H2O2 + IO H2O + O2 + IO c) IO + I + 2H+ I2 + H2O e) H2O2 + I H2O + IO 46.2. What is the reactant? (1 correct answer) a) H2O b) O2 c) H2O2 d) I e) IO 46.3. What is the intermediate? (1 correct answer) a) none of these species b) O2 c) H2O2 d) I e) IO 46.4. What is the catalyst? (1 correct answer) b) none of these species c) H2O2 d) I e) IO a) H2O 46.5. What are the products? (2 correct answers) a) H2O b) O2 c) H2O2 d) I e) IO

47. A reaction mechanism is composed of the following three gas-phase elementary steps: O2 + NO NO2 + O NO2 NO + O O + O2 O3 47.1. What is the overall reaction? (1 correct answer) a) O2 + NO NO2 + O b) O + O2 O3 d) 2NO + O2 2 NO2 c) NO2 NO + O e) 3O2 2O3 47.2. What is the reactant? (1 correct answer) a) O2 b) NO c) NO2 d) O e) O3 47.3. What are the intermediates? (2 correct answers) b) NO c) NO2 d) O e) O3 a) O2 47.4. What is the catalyst? (1 correct answer) a) O2 b) NO c) none of these species d) O e) O3 47.5. What is the product? (1 correct answer) a) O2 b) NO c) NO2 d) O e) O3 48. Which is an INCORRECT statement regarding the SI system of units? a) The basic unit of mass in the SI system is the gram. b) The basic unit of length in the SI system is the meter. c) The basic unit of time in the SI system is the second. d) The basic unit of volume in the SI system is the cubic meter. e) The basic unit for amount of substance in the SI system is the mole. 49. Which distance is the largest? (Given: 1 ngstrom = 1 10-10 m) a) 5 ngstroms b) 1 nm c) 10-7 mm d) 100 pm e) all are the same 50. Which of the following property is an intensive property of a material? a) energy b) volume c) density d) mass e) amount of substance 51. Which state of matter does not completely fill its container and has no definite shape of its own? a) gas b) liquid c) solid d) none of these 52. Which state of matter is most easily compressed? a) gas b) liquid c) solid d) all are the same 53. Which of the following substance classifications is NOT CORRECT? a) air = homogeneous mixture b) chlorine = element c) sodium chloride = compound d) ice-cream with chocolate = homogeneous mixture 54. Below are five properties concerning a sample of elemental gallium. Which of the following answers specifies all the intensive properties? I. The temperature of the sample is 18oC. II. The mass of the sample is 16.2 grams. III. The volume of the sample is 2.74 cm3. IV. The density of the sample is 5.9 g/cm3. V. The sample reacts readily with fluorine. a) I and IV b) IV and V c) II and III d) I, IV, and V 55. Which of the following is an example of a compound? a) aluminum b) sodium bicarbonate c) air

d) mud

56. Which of the following processes are exothermic? I. Combustion of natural gas. II. Freezing water. III. Melting ice. IV. Boiling water. V. Condensing steam. a) III, IV and V b) I, II, and III c) III and IV d) I, II and V e) all of them 57. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a) Different mixtures of the same two substances can have different compositions. b) Compounds are composed of two or more elements in fixed proportions. c) A solution is a homogeneous mixture. d) Elements cannot be decomposed into simpler substances by chemical means. e) A heterogeneous mixture has a constant composition throughout. 58. Which of the following materials is NOT a pure substance? a) ethyl alcohol b) salt c) aspirin d) iron

e) cheese

59. The statement that the total mass does not change in a chemical reaction is the law of: a) Conservation of Mass b) Definite Proportions c) Evolution d) Greatest Simplicity e) Thermodynamics 60. From the decomposition of an unknown solid, one obtains a gas and a new solid, both of which are pure substances. From just this information it can be said, without a doubt, that: a) one of the products is an element b) neither product is an element c) both products are elements d) the original solid is not an element 61. Which of the following properties do liquids and gases have in common? a) they expand slightly on heating b) they will flow c) they are rigid d) they are easily compressed e) they expand to fill their container 62. The fact that compound calcium carbonate is made up of 40% calcium, 12% carbon, and 48% oxygen is an illustration of the law of: a) Definite Proportions b) Conservation of Mass and Energy c) the Jungle d) Multiple Proportions e) Transmutation 63. Which of the following properties is an example of an EXTENSIVE property of a material? a) density b) mass c) reactivity with oxygen d) temperature e) boiling point 64. Which of the following materials has NOT been properly classified? a) filtered air = heterogeneous mixture b) hot tea (with no cream or sugar) = homogeneous mixture c) diamond = element d) wood = heterogeneous mixture e) pure table salt = compound 65. Which number below is INCORRECTLY converted to or from scientific notation? a) 0.0037 = 3.7 x 103 b) 1.862 x 10-2 = 0.01862 c) 32,656 = 3.2656 x 104 3 d) 96.4 x 10 = 96,400 e) all are converted correctly 66. In which item below is the result expressed INCORRECTLY in terms of number of significant figures? a) 3.14 x 2.584 = 8.11 b) 0.003/0.0015 = 2 c) 1.314 + 189.71 = 191.0 3 d) 96.4 x 10 = 96,400 e) all results are expressed to the appropriate number of significant figures

67. Which of the following materials is NOT a pure substance? a) ethyl alcohol, CH3CH2OH b) salt, NaCl c) CaCO3 (calcium carbonate) d) milk e) diamond 68. Which of the following properties do liquids and solids have in common? a) they expand contract slightly upon heating b) they are both fluids c) they are rigid d) they are difficult to compress e) they expand to fill all available volume 69. Which of the following is NOT an SI unit of that measured quantity? a) Length is expressed in meters b) Energy is expressed in calories c) Time is expressed in seconds d) Mass is expressed in kilograms e) Temperature is expressed in Kelvin 70. Which of the following is the biggest length? (1 Angstrom = 10-10m) a) 10 nm b) 0.1 m c) 104 pm d) 100 Angstroms e) all are equal lengths 71. A braking automobile converts kinetic energy into heat energy in the brake pads. This is an example of the: a) law of conservation of energy b) law of constant composition c) law of conservation of mass d) law of gravity 72. One of the following does NOT describe gases. Which one is it? a) particles far apart b) rigid shape c) easily compressed

d) relatively low densities

73. Which of the following is a compound and NOT an element or mixture? a) ethyl alcohol b) crude oil c) neon d) sulfur 74. Which of the following is NOT a mixture? a) air b) milk c) oxygen

d) seawater

75. Which of the following numbers has 4 significant figures? a) 0.04309 b) 0.0430 c) 0.043090

d) 0.43980

76. Which of the following is an intensive property of matter? a) mass b) density c) volume d) weight e) heat capacity 77. Which of the following are heterogeneous mixtures? I. sugar II. sugar dissolved in water III. an aqueous suspension of magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia) IV. samples of nitrogen and oxygen in the same container V. samples of argon and iron in the same container a) III only b) I, II, and IV c) III and V d) III and IV e) II, IV, and V 78. Liquid propane boils at 231K. What is its boiling point in C ? a) 42C b) 315C c) -42C d) 504C e) -231C 79. Identify the compound below which is an ionic compound. a) CH4 b) H2O2 c) Na2CO3 d) NH3 e) SO2

80. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) The atomic weight is the number of atoms in one mole of the element. b) The electron and proton have charges of equal magnitude and opposite sign. c) The atomic number is the number of protons in the nucleus. d) An atom is the smallest particle of an element that maintains the chemical identity of that element. e) The number above the element symbol on the periodic chart is the atomic number. 81. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) Atoms cannot be created, destroyed, or transformed into atoms of another element except by nuclear reactions. b) Some elements exist in pure form as polyatomic molecules. c) All atoms of a given element have identical properties, which differ from those of other elements. d) Compounds form when masses of different elements combine in small whole-number ratios. e) The relative numbers and kinds of atoms are constant in a given compound. 82. Identify the compound below which is a molecular compound: a) CaF2 b) NaCl c) Na2CO3 d) NH4NO3 e) SO3 83. Which has a greater mass? a) 1 atom of iron b) 1 atom of Neon water c) 1 molecule of carbon dioxide d) 1 molecule of

84. The fact that water is always found to be 89% Oxygen and 11% Hydrogen by mass is an example of: a) The Law of Conservation of Matter b) The Law of Conservation of Energy c) The Law of Multiple Proportions d) The Law of Definite Proportions e) Daltons theory of atoms 85. Which of the following species DOES NOT represent an element in its most stable form? a) H2 b) Br c) S8 d) P4 e) Ne 86. Which of the following is NOT an ionic compound? c) NH4Cl d) FeSO4 a) LiF b) CCl4 87. A doubly negative ion, symbolized by X2-, forms a compound with a metal M, of the formula M2X. What is the charge on the metal, M? a) +1 b) +2 c) +3 d) +4 88. Which of the following statements is incorrect? a) A molecule is the smallest part of a compound that can have a stable independent existence. b) Molecules that consist of more than one atom are called polyatomic molecules. c) The atomic number of an element is defined as the number of neutrons in the nucleus. d) Molecules of compounds are composed of more than one kind of atom. 89. Which of the following statements is not an idea from Daltons Atomic Theory? a) An element is composed of extremely small indivisible particles called atoms. b) All atoms of a given element have identical properties which differ from those of all other elements. c) Atoms can only be transformed into atoms of another element by nuclear reactions. d) Compounds are formed when atoms of different elements combine with each other in small wholenumber ratios. e) The relative numbers and kind of atoms are consistent in a given compound.

90. Identify the compound below which is an ionic compound. a) CO2 b) H2O2 c) CaSO4 d) H2O e) SO3 91. Identify the compound formula that is INCORRECT. a) Mg3(PO4)2 for magnesium phosphate b) Fe(NO3)2 for iron(II) nitrate c) NaCO3 for sodium carbonate d) CuCl for cuprous chloride e) AgBr for silver bromide 92. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) The atomic weight of an element is the mass in grams of 6.022 x 1023 atoms of the element. b) Avogadro's number is the number of atoms in exactly 1 gram of Carbon-12. c) The electron and proton have charges of equal magnitude and opposite sign. d) The atomic number is the number of protons in the nucleus. e) The number above the element symbol on the periodic chart is the atomic number. 93. Which of the following species DOES NOT represent an element in its most stable form? a) N2 b) Cl c) S8 d) P4 e) He 94. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? a) A molecule is the smallest part of a compound that can have a stable independent existence. b) The molar mass can be expressed in grams/mol. c) An amu is 1/12 the mass of one Carbon-12 atom. d) The atomic weight scale is based on the mass of an atom of Carbon (isotope 12). e) A gram of each different element consists of the same number of atoms. 95. Which of the following ions does NOT have a 1 charge? a) oxide b) fluoride c) hydroxide d) nitrate

e) acetate

96. Which of the following elements in its pure stable form exists as a diatomic molecule? a) Carbon b) Nitrogen c) Sulfur d) Phosphorus e) Iron 97. Which of the following compounds is INCORRECTLY classified as ionic versus molecular? b) NO2 is an ionic compound a) H2O is a molecular compound c) HCl is a molecular compound d) CaO is an ionic compound e) NH4Cl is an ionic compound 98. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? a) A molecule is the smallest particle of a compound that can have a stable independent existence. b) Molecules that consist of more than one atom are called polyatomic molecules. c) The atomic number of an element is defined as the number of neutrons in the nucleus. d) Molecules of compounds are composed of more than one kind of atom. e) The charge on an electron is negative, and the charge on a proton is positive. 99. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? a) A molecule of potassium chloride, KCl, consists of one K+ ion and one Cl ion. b) Ions that possess a positive charge are called cations. c) Polyatomic ions are groups of atoms that have an electric charge. d) It is acceptable to use a formula to refer to either an ionic compound or a molecular compound. e) Ions that possess a negative charge are called anions.

100. Each response below lists an ion by name and by chemical symbol or formula. Also each ion is classified as monatonic or polyatomic and as a cation or anion. Which response contains an ERROR? a) phosphate; PO43- ; polyatomic; anion b) sulfite; SO32- ; polyatomic; anion c) nitrite; NO3- ; polyatomic; anion d) iron(II); Fe2+ ; monatomic; cation e) bromide; Br ; monatomic; anion 101. Atoms are composed of: a) protons, neutrons, electrons c) positrons, neutrons, electrons

b) protons, neutrinos, elections d) positrons, neutrons, negatrons

102. Which of the following sets illustrates the Law of Multiple Proportions? b) KCl, CaCl2, ScCl3 c) O, O2, O3 a) Li2O, Na2O, K2O 103. How many atoms are in a sulfuric acid molecule? a) 1 b) 7 c) 5 d) 6 104. Choose the correct answer: a) cations have a positive charge, anions have a negative charge b) anions have a positive charge, cations have a negative charge c) the opposite of a cat ion is a dog ion d) ions cannot form in chemical reactions

d) BrF, BrF2, BrF3

105. Identify the INCORRECT statement below concerning an aqueous solution which is 0.1 M HCl solution: a) This solution is a homogeneous mixture of ionized HCl and H2O. b) In this solution water is the solute. c) The solvent is the dispersing medium, which is the substance present in greatest abundance. d) In this solution there are essentially no non-ionized HCl molecules present. e) This solution has a high electrical conductivity. 106. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) Many properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic weight. b) The periodic law of the elements was first noted by Mendeleev in the mid-1800's. c) The vertical columns of the periodic chart are called groups, sharing similar properties. d) Elements with atomic numbers of 9, 17, 35, and 53 are the alkali metals. e) Elements Li, B, N and F are all in the same period. 107. Which of the following substances is a strong electrolyte? a) glucose b) acetic acid c) methyl alcohol d) water

e) sodium hydroxide

108. Identify which substance below is NOT a strong acid in aqueous solution: a) HBr b) HCl c) HNO3 d) H2SO4 e) HF 109. Identify the strong base (in aqueous solution) from among the following compounds: a) Na2S b) Cu(NO3)2 c) NH3 d) NH4Cl e) KOH 110. Identify the substance below which is INSOLUBLE in water. b) Ca3(PO4)2 c) MgCl2 d) AgNO3 a) Na2S e) CaCl2

111. Which substance when dissolved in water would give rise to a solution which is HIGHLY conductive? a) sucrose b) sodium carbonate c) methyl alcohol d) acetic acid e) glucose

112. Which of the following reactions is not balanced? a) P4 + 3O2 P4O6 b) Cu(NO3)2 CuO + 2NO2 + O2 d) 3PbO + 2NH3 3Pb + N2 + 3H2O c) 2Al2O3 + 3C + 6Cl2 4AlCl3 + 3CO2 113. Which of the following is an alkaline earth metal? a) Zr b) Sn c) Ca d) Li 114. Which one of the following is a strong acid? a) HF b) HNO3 c) CH3COOH e) Th

d) H2SO3

e) H2CO3

115. Which response includes all of the following that are redox reactions and no others? II. 2K + Br2 2KBr I. BaSO3 BaO + SO2 III. H2CO3 + Ca(OH)2 CaCO3 + 2H2O IV. SnS2 + HCl H2SnCl6 + 2H2S V. 3Cl2 + 6KOH 5KCl + KClO3 + 3H2O a) II, III, and IV b) I and III c) II and V d) I and IV e) another one or another combination 116. Which of the following equations is not balanced? a) Zn + 2HCl ZnCl2 + H2 b) 2Na + 2H2O 2NaOH + H2 c) CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O d) 2H2 + O2 2H2O e) SO2 + O2 SO3 117. Stoichiometry deals with: a) primarily combustion reactions. b) mass or mole combining relationships in a chemical reaction. c) heat evolved by a chemical reaction. d) rates of chemical reactions. 118. Molarity is defined as: a) moles of solute per kilogram of solvent. b) moles of solute per moles of solution. c) grams of solute per liter of solution. d) moles of solvent per liter of solute. e) moles of solute per liter of solution. 119. Identify the CORRECT relationship below: a) Moles of solute present in solution equals concentration in molarity times the volume of solution in milliliters. b) Moles of solute present in solution equals concentration in molarity times the volume of solution in Liters. c) Moles of solute present in solution equals % solute times the grams of solution. d) Grams of solute present in solution equals % solute times the grams of solution. 120. Which of the following equations is not balanced? a) BaO + 2 HCl BaCl2 + H2O b) Ca + 2 H2O Ca(OH)2 + 2 H2 c) 2 C2H6 + 7 O2 4 CO2 + 6 H2O d) 2 SO2 + O2 2 SO3 121. What scientific law serves as the basis for balancing chemical equations by requiring that there be no observable change in the quantity of matter during a chemical reaction? a) Law of Conservation of Energy b) Law of Constant Composition c) Law of Conservation of Mass d) Law of Definite Proportions 122. Two solutions are poured together. Which mixture of solutions produces a precipitate? a) a solution of Na2S and a solution Cu(NO3)2 b) a solution of Na3PO4 and a solution of KCl c) a solution of KNO3 and a solution of FeCl3 d) none of these produce a precipitate

