PGI MCQ Questions June 12 2002 Recollected Medical questions from MD/MS entrance exams.

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(pgi - pgimer)Post Graduate Institute, Chandigarh June 12 2002 Recollected Questions

2. 1. ALL is predisposed to by a. a. Blooms syndrome b. b. Fanconis syndrome c. c. Ataxic telengectasia d. d. Turners syndrome e. e. Diamond blackfan syndrome 2. 2. Klinefelters syndrome is associated with a. a. XXY b. b. Male phenotype c. c. Infertility d. d. Azoospermia e. e. Bar body absent 3. 3. True about testicular feminization is/are a. a. Testes present b. b. Female phenotype c. c. XY d. d. Secondary amennorhea e. e. Uterus present 4. 4. The activity of the following enzymes is decreased in starvation a. a. Acy carnitine tranferase b. b. Lipoprotien lipase c. c. Citrate cleavage enzyme d. d. Fatty acid synthase e. e. Phosphoglucomutase 5. 5. Regarding laryngomalacia true is/are a. a. Most common cause of stridor in newborn b. b. Sigma shaped epiglottis c. c. Inspiratory stridor d. d. Most require surgery e. e. Stridor worsens on lying in prone position 6. 6. When acute appendicitis is suspected it can be confirmed by a. a. Clinical examination b. b. Ultrasound c. c. CT scan d. d. TLC and DLC e. e. Upper GI endoscopy 7. 7. A female presenting with history of rash and polyarthritis. It is associated with

a. Antinuclear antibody b. RA factor is positive c. Bad obstetric history d. Increased PTT e. HLA B 27 8. 8. All of the following are blood buffers except a. a. Phosphates b. b. Plasma proteins c. c. Bicarbonates d. d. Oxygen e. e. Heamoglobin 9. 9. Supine hypotension is seen in a. a. Obesity b. b. Ascites c. c. Abdominal tumors d. d. Pregnancy e. e. Bradycardia 10. 10. Lipid lowering drugs act on a. a. HMG coA synthetase b. b. HMG coA reductase c. c. Mevalonate kinase d. d. Lipase e. e. Acyl coA transferase 11. 11. Sterilizing agents include a. a. Cyclohexidene b. b. Ethelyne oxide c. c. Diethyl ether d. d. Gallamine 12. 12. A patient presenting with a fasting blood sugar of 180 and post prandial sugar of 260. The management in his case include a. a. Glibenclamide b. b. Diet therapy + exercise c. c. Diet therapy + exercise + metphormin d. d. Insulin e. e. Chlorpropamide 13. 13. IgE is secreted by a. a. Mast cells b. b. Eosinophils c. c. Plasma cells d. d. Basophils e. e. Neutrophils 14. 14. Classical complement pathway is activated by a. a. IgG b. b. IgA c. c. IgM d. d. IgE
a. b. c. d. e.

e. e. IgD 15. 15. 3rd nerve palsy is caused by a. a. Posterior communicating artery aneurysm b. b. Mid brain infarct c. c. Lateral medullary lesions d. d. Pons infarct e. e. Cerebellar tumors 16. 16. Bilateral enlarged kidneys are seen in a. a. Chronic glomerulonephritis b. b. Pyelonephritis c. c. Benign nephrosclerosis d. d. Polycystic kidneys e. e. Amylodosis 17. 17. Trophic ulcers are caused by a. a. Leprosy b. b. Deep vien thrombosis c. c. Burgers disease d. d. Secondary syphilis 18. 18. Burgers disease is associated with a. a. Smoking b. b. Poor nutrition c. c. Alcoholic d. d. Prolonged standing e. e. Superficial thrombophlebitis 19. 19. Hormones secreted by adrenal medulla are a. a. Glucagon b. b. Epinephrine c. c. Cortisol d. d. Insulin e. e. Thyroxine 20. 20. Hemithorax opacity with contralateral shift of mediastinum is a. a. Massive pleural effusion b. b. Consolidation c. c. Collapse of lung d. d. Large mass e. e. Pneumothorax 21. 21. Substrate level phosphorylation is seen in association with a. a. Succinate dehydrgenase b. b. Alpha ketogluterate dehydrogenase c. c. Succinate thiokinase d. d. Malanate dehydrogenase e. e. Cis-aconitase 22. 22. Alkylating agents include a. a. Doxorubicin b. b. Chlorambucil c. c. Vincristine

d. d. Nitrogen mustard e. e. Busulphan 23. 23. Submucous glands are present in a. a. Oesophagus b. b. Doudenum c. c. Stomach d. d. Ascending colon e. e. Ileum 24. 24. True regarding Pendreds syndrome is a. a. Consistently associated with deafness b. b. Hypothyroidism c. c. Mutation in the connexion coding region d. d. Mutation in chromosome 21 causing reecptor defect 25. 25. True about carotid body tumor is a. a. Non chromaffin paraganglioma b. b. Good prognosis c. c. Rarely metastasize d. d. Is similar to mixed parotid tumor 26. 26. Burkits lymphoma is associated with a. a. B cell lymphoma 6.14 6-14 translocation b. b. Can present with abdominal mass c. c. Raditherapy is used in treatment 27. 27. Hepatic infarcts are seen in a. a. Preeclampsia b. b. Chronic venous congestion c. c. Budd chiarri syndrome d. d. Sepsis e. e. Extrahepatic biliary atresia 28. 28. Anti psychotics used in treatment of shizophrenia are a. a. Halopredol b. b. Chlorpromozine c. c. Immipramine d. d. Olanzapine e. e. Resperidone 29. 29. Interventricular septum is developed from a. a. Conus septum b. b. Endocardial cushion defect c. c. Left horn of sinus venosus d. d. Ostium septum e. e. Truncus septum 30. 30. Physiological changes in pregnancy are a. a. Insulin level is increased b. b. There is increased BMR c. c. Hypothyroidism d. d. Growth hormone levels are decreased