123. Which of the following is the correct net ionic equation for the neutralization of HCl with KOH in aqueous solution? a) H+(aq) + OH-(aq) H2O(l) b) HCl(aq) + KOH(aq) KCl(aq) + H2O c) H+(aq) + Cl-(aq) + K+(aq) + OH- (aq) K+(aq) + Cl-(aq) + H2O d) H+(aq) + KOH(aq) K+(aq) + H2O 124. In which of the following compounds is the oxidation number assigned INCORRECTLY? a) in KMnO4, the oxidation number of Mn is +7 b) in H2CO3, the oxidation number of C is +1 c) in Na2S, the oxidation number of S is 2 d) in NaH, sodium hydride, the oxidation number of H is 1 125. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? a) Reduction is an algebraic decrease in the oxidation number of an element with a corresponding gain of electrons. b) Combustion of methane is an example of an oxidation/reduction reaction. c) Oxidation is an algebraic increase in the oxidation number of an element with a corresponding loss of electrons. d) In a redox reaction the oxidizing agent is the species that is oxidized. e) One cannot ever have an oxidation without also having a reduction simultaneously. 126. In the following reaction, which species is being reduced? FeBr3 + 3Cl2 2FeCl3 + 3Br2 a) the Cl in Cl2 b) the Fe in FeBr3 c) the Br in FeBr3 d) this is not a redox reaction 127. Which of the following reactions will NOT occur? a) CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s) Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq) b) 2NaNO3(aq) + Zn(s) 2Na(s) + Zn(NO3)2(aq) c) 2AgNO2(aq) + Zn(s) 2Ag(s) + Zn(NO3)2(aq) d) 2HCl(aq) + Zn(s) H2(g) + ZnCl2(aq) 128. Which of the following matched pairs of name and formula has an error? a) CaF2 is calcium fluoride b) Na2S is sodium sulfate c) HCN is hydrogen cyanide d) KBr is potassium bromide 129. Which of the following matched pairs of name and formula has an error? a) SnBr2 is tin(II) bromide b) FeCl3 is ferric chloride c) Mn2O3 is manganese(II) oxide d) CuS is copper(II) sulfide 130. In which compound is nitrogen in the +1 oxidation state? a) N2O4 b) HNO3 c) N2 d) N2O e) none of these 131. Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction? a) CaCl2(aq) + Na2CO3(aq) CaCO3(s) + 2 NaCl(aq) b) 2 Na(s) + 2 H2O 2 NaOH + H2(g) c) 2 H2 + O2 2 H2O d) Zn(s) + Cu(NO3)2(aq) Zn(NO3)2(aq) + Cu(s) 132. In the following reaction identify the oxidizing agent: 2 Na(s) + H2 2 NaH(s) a) Na(s) b) NaH(s) c) H2(g) d) this is not a redox reaction

133. Which of the following is the correct NET IONIC reaction for the neutralization of acetic acid (CH3COOH) with Ca(OH)2? a) 2 CH3COOH + Ca(OH)2 Ca(CH3COO)2 + 2 H2O b) H+ + OH H2O c) CH3COOH + OH CH3COO + H2O d) 2 H+ + Ca(OH)2 Ca2+ + 2 H2O 134. Which of the following is INCORRECTLY classified? a) CH3COOH / weak electrolyte b) HCl / strong electrolyte d) NaOH / weak electrolyte e) H2O / nonelectrolyte c) NaCl / strong electrolyte

135. Which of the following compounds are INCORRECTLY classified (solubility refers to water)? c) MgCl2 / soluble a) NaBr / soluble b) KCrO4 / insoluble d) AgCl / insoluble e) PbS / insoluble 136. Which of these is a weak acid? a) HNO3 b) H2SO4 c) HBr

d) HI

e) H2S

137. Solutions of BaCl2(aq), Na2SO4(aq) and KNO3(aq) are mixed together. What is the likely precipitate? a) NaNO3 b) Ba(NO3)2 c) BaSO4 d) KCl e) K2SO4 138. Which of the following mixtures would NOT lead to the evolution of hydrogen gas from an aqueous solution? a) Zn + 2 HCl b) Cu + 2 HCl c) K + H2O d) Na + H2SO4 139. Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding the periodic table. a) The properties of the elements are periodic function of their atomic number. b) The periodic law was first noted by Mendeleev in the mid- 1800's. c) Elements with z = 2 and 10 have similar properties. d) Elements in horizontal rows have similar properties. e) The element magnesium is an alkaline earth metal. 140. Which is the net ionic reaction for the reaction of AgNO3(aq) with NaCl(aq)? a) AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq) b) Ag+(aq) + Cl(aq) AgCl(s) c) AgNO3(aq) + Cl(aq) AgCl(s) + NO3 (aq) d) Ag+(aq) + NO3(aq) + Na+(aq) + Cl(aq) AgCl(s) + Na+(aq) + NO3(aq) 141. Which is the net ionic reaction for the neutralization of acetic acid with sodium hydroxide? a) H+(aq) + OH(aq) H2O b) H+(aq) + CH3COO(aq) + Na+(aq) + OH- (aq) Na+(aq) + CH3COO(aq) + H2O c) CH3COOH(aq) + OH(aq) CH3COO(aq) + H2O d) H+(aq) + OH(aq) H2O + NaCH3COO(aq) 142. In the following reaction which species is being oxidized? Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s) a) Zn b) Cu2+ c) Zn2+ d) Cu e) this is not a redox reaction 143. Which below is the MOST active metal? a) Sn b) Zn c) Cu d) Ag

e) Li

144. Which metal below will NOT displace hydrogen gas from a solution of HCl(aq)? a) Na b) Zn c) Mg d) Cu e) Cs 145. How many of the three types of elementary particles are present in a neutral atom of 14C? a) 12 protons, 14 neutrons, 12 electrons b) 6 protons, 8 neutrons, 6 electrons c) 6 protons, 6 neutrons, 6 electrons d) 12 protons, 8 neutrons, 12 electrons e) 14 protons, 6 neutrons, 14 electrons 146. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) Light can be viewed as an electromagnetic wave. b) Light exists in particles called photons having energies directly proportional to their frequencies. c) The photoelectric effect led to the discovery of the particle-like nature of light. d) In the photoelectric effect, photons of high energy eject electrons from a metal. e) Red light (= 700 nm) has photons of greater energy than blue light (= 400 nm). 147. Which of the following are the formulas for the principle species in aqueous solution for (NH4)3PO4? a) NH3 and H3PO4 b) NH2- and H6PO4+3 c) NH4+ and PO4-3 d) This compound is insoluble. 148. For the following reaction, which ions are the "spectator" (unreactive) ions? Pb(NO3)2(aq) + K2SO4(aq) PbSO4(s) + 2 KNO3(aq) a) Pb+2 and SO42 b) K+ and NO3 c) K+ and SO42 d) Pb+2 and NO3 149. For the following acid/base reaction, the net ionic equation is: HBr + KOH KBr + H2O a) K+ + OH KOH b) K+ + Br KBr c) Br + OH+ BrOH d) H+ + OH H2O 150. Which of the following compounds is soluble in water? a) BaCO3 b) FeS c) CaSO4 d) AgNO3 e) PbCl2 151. Which one of the following salts is SOLUBLE in water? a) KClO3 b) BaSO4 c) Ag3PO4 d) CuS e) FeCO3

152. Which one of the following salts is INSOLUBLE in water? a) MgSO4 b) KNO3 c) AgBr d) FeCl3 e) NaBr 153. Which one of the following salts is soluble in water? a) FeS b) Ag2CO3 c) NH4F d) CrPO4 154. Which one of the following salts is INSOLUBLE in water? b) NaClO c) Mg(NO3)2 d) Rb2CO3 a) K2S e) Hg2Cl2 e) Ba3(PO4)2

155. Which of the following reactions is a decomposition reaction? a) 2 H2(g) + O2(g) 2 H2O(l) b) Fe2O3(s) + 3 CO(g) 2 Fe(s) + 3 CO2(g) c) 2 KClO3(s) 2 KCl(s) + 3 O2(g) d) 2 AgNO3(aq) + Zn(s) 2 Ag(s) + Zn(NO3)2(aq) 156. Which of the following is an oxidation-reduction (redox) reaction? a) FeCl2(aq) + 2 AgNO3(aq) 2 AgCl(aq) + Fe(NO3)2(aq) b) AgNO3(aq) + NaBr(aq) AgBr(s) + NaNO3(aq) c) Zn(s) + 2 AgNO3(aq) 2 Ag(s) + Zn(NO3)2(aq) d) 3HCl(aq) + Cr(OH)3(s) CrCl3(aq) + 3H2O(l)

157. What is the reducing agent in the following reaction? Cu(s) + 4 H+(aq) + SO42(aq) Cu2+(aq) + 2 H2O(l) + SO2(g) c) SO42 d) Cu2+ e) SO2 a) Cu b) H+ 158. In the following reaction CO is ____________. Fe2O3(s) + 3 CO(g) 2 Fe(s) + 3 CO2(g) a) the oxidizing agent and is oxidized. b) the oxidizing agent and is reduced. c) the reducing agent and is oxidized. d) the reducing agent and is reduced. e) neither an oxidizing agent nor a reducing agent. 159. What is the net ionic equation for the following formula unit equation? Cu(NO3)2(aq) + H2S(aq) CuS(s) + 2 HNO3(aq) 2+ a) Cu (aq) + H2S(aq) CuS(s) + 2 H+(aq) b) Cu2+(aq) + S2(aq) CuS(s) c) Cu2+(aq) + 2 H+(aq) + S2(aq) CuS(s) + 2 H+(aq) d) [Cu2+(aq) + 2 NO3(aq)] + H2S(aq) CuS(s) + 2 [H+(aq) + 2 NO3(aq)] e) Cu2+(aq) + 2 NO3(aq) + 2 H+(aq) + S2 (aq) CuS(s) + 2 H+(aq) + 2 NO3(aq) 160. Will a precipitate form when 0.1 M aqueous solutions of CrCl3 and (NH4)2S are mixed? If it does form, identify the precipitate and give the net ionic equation for the reaction. a) No precipitate forms b) NH4Cl precipitates: NH4+(aq) + Cl(aq) NH4Cl (s) c) Cr2S3 precipitates: 2 Cr3+(aq) + 3 S2(aq) Cr2S3(s) d) Cr3S2 precipitates: 3 Cr3+(aq) + 2 S2(aq) Cr3S2(s) e) Cr2S3 precipitates: 2 CrCl3(aq) + 3(NH4)2S(aq) Cr2S3(s) + 6 NH4Cl(aq) 161. The equation, 2 H+(aq) + CO32(aq) H2O(l) + CO2(g), is the net ionic equation for the reaction of an aqueous mixture of: b) Na2CO3 and HCl. c) H2CO3 and NaOH a) CaCO3 and HCl. d) BaCO3 and H2SO4. e) (COOH)2 and KOH. 162. Which one of the following salts is insoluble in water? a) Li3PO4 b) Na2SO4 c) (NH4)3AsO4 d) BaSO4 163. Which one of the following salts is insoluble in water? a) KHCO3 b) Mg3(PO4)2 c) AgNO3 d) CrCl3 164. Which one of the following is a strong acid? b) CH3COOH c) HF a) H2SO3 d) H2CO3 e) K2CO3 e) (NH4)2S e) HNO3

165. What is the net ionic equation for the following formula unit equation? Cu(NO3)2(aq) + H2S(aq) CuS(s) + 2 HNO3(aq) 2+ a) Cu (aq) + H2S(aq) CuS(s) + 2 H+(aq) b) [Cu2+(aq)+2 NO3(aq)] + H2S(aq) CuS(s) + 2[H+(aq)+2 NO3(aq)] c) Cu2+(aq) + S2-(aq) CuS(s) d) Cu2+(aq) + 2 H+(aq) + S2(aq) CuS(s) + 2 H+(aq) e) Cu2+(aq) + 2 NO3(aq) + 2 H+(aq) + S2(aq) CuS(s) + 2 H+(aq) + 2 NO3(aq)

166. Which of the following statements about strong soluble bases is FALSE? a) They are composed of either alkali metals or some of the more reactive alkaline earth metals. b) They are all metal hydroxides. c) Their solutions conduct electricity. d) They are classified as weak electrolytes. e) They produce OH in aqueous solution. 167. Which one of the following salts is insoluble in water? a) FeCl2 b) PbS c) KCH3COO d) NH4Cl

e) Pb(NO3)2

168. Which statement regarding nitric acid is FALSE? a) It is soluble in water. b) It only slightly ionizes in aqueous solution. c) Its solutions conduct electricity. d) It is a strong electrolyte. e) It produces H+ and NO3- in aqueous solution. 169. Will a precipitate form when 0.1 M aqueous solutions of Ba(NO3)2 and H2CO3 are mixed? If a precipitate does form, identify the precipitate and give the net ionic equation for the reaction. a) No precipitate forms. b) BaCO3 precipitates. Ba2+(aq) + H2CO3(aq) BaCO3(s) + 2 H+(aq) c) BaCO3 precipitates. Ba2+(aq) + H2CO3(aq) BaCO3(s) + H2(g) d) H2(NO3)2 precipitates. 2 H+(aq) + 2 NO3(aq) H2(NO3)2(s) e) BaCO3 precipitates. Ba2+(aq) + CO32 (aq) BaCO3(s) 170. Which one of the following represents the net ionic equation for the reaction of nitric acid with aluminum hydroxide? a) 3 NO3(aq) + Al3+(aq) Al(NO3)3(aq) b) H+(aq) + OH(aq) H2O(l) c) 3 H+(aq) + Al(OH)3(s) Al3+(aq) + 3H2O(l) d) 3 HNO3(aq) + Al(OH)3(s) 3 Al(NO3)3(aq) + 3 H2O(l) e) 2 H+(aq) + Al(OH)2(s) Al2+(aq) + 2 H2O(l) 171. Which of the following equations is the net ionic equation for the reaction of iron(II) sulfide and hydrochloric acid? a) Fe2S3(s) + 6 H+(aq) 3 H2S(g) + 2 Fe3+(aq) b) Fe2S(s) + 2 H+(aq) Fe22+ + H2S(g) 2+ c) Fe (aq) + 2 Cl FeCl2(s) d) FeS(s) + 2 H+(aq) Fe2+(aq) + H2S(g) e) S2(aq) + 2 H+(aq) 2 H2S(g) 172. Which response contains all of the following that are oxidation-reduction reactions and no others? I. PCl3(l) + 3 H2O(l) 3 HCl(aq) + H 3PO3(aq) II. Fe2O3(s) + 3 CO(g) 2 Fe(s) + 3 CO2(g) III. CaCO3(s) + 2 HClO3(aq) Ca(ClO3)2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) a) I and II b) III c) II and III d) I e) II 173. What is (are) the spectator (unreactive) ion(s) in the following reaction? 2 HClO3(aq) + Sr(OH)2(aq) Sr(ClO3)2(aq) + 2 H2O(l) + a) H b) Sr2+, ClO3 c) OH d) Sr2+, OH e) H+, OH

174. Which of the following responses contains all the TRUE statements and no others? I. The elements at the far right of the periodic table, except the noble gases, have the greatest tendency to form anions. II. The elements with the least tendency to form ions are those at the far left of the periodic table. III. Bonds in compounds consisting of two adjacent elements in the periodic table are likely to be covalent. IV. The elements at the far left of the periodic table possess poor electrical conductivity. a) IV b) I, II, and III c) I and III d) II and IV e) I, II, and IV 175. Which one of the following is a strong acid? b) H2SO3 c) HF d) HClO3 a) HNO2

e) HClO

176. What is the net ionic equation for the following formula unit equation? Cu(NO3)2(aq) + H2S(aq) CuS(s) + 2 HNO3(aq) 2+ a) Cu (aq) + S2(aq) CuS(s) b) Cu2+(aq) + H2S(aq) CuS(s) + 2 H+(aq) c) Cu2+(aq) + 2 H+(aq) + S2(aq) CuS(s) + 2 H+(aq) d) Cu2+(aq) + 2 NO3(aq) + 2 H+(aq) + S2 (aq) CuS(s) + 2 H+(aq) + 2 NO3(aq) e) [Cu2+(aq)+2 NO3(aq)] + H2S(aq) CuS(s) + 2[H+(aq) + 2 NO3(aq)] 177. Give the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in an atom of the 90Sr isotope. a) 38 p, 38 n, 38 e b) 38 p, 90 n, 38 e c) 52 p, 38 n, 52 e d) 38 p, 52 n, 38 e e) 90 p, 38 n, 90 e 178. Which one of the following substances is insoluble in water? a) BaCO3 b) RbOH c) Na3PO4 d) KSCN e) LiBr 179. What is the reducing agent in the following reaction? Cu(s) + 4 H+(aq) + SO42(aq) Cu2+(aq) + 2 H2O(l) + SO2(g) a) SO42 b) Cu c) H+ d) Cu2+ e) SO2 180. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that: a) have different numbers of protons. b) have different numbers of neutrons. c) have different nuclear charges. d) have different atomic numbers. e) have different numbers of electrons. 181. Which response includes all of the following substances that are strong electrolytes, and no others? I. K2CO3 II. HNO3 III. H2SO3 IV. CuCO3 a) II, III, and IV b) I and IV c) I, II, and III d) III and IV e) I and II 182. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) The difference between the mass number of an atom and the atomic number is always equal to the number of protons. b) The mass number of an atom is the number of neutrons in the atom. c) The number of electrons in a neutral atom of an element is always equal to the atomic number of the element. d) Atomic number is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.

183. Consider the following three statements: I. The mass of a proton and a neutron are virtually identical. II. The charge of an electron and a proton are equal but opposite. III. The mass of the electrons is a small fraction of the total mass of any atom. a) All are correct. b) I and II are correct but III is false. c) II and III are correct but I is false. d) I and III are correct but II is false. 184. The neutral 31P isotope has how many protons, neutrons, and electrons? a) 15 p, 15 n, 15 e b) 31 p, 31 n, 31 e c) 15 p, 16 n, 15 e d) 16 p, 15 n, 15 e 185. The characteristic wavelength of a 1 kilogram object moving at 1 meter/second will be: a) about the size of the object itself. b) about the same as the that of the electron in an atom. c) large compared to the atomic scale. d) immeasurably small compared to any dimensions we care about. 186. Which is the following is an INCORRECT electron configuration? a) Fe = [Ar]3d64s2 b) H = 1s1 c) Se = [Ar]3d104s24p4 d) O = [Ne]2s22p4 187. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) The total number of electrons that can have n=3 in a many-electron atom is 1. b) The total number of electrons that can fit in the 4f sublevel is 14. c) The total number of electrons that can fit in the 2px atomic orbital is 2. d) The total number of electrons required to fill the n=2 level is 8. 188. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) The mass number of an atom is the number of neutrons plus protons in the atom. b) The neutron has nearly the same mass as the proton but zero charge. c) Two elements differ from one another by having a differing mass number. d) Atomic number is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom. e) The mass of the electrons is a small fraction of the total mass of any atom. 189. The element Fluorine has only one really stable isotope. What is the composition of its nucleus? a) 19 protons b) 9 protons and 19 neutrons c) 9 protons and 10 neutrons d) 10 protons and 9 neutrons 190. A neutral atom of the 235U isotope has how many protons, neutrons, and electrons? a) 92 p, 143 n, 92 e b) 235 p, 235 n, 235 e c) 92 p, 92 n, 92 e d) 92 p, 235 n, 92 e 191. Rank the following types of radiation from highest energy to lowest: ultraviolet / visible / xray / microwave / infrared a) xray, ultraviolet, microwave, infrared, visible b) ultraviolet, xray, visible, infrared, microwave c) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, visible, xray d) xray, ultraviolet, infrared, visible, microwave e) xray, ultraviolet, visible, infrared, microwave

192. According to the de Broglie equation, the characteristic wavelength of an electron moving around an atomic nucleus will be: a) about the size of the nucleus. b) about the same size as the atom. c) large compared to the atomic scale. d) immeasurably small compared to any dimensions we care about. 193. Which of the following is an INCORRECT electron configuration? a) Ti = [Ar]4s24p2 b) S = [Ne]2s22p4 c) Li = 1s22s1 d) C = [He]2s22p2 194. Identify the INCORRECTstatement below: a) The total number of electrons required to fill the n=1 level is 2. b) The total number of electrons that can have n=2 in a many-electron atom is 8. c) The total number of electrons that can occupy an atomic orbital is 2. d) The total number of electrons that can "fit" in the 3d sublevel is 5. 195. The statement that no two electrons can have the same set of four quantum numbers in any atom is a consequence of: a) The Aufbau Principle. b) The Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle. c) The Pauli Exclusion Principle. d) Hund's Rule. 196. Which of the following full notations for the electron state is consistent with the last electron added in forming the electron configuration of Scandium (Sc)? a) (3, 2, 1, +1/2) b) (4, 0, 0, +1/2) c) (4, 2, 0, +1/2) d) (4, 2, 1, +1/2) 197. Fill in the blank: The l quantum number tells which sublevel the electron is in and most directly specifies the _______ of the atomic orbital. a) orientation b) size c) energy d) shape 198. The number of electrons present in p orbitals in the outermost electron shell of the Group VIIA elements is: a) two b) three c) one d) four e) five 199. Which one of the following ground state electron configurations is INCORRECT? a) 54Xe [Kr]4d105s25p6 b) 50Sn [Kr]4d105s25p2 c) 29Cu [Ar]3d104s1 2 5 2 2 6 2 6 2 e) 20Ca 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s d) 25Mn [Ar]4s 4d 200. Which of the responses contains all the true statements and no others regarding electromagnetic radiation (light)? I. As wavelength increases frequency decreases. II. As energy increases frequency decreases. III. As wavelength increases energy decreases. IV. The product of wavelength and frequency is constant. a) I, III, and IV b) III and IV c) I, II, and IV d) II III, and IV e) I and II 201. The amount of energy absorbed in the process in which an electron is added to a neutral gaseous atom is defined as __________. a) electron affinity b) shielding effect c) electronegativity d) standard reduction potential e) first ionization energy 202. Arrange the following elements in order of INCREASING atomic radii. K, Na, Mg, Cs, Cl a) Cl / Mg / Na / Cs / K b) Na / Mg / Cl / K / Cs c) Cl / Mg / Na / K / Cs d) Cl / Mg / Cs / K / Na e) Cs / K / Cl / Mg / Na

203. The orientation in space of an orbital is designated by which quantum number? a) n b) s c) ml d) e) l 204. All orbitals of a given degenerate set must be singly occupied before pairing begins in that set is a statement of _________. a) Planck's Theory b) Hund's Rule c) the Aufbau Principle d) the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle e) the Bohr Theory 205. Which comparison of electronegativities is NOT correct? a) O is greater than S b) N is greater than Be c) Br is greater than Se d) K is greater than Mg e) I is greater than Ba 206. The minimum energy required to remove the most loosely held electron is: a) electron affinity b) electronegativity c) potential energy d) first ionization energy e) kinetic energy 207. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a) The third energy level has 5 d orbitals. b) A set of p orbitals in a given energy level are equal in energy. c) An f set of orbitals is filled with 10 electrons. d) The 5d and 4f orbitals are very close in energy. e) The 4s orbitals are lower in energy the 3d orbitals. 208. Which one of the following pairs contains isoelectronic species? a) F2, Cl2 b) Na, Na+ c) S2, Se2 d) Na+, O2 e) S, Se 209. The total number of electrons that can be accommodated in the n=4 level is _________. a) 18 b) 50 c) 8 d) 2 e) 32 210. Which response includes all the following statements that are true, and no others? I. An s orbital can accommodate a maximum of two electrons. II. A set of d orbitals can accommodate a maximum of ten electrons. III. Each d orbital within a set consists of two lobes, 180 apart. IV. There are nine f orbitals in a set of f orbitals. a) II and IV b) II, III, and IV c) I and IV d) I and II e) I, III, and IV 211. Which of the following atoms has the greatest number of unpaired electrons in its ground state? a) S b) N c) Ti d) Cu e) Cl 212. Which of the following has a negative charge? a) electron b) nucleus c) neutron d) alpha particle

e) proton

213. Which two subatomic particles have approximately the same mass? a) electrons and nuclei b) neutrons and electrons c) protons and alpha particles d) protons and electrons e) protons and neutrons 214. All orbitals of a given degenerate set must be singly occupied before pairing begins in that set is a statement of ______________. a) the Bohr Theory b) the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle c) Planck's Theory d) the Aufbau Principle e) Hund's Rule

215. What is the electron configuration of silicon, Si? a) 1s22s22p63s23p2 b) 1s22s22p63s23p4 c) 1s21p62s22p4 2 2 6 4 1s 2s 2p 2d

d) 1s21p62s22p2

e)

216. The total number of electrons in p orbitals in a palladium atom (atomic number = 46) in its ground state is ____________. a) 12 b) 24 c) 18 d) 30 e) 6 217. What would be the outer electron configuration of group VIA (O, S, Se, . . .)? b) ns2np6 c) ns2np2 d) ns2np4 a) ns0np6 218. Which element has the largest atomic radius? a) Sn b) Cl c) Se d) Kr e) np6

e) F

219. Which element has the highest electronegativity in this list? a) At b) O c) Ge d) B e) Ca 220. Arrange the following elements in order of increasing electronegativities: At, Bi, Cl, F, I a) F / Cl / Bi / I / At b) Bi / At / I / Cl / F c) At / Bi / I / Cl / F d) At / Bi / Cl / F / I e) F / Cl / I / At / Bi 221. The atomic number of an element gives the number of _____________ and _____________ in the atom while the mass number gives the total number of _____________ and _____________. a) neutrons, electrons; protons, electrons b) protons, electrons; neutrons, electrons c) neutrons, electrons; neutrons, protons d) protons, electrons; neutrons, protons e) neutrons, protons; neutrons, electrons 222. An element has the following outer electron configuration in its ground state, where n represents the highest occupied energy level: (n - 1)d10ns2np4. Which of the elements listed below could it be? a) Si b) Se c) S d) Ge e) none of these 223. Which of the following has a negative charge? a) nucleus b) neutron c) proton particle

d) electron

e) alpha

224. Which two subatomic particles have approximately the same mass? a) protons and neutrons b) protons and electrons c) electrons and nuclei d) neutrons and electrons e) protons and alpha particles 225. The number of electrons in a neutral atom of an element is always equal to the _______ of the element. a) mass number b) atomic number c) atomic mass unit d) isotope number e) Avogadro's number 226. Which statement about electromagnetic radiation is FALSE? a) As frequency increases, wavelength decreases. b) As wavelength increases, energy increases. c) As wavelength increases, frequency decreases. d) Wavelength and energy are inversely proportional. e)Wavelength and frequency are inversely proportional.

227. The difference between the mass number of an atom and the atomic number of the atom is always equal to .... a) 6.02 x 1023. b) the number of protons in the nucleus. c) the atomic mass unit. d) the atomic number of the element. e) the number of neutrons in the nucleus. 228. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that: a) have different numbers of electrons. b) have different numbers of protons. c) have different atomic numbers. d) have different numbers of neutrons. e) have different nuclear charges. 229. The atomic number of a certain element is 19, and its atomic weight is 39. An atom of the element contains _____ protons, _____ neutrons, and the chemical symbol for the element is _____. a) 19, 19, F b) 19, 20, F c) 19, 20, K d) 20, 19, K e) none of these 230. Give the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in an atom of the 90Sr isotope. a) 38 p, 38 n, 38 e b) 38 p, 90 n, 38 e c) 52 p, 38 n, 52 e d) 38 p, 52 n, 38 e e) 90 p, 38 n, 90 e 231. Give the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in the 2141Sc3+ ion. a) 21 p, 20 n, 21 e b) 21 p, 20 n, 18 e c) 21 p, 20 n, 24 e d) 20 p, 21 n, 17 e e) 21 p, 41 n, 18 e 232. The Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle states that ________. a) no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers. b) two atoms of the same element must have the same number of protons. c) it is impossible to determine accurately both the position and momentum of an electron simultaneously. d) electrons of atoms in their ground states enter energetically equivalent sets of orbitals singly before they pair up in any orbital of the set. e) charged atoms (ions) must generate a magnetic field when they are in motion. 233. A(An) ______ is a region of space in which there is a high probability of finding an electron in an atom. a) shell b) atomic orbital c) core d) major energy level e) nucleus 234. Which quantum number is often designated by the letters s, p, d and f? a) n b) l c) ml d) ms e) 235. What is the total number of orbitals in the fourth energy level (n = 4.) a) 4 b) 24 c) 16 d) 9 e) 18 236. The maximum number of electrons that can occupy an energy level or shell (n = principle quantum number) is _____. a) n b) 2n c) n + 1 d) n 1 e) 2n2 237. Which of the following is not a valid magnetic quantum number for the 3d set of orbitals? a) 1 b) 2 c) 0 d) -2 e) -3

238. No two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers is a statement of _____. a) the Aufbau Principle b) the Pauli Exclusion Principle c) Dalton's Theory d) Hund's Rule e) the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle 239. All orbitals of a given degenerate set must be singly occupied before pairing begins in that set is a statement of _____. a) the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle b) the Bohr Theory c) the Aufbau Principle d) Planck's Theory e) Hund's Rule 240. The electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p6 4s23d6 represents the element _____. a) Mn b) Se c) Fe d) Co e) Kr 241. Which of the following is the electron configuration of O2-? a) 1s22s22p6 b) 1s22s22p4 c) 1s22s22p33s23p6 242. What is the electron configuration of tin, Sn? a) [Kr]5s23d103f145p4 b) [Kr]5s23d104d145p4 2 10 2 e) [Xe]5s24d105p2 d) [Kr]5s 4d 5p d) 1s22s22p1 e)1s22s22p43s23p4

c) [Kr]5s23d104f145p2

243. Which one of the following electron configurations is INCORRECT? a) Cl-; 1s22s22p63s23p6 b) Ge; [Ar]3d104s23p3 c) Sc; [Ar]3d14s2 e) N3-; 1s22s22p6 d) O; [He]2s22p4 244. Which element has the following electron configuration?

a) Na

b) Mg

c) Cl

d) Br

e) P e) [Kr]3d5

245. What is the electron configuration of the iron(III) ion? c) [Ar]4s23d3 d) [Ar]3d5 a) [Ar]4s23d3 b) [Ar]3d5

246. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers COULD represent the "last" electron added to complete the electron configuration for a ground state atom of Br according to the Aufbau Principle. n; l; ml; ms a) 4; 0; 0; -1/2 b) 4; 1; 1; -1/2 c) 3; 1; 1; -1/2 d) 4; 1; 2; +1/2 e) 4; 2; 1; 1/2 247. Which statement is FALSE? a) If an electron has quantum number n = 3, the electron could be in a d sublevel. b) If an electron has quantum number l = 2, the only possible values of ml are 0 and 1. c) If an electron has ml = 1, it might be in a p, d, or f sublevel but not in an s sublevel. d) An electron that has n = 3 cannot be in an f sublevel. e) An electron that has n = 5 could be in an s, p, d, or f sublevel.

248. The TOTAL number of electrons in p orbitals in a palladium atom (atomic number = 46) in its ground state is _____. a) 6 b) 12 c) 18 d) 24 e) 30 249. An element that has four electrons in its outer shell in its ground state is _____. a) Nb b) Cr c) Sn d) Ti e) O 250. The number of electrons present in the p orbitals in the outermost electron shell (major energy level, n) of the halogen atoms is _______. a) one b) two c) six d) seven e) five 251. In predicting the electron configuration of the elements by the Aufbau Principle, to which sublevel is one adding electrons in traversing from element 39, Y, to element 48, Cd? a) 4f b) 5p c) 4d d) 5d 252. The number of valence electrons in the Group including nitrogen, phosphorus, and arsenic is: a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 7 e) 6 253. Of the 3 elements fluorine, bromine, and calcium, which has the highest and which the lowest ionization energy? a) Bromine has the highest and calcium has the lowest. b) Calcium has the highest and fluorine has the lowest. c) Fluorine has the highest and bromine has the lowest. d) Fluorine has the highest and calcium has the lowest. 254. Rank the following five atomic species in order of increasing atomic radius (smallest to largest): Si, Na, K, F, O a) K, Na, Si, O, F b) F, O, Si, Na, K c) O, F, Si, Na, K d) O, F, Na, Si, K 255. The hydride ion has ____ electrons. a) 2 b) 1 c) 0

d) 3

e)

256. Which ionic species would you predict to be the largest? Na+, Mg2+, N3-, O2a) Mg2+ b) O2 c) Na+ d) N3 257. The Mg2+ ion is isoelectronic with which neutral atom? a) Si b) Na c) Ne d) Ar e) He 258. Between which two species out of the following three elements is there the largest electronegativity difference? O, Se, Mg a) Between Mg and Se, with Se being the highest EN. b) Between O and Se, with O being the highest EN. c) Between Mg and O, with Mg being the highest EN. d) Between O and Mg, with O being the highest EN. 259. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) Nonmetals generally have the higher electronegativities and tend to attract electrons to themselves in a chemical bond. b) Elements with high ionization energies tend to have large atomic radii. c) Elements with high electronegativities generally have large negative electron affinities. d) The second ionization energy is always larger than the first ionization energy.

260. Which of the following processes is responsible for the yellowish-brown gas commonly found in the air over large metropolitan areas? a) The electric spark in electric motors. b) The combustion of coal with high sulfur content. c) The combustion of materials containing nitrogen. d) The combustion of natural gas. 261. What is the total number of available valence electrons in the Lewis dot structure of the ammonium ion, NH4+? a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 7 262. The Lewis dot formula for Br2 shows: a) a single ionic bond b) a double covalent bond c) a triple covalent bond d) a single covalent bond 263. Which is the correct Lewis dot structure of magnesium chloride?

264. Based on the Lewis electron dot structure of the diatomic molecule O2, what kind of bond exists between the oxygen atoms? a) a triple covalent bond b) a double covalent bond c) a single covalent bond d) a single ionic bond 265. Which is the correct Lewis structure of the SO32- ion?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

266. In which species is there a violation of the octet rule? a) N2 b) SF6 c) O2 d) CCl4 267. Which of the following statements about chemical periodicity is INCORRECT? a) The chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic number. b) Electronegativity decreases as you go from left to right across a period. c) Atomic radii decrease as you go across a period. d) Electron affinity becomes more negative as you go up a family or group of elements. 268. Which of the following elements has an ns2np2 outer level electron configuration? a) Ne b) N c) O d) Cl e) C 269. Which outer shell electron configuration is typical of an alkaline earth metal? a) ns1 b) ns2np4 c) ns2 d) ns2np6 e) ns2np5 270. Which sublevel is being filled in proceeding from element Y to element Cd? a) 4d b) 3d c) 5d d) 4f e) 5s 271. Which species is INCORRECTLY matched with the electron configuration? a) Na+ = 1s22s22p6 b) S2- = 1s22s22p63s23p2 c) Ca2+ = 1s22s22p63s23p6 d) Sc3+ = 1s22s22p63s23p6 272. Which of the following species is NOT isoelectronic with the others?

a) N3

b) O2

c) F

d) K+

e) Al3+

273. Which atom below is the largest? a) S b) Ca c) Al

d) K

e) F

274. Which atom below has the largest first ionization energy? a) N b) O c) S d) Li e) Cs 275. Which elements below has the largest electronegativity? a) Li b) S c) O d) Na e) Cs 276. Which element pair will form the most ionic bond? a) C, H b) C, O c) Li, H d) Na, Cl 277. Which statement is INCORRECT? a) Electron affinity is the amount of energy needed to attach an electron to a gaseous element. b) Once an electron has been removed from a neutral atom, the second electron is usually easier to remove. c) First ionization is the minimum amount of energy required to remove the most loosely held electron from a gaseous atom. d) Metals have lower ionization energies than nonmetals. e) Elements with low ionization energies typically form ionic compounds with nonmetals by losing electrons. 278. How many valence electrons does carbon have? a) 3 b) 6 c) 1 d) 4

e) 2

279. In which of the following species would one expect to find RESONANCE? I. CO2 II. HNO2 III. SO2 IV. CO32a) All of them b) II, III and IV c) III and IV d) I only 280. In which of the following species would one expect to find the presence of double bonds? II. CO2 III. CS2 I. CH3F a) All of them b) II only c) I only d) II and III 281. Which of the following species contain at least one POLAR covalent bond? I. HBr II. CO III. CCl4 IV. Cl2 a) All of them b) I, II and III c) I and II d) I, II and IV 282. Which response below lists the elements in order of decreasing atomic radius? a) Cl > F > Pb > Si > P b) Pb > Si > P > F > Cl c) Pb > Si > P > Cl > F d) Pb > Cl > P > Si > F e) Pb > Cl > Si > P > F 283. Which element below has the highest first ionization energy? a) O b) N c) Be d) C e) B 284. Which of the following elements has the most negative electron affinity? a) S b) Se c) Si d) Te e) P 285. Which element below has the highest electronegativity? a) Li b) N c) K d) As e) Ba 286. Which pair of elements would be least likely to combine to form an ionic compound?