31. 31. High hepatic extraction ration is seen a. a. Propranolol b. b. Lidocaine c. c. Diazepam d. d. Phenytoin e. e. Theophylline 32. 32. The amino acid which is associated with atherosclerosis a. a. Arginine b. b. Homocysteine c. c. Cysteine d. d. Tryptophan e. e. Alanine 33. 33. Varicose viens are seen in a. a. Deep vein thrombosis b. b. Superficial venous thrombosis c. c. AV fistula d. d. Prolonged standing e. e. Hypertension 34. 34. Superficial perineal muscles include a. a. Superficial transverse peroneii b. b. Bulbospongiosis c. c. Ischiocavernosis d. d. Iliococcygeous e. e. Pubococcygeous 35. 35. The visual pathway consists of all of the following except a. a. Optic tract b. b. Geniculocalcerine fissure c. c. Lateral geniculate body d. d. Inferior colliculous e. e. Pretectal region 36. 36. Plantar flexion is brought about by which of the following muscles a. a. Plantaris b. b. Flexor hallucis longus c. c. Tibialis anterior d. d. Peroneus brevis e. e. Soleus 37. 37. Adductors of the vocal cords include a. a. Posterior cricoaretenoids b. b. Cricothyroid c. c. Anterior cricoaretenoids d. d. Aretenoepiglottis e. e. Transverse cricoaretenoids 38. 38. Branches of anterior internal iliac arteries include a. a. Posterior gluteal b. b. Uterine c. c. Obturator

d. d. Pudendal e. e. Iliolumbar 39. 39. In a CT scan cut section at the level of the celiac trunk, which of the following

structures can be identified a. a. Pancreas b. b. Gall bladder c. c. Inferior vena cava d. d. Duodenum e. e. Portal vien 40. 40. In oculomotor nerve palsy, which of the following causes can be implicated a. a. Posterior communicating artery aneurysm b. b. Tolosa Hunt syndrome c. c. Midbrain infarct d. d. Pons Infarct e. e. Lateral medullary lesions 41. 41. Branches of the basilar artery include a. a. Posterior inferior cerebral artery b. b. Posterior cerebral artery c. c. Middle cerebral artery d. d. Posterior communicating artery e. e. Anterior cerebral artery 42. 42. Regarding acid secretion in the stomach a. a. Increased gastrin secretion increases secretion b. b. Secretin decreases secretion c. c. Fractional test meal is the best screening index d. d. H2 receptor blockers block acid secretion e. e. Total acid secretion reflects on the functional parietal cell mass 43. 43. In a patient with transplanted heart which of the following are reasons for increased cardiac output in him during exercise a. a. Reinnevation of the heart by the vagus b. b. Intrinsic mechanisms c. c. Increased epinephrine released from medulla d. d. Bainbridge reflex e. e. Due to Starlings effect 44. 44. Regarding the renal excretion a. a. Sodium reabsorption occurs in the DCT b. b. Pottassium is both excreted and reabsorbed in the tubules c. c. Heamoglobin is not excerted in the glomerulus as it is a large molecule d. d. Glucose is reabsorbed in the DCT e. e. Amino acids are reabsorbed in the collecting ducts 45. 45. The histopathological features of Shock include a. a. Acute tubular necrosis b. b. Lung infarcts c. c. Depletion of lipids in adrenal medulla d. d. Periportal hepatic necrosis e. e. Depletion of lymphocytes

46. 46. In a patient which of the following would cause rhabdomyolisis and myoglobulinuria a. a. Hyperpyrexia b. b. Viper snake venom c. c. Multiple hornet stings d. d. Prolonged coma e. e. Anemia 47. 47. In the body bilirubin is obtained from a. a. Heamoglobin b. b. Myoglobin c. c. Muscle d. d. Cholestrol e. e. Amino acids 48. 48. All of the following are required for fat digestion except a. a. Bile pigment b. b. Gastric lipase c. c. Colipase d. d. Bile salts e. e. Pancreatic lipase 49. 49. Causes of sterile pyuria without urinary tract infection include a. a. Cortical tubercular abcess b. b. Pyelonephritis c. c. Fungal infection d. d. Gonococcal infection e. e. Urolithiasis 50. 50. Criteria for diagnosis of multiple myeloma include a. a. Plasma cells in bone marrow greater then 30% b. b. Bence jones proteins c. c. Lytic bone lesions d. d. Decreased beta 2 microglobulins e. e. Rouleux formation in the blood 51. 51. In a patient with acute arsenic poisoning which of the following strictures would show

accumulation of arsenic a. a. Liver b. b. Bone marrow c. c. Skin d. d. Kidney e. e. Brain 52. 52. Both hepatic and renal failures can be caused by which of the following a. a. Paracetamol toxicity b. b. Carbon tetrachloride c. c. Arsenic d. d. Copper sulphate e. e. Silver nitrate 53. 53. Chronic arsenic poisoning causes a. a. Pure sensory neuropathy b. b. Pure Motor neuropathy

c. c. Mixed motor and sensory neuropathy d. d. Painful neuropathy e. e. Hyperkeratosis 54. 54. Widmarks formula is used for estimation of a. a. Cocaine b. b. Arsenic c. c. Alcohol d. d. Carbon monoxide e. e. Lead 55. 55. McNaughtens rule is applicable in a. a. Calculating length of fetus b. b. In estimating stature c. c. In insanity d. d. In dactylography e. e. To detect metals 56. 56. Not seen in Wrights stain is a. a. Reticulocytes b. b. Basophilic stippling c. c. Heinz bodies d. d. Howell jolly bodies e. e. Clot rings 57. 57. Motor neuropathy is caused by a. a. Dapsone b. b. Cisplatin c. c. Arsenic d. d. Lead e. e. Hypothyroidism 58. 58. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is caused by a. a. Supracondylar # b. b. Lateral condyle # c. c. Olecranon # d. d. Distal radioulnar dislocation e. e. Medial condylar # 59. 59. Hb A2 is increased in a. a. Alpha thallessemia b. b. Iron deficiency anemia c. c. Beta thallessemia d. d. Sickle cell trait e. e. Megaloblastic anemia 60. 60. Metaphysical lesions seen commonly are a. a. Metaphyseal fractures b. b. Osteomyelitis c. c. Osteosarcoma d. d. Ewings sarcoma e. e. Osteoclastoma 61. 61. True regarding salmonella gastroenteritis include