e) IV only

a) Cs, O

b) Mg, Br

c) Al, F

d) C, N

e) Na, S

287. The two acids that are major contributors to "acid rain" are: a) H2CO3 and HNO3 b) H2SO4 and H3PO4 c) H2CO3 and H2SO4 d) H2SO4 and HNO3 e) H3PO4 and HNO3 288. Which is the following is an INCORRECT electron configuration for the ground state of these species? b) Se = [Ar]4s24p4 c) Li = 1s22s1 d) N = [He]2s22p3 a) Sc = [Ar]4s23d1 289. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) The total number of electrons required to fill the n=2 level is 8. b) The total number of electrons that can have n=3 in a many-electron atom is 18. c) The total number of electrons that can occupy an atomic orbital is 1. d) The total number of electrons that can "fit" in the 4f sublevel is 14. 290. The observation that electrons "prefer" going into separate atomic orbitals in a sublevel having more than one orbital is a consequence of: a) The Aufbau Principle. b) The Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle. c) Hund's Rule. d) The Pauli Exclusion Principle. 291. Which of the following full notations for the electron state is consistent with the last electron added in forming the electron configuration of Gallium (Ga)? a) (3, 2, 1, +1/2) b) (4, 0, 0, +1/2) c) (4, 2, 0, +1/2) d) (4, 2, 1, +1/2) e) (4, 1, 0, +1/2) 292. Fill in the blank: The n quantum number tells which level the electron is in and most directly specifies the _______ of the atomic orbital. a) orientation b) angular momentum c) energy d) shape e) mass 293. Which of the following species does NOT have an ns2np6 outer level electron configuration? a) F b) N3 c) O2 d) Cl e) Ne 294. Which outer shell electron configuration is typical of a neutral halogen element? b) ns2np4 c) ns2 d) ns2np5 e) ns2np7 a) ns1 295. Which subshell is being filled in proceeding from element Sc to element Zn? a) 4d b) 3d c) 5d d) 4f e) 5s 296. Which species is INCORRECTLY matched with the electron configuration for the ground state of these species? a) K+ = [Ar] b) Na+ = 1s22s22p6 c) H- = 1s2 d) O2- = [He]2s22p2 297. Which of the following species is NOT isoelectronic with the others? a) N3b) O2c) Mg d) Na+ e) Al3+ 298. Which atom below is the largest? a) O b) K c) Al

d) Mg

e) F

299. Which atom below has the largest first ionization energy? a) N b) F c) Mg d) Li e) Na 300. Which elements below has the lowest electronegativity?

a) Li

b) S

c) O

d) Na

e) Cs

301. Which statement is INCORRECT? a) Elements with low ionization energies typically form ionic compounds with nonmetals by gaining electrons. b) Electron affinity is the amount of energy needed to attach an electron to a gaseous element. c) Once an electron has been removed from a neutral atom, the second electron is harder to remove. d) First ionization is the minimum amount of energy required to remove the most loosely held electron from a gaseous neutral atom. e) Metals have lower ionization energies than nonmetals. 302. In constructing the Lewis electron dot formula of H2O, the oxygen atom becomes isoelectronic with: a) H b) He c) Ne d) F e) N 303. The number of valence electrons in the group including carbon and silicon is: a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 7 304. The hydrogen ion has ____ electrons. a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) 3 305. The Mg2+ ion is isoelectronic with which neutral atom? a) Ne b) Na c) Si d) Ar 306. What is the total number of available valence electrons in the Lewis dot structure of the CO32ion? a) 24 b) 22 c) 20 d) 2 e) 26 307. The Lewis dot formula for N2 shows: a) a single ionic bond b) a double covalent bond c) a triple covalent bond d) a single covalent bond 308. Which of the following atoms has the largest radius? a) Cs b) Rb c) K d) Na 309. Which of the following atoms has the smallest radius? a) Br b) As c) Ca d) K 310. Which of the following atoms has the largest radius? a) Rb b) Si c) S d) O 311. Which of the following atoms has the smallest radius? a) Na b) Al c) N d) F 312. Which atom has the lowest first ionization energy? a) Na b) Ba c) Ca d) Cs 313. Which atom has the highest first ionization energy? a) Cs b) Ca c) Al d) O 314. Which atom has the highest electron affinity? a) Rb b) Mg c) Ga d) F

315. Which atom has the lowest electron affinity? a) Be b) Sr c) Ca d) Mg 316. Which element has below the highest electronegativity? a) Ge b) O c) B d) Ca e) H 317. Which atom has the greatest attraction for electrons in a covalent bond? a) Ge b) Se c) As d) Br e) Kr 318. Which of the following ions would least likely form? a) Cu+2 b) Ca+2 c) Ti+2 d) K+2 319. The relationship known as Charles Law is valid: a) at constant temperature and amount of gas. b) at constant pressure and amount of gas. c) at constant volume and amount of gas. d) at constant temperature and volume. 320. A sample of a gas having a volume of 1 L at 25C and 1 atm pressure is subjected to an increase in pressure and a decrease in temperature. The volume of the gas: a) decreases b) increases c) remains the same d) either increases or decreases, depending on the sizes of the pressure and temperature changes 321. A sample of a gas having a volume of 1 L at 25C and 1 atm pressure is subjected to an increase in pressure and an increase in temperature. The volume of the gas: a) decreases b) increases c) remains the same d) either increases or decreases, depending on the sizes of the pressure and temperature changes 322. Consider the following statements concerning ideal gases: I. Boyle's Law establishes the inverse proportionality between volume and pressure of a fixed amount of ideal gas at fixed temperature. II. Charles' Law establishes the direct proportionality between temperature and pressure of a fixed amount of ideal gas at fixed volume. III. Dalton's Law establishes the additivity of partial pressures of a mixture of ideal gases. IV. Avogadro's hypothesis establishes the direct proportionality between volume and moles of ideal gas present, holding pressure and temperature fixed. a) all are true except I b) all are true except II c) all are true except III d) all are true statements 323. A sample of a gas having a volume of 1 L at 25C and 1 atm pressure is subjected to a decrease in volume and an increase in temperature. The pressure of the gas: a) remains the same b) decreases c) increases d) either increases or decreases, depending on the sizes of the pressure and temperature changes 324. Which gas has the highest density if all are in the same state? a) N2 b) O2 c) Ar d) He e) all have the same density 325. Which of the following gases is not in the top three most abundant substances by mass in dry air? d) N2 a) Ar b) He c) O2

326. Consider the following statements concerning ideal gases: I. Charles' Law establishes that if you double the Celsius temperature of a gas you double its volume, assuming amount of gas and pressure are fixed. II. Boyle's Law establishes that if you compress a gas to half its volume, you double its pressure, assuming amount of gas and temperature are fixed. III. Dalton's Law was used in the calculations of the moles of oxygen in the collection flask in lab. IV. Avogadro's hypothesis predicts that in standard state a one gram sample of helium and a one gram sample of nitrogen gas will occupy the same volume. a) I and III are true, the others false b) II and IV are true, the others false c) only II is true d) II and III are true, the others false e) all are true statements 327. A fixed quantity of a gas is subjected to a decrease in pressure and a increase in temperature. The volume of the gas: a) remains the same b) decreases c) increases d) either increases or decreases, depending on the sizes of the pressure and temperature changes 328. Which gas has the highest mass density, given all are in the same state? b) O2 c) CO2 d) air e) all have the same density a) N2 329. The number of regions of high electron density on the central atom in O3, according to VSEPR theory is: a) two b) three c) four d) five 330. The electronic geometry of SF4 is: a) tetrahedral b) see-saw 331. The molecular geometry of SbCl5 is: a) square planar b) tetrahedral

c) octahedral

d) trigonal bipyramidal

c) trigonal bipyramidal

d) octahedral

332. The number of unshared regions of high electron density on the central atom in the H2O molecule is: a) zero b) one c) two d) three e) four 333. Consider the following statements below concerning a given sample of ideal gas at STP: I. The average speed of the molecules is directly proportional to the square root of the temperature of the sample and independent of their mass. II. Molecules are in constant chaotic motion moving in straight lines between collisions. III. The physical dimensions of the molecules occupy a very small fraction of the total system volume. IV. All molecules are traveling at the same speed. a) all are true b) only I and III are true c) only II and III are true d) only I, II, and III are true e) none are true 334. Which of the following gases will have the fastest effusion rate? b) CO2 c) N2 d) O2 e) Ar a) CH4 335. In the separation of gaseous helium from hydrogen (H2) by an effusion process, the hydrogen will effuse from the container at about ______ the rate of helium effusion. a) same rate b) twice c) half d) 7/10ths e) 1.4 times

336. Identify the INCORRECT statement concerning the kinetic theory of gases: a) Gases consist of particles in continuous random straight-line motion with fixed velocities. b) Collisions between gas molecules and the walls are elastic. c) Between collisions molecules exert no attractive or repulsive forces on one another. d) Gases consist of particles which are very far apart compared to their own sizes. e) The pressure exerted by the gas is due to molecules striking the container walls. 337. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) The average kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional to the temperature of the sample. b) The average kinetic energy of molecules of different gases are equal at a given temperature. c) The average speed of gas molecules is directly proportional to the square root of the temperature. d) The average speed of molecules of different gases are equal at a given temperature. 338. At STP which of the following gases would have the lowest average molecular speed? a) NH3 b) CO2 c) Ar d) H2 339. The intermolecular forces that are most significant in accounting for the high boiling point of liquid water relative to other substances of similar molecular weight are the: a) ion-ion attractions b) London dispersion forces c) hydrogen bonding forces d) dipole-dipole attractions 340. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the surrounding pressure, the liquid boils. b) The boiling point is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the surrounding pressure. c) The normal boiling point is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals 1 atm. d) The vapor pressure of a liquid increases as the temperature of the liquid increases. e) Easily vaporized liquids are called volatile liquids, having low vapor pressures. 341. Identify the INCORRECT statement below concerning a given sample of pure argon gas at STP: a) Molecules are in constant chaotic motion moving in straight lines between collisions. b) The physical dimensions of the molecules occupy a very small fraction of the total system volume available. c) All molecules are traveling at the same speed. d) The average kinetic energy of the molecules is directly proportional to the temperature of the sample and independent of their mass. 342. In the separation of gaseous argon from neon by an effusion process, the neon will effuse from the container at about _____ times the rate of argon effusion. a) 1 b) 2 c) 0.5 d) 0.7 e) 1.4 343. Which of the following gases will have the slowest effusion rate? a) CH4 b) CO2 c) N2 d) O2 e) Ar 344. The interaction responsible for the cohesive intermolecular forces of liquid nitrogen is: a) hydrogen bonding b) the London dispersion force c) dipole-dipole interaction d) covalent bonding

345. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) The vapor pressure of liquid water at 100C is 760 Torr (1 atm). b) The normal boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid equals 1 atm. c) The boiling point of a liquid increases as the surrounding pressure decreases. d) Vapor pressure of a liquid increases as the temperature increases. e) A liquid boils when its vapor pressure equals the surrounding pressure. 346. The smallest repeat unit of a crystalline solid is called: a) a point group b) a lattice point c) a unit cell d) a crystalline element 347. The type of solid which is characterized as positive ions embedded in a sea of delocalized electrons is called: a) a metallic solid b) a ionic solid c) a molecular solid d) a covalent (network) solid 348. Diamond (pure carbon) would be classified as which type of solid: a) a metallic solid b) a ionic solid c) a molecular solid solid

d) a covalent (network)

349. Which of the following is NOT true? a) Temperature is an example of an intensive property. b) The mass percentage of calcium in calcium phosphate is an extensive property. c) Separations of a solid from a liquid by filtration is an example of a physical process. d) Density is an intensive property. 350. Which of the following is NOT paired with the proper classification? a) iron/element b) chromium (III) oxide/compound c) pizza/heterogeneous mixture d) a solution of aqueous sulfuric acid/heterogeneous mixture 351. The atomic mass unit (amu) is defined as: a) the mass of a proton. b) 1/16 the mass of the most common atom of oxygen. c) the atomic weight expressed in grams. d) the mass of the most common atom of hydrogen. e) 1/12 the mass of the most common atom of carbon. 352. Which response contains all of the following that are oxidation-reduction reactions and no others? I. PCl3 + 3H2O 3 HCl(aq) + H3PO3(aq) II. Fe2O3(s) + 3 CO(g) 2 Fe(s) + 3CO2(g) III. CaCO3(s) + 2 HClO3 Ca(ClO3)2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O a) I b) II c) III d) II and III e) I and II 353. Which one of the following salts is INSOLUBLE in water? a) MgSO4 b) KNO3 c) AgCl 354. Which one of the following compounds is NOT a salt? a) LiI b) Al(ClO4)3 c) HI d) Fe(ClO3)3 355. Which one of the following is a WEAK acid? a) HClO4 b) HCl c) HBr d) HI e) HCN

d) FeCl3 e) NH4Br

e) NaBr

356. Will a precipitate form when aqueous solutions of CaCl2 and K2CO3 are mixed? If a precipitate does form, identify the precipitate and give the NET ionic equation for the reaction. a) KCl precipitates. K+(aq) + Cl(aq) KCl(s) b) CaC2 precipitates. Ca2+(aq) + 2 CO32(aq) CaC2(s) + 3 O2(g) c) CaCO3 precipitates. Ca2+(aq) + CO32(aq) CaCO3(s) d) CaCO3 precipitates. Ca2+(aq) + K2CO3(aq) CaCO3(s) + 2 K+(aq) e) No precipitate forms. 357. Which one of the following represents the NET ionic equation for the reaction of nitric acid with aluminum hydroxide? a) 3 H+(aq) + Al(OH)3(s) Al3+(aq) + 3 H2O(l) b) 3 HNO3(aq) + Al(OH)3(s) 2 Al(NO3)3(aq) + 3 H2O(l) c) 2 H+(aq) + Al(OH)2(s) Al2+(aq) + 2 H2O(l) d) H+(aq) + OH(aq) H2O(l) e) 3 NO3(aq) + Al3+(aq) Al(NO3)3(aq) 358. Which of the following properties of a sample are INCORRECTLY matched? a) volume = extensive property b) density = extensive property c) temperature = intensive property d) chemical reactivity = intensive property e) mass = extensive property 359. "There is no observable change in the total mass during a chemical reaction or a physical change." This is a statement of: a) The Law of Definite Proportions b) The Law of Chemical Reactivity c) The Law of Conservation of Matter d) The Law of Conservation of Mass and Energy 360. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) Equal masses of different elements contain equal numbers of atoms. b) Avogadro's number is the number of atoms in exactly 12 grams of Carbon- 12. c) The electron and the proton have charges equal in magnitude and opposite in sign. d) The atomic number is the number of protons in the nucleus. e) The number above the element symbol on the periodic chart is the atomic number. 361. Which compound below is a molecular compound (or molecular substance)? a) NH3 b) CaCl2 c) KBr d) AgNO3 362. Dalton's Atomic Theory consisted of all of the following ideas EXCEPT: a) a given element consists of different kinds of atoms. b) elements are composed of indivisible particles called atoms. c) atoms of different elements have different properties. d) atoms combine in fixed, whole-number ratios. e) in chemical reactions, atoms are not destroyed or created. 363. What is the name for the family (or group) which includes F, Cl, Br, I, and At? a) The non-metals b) the halogens c) the alkalis d) the alkaline earths e) the rare earths 364. Which of the following would NOT be classified as a strong electrolyte? b) Na2SO4 c) CH3COOH d) HNO3 e) HBr a) NH4Cl

365. In which of the following lists are NOT ALL of the elements listed in the same family (or group)? a) He, Ar, Kr b) Ni, Pd, Pt c) Na, K, Rb d) B, C, N e) O, S, Po 366. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a strong electrolyte? a) Strong electrolytes are always molecular compounds. b) Solutions of strong electrolytes conduct an electrical current. c) Strong electrolytes dissociate (or ionize) completely in aqueous solution. d) A strong electrolyte may be a strong acid, a strong, soluble base, or a soluble salt. 367. Which statement is FALSE? a) A compound is a substance that can be decomposed by chemical means into simpler substances. b) All samples of a particular pure substance have the same composition and properties. c) An example of a homogeneous mixture is one prepared by mixing two liquids, ethyl alcohol (grain alcohol) and water. d) An example of a heterogeneous mixture is one prepared by dissolving the solid, sodium chloride (table salt), in the liquid, water. e) Different mixtures of the same two substances can have different compositions. 368. Which of the following are heterogeneous mixtures? I. sugar II. sugar dissolved in water III. an aqueous suspension of magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia) IV. samples of nitrogen and oxygen in the same container V. samples of argon and iron in the same container a) III only b) I, II, and IV c) III and V d) III and IV

e) II, IV, and V

369. All atoms of the same element have the same number of __________ . a) neutrons b) protons c) protons and neutrons d) electrons and neutrons e) protons, neutrons, and electrons 370. How many elements are contained in period 4? a) 3 b) 8 c) 10 d) 18

e) 32

371. Which statement is FALSE? a) The charge on a proton is positive, the charge on a neutron is negative. b) Molecules are the smallest unit of a compound. c) The nucleus of an atom is very small and massive. d) Electrons are smaller particles than protons. e) Compounds consist of more than one type of element. 372. What is the correct classification for SCN-? a) polyatomic molecule b) monatomic cation d) polyatomic anion e) monatomic anion

c) polyatomic cation

373. Which of the following elements would NOT contain an electron having the quantum numbers? n = 4, l = 2, ml = 0, s = +1/2 a) Sn b) Ag c) Ba d) Ni e) Rn 374. An atom has a mass number of 131 and its nucleus contains 78 neutrons. The element is: a) platinum b) iodine c) gallium d) gold e) palladium

375. What is the outer shell (valence) configuration of the atoms of Group VIA? a) ns2np6 b) ns2np4 c) ns2np6nd6 d) ns2np3 e) ns2np2 376. The number of completely filled orbitals in a ground state selenium (Se) atom is: a) 16 b) 17 c) 10 d) 15 e) 9 377. The quantum number "l" best describes the: a) spin of the electron b) principal energy level d) orientation of the orbital e) the energy of the electron

c) shape of the orbital

378. Which of the following electron configurations is INCORRECT? a) Ca, 1s22s22p63s23p64s2 b) Br, 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p5 d) Cr, 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s 1 e)Na, 1s22s22p63s1

c) O, 1s22s22p4

379. Which of the following elements has 3 unpaired electrons in its ground state atom? a) B b) As c) Y d) S e) Ni 380. How many electrons in one atom can have the quantum number n=3? a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 14 e) 18 381. Which of the following elements has the most negative electron affinity? (that is, that the greatest "desire" to gain an electron) a) Ca b) N c) Cl d) S 382. Which of these elements has the greatest electronegativity? a) S b) Cl c) Se d) Br e) Na 383. Which of the following atoms has the smallest first ionization energy? a) Mg b) Li c) Na d) Be 384. Which of the following DECREASES steadily across the row from Na to Cl? a) Atomic radius b) Zeff c) the second ionization energy d) electron affinity 385. The molecules O2 and O3 are called _____ of oxygen. a) radicals b) polymorphs c) allotropes d) isotopes 386. Which of the following has the highest second ionization energy? a) Li b) Be c) B d) C 387. Of the following ions, which do you expect to be the largest? b) Ra2+ c) Ac3+ d) Ata) Fr+ 388. Given the elements Si, Ga, and Ge. Which list shows these elements in order of increasing atomic radius (smallest to largest)? a) Si < Ga < Ge b) Si < Ge < Ga c) Ge < Ga < Si d) Ga < Si < Ge 389. Which one of the following molecules contains honds that are the most polar? (Electronegativities: H = 2.1, Be = 1.5, B = 2.0, N = 3.0, F = 4.0, S = 2.5, Br = 2.8, I = 2.5) a) SF6 b) BI3 c) BeBr2 d) NH3 e) NF3 390. Which of the responses lists only the molecules below that have polar covalent bonds? HI, I2, S8, KCI a) HI and KCl b) I2 c) S8 d) I2 and KCl e) HI

391. Which response includes all of the species listed below that have the electron configuration 2s22p6 in their highest occupied energy level? Ca2+, Na+, Ne, Ar, Cl, O2 2+ a) Ca , Ne, and Cl b) Na+, Ar, and Cl c) Na+, Ne, and O2 e) Na+ and Cl d) Ca2+, Ar, and O2 392. Which of the following structures is the correct Lewis formula for carbon diselenide?

393. Which of the following Lewis electron dot structures is INCORRECT?

394. Which one of the following compounds involves both ionic and covalent bonding? a) Cl2 b) Na2SO4 c) KCl d) HF e) HCN 395. The number of unshared pairs of electrons in the outer shell of oxygen in Cl2O is ______________ . a) one b) two c) three d) four e) zero 396. Which molecule should have more than one good (equivalent) Lewis structure and therefore should exhibit resonance? a) BeI2 b) O3 c) H2 d) PF3 e) CO2 397. Predict the electronic geometry around the central atom of the molecule, AsF3. a) linear b) trigonal planar c) tetrahedral d) trigonal pyramidal 398. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) H2O and NH3 have essentially the same electronic geometry around the central atom. b) H2O has tetrahedral symmetry in its electronic geometry. c) The molecular geometry of NH3 is trigonal planar. d) H2O has two lone pairs of valence electrons on the oxygen atom. 399. Predict the molecular geometry of the sulfite ion SO32-. a) trigonal pyramidal b) tetrahedral c) trigonal planar d) T-shaped e) T-shaped

400. The mixing of a set of atomic orbitals on an atom to form a new set of atomic orbitals for bonding to other atoms is called: a) resonance b) hybridization c) delocalization d) dissociation

401. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) Molecules and polyatomic ions have definite shapes. b) The properties of molecules are determined to a great extent by their shapes. c) Unshared pairs of electrons on the central atom of molecules are relevant to the properties of molecules. d) Theories of bonding have no relationship to experimental observation of molecular properties. 402. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) The four bonds in the CH4 (methane) molecule are equivalent. b) The four hydrogens in methane occupy corners of a tetrahedron. c) The central atom of methane has four regions of high electron density surrounding it. d) The electronic geometry and the molecular geometry of methane are different. 403. How many regions of high electron density are around the central atom in the SF4 molecule? a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 3 404. Which of these oxides is NOT a factor in the production of the atmospheric pollution known as "acid rain"? a) SO2 b) SO3 c) NO2 d) SiO2 405. Which of the following is the NET IONIC equation for the reaction between AgNO3(aq) and Na3PO4(aq)? a) Ag3+(aq) + PO43-(aq) AgPO4(s) b) Ag+(aq) + NO3-(aq) + Na+(aq) + PO43-(aq) AgPO4(s) + Na+(aq) + NO3-(aq) c) 3Ag+(aq) + 3NO3-(aq) + 3Na+(aq) + PO43-(aq) Ag3PO4(s) + 3Na+(aq) + 3NO3-(aq) d) 3Ag+(aq) + PO43-(aq) Ag3PO4(s) e) There is no reaction between AgNO3(aq) and Na3PO4(aq) 406. Which of the following will NOT, with typical concentrations, produce a precipitate when mixed? a) Na2S + MnCl2 b) BaCl2 + H2SO4 c) Na3PO4+ Ca(NO3)2 d) NaOH + FeCl3 e) all of these will produce a precipitate 407. Which of the following is NOT true? a) The reaction by which H+(aq) reacts with OH(aq) to form H2O is call neutralization. b) NaBr(aq) can be formed by the reaction of NaOH(aq) with HBr(aq). c) Strong acids are acids which have a high concentration in water. d) The net ionic reaction for all strong acids with strong, soluble bases that form soluble salts is H+(aq) + OH(aq) H2O. e) The total formula unit reaction for HCl(aq) with Fe(OH)2 is 2HCl(aq) + Fe(OH)2(s) 2H2O + FeCl2(aq). 408. In which of the following equations is iron being REDUCED? a) 2Fe2O3(s) + 3H2 4Fe(s) +3 H2O b) FeCl3(aq) + 3NaOH(aq) Fe(OH)3 (s)+ 3H2O c) 2Fe(s) + 6HCl(aq) 2FeCl3(aq)+ 3H2(g) d) 4Fe(s) + 3O2 2Fe2O3 e) Iron is not being reduced in any of these. 409. Ba is more active than Fe, and Fe is more active than Pd. Which of the following reactions WILL NOT occur? b) Ba(NO3)2(aq) + Fe(s) Fe(NO3)2(aq) + Ba a) Fe(s) + PdSO4 (aq) FeSO4(aq) + Pd c) Ba(s) + PdCl2(aq) Pd(s) + BaCl2(aq) d) all of these will occur

410. Which one of the following types of radiation has the shortest wavelength, the greatest energy AND the highest frequency? a) ultraviolet radiation b) infrared radiation c) visible red light d) Diffractions e) none because short wavelength is associated with the low energy and low frequency, not high energy and high frequency. 411. In an investigation of the electronic absorption spectrum of a particular element, it is found that a photon having lambda = 500 nm provides just enough energy to promote an electron from the second quantum level to the third. From this information, we can deduce: a) the energy of the n = 2 level. b) the energy of the n = 3 level. c) the sum of the energies of n = 2 and n=3. d) the difference in energies between n=2 and n=3. e) all of the above. 412. Which of the following atoms or ions has 3 UNPAIRED electrons? a) N b) O c) Al d) S2 e) Zn2+ 413. The electron configuration of indium is: a) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d105s25p15d10 c) 1s23s22p63s23p64s2 4p64p105s25d10 5p1 b) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24d104p1 d) 1s22s22p63s23p63d10 4s24p64d105s2 5p1

414. An element E has the electron configuration [Kr]5s2. The formula for the fluoride of E is most likely: a) EF14 b) EF4 c) EF d) EF6 e) EF2 415. All halogens have the following number of valence electrons: a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 7 416. An atom of fluorine contains 9 electrons. How many of these are in s orbitals? a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 417. How many electrons in an atom can have the quantum numbers n = 3, 1 = 2? a) 2 b) 5 c) 10 d) 6 418. Which of the following combinations of quantum numbers (n, l, ml, ms) would not be possible for an electron in an atom? a) (1, 0, 0, 1/2) b) (3, 2, -1, -1/2) c) (4, 4, 1, 1/2) d) (2, 1, 1, -1/2) e) (6,1,1,1/2) 419. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) The outermost (valence) electrons of an atom largely determine its chemical properties. b) The properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic number. c) It always takes more energy to remove the second electron from an atom than it does to remove the first. d) The valence electrons of an atom are those with the lowest n quantum number value. 420. Transition Metal elements are those in which electrons are being added to _________________ in the Aufbau procedure. a) an atomic orbital in the d sublevel b) an atomic orbital in the f sublevel c) an atomic orbital in the p sublevel d) an s atomic orbital

421. Consider the elements F, Na, and Al. Rank these elements in terms of their atomic radii from largest to smallest. a) Na > Al > F b) F > Al > Na c) Na > F > Al d) Al > Na > F e) F > Na > Al 422. Consider the following elements: F, Na, and Al. Rank these elements in ionization energy from largest to smallest. a) Na > Al > F b) F > Al > Na c) Na > F > Al d) Al > Na > F e) F > Na > Al 423. Consider the following elements: F, Na and Al. Rank these elements in electronegativity from largest to smallest. a) Na > Al > F b) F > Al > Na c) Na > F > Al d) Al > Na > F e) F > Na > Al 424. Which species are INCORRECTLY ranked according to their radii? a) Li > Li+ b) Na > Na+ c) F > F d) N3 > O2 e) Cs+ > Na+

425. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) Electronegativity of an element is the measure of the relative tendency of an atom to attract electrons to itself which chemically combined. b) Electronegativity of metals is generally smaller than that for nonmetals. c) The element with the highest electronegativity is fluorine. d) Electron affinity is the energy required to attach an electron to a gaseous neutral atom. e) The electron affinity if fluorine is large and positive. 426. Which of the following is NOT shown in a Lewis electron dot structure? a) valence electrons b) unshared pairs of electrons c) core electrons d) the bonding of the molecule e) The atomic symbols of the elements involved 427. In which of the following electron dot structures is there one (or more) double bond(s)? a) CO2 b) H2O c) SO42 d) BF3 e) N2 428. In which of the following electron dot structures does the central atom have exactly one unshared pair? b) H2O c) SO42 d) BF3 e) NCl3 a) CO2 429. In which of the following electron dot structures are there two or more equivalence resonance structures? a) NCl3 b) SO2 d) BF3 d) PF3 e) SF4 430. Which of the following is an exception to the octet rule, and which exception is it? a) BCl3 is an example of an expanded shell compound (greater than an octet) b) SO42 is an example of an electron deficient compound. c) CO32 is an example of an electron deficient compound. d) PF3 is an example of an expanded shell compound. e) SF4 is an example of an expanded shell compound. 431. Given the electronegativities of the following elements: F = 4.0, O = 3.5, H = 2.1, S = 2.5, and Cl = 3.0. Which of the following bonds has the greatest polarity? a) O-F b) O-H c) S-H d) H-Cl e) S-Cl

432. The Heisenberg Principle states that ____________. a) no two electrons in the same atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers b) two atoms of the same element must have the same number of protons c) it is impossible to determine accurately both the position and momentum of an electron simultaneously d) electrons of atoms in their ground states enter energetically equivalent sets of orbitals singly before they pair up in any orbital of the set e) charged atoms (ions) must generate a magnetic field when they are in motion 433. Of the following, which are isoelectronic with Kr? S2-, Ar, K+, Sr2+, Bra) S2, Ar, and K+ b) Ar and Sr2+ c) K+ and Sr2+ d) Sr2+and Br Br e) S2 and

434. Which one of the following types of radiation has the longest wavelength, the lowest energy AND the lowest frequency? a) ultraviolent radiation b) infrared radiation c) red light d) blue light 435. An element with the electron configuration [Xe]4f 145d76s2 would belong to which class on the periodic table? a) transition elements b) alkaline earth elements c) halogens d) rare earth elements 436. Arrange the following elements in order of increasing electronegativities: At, Bi, Cl, F, I a) At<Bi<Cl<F<I b) F<Cl<Bi<I<At c) Bi<At<I<Cl<F d) F<Cl<I<At<Bi e) At<Bi<I<Cl<F 437. How many electrons in an atom can have the quantum numbers n = 3, l = 3, ml = 1? a) 0 b) 2 c) 3 d) 14 e) 1 438. Which of the following sets of relative orderings of 1st ionization energies is INCORRECT? a) Be>B b) F>O c) O>N d) N>P 439. Arrange the following elements in order of increasing atomic radii: Sr,Rb,Sb,I,In a) Rb<Sr<In<Sb<I b) I<Sb<In<Rb<Sr c) In<Sb<I<Sr<Rb d) Sb<I<In<Sr<Rb e) I<Sb<In<Sr<Rb 440. How many dots (electrons) should be placed around the symbol for phosphorus, P, when writing the Lewis symbol for the atom? a) 3 b) 2 c) 15 d) 5 441. Which response includes all the following statements that are true, and no others? I. When an electron falls to a lower energy level in an atom, it emits electromagnetic radiation. II. The energy of electromagnetic radiation is directly proportional to its frequency. III. The product of wavelength and the speed of light is frequency. IV. Atoms can exist only in certain energy states. a) I b) I and III c) II and III d) II e) I, II, and IV 442. How many valence electrons are there in the carbonate ion, CO32? a) 24 b) 26 c) 22 d) 20 443. How many valid Lewis structures can be drawn for the nitrate ion, NO3? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

444. Which of the following can have resonance structures? a) NO2+ b) SO42 c) BF4 d) SO3 445. Which of the following is a radical? a) NO2 b) ClO c) OF2

d) BrCl

446. Which of the following has an expanded valence shell on the central atom? a) CCl4 b) SO42 c) AlCl4 d) SF4 447. How many lone pairs (unshared pairs) of electrons does the oxygen have in the Lewis structure of H2O? a) 2 b) 1 c) 4 d) 0 448. Which of the following are Lewis bases? 1: CN 2: Al+3 3: Cl a) 1 and 3 b) 1, 3, and 5 c) 3 and 4

4: PCl3 5: BF3 d) 1, 3, and 4

449. What are the oxidizing agent and reducing agent in the following reaction? 8 H+(aq) + 3 C2H5OH(aq) + Cr2O72(aq) 2 Cr3+(aq) + 3 C2H4O(aq) + 7 H2O(l) + a) H is oxidizing agent and C2H5OH is reducing agent b) Cr2O72 is oxidizing agent and C2H5OH is reducing agent c) Cr3+ is oxidizing agent and Cr2O72 is reducing agent d) C2H5OH is oxidizing agent and Cr2O72 is reducing agent e) H2O is oxidizing agent and H+ is reducing agent 450. Which of the following has the HIGHEST frequency? a) radiowaves b) microwaves c) red light d) blue light 451. How many orbitals are there in the shell with n=3? a) 25 b) 16 c) 9 d) 4 452. How many electrons can be held in the n=4 level? a) 32 b) 16 c) 8 d) 50 e) x-rays

e) 1

e) 25

453. An electron has the quantum numbers n=4, l=1, ml=0. In what type of orbital is the electron located? a) 4d b) 4p c) 4s d) 3d e) 3p 454. What is the electron configuration of a chromium atom? a) [Ar]3d44s1 b) [Ar]3d54s1 c) [Ar]3d44s2 d) [Ar]3d6 d) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1

455. What is the electronic configuration of the chloride ion? b) 1s22s22p63s23p4 c) 1s22s22p63s23p6 a) 1s22s22p63s23p5 456. Which of the following is isoelectronic with Ca+2? a) S2 b) K+ c) Cl d) Sc3+ 457. This shape represents which type of orbital? a) s b) p c) d d) f e) g

e) they all are

458. Which element has the LARGEST atomic radius? a) Al b) Si c) P d) S

e) Cl

459. The first ionization energy of sulfur is less than that of phosphorus. A reasonable explanation for this fact involves: a) the stability of the half-filled subshell in atomic sulfur. b) pairing of two electrons in one 3p orbital in sulfur atoms. c) the smaller size of sulfur atoms relative to phosphorus atoms. d) the ease with which phosphorus attains a noble gas electronic configuration. e) the higher electronegativity of sulfur relative to phosphorus. 460. Which element has the LOWEST first ionization energy? a) Be b) B c) C d) N e) O 461. Which ion has the SMALLEST radius? b) Se2 c) Br d) Rb+ a) As3 e) Sr2+

462. Which element below has the HIGHEST electronegativity? a) N b) Si c) As d) P e) C 463. Which of the following statements concerning VSEPR is NOT true? a) If there are no lone pairs on the central atom, the electronic and molecular geometries are the same. b) "See-saw" is a molecular geometry, but not an electronic geometry. c) "Tetrahedral" is both a molecular and an electronic geometry. d) The electronic geometry with six "Regions of High Electron Density" is octahedral. e) A double bond counts as two regions of high electron density. 464. Which of the following is the molecular geometry of AsF3? a) trigonal bipyramidal b) trigonal planar c) trigonal pyramidal d) tetrahedral e) T-shaped 465. A molecule is trigonal planar and has only single bonds to the central atom. What can be said about the central atom? a) it obeys the octet rule b) it has fewer than 8 electrons c) it has more than 8 electrons d) none of these are definitely true 466. Which of the following molecules is polar, i.e. possesses a dipole moment? b) PF3 c) PF5 d) N2 e) CF4 a) CO2 467. Which of the following does NOT have a linear molecular geometry? a) CO2 b) CS2 c) H2O d) N2 e) HCl 468. What is the molecular geometry of BrF5? a) trigonal bipyramidal b) square planar c) square pyramidal d) see-saw e) trigonal pyramidal 469. A compound has the electron dot structure:

What is the molecular geometry? a) T-shaped b) trigonal bipyramidal

c) trigonal planar

d) tetrahedral e) see-saw

470. Which of the following has a tetrahedral molecular geometry? a) CF4 b) SF4 c) XeF4 d) CO2 e) PF5 471. At the same temperature, which of the following species would have the highest average molecular speed? a) O2 b) NO2 c) N2 d) HCI e) all would be the same 472. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) The average speed of molecules of different gases depend on their molecular weight (molar mass). b) The average kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional to the temperature of the sample. c) The average kinetic energies of molecules of different gaseous species are equal at a given temperature. d) All the molecules of a gaseous sample at a fixed temperature are travelling at the same speed at any given instance. 473. According to Avagadro's hypothesis, which gas has the largest number of molecules per liter, given that all are in the same state? a) N2 b) O2 c) Ar d) He e) all would be the same 474. A sample of gas having a volume of 1.0 L at 25C and 1.0 atm pressure is subjected to an increase in volume and a decrease in temperature. The pressure of the gas: a) decreases b) increases c) remains the same d) either increases or decreases, depending on the size of the pressure and temperature changes. 475. On the following typical phase diagram, which statement is INCORRECT?

a) Point A corresponds to sublimation/deposition. b) Point B corresponds to the critical point, where all three phases coexist. c) Point C corresponds to the liquid phase of the substance. d) At a higher temperature and pressure than point D, the substance exists as a supercritical fluid. e) Raising the pressure from point E to point C causes the substance to condense.