a. Mainly diagnosed by serology b. Blood and mucous are present in stools c. Caused via animal products d. Symptoms appear between 8 -48 hours e. The features are mainly due to exotoxin released 62. 62. True regarding E-Coli is/are a. a. The LT labile toxin in ETEC acts via cAMP b. b. In those types causing urinary infections the organism attaches by pili antigen c. c. The ST stable toxin of ETEC is responsible for causation of HUS d. d. The EIEC invasiveness is under plasmid control e. e. In EPEC the toxin helps in invasion of the organism 63. 63. The sputum examination under district TB control programme is done when the patient presents with which of the following a. a. Cough for 1-2 weeks b. b. Cough for 3-4 weeks c. c. Heamoptysis d. d. Chest pain e. e. Intermittent fever 64. 64. In cryptoccocal infection the organism can be readily demonstrated by a. a. Alberts stain b. b. India ink stain c. c. Giemsa stain d. d. Grams stain e. e. Zeil Niehlson stain 65. 65. Regarding HSV 2 infection which of the following are correct a. a. Primary infection is usually wide spread b. b. Recurrent attacks occur due to latent infection c. c. Encephalitis is commonly caused by it d. d. Newborn acquires the infection via the birth canal or at the time of labor i. i. Treatment is by acyclovir 66. 66. IgE is secreted by a. a. Mast cells b. b. Eosinophils c. c. Basophils d. d. Plasma cells e. e. Neutrophils 67. 67. The T helper cell subtype attach to which of the following sites a. a. MHC I cells b. b. MHC II cells c. c. Processed peptide d. d. CD8 e. e. Delta region 68. 68. Apart from B cells, T cells there is a distinct third type of lymphocytes. They are a. a. MHC cells b. b. NK cells c. c. Macrophages
a. b. c. d. e.

d. d. Neutrophils e. e. Eosinophils 69. 69. All of the following are antigen presenting cells except a. a. T cells b. b. B cells c. c. Fibroblasts d. d. Dendritic cells e. e. Langerhans cells 70. 70. All of the following are true regarding H pylori except a. a. Gram negative bacilli b. b. Strongly associated with Duodenal ulcer c. c. Associated with lymphoma d. d. C14 urea breath test is used in the diagnosis e. e. It should be eradicated in all cases when ever detected 71. 71. Breast cancer is seen more commonly in women who a. a. Consume non vegetarian food b. b. Have early menopause c. c. Smoke d. d. Have multiple sex partners e. e. Who did not breast feed their babies 72. 72. Predisposing factors in colonic cancer is/are a. a. Animal fat consumption b. b. Familial adenomatous polyposis c. c. Ulcerative colitis d. d. Crohns disease e. e. Tuberculosis 73. 73. Abdominoperineal resection is preferred in colorectal cancer based on which of the

following a. a. Age of patient b. b. Distance from anal verge c. c. Fixity of tumor d. d. Hepatic metastasis e. e. Extent of tumor 74. 74. Predisposing factors for skin cancer are a. a. Lichen planus b. b. Leukoplakia c. c. Bowens disease d. d. Psoriasis e. e. Behcets disease 75. 75. True regarding ankylosing spondylitis is a. a. More common in men b. b. Associated with HLA B 27 c. c. Associated with B8 d. d. Affects only small joints 76. 76. Squamous cell carcinoma in bladder is predisposed to by a. a. Urolithiasis

b. Shistosomiasis c. Persistent urachus d. Polyp e. Smoking 77. 77. Restrictive Fragment Length Polymorphism is used in the diagnosis of a. a. Thallessemia b. b. Sickle cell trait c. c. Gilberts syndrome d. d. Phenylketonuria e. e. Von Gierkes disease 78. 78. True regarding Gilberts syndrome is/are a. a. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia b. b. Increased liver transaminases c. c. Bleeding tendencies d. d. Autoantibodies are present 79. 79. Regarding cholestasis of pregnancy which of the following is/are true a. a. Deep jaundice is present b. b. Pruritus is the 1st symptom c. c. Maximum during the third trimester d. d. Raised liver transaminases 80. 80. Purpuric rashes are seen in a. a. Dengue b. b. Borrelia c. c. Secondary syphilis d. d. Measles e. e. Typhoid 81. 81. The most sensitive structure in a cell for radiotherapy is a. a. Cell membrane b. b. Mitochondria membrane c. c. DNA d. d. Plasma membrane e. e. Cell enzymes 82. 82. In spectroscopy nucleotides absorb at 260 nm wavelength. This absorption is due to a. a. Purines and pyrimidines b. b. Deoxyribose c. c. Ribose d. d. Histones e. e. Phosphates 83. 83. Regarding oncogenesis a. a. Topoisomerase II causes break in both strands b. b. P53 is the most common oncogene mutation causing cancer in humans c. c. At G2-M phase there is loss of inhibitors controlling cell cycle d. d. Decrease in telomerase activity causes antitumor effect 84. 84. The investigation of choice in acute cholecystitis is a. a. Ultrasound b. b. HIDA scan
b. c. d. e.

c. c. CT scan d. d. Oral cholestogram e. e. MRI 85. 85. All can cause hyperglycemia except a. a. Growth hormone b. b. Cortisol c. c. Epinephrine d. d. Glucagon e. e. Insulin 86. 86. Primary hyperparathyroidism is caused by a. a. Parathyroid hyperplasia b. b. Parathyroid adenoma c. c. MEN syndrome d. d. Thyrotoxicosis e. e. Chronic renal failure 87. 87. Hyperphosphatemia with hypocalcemia is seen in a. a. CRF b. b. Pseudohypoparathyroidsim c. c. Tumor lysis syndrome d. d. Vitamin D intoxication e. e. Sarcoidosis 88. 88. Raised calcium and phosphate is seen in a. a. Chronic renal failure b. b. Vitamin D intoxication c. c. Hyperparathyroidism d. d. Pseudohypoparathyroidism e. e. Sarcoidosis 89. 89. Hypokalemia is associated with a. a. Furesemide b. b. Cortisol c. c. Metabolic acidosis d. d. Amiloride e. e. Addisons disease 90. 90. VIPOMA is associated with a. a. Watery diarrhea b. b. Hypochlorhydria c. c. Hyperchlorhydria d. d. Hyperkalemia e. e. Hypokalemia 91. 91. Universal finding in Asthma is a. a. Hypoxia b. b. Hypercarbia c. c. Hypoxemia d. d. Respiratory acidosis e. e. Metabolic acidosis 92. 92. Which of the following are seen in DIC

a. Increased PT b. Increased BT c. Decreased fibrinogen degradation products d. Normal platelet count e. Decreased fibrinogen 93. 93. True regarding postmenopausal osteoporosis is/are a. a. Decreased Vitamin D b. b. Decreased calcium c. c. Normal serum chemistries d. d. Decreased Vitamin C e. e. Ammenorrhea 94. 94. Varicose veins are seen in a. a. Deep vein thrombosis b. b. Superficial venous thrombosis c. c. AV fistula d. d. Prolonged standing e. e. Hypertension 95. 95. Trendlenburgs test is positive in a. a. Saphenofemoral incompetence b. b. Perforator incompetence above knee c. c. Deep vein incompetence d. d. Perforator incompetence below knee e. e. Superficial thrombophlebitis 96. 96. True regarding A-V fistula is/are a. a. Leads to cardiac failure b. b. Local gigantism c. c. Causes ulcers d. d. Causes excess bleeding on injury e. e. Closes spontaneously 97. 97. The causes of dilated cardiomyopathy are a. a. Viral myocarditis b. b. Amylodosis c. c. Alcohol d. d. Lofflers endocarditis e. e. Post partum cardiomyopathy 98. 98. In comparison between restrictive cardiomyopathy and constrictive pericarditis they are differentiated as in constrictive pericarditis a. a. The diastolic pressures are equalized b. b. There is mild pericardial effusion c. c. The pulmonary artery pressure is lesser then 50 mmHg d. d. Presence of right heart failure e. e. Associated with septal hypertrophy 99. 99. True regarding inverted papilloma is a. a. Common in children b. b. Arises from the lateral wall c. c. Always benign
a. b. c. d. e.

d. d. Can be premalignant e. e. Causes obstruction in nose

100. Which of the following are true about carcinoma larynx a. a. The glottic carcinoma is the MC b. b. Supraglottic has the best prognosis c. c. Lymphatic spread is most common in the subglottic type d. d. T1 tumor involving the glottis is best treated with radiotherapy only e. e. Lymphatic spread is most common in supraglottic type 101. 101. A 14 year old boy presented with epistaxis and a swelling in the cheek. Which of the following is true regarding his condition a. a. Diagnosis is nasopharyngeal angiofibroma b. b. Contrast CT is used to see the extent c. c. Has high propensity to spread to lymphnodes d. d. It arises from the roof of the nasopharynx e. e. Surgery is treatment of choice Medical QUESTIONS MCQS A I P P G .CO M your pg entrance partner 102. 102. Metabolites of tryptophan can give rise to which of the following symptoms a. a. Hypotension b. b. Vasoconstriction c. c. Sweating d. d. Predispose to albinism e. e. Increase phenylketonuria 103. 103. The amino acid which is associated with atherosclerosis a. a. Arginine b. b. Homocysteine c. c. Cysteine d. d. Tryptophan e. e. Alanine 104. 104. Hyperbaric oxygen is used in which of the following a. a. Carbon monoxide poisoning b. b. ARDS c. c. Anaerobic infection d. d. Septicemia e. e. Pneumonia 105. 105. Predisposing factors for gastric cancer include a. a. Atrophic gastritis b. b. Hyperplastic polyp c. c. Adenomatous polyp d. d. Achlorhydria e. e. Animal fat consumption 106. 106. Which of the following are seen in apoptosis a. a. Membrane blebs b. b. Inflammation c. c. Nuclear fragmentation d. d. Spindle formation e. e. Cell swelling
100.

107.

108.
109.

107. True regarding recurrent thrombophlebitis (migratory thrombophlebitis) is Incomplete Question.... 108. Which of the following investigations would U do for a case of strangulated
a. b. c. d. e.

hernia a. Xray abdomen b. Ultrasound abdomen c. Aspiration of the contents of the sac d. Correction of volume for hypovolemia e. Prepare the OT for urgent surgery 109. True regarding carcinoma gall bladder is a. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type b. Presents with jaundice c. Good prognosis d. Gall stones predispose e. 65% survival after surgey 110. Genetic abnormalities in the fetus can be diagnosed by a. Maternal serum b. Maternal urine c. Amniotic fluid d. Choroinic villi e. Fetal blood 111. Membranous glomerulonephritis is associated with a. Renal vein thrombosis b. Hodgkins disease c. Subepithelial dense deposits d. Heamturia e. Acute nephritis 112. Sensorineural deafness is seen in a. Alports syndrome b. Pierre Robins syndrome c. Pendreds syndrome d. Treacher Collins syndrome e. Gauchers syndrome 113. Heamoptysis is seen in a. Mitral stenosis b. Bronchogenic carcinoma c. Bronchiectasis d. Pneumonia e. Empyema 114. Morphine can be administered as a. Inhalation b. Rectal c. Subcutaneous d. IV e. Intramuscular

110. a. b. c. d. e. 111. a. b. c. d. e. 112. a. b. c. d. e. 113. a. b. c. d. e. 114. a. b. c. d. e. 115. a. b. c. d. e.

116. a. b. c. d. e. 117. a. b. c. d. e. 118. a. b. c. d. e. 119. a. b. c. d. e. 120. a. b. c. d. e. 121. a. b. c. d. e. 122. a. b. c. d. 123. a. b. c. d.

115. Properties making cardioselective beta blockers desirable are a. Lesser Bronchoconstriction b. No adverse effect on lipid profile c. Less glucose intolerance d. Can be used in Raynauds disease e. Lesser AV block 116. Arteriolar dilators used in the treatment of congestive heart failure include a. Hydralizine b. Nifedipine c. Prazosin d. Enalapril e. Nitrates 117. Diseases caused by EBV include a. Infectious mononucleosis b. Burkitts lymphoma c. Kaposis sarcoma d. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma e. Herpangina 118. High hepatic extraction ration is seen a. Propranolol b. Lidocaine c. Diazepam d. Phenytoin e. Theophylline 119. The drugs which increase level of theophilline include a. Ciprofloxacin b. Barbiturates c. Cimetidine d. Allopurinol e. Phenytoin 120. Antipsychotics with lesser extrapyramidal side effects include a. Clozapine b. Respiridone c. Thioridazine d. Chlorpromazine e. Haloperidol 121. Which of the following is true a. Imipramine is used in the treatment of Endogenous depression b. Diazepam has lesser sedative propensity as compared to barbiturates c. Fluvaxamine is associated with weight gain d. Thioridazine causes lesser extrapyramidal side effects 122. Drugs used in the treatment of Schizophrenia include a. Chlorpromazine b. Haloperidol c. Olanzapine d. Imipramine