476. Which of the following is NOT a molecular solid? a) solid CO2 b) solid water c) white phosphorus (solid P4)

d) S8

e) diamond

477. Which is the weakest intermolecular force among a group of molecules of comparable molecular weight (molar mass)? a) dipole-dipole b) London c) ionic bonding d) hydrogen bonding 478. Which of the following best describes the properties of a metallic solid? a) soft, very low melting point, poor electrical conductor b) an amorphous solid with no unit cell, conducts electricity, doesn't conduct heat well c) very hard, very high melting point, poor electrical conductor d) variable hardness, variable melting point, excellent thermal conductor 479. Which of the following pure substances exhibits hydrogen bonding? b) H2S c) HCl d) CH4 e) all of these do a) NH3 480. Which of the following would NOT be classified as a strong electrolyte? a) K2SO4 b) H2SO4 c) NaBr d) NH4NO3 e) CH3OH 481. Identify the INCORRECT statement below: a) All atoms of a given element have the same mass. b) Avogadro's number is the number of atoms in exactly 12 grams of Carbon- 12. c) The electron and the proton have charges equal in magnitude and opposite in sign. d) The mass number is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus. 482. The valence electrons of an atom, "E", are ns2np1. What is the most likely formula for the chloride of this compound? a) ECl2 b) ECl3 c) ECl4 d) ECl6 e) ECl8 483. Rank the elements Al, P, and Ga in order of LARGEST first ionization energy to SMALLEST first ionization energy. a) Al > Ga > P b) Ga > Al > P c) Ga > P > Al d) P > Al > Ga e) P > Ga > Al 484. Which of the following is the NET IONIC equation for the reaction between AgNO3(aq) and Na3PO4(aq)? a) Ag3+(aq) + PO43(aq) AgPO4(s) b) Ag+(aq) + NO3(aq) + Na+(aq) + PO43(aq) AgPO4(s) + Na+(aq) + NO3(aq) c) 3 Ag+(aq) + 3 NO3(aq) + 3 Na+(aq) + PO43(aq) Ag3PO4(s) + 3 Na+(aq) + 3 NO3(aq) d) 3 Ag+(aq) + PO43(aq) Ag3PO4(s) e) There is no reaction between AgNO3(aq) and Na3PO4(aq) 485. Given that the following reactions occur: CuSO4(aq) + Cd(s) Cu(s) + CdSO4(aq) CuSO4(aq) + V(s) Cu(s) + VSO4(aq) CdSO4(aq) + V(s) Cd(s) + VSO4(aq) Which of the following lists Cu, V, and Cd from MOST active to LEAST active? a) V, Cd, Cu b) V, Cu, Cd c) Cu, Cd, V d) Cu, V, Cd 486. Which of the following atoms or ions has 2 UNPAIRED electrons? b) C c) F d) Cu e) Mn a) O2

e) Cd, V, Cu

487. In which of the following electron dot structures are there two or more equivalent resonance structures? a) PCl3 b) SO2 c) SO42 d) H2O e) O2 488. In which of the following are there NO lone pairs on the central atom? a) SO2 b) PCl3 c) ICl3 d) SO42 e) H2O 489. Which of the following combinations of quantum numbers (n, l, ml, ms) would not be possible for an electron in an atom? a) (2, 0, 0, -1/2) b) (3, 1,-1, 1/2) c) (4, 2, -2, -1/2) d) (3, 2, -3, 1/2) e) (6, 1, 0, 1/2) 490. Which of the following electron dot structures has ONLY single bonds and lone pairs? a) CO2 b) O2 c) SO42 d) SO2 e) NO3 491. The peak of the mountain Mauna Kea on Hawaii is 4205 m above sea level. 491.1. What is a reasonable value for the atmospheric pressure on the peak of Mauna Kea? a) 0.23 Pa b) 12.6 MPa c) 1.27 bar d) 101325 Pa e) 63 kPa 491.2. What is a reasonable value for the boiling point of water on the peak of Mauna Kea? a) 4365 K b) 100 C c) 87 C d) 84 C e) 132 K 491.3 How does the concentration of oxygen in air on the peak of Mauna Kea compare to the concentration of oxygen at sea level? a) about 37 % smaller b) exactly the same c) about 20% higher d) At least three times higher e) more than seven times lower 492. The peak of the mountain Chimborazo in Ecuador is 6267 m above sea level. 492.1. What is a reasonable value for the atmospheric pressure on the peak of Chimborazo? a) 1300 bar b) 0.13 MPa c) 50300 Pa d) 101.325 kPa e) 4.2 107 bar 492.2. What is a reasonable value for the boiling point of water on the peak of Chimborazo? a) 354 K b) 100 C c) 2 K d) 3400 C e) 373 K 492.3 How does the concentration of oxygen in air on the peak of Chimborazo compare to the concentration of oxygen at sea level? a) less than 0.1 % of the sea level value b) close to one half of the sea level value c) about 15% higher d) exactly the same e) about 7 times higher 493. The peak of the mountain K2 in India is 8611 m above sea level. 493.1. What is a reasonable value for the atmospheric pressure on the peak of K2? a) 0.39 bar b) 101.325 MPa c) 0.101325 MPa d) 0.0054 kPa e) 4.2 107 Pa 493.2. What is a reasonable value for the boiling point of water on the peak of K2? a) 800 K b) 74 C c) 115 C d) 22 C e) 373 K 493.3 How does the concentration of oxygen in air on the peak of K2 compare to the concentration of oxygen at sea level? a) more than 15 times lower b) exactly the same c) about 5% higher d) about 90% higher e) about 61% smaller 494. Select the wrong answer. A reducing agent... a) causes reduction b) gains hydrogen ions c) loses one or more electrons d) undergoes oxidation e) oxidation number of atom increases

495. What is the law of definite proportions? a) Elements can combine in different ways to form different substances, whose mass ratios are small whole-number multiples of each other. b) Different samples of a pure chemical substance always contain the same proportion of elements by mass. c) Gases at constant temperature and pressure react or are produced in a chemical reaction in volume ratios of the small whole numbers. d) Identical volumes of different gases contain the same number of molecules at the same temperature and pressure. e) Elements can combine to form compounds in any ratio depending on the reaction conditions. 496. What is the law of multiple proportions? a) Elements can combine in different ways to form different substances, whose mass ratios are small whole-number multiples of each other. b) Different samples of a pure chemical substance always contain the same proportion of elements by mass. c) Gases at constant temperature and pressure react or are produced in a chemical reaction in volume ratios of the small whole numbers. d) Identical volumes of different gases contain the same number of molecules at the same temperature and pressure. e) Elements can combine to form compounds in any ratio depending on the reaction conditions. 497. What is the law of combining gas volumes? a) Elements can combine in different ways to form different substances, whose mass ratios are small whole-number multiples of each other. b) Different samples of a pure chemical substance always contain the same proportion of elements by mass. c) Gases at constant temperature and pressure react or are produced in a chemical reaction in volume ratios of the small whole numbers. d) Identical volumes of different gases contain the same number of molecules at the same temperature and pressure. e) Elements can combine to form compounds in any ratio depending on the reaction conditions. 498. What is Avogadros law? a) Elements can combine in different ways to form different substances, whose mass ratios are small whole-number multiples of each other. b) Different samples of a pure chemical substance always contain the same proportion of elements by mass. c) Gases at constant temperature and pressure react or are produced in a chemical reaction in volume ratios of the small whole numbers. d) Identical volumes of different gases contain the same number of molecules at the same temperature and pressure. e) Elements can combine to form compounds in any ratio depending on the reaction conditions. 499. A balanced chemical equation necessarily shows.... (3 correct answers) a) time needed for completion b) the energy change of the reaction c) the direction of spontaneous reaction d) the phase of reactants and products e) the stoichiometry f) identity of reactants and products

500. A balanced chemical equation used in thermochemistry usually does not show.... (1 correct answers) a) time needed for completion b) the energy change of the reaction c) the direction of spontaneous reaction d) the phase of reactants and products e) the stoichiometry f) identity of reactants and products 501. Select the wrong answer. A oxidizing agent... a) causes oxidation b) gains one or more electrons c) undergoes reduction d) oxidation number of atom decreases e) absorbs energy 502. Select the closest definition of combustion. a) Burning of fuel by oxidation with oxygen in air. b) Redox reactions to decolorize or lighten colored materials. c) The science of extracting and purifying metals from their ores. d) Deterioration of a metal by oxidation, rusting, usually oxygen from air and moisture is needed. e) The process of breathing and using oxygen for the many biological redox reactions that provide the energy needed by living organisms. 503. Select the closest definition of bleaching. a) Redox reactions to decolorize or lighten colored materials. b) The science of extracting and purifying metals from their ores. c) Deterioration of a metal by oxidation, rusting, usually oxygen from air and moisture is needed. d) Burning of fuel by oxidation with oxygen in air. e) The process of breathing and using oxygen for the many biological redox reactions that provide the energy needed by living organisms. 504. Select the closest definition of metallurgy. a) Deterioration of a metal by oxidation, rusting, usually oxygen from air and moisture is needed. b) Redox reactions to decolorize or lighten colored materials. c) The science of extracting and purifying metals from their ores. d) The process of breathing and using oxygen for the many biological redox reactions that provide the energy needed by living organisms. e) Burning of fuel by oxidation with oxygen in air. 505. Select the closest definition of corrosion. a) The science of extracting and purifying metals from their ores. b) Burning of fuel by oxidation with oxygen in air. c) Deterioration of a metal by oxidation, rusting, usually oxygen from air and moisture is needed. d) The process of breathing and using oxygen for the many biological redox reactions that provide the energy needed by living organisms. e) Redox reactions to decolorize or lighten colored materials.

506. Select the closest definition of respiration. a) The science of extracting and purifying metals from their ores. b) Burning of fuel by oxidation with oxygen in air. c) Redox reactions to decolorize or lighten colored materials. d) The process of breathing and using oxygen for the many biological redox reactions that provide the energy needed by living organisms. e) Deterioration of a metal by oxidation, rusting, usually oxygen from air and moisture is needed. 507. Which of the following statements is NOT a postulate in Daltons atomic theory? a) Elements are made of tiny particles called atoms. b) Elements cannot be decomposed to simple substances. c) Each element is characterized by the mass of its atoms. Atoms of the same element have the same mass, but atoms of different elements have different masses. d) Chemical combination of elements to make different substances occurs when atoms join together in small whole-number ratios. e) Chemical reactions only rearrange the way that atoms are combined; the atoms themselves are unchanged. 508. Select Daltons law. a) The volume of a fixed amount of ideal gas varies inversely with pressure at constant temperature. b) The volume of a fixed amount of ideal gas varies directly with absolute temperature at constant pressure. c) The total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of individual partial pressures. d) The rate of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar weight f) The volume, pressure, and temperature of an ideal gas can be changed independently. 509. Select Boyles law. a) The total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of individual partial pressures. b) The volume of a fixed amount of ideal gas varies inversely with pressure at constant temperature. c) The volume, pressure, and temperature of an ideal gas can be changed independently. d) The volume of a fixed amount of ideal gas varies directly with absolute temperature at constant pressure. e) The rate of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar weight. 510. Select Charles law. a) The volume, pressure, and temperature of an ideal gas can be changed independently. b) The total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of individual partial pressures. c) The volume of a fixed amount of ideal gas varies directly with absolute temperature at constant pressure. d) The rate of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar weight e) The volume of a fixed amount of ideal gas varies inversely with pressure at constant temperature. 511. Select Grahams law. a) The volume of a fixed amount of ideal gas varies directly with absolute temperature at constant pressure. b) The volume of a fixed amount of ideal gas varies inversely with pressure at constant temperature. c) The total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of individual partial pressures. d) The volume, pressure, and temperature of an ideal gas can be changed independently. e) The rate of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar weight

512. What is characteristic of covalent network solids? a) constituent particles are ions b) constituent particles are molecules c) constituent particles are atoms connected through covalent bonds d) constituent particles are metal atoms connected through a large number of shared electrons e) they do not have a fixed volume 513. What is characteristic of ionic solids? b) constituent particles are molecules e) they do not have a fixed shape c) constituent particles are atoms connected through covalent bonds d) constituent particles are metal atoms connected through a large number of shared electrons a) constituent particles are ions 514. What is characteristic of molecular solids? a) constituent particles are atoms connected through covalent bonds b) constituent particles are ions c) constituent particles are metal atoms connected through a large number of shared electrons d) they do not have a fixed volume e) constituent particles are molecules 515. What is characteristic of metallic solids? a) constituent particles are ions b) constituent particles are molecules c) they do not have a fixed shape d) constituent particles are atoms connected through covalent bonds e) constituent particles are metal atoms connected through a large number of shared electrons 516. Which of the following equations represents a reaction that provides the heat of formation of sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl)? a) Na2O(s) + Cl2(g) NaOCl(s) + NaCl(s) b) Na(s) + O(g) + Cl(g) NaOCl(s) c) Na(s) + O2(g) + 1/2 Cl2(g) NaOCl(s) d) NaCl(s) + O2(g) NaOCl(s) e) NaClO3(s) NaOCl(s) + O2(g) 517. Which of the following equations represents a reaction that provides the heat of formation of NaClO3? a) NaClO2(s) + O(g) NaClO3(s) b) NaClO2(s) + O2(g) NaClO3(s) c) Na(s) + Cl2(g) + 3/2O2(g) NaClO3(s) d) NaClO(s) + O2(g) NaClO3(s) e) Na(s) + Cl(g) + 1.5O2(g) NaClO3(s) 518. Which of the following equations represents a reaction that provides the heat of formation of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)? b) 2H(g) + O2(g) H2O2(l) a) 2H2O(l) H2O2(l) + H2(g) c) H2(g) + O2(g) H2O2(l) d) 2H(g) + 2O(g) H2O2(l) e) H2O(l) + O2(g) H2O2(l)

519. Lactic acid (C3H6O3) is produced in muscles under anaerobic conditions. What is the conjugate base? a) C3H6O3+ b) C3H7O3 c) C3H5O3+ d) C3H7O3+ e) C3H5O3 520. What is the conjugate base of H2PO4? a) H2PO4+ b) H3PO4 c) HPO4 d) H2PO4 521. What is the conjugate acid of H2SO4? a) HSO4+ b) H3SO4+ c) SO42 d) HSO4 e) HPO42 e) H2SO42

522. Consider the reactions given below. In which cases will the reaction proceed more to the right by decreasing the pressure? 2) 2HCl(g) + O2(g) = Cl2(g) + H2O(g) 1) 4HCl(g) + O2(g) = 2Cl2(g) + 2H2O(g) 3) Cl2(g) + H2O(g) = 2HCl(g) + O2(g) 4) CO2(g) + 4H2(g) = CH4(g) + 2H2O(g) 5) N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g) a) 3 and 4 b) 3 c) 4 and 5 d) 4 and 5 e) 1, 2 and 4 523. Consider the following reactions. In which cases is the product formation favored by decreased pressure? 1) CO2(g) + C(s) = 2CO(g) H = + 172.5 kJ/mol 2) N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) H = 91.8 kJ/mol 3) CO(g) + 2H2(g) = CH3OH(g) H = 21.7 kJ/mol 4) N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g) H = +181 kJ/mol 5) 2H2O(g) = 2H2(g) + O2(g) H = +484.6 kJ/mol a) 2, 3 b) 3 c) 3, 4 d) 1, 5 e) 2, 4 524. Consider the reactions given below. In which cases will the reaction proceed more to the right by increasing the pressure? 1) 4HCl(g) + O2(g) = 2Cl2(g) + 2H2O(g) 2) 2HCl(g) + O2(g) = Cl2(g) + H2O(g) 3) Cl2(g) + H2O(g) = 2HCl(g) + O2(g) 4) CO2(g) + 4H2(g) = CH4(g) + 2H2O(g) 5) N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g) a) 3 and 4 b) 3 and 5 c) 4 and 5 d) 4 and 5 e) 1, 2 and 4 525. Consider the reactions below. In which cases is product formation favored by decreased temperature? 1) CO(g) + 3H2(g) = CH4(g) + H2O(g) H = 206.2 kJ/mol 2) CO2(g) + C(s) = 2CO(g) H = 172.5 kJ/mol 3) H2(g) + I2(g) = 2HI(g) H = 9.4 kJ/mol 4) 3O2(g) = 2O3(g) H = 285 kJ/mol 5) 2H2O(g) = 2H2(g) + O2(g) H = 484.6 kJ/mol a) 1, 4 b) 1, 3 c) 2, 4, 5 d) 3, 5 e) 1, 2 and 5 526. Consider the following reactions. In which cases is the product formation favored by increased temperature? 1) CO(g) + 3H2(g) = CH4(g) + H2O(g) H = 206.2 kJ 2) CO2(g) + C(s) = 2CO(g) H = 172.5 kJ 3) H2(g) + I2(g) = 2HI(g) H = 9.4 kJ 4) H2(g) + F2(g) = 2HF(g) H = 541 kJ 5) N2(g) + 2O2(g) = 2NO2(g) H = 66.4 kJ a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3, 4 c) 2, 5 d) 3, 4 e) 1, 5