e. e. Resperidone

123. Shizophrenia has which of the following features in common with depression a. Formal thought disorder b. Social withdrawal c. Poor personal care d. Decreased interest in sex e. Inappropriate behavior 125. 124. Suicidal tendencies are seen in a. a. Shizophrenia b. b. Post traumatic stress disorder c. c. Depression d. d. OCD e. e. Anxiety disorder 126. 125. Features seen in Obsessions and compulsions is/are a. a. Repetetiveness b. b. Irresistiblility c. c. Unpleasant d. d. Social withdrawal e. e. Poor personal care 127. 126. Pleural fibrosis is caused by a. a. Phenytoin b. b. Methysegide c. c. Amiodarone d. d. Ergotamine e. e. Ranitidine 128. 127. True regarding bromocriptine a. a. Natural derivative b. b. Synthetic derivative c. c. Also has alpha blocking property d. d. Decreases GI motility e. e. Acts on both D1 and D2 129. 128. A lady with 16 weeks pregnancy presents with acute appendicitis. Management includes a. a. Conservative treatment b. b. Do early surgery c. c. Appendecectomy with termination of pregnancy d. d. Appendecectomy following child birth after 3rd trimester e. e. Medical treatment with surgery on recurrence 130. 129. A lady with 4 months ammenorhea presents with pain abdomen, constipation, and vomiting. What will be done in her management a. a. X ray abdomen b. b. USG c. c. CT scan d. d. Complete obstetrical evaluation 131. 130. True regarding hirshsprungs disease is/are a. a. Seen in infants and children only
124. a. b. c. d. e.

b. c. d. e. 132. a. b. c. d. e. 133. a. b. c. d. e. 134. a. b. c. d. e. 135. a. b. c. d. e. 136. a. b. c. d. e. 137. a. b. c. d. e. 138. a. b. c. d. e.

b. Absence of auerbachs plexus in the involved segment c. The involved segment is the dilated colon d. Bleeding per rectum is a presenting feature e. Surgery is used in the treatment 131. True about achalasia cardia is/are a. Dysphagia is a presenting feature b. Absence of auerbachs plexus is the cause c. Eosophagectomy is used in treatment d. Barium swallow shows irregular filling defect in the lower esophagus e. Motility improving agents are used in treatment 132. Bone marrow transplantation is indicated in a. Osteopetrosis b. Heamophilia c. Mucopolysacharidosis d. Ineffective erythropoeisis e. Diamond Blackfan syndrome 133. Pancytopenia is seen in a. Aplastic anemia b. Megaloblastic anemia c. Myelofibrosis d. Myelodysplastic syndrome e. Diamond Blackfan syndrome 134. Massive splenomegaly is associated with a. Gauchers b. Chronic kala azar c. CML d. Myelodysplastic syndrome e. Splenic infarcts 135. Intravenous gammaglobulins are used in a. Myasthenia Gravis b. Multiple myeloma c. ITP d. Takayasus arteritis e. HUS 136. Perurethral catheterization is indicated in which of the following conditions a. Prostatic carcinoma b. Urethral trauma c. Urethral stricture d. Before taking the patient in for appendecectomy e. Post op retention 137. The antigen binding region on the antibody is/are a. Hinge region b. Constant region c. Variable region d. Hypervariable region e. Idiotype region

139. a. b. c. d. e. 140. a. b. c. d. 141. a. b. c. d. e. 142. a. b. c. d. e. 143. a. b. c. d. e. 144. a. b. c. d. e. 145. a. b. c. d. e. 146. a. b. c. d.

138. ANCA is associated with a. Wegeners granulomatosis b. Churg struas disease c. Microscopic Polyangitis d. Takayasus arteritis e. SLE 139. Find the correct match among the following a. ANCA - Takayasus arteritis b. Antihistone antibodies - SLE in the newborn c. Naproxone - Pseudoporphyria d. Antimitochondrial antibody-PBC 140. Peripheral pulmonic stenosis is associated with all except a. Sub aortic stenosis b. Takayasus arteritis c. Williams syndrome d. Coarctation of aorta e. Rubella 141. Wide split S2 is seen in a. Endocardial cushion defect b. Ebstien anomaly c. Transposition of great vessels d. Anomalous origin of pulmonary artery e. Truncus arteriosis 142. True about Hepatocellular carcinoma is/are a. Most commonly associated with HBV/HCV b. Cirrhosis is usually predisposing c. Fibrolamellar variety is not associated with cirrhosis d. Less propensity of vascular invasion e. Alcoholic cirrhosis does not predispose to cancer 143. Immunoflourence test in skin is positive in a. Scabies b. Lichen planus c. Pemphigus vulgaris d. Erythema Multiforme e. Atopic dermatitis 144. Mucous lesions are seen in a. Secondary syphilis b. Dermatitis herpetiformis c. Psoriasis d. Pemphigus e. Porphyria 145. Loosers zones are seen a. Osteoporosis b. Hyperparathyrodism c. Osteomalacia d. Multiple myeloma

e. e. Pagets 147. a. b. c. d. e. 148. a. b. c. d. e. 149. a. b. c. d. 150. a. b. c. d. e. 151. a. b. c. d. 152. a. b. c. d. e. 153. a. b. c. d. e. 154. a. b. c. d.

146. Osteoarthritis commonly involves a. Proximal interphalengeal joint b. Distal interphalyngeal joint c. 1st carpophalegeal joint d. Wrist joint e. Distal radioulnar joint 147. Early morning stiffness is seen in a. Osteoarthritis b. Ankylosing spondylitis c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. SLE associated arthritis e. Psoriasis 148. Fracture of talus without displacement in X ray would give rise to a. Avascular necrosis of Body of talus b. Avascular necrosis of neck of talus c. Osteoarthritis of ankle d. Osteonecrosis of head of talus 149. McMurrays test is positive in damage to a. Anterior cruciate ligament b. Posterior cruciate ligament c. Medial semilunar cartilage d. Lateral semilunar cartilage e. Popliteal bursa 150. In anterior cruciate ligament tear which of the following tests are positive a. Lachmans Test b. Mcmurrays test c. Pivot test d. Anterior drawers test 151. The bone density is increased in all of the following except a. Avascular necrosis of bone b. Uric acid deposition in the bone c. Fracture and collapse of cancellous bone d. Periosteal reaction e. Flourosis 152. Regarding brucella all of the following are true except a. Man to man transmission b. It is a zoonosis c. Blood culture is used for diagnosis d. Brucella miletensis is the commonest cause e. Transmitted through animal products 153. Disease transmitted by arboviral include a. Yellow fever b. Japanese encephalitis c. Trench fever d. Epidemic typhus

e. e. Dengue 155. a. b. c. d. e. 156. a. b. c. d. e. 157. a. b. c. d. e. 158. a. b. c. d. e. 159. a. b. c. d. e. 160. a. b. c. d. e. 161. a. b. c. d. e. 162. a. b.

154. Diseases transmitted by louse include a. Epidemic typhus b. Endemic typhus c. Trench fever d. Rocky mountain fever e. Scrub typhus 155. True regarding point source epidemic include a. Rapid rise b. Rapid fall c. Secondary peaks do not occur d. Slow rise e. Slow fall 156. In patients with substance abuse for maintenance drugs used is/are a. Naltrexone b. Naloxone c. Disulfiram d. Clonidine e. Lithium 157. Ondansetron acts by a. Acts directly on the CTZ b. 5 HT3 antagonist c. Acts on D1, D2 receptors d. Inhibits vomiting center e. Increases GIT motility 158. True about gout is a. Occurs due to accumulation of urea crystals in the joints b. Can be precipitated by pyrazinamide c. Birefringent crystals are present in the joints d. Occurs more in females e. Due to decreased excretion of uric acid 159. Diabetes Mellitus can lead to the following complications a. Vitreous hemorrhage b. Rubeosis Iridis c. Primary retinal detachment d. 3,4th and 6th nerve palsy e. Hypermetropia 160. Posterior subcapsular cataract is diagnosed by a. Direct ophthalmoscopy b. Indirect ophthalmoscopy c. Distant direct opthalmoscopy d. Slit lamp microscopy e. Examination with aplain mirror at a distance of 1 m 161. Refractive power of the eye can be changed by a. Radial keratotomy b. Keratomileusis

c. c. Intraocular lens d. d. LASIK e. e. Photocoagulation 163. a. b. c. d. e. 164. a. b. c. d. e. 165. a. b. c. d. e. 166. a. b. c. d. e. 167. a. b. c. d. e. 168. a. b. c. d. 169. a. b. c. d. 170. a. b.

162. In angle closure glaucoma, treatment given to the fellow is a. Pilocarpine eye drops b. Atropine eye drops c. Laser iridotomy d. Trabeculoplasty e. Physostigmine eye drops 163. Parenchymatous xerosis of the conjuctiva is caused by a. Trachoma b. Vitamin A deficiency c. Vernal catarrh d. Phlyctenular conjuctivitis e. Alkali burns 164. Charcots joint is caused by all of the following except a. Arnold chiarri malformation b. Syrngomyelia c. Secondary syphilis d. Leprosy e. Hydrocephalus 165. Short stature is seen in a. Maternal deprivation syndrome b. Hypothyroidism c. Bulimia d. Paternal smoking e. IUGR 166. True regarding acute osteomyelitis in child is/are a. Diagnosis is by Xray after 8-10 days of onset of infection b. Diagnosis must be suspected on all cases of subcutaneous cellulites c. There is diffuse tenderness at the site d. Treatment should be for at least 4 weeks e. Salmonella is the most common cause 167. True about mycobacterium tuberculosis is/are a. Can produce visible colonies in a weeks time on LJ media b. Decolorized with 20% suphuric acid c. Facultative aerobes d. It is niacin positive 168. Anterior scalloping of the vertebrae is seen in a. Aortic aneurysm b. Tuberculosis c. Renal tumors d. Sarcoidosis 169. Regarding aqueous humor which of the following is correct a. It is secreted 2-3 ml/min b. It is secreted by ciliary processes

c. c. It has less protein then plasma d. d. It has less vitamin C then plasma e. e. Provides nutrition

170. Which of the following drugs is associated with least causation of raised intraocular tension a. a. Hydrocortizone b. b. Prednisolone c. c. Fluvamethezone d. d. Triamcinolone e. e. Rexamethasone 172. 171. Which of the following are associated with increased risk of colorectal cancer a. a. Increased intake of animal fat b. b. Aspirin intake c. c. Enteric colitis d. d. Amoebic colitis e. e. Ulcerative colitis 173. 172. True about amoebic colitis is/are a. a. Commonly caused by entameoba histolytica b. b. Cyst found in soil contains 8 nuclei c. c. Flask shaped ulcers are found d. d. Most common site is the ceacum e. e. Is premalignant 174. 173. Premalignant lesions of skin include a. a. Leukoplakia b. b. Bowens disease c. c. Pagets disease of nipple d. d. Psoriasis e. e. Pemphigus 175. 174. In the diagnosis of filariasis the blood sample collected for identification of microfilaria is stored in/as a. a. Citrated blood b. b. EDTA c. c. Oxalated blood d. d. Heparinized blood e. e. Defibrinogenated blood 176. 175. Secondary messengers include a. a. cAMP b. b. IP3 c. c. DAG d. d. cGMP e. e. ADP 177. 176. Increased severity of mitral stenosis is demonstrated by a. a. Loud S1 b. b. Increased S2-OS gap c. c. Prolonged diastolic murmur
171.

d. d. S3 e. e. S4 178. a. b. c. d. e. 179. a. b. c. d. e. 180. a. b. c. d. 181. a. b. c. d. e. 182. a. b. c. d. e. 183.

177. Left sided pleural effusion is seen a. Pancreatitis b. Rheumatoid lung c. Hypoproteinosis d. CHF e. Pulmonary artery obstruction due to emboli 178. True about Quinsy is/are a. Penicillin is used in treatment b. Abcess is located within the capsule c. Occurs bilaterally d. Immediate tonsillectomy is advised e. Patient presents with toxic features and drooling of saliva 179. Transudative pleural effusion is seen a. Renal artery stenosis b. Nephrotic syndrome c. SLE d. Rheumatoid arthritis 180. Live attenuated vaccines are a. Sabin vaccine b. BCG c. Varicella d. H.Infleunza e. HBV 181. HIV infection is associated with a. Glandular like fever illness b. Generalized lymphadenopathy c. Gonococcal septicemia d. Sinus disease e. Presenile dementia 182. Volume of air taken in and given out during normal respiration is referred to a. Inspiratory reserve volume b. Tidal volume c. Expiratory reserve volume d. Vital capacity e. Inspiratory capacity 183. True regarding idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is a. Decreased FEV1 b. Decreased FEV/FVC c. Decreased DLco d. Decreased residual volume e. Decreased TLC 184. Choose the correct match a. Mumps -RA 27/3

as
a. b. c. d. e. 184. a. b. c. d. e. 185. a.

b. c. d. e. 186. a. b. c. d. e. 187. a. b. c. d. e. 188.