527. Consider the following reactions. In which cases is the product formation favored by decreased temperature? 1) CO2(g) + C(s) = 2CO(g) H = 172.5 kJ/mol 2) N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) H = 91.8 kJ/mol 3) CO(g) + 2H2(g) = CH3OH(g) H = 21.7 kJ/mol 4) N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g) H = 181 kJ/mol 5) 2H2O(g) = 2H2(g) + O2(g) H = 484.6 kJ/mol a) 2, 4 b) 3, 4 c) 3 d) 1, 4, 5 e) 2, 3 528. For which of the following reactions is product formation favored by low pressure and high temperature? 1) H2(g) + I2(g) = 2HI(g) H = 9.4 kJ/mol 2) CO2(g) + C(s) = 2CO(g) H = 172.5 kJ/mol 3) CO(g) + 2H2(g) = CH3OH(g) H = 21.7 kJ/mol 4) 3O2(g) = 2O3(g) H = 285 kJ/mol 5) H2(g) + F2(g) = 2HF(g) H = 541 kJ/mol a) 1 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2 e) 5 529. For which of the following reactions is product formation favored by low pressure and high temperature? 1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) H = 91.8 kJ/mol 2) 2CO2(g) = 2CO(g) + O2(g) H = 566 kJ/mol 3) H2(g) + I2(g) = 2HI(g) H = 9.4 kJ/mol 4) 3O2(g) = 2O3(g) H = 285 kJ/mol 5) N2(g) + 2O2(g) = 2NO2(g) H = 66.4 kJ/mol a) 1 b) 4 c) 5 d) 3 e) 2 530. For which of the following reactions is product formation favored by high pressure and high temperature? 1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) H = 91.8 kJ/mol 2) CO(g) + 2H2(g) = CH3OH(g) H = 21.7 kJ/mol 3) 2H2O(g) = 2H2(g) + O2(g) H = 484.6 kJ/mol 4) 3O2(g) = 2O3(g) H = 285 kJ/mol 5) H2(g) + F2(g) = 2HF(g) H = 541 kJ/mol a) 1 b) 5 c) 4 d) 2 e) 3 531. Consider the following reactions at equilibrium and determine which of the indicated changes will cause the reaction to proceed to the right. 1) CO(g) + 3H2(g) = CH4(g) + H2O(g) (remove H2O) 2) N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2 NH3(g) (add NH3) 3) H2(g) + F2(g) = 2 HF(g) (add HF) 4) N2(g) + 2O2(g) = 2NO2(g) (remove NO2) 5) BaO(s) + SO3(g) = BaSO4(s) (add BaO) a) 1, 4, 5 b) 3, 5 c) 1, 4 d) 2, 3, 5 e) 2, 3

532. Consider the following reactions at equilibrium and determine which of the indicated changes will cause the reaction to proceed to the right. 1) CO(g) + 3H2(g) = CH4(g) + H2O(g) (remove CO) 2) CO2(g) + C(s) = 2CO(g) (add CO2) 3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) (add nitrogen) 4) 2CO2(g) = 2CO(g) + O2(g) (add CO) 5) CO(g) + 2H2(g) = CH3OH(g) (remove CH3OH) a) 1, 4 b) 2, 3 c) 3, 4 d) 2, 4 e) 2, 3, 5 533. Consider the following reactions at equilibrium and determine which of the indicated changes will cause the reaction to proceed to the right. 1) 2H2O(g) = 2H2(g) + O2(g) (remove water) 2) H2(g) + I2(g) = 2HI(g) (add iodine) 3) CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g) (add CaCO3) 4) N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g) (remove oxygen) 5) BaO(s) + SO3(g) = BaSO4(s) (add SO3) a) 3, 4 b) 2, 3, 5 c) 1, 4 d) 2, 5 e) 1, 3 534. For the following reaction, which condition will shift the equilibrium to the right? 4HCl(g) + O2(g) = 2H2O(g) + 2Cl2(g) + heat a) adding a catalyst b) adding more water c) increasing the temperature d) increasing the pressure e) more than one of the above is correct 535. For the following reaction, which condition will shift the equilibrium to the right? 4 HCl(g) + O2(g) = 2H2O(g) + 2Cl2(g) + heat a) adding more water b) decreasing the temperature c) more than one of the above is correct d) decreasing the pressure e) adding a catalyst 536. Using molar concentrations, what are the units of Kc? 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) = 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) b) none c) M1 d) M a) M2

e) M2

537. Using molar concentrations, what are the units of Kc? N2O4(g) = 2NO2(g) a) M2 b) M c) M2 d) M1 e) none 538. Using molar concentrations, what are the units of Kc? CO(g) + H2O(g) = CO2(g) + H2(g) a) M1 b) none c) M d) M2 e) M2 539. Based on the cell notation for a spontaneous reaction, at the cathode: Zn(s) Zn2+(aq) Fe3+(aq) Fe2+ (C) 2+ a) Zn becomes reduced b) Fe3+ becomes reduced c) Fe2+ becomes oxidized d) Zn becomes oxidized 540. Based on the cell notation for a spontaneous reaction, at the anode: Mg(s) Mg2+(aq) H+(aq) H2 (g) (Pt) a) H2 becomes oxidized b) Mg becomes oxidized + c) H becomes reduced d) Mg2+ becomes reduced

541. Based on the cell notation for a spontaneous reaction, at the cathode: (Pt) H2(g) H+(aq) Cl(aq) AgCl (s) Ag (s) a) H+ becomes reduced b) Ag becomes oxidized c) H2 becomes oxidized d) AgCl becomes reduced 542. From the listed standard electrode potentials, what is E for the cell: In(s) In(OH)3(s) SbO2 (aq) Sb (s) In(OH)3(s) + 3e In (s) + 3 OH(aq) E = 1.00 V SbO2(aq) + 2H2O(l) + 3e Sb(s) + 4OH(aq) E = 0.66 V a) +0.98 b) +2.34 c) +0.34 d) +1.68 e) +1.02 543. From the listed standard electrode potentials, what is E for the cell: (C) S2O32(aq): SO32(aq) O2(g) OH(aq) (C) 2SO32(aq) + 3H2O(l) + 4e S2O32 + 6OH E = 0.580 V O2(g) + 2H2O(l) + 4e 4OH (aq) E = +0.401 V a) +0.179 b) +0.490 c) +0.981 d) 0.981 e) 0.179 544. From the listed standard electrode potentials, what is E for the cell: (C) Ce3+(aq) Ce4+(aq) MnO4(aq) Mn2+(aq) (C) MnO4(aq) + 8H+(aq) + 5e Mn2+(aq) + 4H2O (l) E = +1.51 V Ce4+(aq) + e Ce3+(aq) E = +1.61 V a) +1.21 b) +3.12 c) 0.10 d) +2.16 e) +0.50 545. Consider the following half-cell reactions and associated standard half-cell potentials and determine which species is the best oxidizing agent. S2O62 (aq) + 4H+(aq) + 2e 2H2SO3(aq) E = +0.60 V Fe3+ (aq) + e Fe2+(aq) E = +0.771 V VO2+ (aq) + 2H+(aq) + e VO2+ (aq) + H2O(l) E = +1.00 V N2O (aq) + 2H+(aq) + 2 e N2 (g) + H2O (l) E = +1.77 V a) VO2+ b) S2O62 c) N2 d) N2O e) Fe3+ 546. Consider the following half-cell reactions and associated standard half-cell potentials and determine which species is the best reducing agent. S2O62 (aq) + 4H+(aq) + 2e 2H2SO3(aq) E = +0.60 V Fe3+ (aq) + e Fe2+(aq) E = +0.771 V VO2+ (aq) + 2H+(aq) + e VO2+ (aq) + H2O(l) E = +1.00 V N2O (aq) + 2H+(aq) + 2 e N2 (g) + H2O (l) E = +1.77 V b) H2SO3 c) N2 d) VO2+ e) Fe2+ a) VO2+ 547. Consider the following half-cell reactions and associated standard half-cell potentials and determine which species is the best reducing agent. PO43(aq) + 2H2O(l) + 2e HPO32 + 3 OH (aq) E = 1.05 V PbO2(s) + H2O(l) + 2e PbO(s) + 2 OH (aq) E = +0.28 V IO3(aq) + 2H2O(l) + 4e IO(aq) + 4 OH(aq) E = +0.56 V a) PbO b) PO43 c) IO d) HPO32 e) IO3

548. Based on the following information arrange four metals, A, B, C, and D in order of increasing ability to act as reducing agents. I. Only C react with 1 M HCl to give H2(g). II. When A is added to solutions of the other metal ions, metallic D is formed but not B or C. a) A < D < C < B b) A < D < B < C c) D < A < C < B d) D < A < B < C e) B < D < A < C 549. Based on the following information arrange four metals, A, B, C, and D in order of increasing ability to act as reducing agents. I. Only A and C react with 1.0 M HCl to give H2(g). II. When C is added to solutions of the other metal ions, metallic A, B, and D are formed. III. Metal D reduces Bn+ to give metallic B and Dn+. a) A < B < C < D b) D < B < A < C c) B < D < A < C d) B < D < C < A e) A < B < D < C 550. Based on the following information arrange four metals, A, B, C, and D in order of decreasing ability to act as reducing agents. I. Only C and D react with 1 M HCl to give H2(g). II. Metal B does not react with An+. III. Metal D does not react with Cn+. a) D > C > B > A b) C > D > A > B c) D > C > A > B d) C > D > B > A e) D > A > B > C 551. Which of the following statements is true for galvanic cells? I. The potential of a cell is dependent on temperature. II. Increasing the amount of a solid changes the observed potential of the cell. III. Changing the concentration of dissolved substances does not change the observed potential of the cell. a) III b) I & II c) II d) I e) II & III 552. Based on the cell notation for a spontaneous reaction, at the anode: Zn(s) Zn2+(aq) Fe3+(aq) Fe2+(aq) (C) 2+ b) Zn becomes oxidized a) Fe becomes oxidized 3+ c) Fe becomes reduced d) Zn2+ becomes reduced 553. Based on the cell notation for a spontaneous reaction, at the cathode: Mg(s) Mg2+(aq) H+(aq) H2(g) (Pt) a) Mg2+ becomes reduced b) Mg becomes oxidized c) H2 becomes oxidized d) H+ becomes reduced 554. Based on the cell notation for a spontaneous reaction: Mg(s) Mg2+ (aq) H+(aq) H2(g) (Pt) b) electrons flow in the external circuit toward the Pt electrode a) Mg2+ becomes reduced c) none of the above are correct d) Mg is the anode e) H2 becomes oxidized 555. How many electrons are transferred in the following reaction? MnO4 + 3Fe(OH)2 + 2H2O 3Fe(OH)3 + MnO2 + OH a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 6 e) 4 556. How many electrons are transferred in the following reaction? 2H2O(l) + 2Na(s) 2Na+(aq) + 2OH(aq) + H2(g) a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 2 e) 1

557. How many electrons are transferred in the following reaction? 3Si(s) + 4In(OH)3(s) + 6OH(aq) 3SiO32(aq) + 4In(s) + 9H2O(l) a) 10 b) 12 c) 14 d) 16 e) 11 558. Which of the following statements is false about a catalyst? a) a catalyst does not change the equilibrium constant for a reaction b) a catalyst in living systems are called enzymes c) a catalyst does not undergo any net chemical change d) a catalyst lowers the activation energy of a reaction e) a catalyst increases the kinetic energy of the reactants 559. When sulfur dioxide and oxygen react, the following product mixture is found. Which diagram represents the original reactant mixture? Reaction: 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)

560. What is the maximum number of moles of sulfur trioxide that can be produced by the reaction of 0.90 moles of sulfur dioxide with 0.60 moles of oxygen? a) 0.60 mol b) 0.90 mol c) 1.2 mol d) 1.8 mol 561. Which one of the following compounds is a strong electrolyte? a) NH3 b) HClO4 c) CH3COOH d) SO2 562. The precipitate that forms when solutions of calcium nitrate and potassium phosphate are combined is a) KNO3 b) K(NO3)2 c) Ca2PO4 d) Ca3(PO4)2 563. Which of the following is insoluble in water? b) Pb(NO3)2 c) MgCO3 d) AgCH3COO a) Na3PO4

564. Which one of the following diagrams best represents a solution of magnesium hydroxide in water? (Water molecules have been omitted for clarity.)

565. Which of the following is both a diprotic acid and a strong acid? a) CH3COOH b) H3PO4 c) H2CO3 d) H2SO4 566. When steam trapped by a piston (Figure 1) is condensed to liquid water (Figure 2) and work is done on the system, which one of the following is true? (q: heat, w: work)

a) q < 0; w > 0

b) q > 0; w < 0

c) q > 0; w > 0

d) q < 0; w < 0

567. Calculate the change in the internal energy of the system for a process in which the system absorbs 120 kJ of heat from the surroundings and does 80 kJ of work on the surroundings. a) 200 kJ b) 40 kJ c) 40 kJ d) 200 kJ 568. Which of the following processes is/are exothermic? i. ice cream melting ii. a puddle evaporating iii. a process where q > 0 iv. gasoline burning a) i, ii, iii and iv b) i, ii, and iii c) ii and iv d) iv only 569. Which value is reasonable for the half-life of the 238U isotope? a) 4.5 109 years b) 1.9 1019 years c) 5730 years d) 12.3 years 570. Which value is reasonable for the half-life of the 209Bi isotope? b) 1.9 1019 years c) 5730 years d) 12.3 years a) 4.5 109 years 571. Which value is reasonable for the half-life of the 14C isotope? a) 4.5 109 years b) 1.9 1019 years c) 5730 years d) 12.3 years

e) 3 s

e) 3 s

e) 3 s

572. Which value is reasonable for the half-life of the 3H isotope? a) 4.5 109 years b) 1.9 1019 years c) 5730 years d) 12.3 years 573. Which value is reasonable for the half-life of the 266Ds isotope? a) 4.5 109 years b) 1.9 1019 years c) 5730 years d) 12.3 years 574. Which value is reasonable for the half-life of the 40K isotope? c) the isotope is stable a) 2.45 105 years b) 1.3 109 years d) 1.6 103 years e) 14.3 days 575. Which value is reasonable for the half-life of the 234U isotope? c) the isotope is stable a) 2.45 105 years b) 1.3 109 years 3 d) 1.6 10 years e) 14.3 days 576. Which value is reasonable for the half-life of the 12C isotope? c) the isotope is stable a) 2.45 105 years b) 1.3 109 years 3 d) 1.6 10 years e) 14.3 days 577. Which general nuclear reaction represents a radioactive decay? a) A E
Z A4 E' Z2

e) 3 s

e) 3 s

+ 4 He
2

b) A E
Z

Z+1 Z

E' + e

c) A E
Z

Z 1

E' + e +

d) A E + e
Z

Z 1

E'

e)

Am E Z

AE

578. Which general nuclear reaction represents a radioactive decay? a) A E

Z Z A4 E' Z2

+ 4 He
2 A

b) A E
Z

Z+1 Z

E' + e

c) A E
Z

Z 1

E' + e +

d) A E + e

Z 1

E'

e)

Am E Z

AE

579. Which general nuclear reaction represents a radioactive + decay? a) A E

Z Z A4 E' Z2

+ 4 He
2 A

b) A E
Z

Z+1 Z

E' + e

c) A E
Z

Z 1

E' + e +

d) A E + e

Z 1

E'

e)

Am E Z

AE

580. Which general nuclear reaction represents an electron capture radioactive decay? a) A E
Z Z A4 E' Z2

+ 4 He
2 A

b) A E
Z

Z+1 Z

E' + e

c) A E
Z

Z 1

E' + e +

d) A E + e

Z 1

E'

e)

Am E Z

AE

581. Which general nuclear reaction represents an isomeric radioactive decay? a) A E

Z Z A4 E' Z2

+ 4 He
2 A

b) A E
Z

Z+1 Z

E' + e

c) A E
Z

Z 1

E' + e +

d) A E + e

Z 1

E'

e)

Am E Z

AE
235 U 231Th 92 90

582. What nuclear reaction is exemplified by the process a) decay

+

+ 4 He ?
2

b) decay

c) decay

d) nuclear fission

e) nuclear fusion

583. What nuclear reaction is exemplified by the process a) + decay b) decay c) decay

14 C 6

14 N 7

+ e ?

d) nuclear fission
99m Tc 43

e) nuclear fusion

99 Tc 43

584. What nuclear reaction is exemplified by the process a) isomeric radioactive decay d) nuclear fission b) decay e) nuclear fusion

c) decay

585. What nuclear reaction is exemplified by the process 7 Be + e 7 Li ? a) + decay b) decay

4 3

c) decay

d) nuclear fission
235 U+n 92

e) electron capture

142 Ba 56

586. What nuclear reaction is exemplified by the process a) + decay b) decay c) decay

91 Kr 36

+ 3n ?

d) nuclear fission

e) nuclear fusion

587. What nuclear reaction is exemplified by the process 1H + 2 H 3 He ? a) decay

+

b) decay

c) decay

d) nuclear fission

e) nuclear fusion

588. Which process is not used today for producing electrical energy on a large scale? a) nuclear fission b) burning of coal c) nuclear fusion d) burning of natural gas e) burning of oil 589. Which is a reasonable value for the triple point temperature of water? a) 0.01 C b) 2700 K c) 374 C d) 33 K e) 100 C 590. Which is a reasonable value for the critical temperature of water? a) 0.01 C b) 2700 K c) 374 C d) 33 K e) 100 C 591. Which is a reasonable value for the critical temperature of hydrogen? a) 0.01 C b) 2700 K c) 374 C d) 33 K e) 100 C 592. Which is a reasonable value for the triple point pressure of water? a) 0.10 bar b) 50 kPa c) 0.12 MPa d) 610 Pa e) 21.8 MPa 593. Which is a reasonable value for the vapor pressure of water at 80 C? a) 0.10 bar b) 50 kPa c) 0.12 MPa d) 610 Pa e) 21.8 MPa 594. Which is a reasonable value for the vapor pressure of water at 110 C? a) 0.10 bar b) 50 kPa c) 0.12 MPa d) 610 Pa e) 21.8 MPa 595. Which is a reasonable value for the critical pressure of water? a) 0.10 bar b) 50 kPa c) 0.12 MPa d) 610 Pa e) 21.8 MPa 596. The triple point pressure of water is the same as... a) the boiling point of water. b) the vapor pressure of water at 25 C. c) the critical pressure of water. d) the vapor pressure of water at the triple point temperature. e) the vapor pressure of ice at 125 C.

597. Which is a reasonable value for the surface tension of mercury? a) 101325 Pa b) 8.31441 J/mol/K c) 0.46 J/m2 d) 1.2 103 Ns/m2 e) 3.2 M1s1 598. Which is a reasonable value for the viscosity of glycerol? a) 8.31441 J/mol/K b) 1.5 Ns/m2 c) 523 K 1 1 d) 120 M s e) 82.2 kPa 599. Which crystal system has the unit cell shown in the figure?

a) Triclinic e) Trigonal

b) Monoclinic f) Hexagonal

c) Orthorombic g) Cubic

d) Tetragonal

600. Which crystal system has the unit cell shown in the figure?

a) Triclinic e) Trigonal

b) Monoclinic f) Hexagonal

c) Orthorombic g) Cubic

d) Tetragonal

601. Which crystal system has the unit cell shown in the figure?

a) Triclinic e) Trigonal

b) Monoclinic f) Hexagonal

c) Orthorombic g) Cubic

d) Tetragonal

602. Which crystal system has the unit cell shown in the figure?

a) Triclinic e) Trigonal

b) Monoclinic f) Hexagonal

c) Orthorombic g) Cubic

d) Tetragonal

603. Which crystal system has the unit cell shown in the figure?

a) Triclinic e) Trigonal

b) Monoclinic f) Hexagonal

c) Orthorombic g) Cubic

d) Tetragonal

604. Which crystal system has the unit cell shown in the figure?

a) Triclinic e) Trigonal

b) Monoclinic f) Hexagonal

c) Orthorombic g) Cubic

d) Tetragonal

605. Which crystal system has the unit cell shown in the figure?

a) Triclinic e) Trigonal

b) Monoclinic f) Hexagonal

c) Orthorombic g) Cubic

d) Tetragonal

606. The following five numbers give the lattice energies of LiF, LiCl, LiBr, LiI, and Li2O in kJ/mol units. Which is the lattice energy of LiF? a) 853 b) 2925 c) 807 d) 1036 e) 757 607. The following five numbers give the lattice energies of LiF, LiCl, LiBr, LiI, and Li2O in kJ/mol units. Which is the lattice energy of Li2O? a) 853 b) 2925 c) 807 d) 1036 e) 757 608. The following five numbers give the lattice energies of LiF, LiCl, LiBr, LiI, and Li2O in kJ/mol units. Which is the lattice energy of LiI? a) 853 b) 2925 c) 807 d) 1036 e) 757 609. The following five numbers give the lattice energies of LiF, KF, BeF2, CaF2, and AlF3 in kJ/mol units. Which is the lattice energy of KF? a) 2630 b) 5215 c) 821 d) 1036 e) 3505

610. The following five numbers give the lattice energies of LiF, KF, BeF2, CaF2, and AlF3 in kJ/mol units. Which is the lattice energy of AlF3? a) 2630 b) 5215 c) 821 d) 1036 e) 3505 611. The following five numbers give the lattice energies of LiF, KF, BeF2, CaF2, and AlF3 in kJ/mol units. Which is the lattice energy of BeF2? a) 2630 b) 5215 c) 821 d) 1036 e) 3505

612. Following are a statement containing a number of blanks, and a list of words and phrases. The number of words equals the number of blanks within the statement, and all of the words fit correctly into these blanks. Fill in the blanks of the statement. Pure ...... is a very poor conductor of electricity. Adding common table salt, known chemically as ......., introduces ..... into the water. These small chemical particles carry ...... and as they move through the water they transport an electrical current through it. The anions are ...... charged and the cations are ...... charged. Any substance that carries an electric current when it is dissolved in water, or when is melted, is called an ...... Unlike sodium chloride, common table sugar cannot carry an electric current when it is dissolved in water. Table sugar is thus an example of a ...... Words to be used: 1. electrical charges; 2. electrolyte; 3. ions; 4. negatively; 5. nonelectrolyte; 6. sodium chloride; 7. water; 8. positively 613. Following are a statement containing a number of blanks, and a list of words and phrases. The number of words equals the number of blanks within the statement, and all of the words fit correctly into these blanks. Fill in the blanks of the statement. ...... are the smallest particles of an ...... , a fundamental substance of chemistry and of the world, that can be identified as that element. All atoms consist of two parts: (1) a ...... , which contains positively charged ...... and (except for ...... , an ...... of hydrogen) they also contain electrically neutral ...... ; and (2) ...... which lie surrounding the nucleus. The number of protons in the nucleus defines an atom's ...... and is represented by the symbol ...... The sum of the protons and neutron in the nucleus determines the atom's ...... and is represented by ...... . As the atomic number of the atom increases, the number of electrons in the shells also increases so that the number of electrons always equals the number of protons and the atom remains electrically ...... Words to be used: 1. atomic number; 2. atoms; 3. element; 4. isotope; 5. mass number; 6. neutral; 7. neutrons; 8. nucleus; 9. protons; 10. Z; 11. A; 12. protium; 13. electrons 614. Following are a statement containing a number of blanks, and a list of words and phrases. The number of words equals the number of blanks within the statement, and all of the words fit correctly into these blanks. Fill in the blanks of the statement. In its modern form the ...... is an organization of all known elements, arranged in order of increasing ...... Elements that lie in the same ...... have similar...... , and have the same number of ...... The table shows the element's chemical ...... , atomic number, and ...... , which is the average mass of all the ...... of the element. weighted for the ...... of each. The table is particularly useful for predicting the outcome of chemical reactions between ...... since an atom of any element tends to react so as to convert its electronic structure to that of a nearby ...... . When atoms react by complete ...... of electrons, the products are ...... When they react by ...... pairs of electrons, the results is a...... While ionic compounds exist as crystals made up of extensive ...... of ions, covalent compounds are composed of discrete molecules. If the atoms that form covalent bonds have significantly different ...... , the bond that forms is a ...... Words to be used: 1. abundance; 2. atomic number; 3. atomic mass; 4. column; 5. covalent bond; 6. electronegativities; 7. elements; 8. ions; 9. isotopes; 10. lattices; 11. noble gas; 12. periodic table; 13. polar covalent bond; 14. properties; 15. symbol; 16. transfer; 17. valence electrons; 18. sharing

615. Following are a statement containing a number of blanks, and a list of words and phrases. The number of words equals the number of blanks within the statement, and all of the words fit correctly into these blanks. Fill in the blanks of the statement. The first atomic weapons derived their explosive power from the conversion of ...... into ...... through the process of ...... The first atomic bomb detonated was made of ...... , an artificially produced isotope that does not occur naturally. The bomb dropped on Hiroshima contained ...... , which was separated from its more common isotope, ...... Still another kind of nuclear weapon, which harnesses the power of the sun, relies on ...... for its energy. In one form, ...... and ...... nuclei come together at very high temperatures to produce ...... and release nuclear power. Words to be used: 1. deuterium; 2. helium; 3. nuclear fission; 4. nuclear fusion; 5. plutonium-239; 6. tritium; 7. uranium-235; 8. uranium-238; 9. matter; 10. energy 616. Following are a statement containing a number of blanks, and a list of words and phrases. The number of words equals the number of blanks within the statement, and all of the words fit correctly into these blanks. Fill in the blanks of the statement. Antoine Henry Becquerel discovered the phenomenon of ...... , which occurs when the nucleus of a ...... emits an ...... , a ...... , and/or a ...... Each of these forms of radiation can cause the ionization of matter and so each is an example of ...... . When an atomic nucleus loses either an particle, which is a high-energy ...... , or a particle, which is a high-energy ...... , the nucleus undergoes a change in its atomic number and becomes transformed into a nucleus of a different element If the newly formed isotope is also radioactive, it too emits radiation and is transformed into still another element. Eventually, after a series of these transformations, a nonradioactive ...... is formed and this ...... comes to an end. Words to be used: 1. particle; 2. particle; 3. ray; 4. chain of radioactive decay; 5. electron; 6. ionizing radiation; 7. radioactivity; 8. radioisotope; 9. stable isotope; 10. helium nucleus 617. Following are a statement containing a number of blanks, and a list of words and phrases. The number of words equals the number of blanks within the statement, and all of the words fit correctly into these blanks. Fill in the blanks of the statement. Peaceful uses of nuclear reactions include the generation of ...... , medical ...... , and ...... . Currently the most practical form of nuclear power plant is the ...... , in which heat produced by an ...... creates steam, which turns a turbine attached to an electrical generator. Although most nuclear power plants use a uranium fuel, which is enriched in the more highly fissionable isotope ...... , a ...... converts the more common, but less efficient isotope ...... into fissionable ...... as it simultaneously generates power. Someday electrical power may be produced by an environmentally cleaner ...... , in which small nuclei, such as hydrogen isotopes, combine to form larger nuclei, such as helium atoms. Medically, ...... is valuable in the diagnosis and control of hyperthyroidism; ...... is used widely a source of diagnostic rays. Since the ...... of radioisotopes are well known and are constants, unaffected by physical or chemical conditions, naturally occurring radioisotopes are useful in determining the age of ancient materials. The dating of objects made of wood, paper and linen, for example, is often accomplished by analysis of their ...... content. Words to be used: 1. atomic pile; 2. breeder reactor; 3. carbon-14; 4. diagnosis and therapy; 5. electrical power; 6. fission reactor; 7. fusion reactor; 8. half-lives; 9. iodine-131; 10. plutonium-239, 11. radioisotope dating; 12. uranium-235; 13. uranium-238; 14. techetium-99m

618. Following are a statement containing a number of blanks, and a list of words and phrases. The number of words equals the number of blanks within the statement, and all of the words fit correctly into these blanks. Fill in the blanks of the statement. One ...... of a substance contains about 6.02 1023 chemical particles. This number is also called ...... . Since one mole of any chemical substance contains the same number of ...... as one mole of any other chemical substance, we can calculate the weight of one chemical that will react completely with a given weight of another by using their ...... in out calculations. We can also use ...... of solutions rather than weights in these calculations as long as we know the ...... of the solution, which is a measure of the amount of substance dissolved in a specific volume of the ...... . A solution that contains one mole of solute per ...... of solution fas a concentration of one ...... . Words to be used: 1. atomic or molecular weights; 2. Avogadro's number; 3. concentration; 4. liter; 5. mole; 6. solute; 7. solution; 8. volumes; 9. molar 619. Following are a statement containing a number of blanks, and a list of words and phrases. The number of words equals the number of blanks within the statement, and all of the words fit correctly into these blanks. Fill in the blanks of the statement. All acids have certain properties in common. When dissolved in water they produce a ...... taste, they turn ...... from blue to red, and they react with metals such as iron and ...... to liberate ...... . Aqueous solutions of ...... , on the other hand, taste ...... , turn litmus from ...... to ...... , and produce a ...... sensation when rubbed between the fingers. Another useful acid-bas indicator is ...... , which is ...... in acidic solution and pink in basic solution. At the molecular level, the ...... definition describes an acid as anything that can transfer a ...... to a base. Even though pure water is perfectly neutral, its covalent molecules ionize in an ...... reaction to form protons and ...... anions. The protons form bonds to other water molecules, converting them to ...... ions. A common measure of acidity, ...... is the negative of the logarithm of the hydronium ion concentration. Words to be used: 1. bases; 2. bitter; 3. blue; 4. Bronsted-Lowry; 5. colorless; 6. equilibrium; 7. hydrogen; 8. hydronium; 9. hydroxide; 10. litmus; 11. pH; 12. phenolphthalein; 13. proton; 14. red; 15. slippery; 16. sour; 17. zinc 620. Following are a statement containing a number of blanks, and a list of words and phrases. The number of words equals the number of blanks within the statement, and all of the words fit correctly into these blanks. Fill in the blanks of the statement. A ...... reaction is one involving two ...... reactions, one of them oxidation, the other reduction. When a substance is oxidized it ...... ; when a substance is reduced it ...... . The energy of the gain or loss of electrons is described in terms of an electrical unit, the volt, and is shown in a table of experimentally measured ...... . If the sum of the potential of the oxidation half-cell and the reduction half-cell is ...... , the redox reaction they form will occur spontaneously, with the release of energy. If the sum of voltage is ......, the redox reaction will not occur spontaneously and so energy must be added to the mixture (or the substance) if a reaction is to occur. An early version of an ...... was the ...... , which used the oxidation of metallic ...... and the reduction of ...... ions to generate an electrical voltage. A more modern version is the ...... , which uses a redox reaction consisting of the oxidation of ...... and the reduction of ...... to generate the electrical power needed to start an automobile engine. Electrical energy is returned to the battery as an electrical current produced by the car's generator or alternator converts ...... , the product of the energy-liberating redox reaction, back into lead and lead dioxide.

Words to be used: 1. Daniell cell; 2. electrochemical cell; 3. gains electrons; 4. half-cell; 5. lead; 6. lead-acid storage battery; 7. lead dioxide; 8. loses electrons; 9. negative; 10. positive; 11. redox; 12. standard reduction potentials; 13. zinc; 14. copper; 15. lead(II) sulfate 621. Following are a statement containing a number of blanks, and a list of words and phrases. The number of words equals the number of blanks within the statement, and all of the words fit correctly into these blanks. Fill in the blanks of the statement. Three regions of the earth make up the physical environment in which we live: the ...... , which includes all gases we breathe; the ...... , which includes all the water of the earth's surface; and the crust, which is the hard, uppermost layer of the ...... . Chemically, ...... is the dominant element of the gases surrounding the earth's surface; ...... is the major element of the water of our environment, and ...... are the dominant compounds of the solid earth we live on. Among the major pollutants of our atmosphere are the ...... that are components of volcanic gases and that are formed through oxidation of the ...... present in fossil fuels, and the ...... formed by the combustion of nitrogen and oxygen molecules at the high temperatures generated in combustion chambers and by lightning. Words to be used: 1. atmosphere; 2. hydrosphere; 3. lithosphere; 4. nitrogen; 5. nitrogen oxides; 6. oxygen; 7. sulfur; 8. sulfur oxides; 9. oxides 622. Following are a statement containing a number of blanks, and a list of words and phrases. The number of words equals the number of blanks within the statement, and all of the words fit correctly into these blanks. Fill in the blanks of the statement. A ...... is a substance that holds its shape and volume, regardless of the shape and volume of its container; a ...... has its own volume, but takes the shape of its container; a ...... takes both the volume and shape of its container. A solid melts when the ...... of its chemical particles increases beyond the cohesive forces that hold them firmly next to one another, in a specific shape. The temperature at which a solid becomes a liquid is known as the ...... . As the temperature of the liquid continues to increase and its particles acquire even more energy, they are able to break away entirely from each other and enter the gas phase. The temperature at which this conversion from liquid to gas occurs throughout the entire liquid is known as the liquid's ...... . Even below this temperature, a certain fraction of the chemicals have large enough energy to escape from the liquid to the gas phase, at the liquid's surface, producing ...... . Words to be used: 1. boiling point; 2. gas; 3. liquid; 4. melting point; 5. solid; 6. energy; 7. vapors 623. Following are a statement containing a number of blanks, and a list of words and phrases. The number of words equals the number of blanks within the statement, and all of the words fit correctly into these blanks. Fill in the blanks of the statement. According to the ...... , an ...... consists of point-sized particles, with no ...... whatsoever, that bounce off each other in perfectly ...... collisions, without losing any ...... in the process. The ...... of a gas enclosed in a container results from the collisions of the particles with the walls of the container. If we increase the temperature of an ideal gas held in a container of constant volume, the pressure ...... and always remains directly proportional to the ...... . If we increase the pressure on a gas held at ...... , the volume of the gas ...... proportionately. Words to be used: 1. absolute temperature; 2. constant temperature; 3. energy; 4. ideal gas; 5. increases; 6. kinetic-molecular theory of gases; 7. pressure; 8. volume; 9. elastic; 10. decreases

624. Match each item in Group A with one in group B. Group A a) chloride anion b) compound c) electrolyte d) ion e) ionic bond f) molecule g) sodium cation h) sulfur Group B 1. assembly of atoms 2. chemical particle that carries either a positive or negative electrical charge 3. conducts electricity when it is dissolved in water or when it is molten 4. element 5. negatively charged ion 6. positively charged ion 7. pure substance formed by combination of two or more elements in a specific ratio 8. results from the attraction of oppositely charged ions