b. Rubella -Jeryl lynn strain c. Measles -Edmonston Zagreb strain d. BCG -Danish 1331 strain e. Polio -shwartz strain 185. Regarding Hypoxemia, it is seen in a. Hypoventilation b. Decreased FiO2 c. Myasthenia gravis d. Pulmonary emboli e. Diazepam over dose 186. SSPE is associated with a. Mumps b. Measles c. Rubella d. Typhoid e. Diphtheria 187. In a patient with CRF which of the following drugs are to be given with

caution a. Spirinolactone b. Amlodipine c. Amiloride d. Pottasium binding resins e. Furesemide 189. 188. Acute pancreatitis is caused by a. a. Gall stones b. b. Alcohol intake c. c. Starvation d. d. Hyperparathyroid phenomenon e. e. Thyrotoxicosis PGI 2002 MCQS 190. 189. A patient was started on antihypertensive treatment develops renal insufficiency, the drug/drugs implicated are a. a. Beta blocker b. b. Alpha blocker c. c. Calcium channel blocker d. d. AT1 antagonist e. e. Enalapril 191. 190. Woods lamp is used in the diagnosis of a. a. Tinea capatis b. b. Tinea versicolor c. c. Pityriasis rosea d. d. Psoriasis e. e. Lichen planus 192. 191. 13 cis retinoic acid is used in as a. a. Chemoprophylactic b. b. Chemotherapeutic
a. b. c. d. e.

c. c. Radiosensitive d. d. Radioprotective e. e. Immuno stimulant

192. In patient suffering through CML the heamoglobin level falls from 11gm% to 4 gm%, in a short span of time. Also the spleen shows an increase in size. The cause for this could be a. a. Accelerated CML b. b. CML in blast crisis c. c. Ineffective erthropoiesis d. d. Myelofibrosis e. e. Infection 194. 193. True regarding Legionella pneumonia include a. a. It occurs in epidemics b. b. It is treated by penicillin c. c. It is associated with splenomegaly d. d. Can be easily diagnosed from sputum e. e. More common in children Aippg PGI questions june 12 2002 195. 194. Chordoma commonly involves which of the following sites a. a. Dorsal spine b. b. Clivus c. c. Lumbar spine d. d. Sacrum e. e. Cerical spine 196. 195. True about oocyte is a. a. It is also called primordial follicle b. b. Formed after a single meiotic division c. c. Maximum in number during the 5th month fetus d. d. It is in prophase arrest e. e. Also known as blastocyst 197. 196. Ovary develops from a. a. Mullerian duct b. b. Genital ridge c. c. Genital tubercle d. d. Mesonephric duct e. e. Sinovaginal bulbs 198. 197. Turcots syndrome is associated with a. a. Duodenal polyps b. b. Familial adenosis c. c. Brain tumors d. d. Villous adenomas e. e. Hyperplastic polyps 199. 198. Black gun powder all of the following are found except a. a. Charcoal b. b. Pottassium nitrate c. c. Sulphur
193.

d. d. Lead peroxide e. e. Arsenic 200. a. b. c. d. e. 201. a. b. c. d. e. 202. a. b. c. d. e. 203. a. b. c. d. e. 204. a. b. c. d. e. 205. a. b. c. d. e. 206. a. b. c. d. 207. a. b.

199. Haabs straie is seen in a. Angle closure glaucoma b. Infantile glaucoma c. Stargardts disease d. Disciform keratitis e. Lebers disease 200. In a young patient presenting with recurrent vitreous heamorrage a. Eales disease b. CRVO c. Proliferative retinopathy d. Coats disease e. Episcleritis 201. LMN lesion includes a. Dorsal horn cells b. Sympathetic ganglia c. Peripheral nerve d. Gasserian ganglia e. Anterior horn cells 202. Functions of basal ganglia include a. Gross motor b. Skilled movements c. Emotion d. Maintaining equilibrium e. Co-ordination of movements 203. Central muscle relaxant acts by a. Decreasing nerve conduction b. Inhibits spinal polysynaptic reflexes c. Blocks conduction across nerve muscle junction d. CNS depression e. Decreases muscle excitation 204. Preaneasthetic medication is used for which of the following reasons a. It decreases the autonomic reflexes b. It helps in anesthesia c. Reduce anesthetic side effects d. Decrease blood pressure e. Prevent tachycardia 205. In myasthenia gravis which of the following should not be given a. Gallamine b. Neostigmine c. Aminoglycoside antibiotics d. Metronidazole 206. WHO ORS contains Na+ 2.5 gms K+ 1.5 gms

208.

209.

210.

211.

212.

213.

214.

215.

a. Glucose 20 gm b. Sucrose 108 gm % c. Potassium bisulphate- 90 207. In IV hyperalimentation given is/are a. a. Hypertonic saline b. b. Fats c. c. Amino acids d. d. Dextrose e. e. Low molecular weight dextran 208. Health is associated by a. a. Mental peace b. b. Adequate nutrition c. c. Daily moderate physical activity d. d. Yearly blood and urine examination e. e. Less stress 209. CA-125 is associated with a. a. Carcinoma colon b. b. Ca breast c. c. Ca ovary d. d. Ca lung e. e. Ca pancreas 210. CEA as a tumor marker is useful in carcinoma colon a. a. Levels give an indication of prognosis after surgery b. b. Extent of tumor c. c. Post op fall in CEA reflects complete clearance of tumor d. d. Follow up after surgery for recurrence e. e. High levels reflect metastasis 211. True about septal heamatoma is /are a. a. Common in adults b. b. Occurs commonly due to trauma c. c. Can lead to saddle nose deformity d. d. Conservative management e. e. Leads to formation of abscess after sometime 212. In management of head injury a. a. Antibiotics are given for upto 48 hours b. b. CT scan of head is done c. c. Hydrocortisone is given d. d. Complete clinical examination is required e. e. Diazepam is given 213. True about CSF rhinorrhea a. a. Commonly occurs due to break in cribriform plate b. b. Decreased glucose content confirms diagnosis c. c. Contains less amount of proteins d. d. Immediate surgery is required 214. True about Fox Fordyce spot is a. a. It is more common in females

b. Reflects presence of internal malignancy c. Is premalignant d. Present in axilla and groin e. Presents with itching 216. 215. Carcinoma of the right colon presents as a. a. Anemia b. b. Mass in the right iliac fossa c. c. Bleeding PR d. d. Alternate constipation and diarrhea e. e. Presents with obstruction commonly 217. 216. Immediate surgery is required in a. a. Adhesions b. b. Volvolus c. c. Perforated appendix with paralytic ileus d. d. Intestinal obstruction e. e. Tubercular stricture 218. 217. In external beam radiotherapy used is/are a. a. I-123 b. b. Cesium 137 c. c. Co-60 d. d. Tc 99 e. e. Iridium 191 219. 218. All of the following iodine isotopes are in use except a. a. I 131 b. b. I 123 c. c. I 125 d. d. I 122 e. e. I 129 220. 219. Breech presentation with hydrocephalous is managed by a. a. Ceasarian section b. b. Transabdominal CSF decompression c. c. Pervaginal decompression of after coming head d. d. Craniotomy of after coming head 221. 220. A postmenopausal woman presenting with bleeding PV has a mass in the fornix measuring 3*3 cms. Which of the following can be considered in the diagnosis a. a. Carcinoma Endometrium of uterine body b. b. Tuboovarian mass c. c. Ovarian theca tumors d. d. Dermoid tumor of ovary e. e. Subserous fibroid 222. 221. Non irritant gas causing systemic toxicity include a. a. Ammonia b. b. Hydrochloric acid c. c. Carbon monoxide d. d. Nitrogen e. e. Chlorine
b. c. d. e.

223. a. b. c. d. e. 224. a. b. c. d. 225. a. b. c. d. e. 226. a. b. c. d. e. 227. a. b. c. d. e. 228. a. b. c. d. e. 229. a. b. c. d. e. 230. a. b. c. d.

222. True about adenoids is/are a. Failure to thrive b. Mouth breathing c. CT scan is done to assess size d. Immediate surgery is required for even mild symptoms e. Glottic arch palate is seen 223. Nocardia is differentiated from actinomycosis by a. Gram stain b. Acid stain c. Different clinical features d. Facultative anaerobe 224. True about Creutzfeldt Jacobs disease is a. Inheritable disease b. Corneal implants transmit disease c. It is transmitted by RNA containing organism d. Transmitted by DNA containing organism e. Arthropod borne disease 225. Prominent a waves are seen in all of the following except a. Mitral stenosis b. Tricuspid stenosis c. Pulmonary hypertension d. Right atrial myxoma e. ASD 226. Uterine fibromyoma is associated with a. Endometriosis b. PID c. Ca ovary d. Amennorhea e. Tamoxifen 227. True about hepatitis A include a. IgG anti Hep A is used in diagnosis b. Boiling for 5 minutes kills the virus c. Spread by faeco-oral route d. Incubation period is 45-180 days e. Predisposes to cirrhosis 228. Arlts line is seen in a. Opthalmia neonatorum b. Trachoma c. Angular conjunctivitis d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis e. Vernal catarrh 229. Dietary cholesterol is transported to extra hepatic tissues by a. IDL b. VLDL c. Chylomicrons d. LDL

e. e. HDL 231.

230. True regarding fibomyoma uterus is/are

a. a. Estrogen dependant b. b. Capsulated c. c. Can lead to red degeneration in pregnancy for which immediate surgery is

required
d. d. Danazol is used in treatment e. e. Pressure symptoms when present at the cervix 232. a. b. c. d. 233. a. b. c. d. e. 234. a. b. c. d. e. 235. a. b. c. d. e. 236. a. b. c. d. e. 237. a. b. c. d. e. 238. a. b.

231. In rheumatoid arthritis a. More common in females b. Disease primarily affects cartilage c. Involves small and large joints d. Presence of RA factor is diagnostic 232. Hepatic infarcts are seen in a. Chronic passive venous congestion b. Acute Budd Chiarri syndrome c. Septicemia d. Hepatoveno-occlusive disease e. Extra hepatic biliary obstruction 233. The surgical lobes of liver are divided on the basis of a. Hepatic vein b. Hepatic artery c. Bile ducts d. Hepatic portal vein e. Central vein 234. Most important diameters of pelvis during labor is/are a. Interspinous diameter in mid pelvis b. Oblique diameter in inlet c. AP diameter at outlet d. Transtubercular diameter e. Intertubercular diameter 235. Pubertal menorrhagia is managed by a. Progesterone b. Estrogen and progesterone c. GnRH d. Danazol e. Surgery 236. Bilateral breast carcinoma is caused by a. Scirrhous carcinoma b. Medullary carcinoma c. Lobular carcinoma d. Intra ductal carcinoma e. Pagets disease 237. Enucleation is done in all of the following except a. Retinoblastoma with glaucoma b. Dystoma of ciliary body

c. c. Vitreous hemorrhage d. d. Malignant melanoma e. e. Malignant glaucoma

238. Familial Retinoblastoma is associated with a. Presents at later age b. More commonly bilateral c. Associated with other malignancies d. Better prognosis e. Is due to mutation 240. 239. Continous variables are depicted graphically as a. a. Histogram b. b. Pie chart c. c. Frequency polygan d. d. Bar chart e. e. Olgive 241. 240. True regarding DIC is a. a. Increased PT b. b. Increased PTT c. c. Decreased fibrinogen degradation products d. d. Decreased fibrinogen e. e. Normal platelet count 242. 241. Glucose intolerance is caused by a. a. Thiazides b. b. Enalapril c. c. Propranolol d. d. Furesemide e. e. AT1 antagonist 243. 242. True about oxytocin is/are a. a. It is secreted by anterior pituitary b. b. It acts on the myoepithelial cells of breast c. c. It causes contraction of uterus in labor d. d. It causes retention of water e. e. Also has sympathetic activity 244. 243. True about HCG is/are a. a. Glycoprotien b. b. Has 2 subunits c. c. Increased to maximum level in 3rd trimester d. d. Secreted by trophoblastic tissue e. e. The alpha subunit is specific 244 The antigen-binding region on the antibody is/are a. Hinge region b. Constant region c. Variable region d. Hyper variable region e. Idiotype region 245 Prominent a waves are seen in all of the following except
239. a. b. c. d. e.

a. b. c. d. e.

a. Mitral stenosis b. Tricuspid stenosis c. Pulmonary hypertension d. Right atrial myxoma e. ASD

PGIMER CHANDIGARH MD MS ENTRANCE EXAMINATION QUESTIONS [recollected] www.aippg.com medical post graduation entrance examinations guidance informations visit our message board/ "QUESTION FORUM" HOME: WWW.AIPPG.COM
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