Paper-1 JP-JF Mt-2 (Jee Advance) 30-12-2012 Code-0 Revised

PAPER - 1
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This Question Paper contains 63 questions.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet.
3. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
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in any form are not allowed.
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Use only Black ball point pen only for filling the ORS. Do not use Gel / Ink / Felt pen as it might smudge the ORS.
9. Write your Roll no. in the boxes given at the top left corner of your ORS with black ball point pen. Also, darken
the corresponding bubbles with Black ball point pen only. Also fill your roll no on the back side of your ORS
in the space provided (if the ORS is both side printed).
10. Fill your Paper Code as mentioned on the Test Paper and darken the corresponding bubble with Black ball
point pen.
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displayed and 5 marks will be deducted (paper wise) from the total.
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scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the ORS. Do not put any stray marks or whitener anywhere on the
ORS.
14. If there is any discrepancy between the written data and the bubbled data in your ORS, the bubbled data will
be taken as final.
C. Question paper format and Marking scheme :
15. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry & Mathematics). Each part consists of Four Sections.
16. For each question in SectionI, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to
the correct choice for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. There is no negative marking
for incorrect answer in this section.
17. For each question in SectionII, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. There is no negative marking for incorrect
answer in this section.
18. For each question in SectionIII, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct choice for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. There is no negative marking
for incorrect answer in this section.
19. For each question in SectionIV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct choice for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect
answer, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
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Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
Date : 30-12-2012 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 219
CODE
0
MAJOR TEST-2 (MT-2) (JEE ADVANCE)
TARGET : JEE (IITs) 2013 COURSE : VIJETA (JP) & VISHWAAS (JF)
RESONANCE P1JP&JFMT2-XI/XII301212C0-1
PHYSICS
Space for Rough Work
PART I : PHYSICS
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Two masses m
1
and m
2
are connected by a string of length L. They are held in a horizontal plane at a height
H above two fixed heavy plates A and B made of different material placed on the floor. Initially distance
between two masses is a < L. When the masses are released under gravity they make collision with A and
B with co-efficient of restitution 0.8 and 0.4 respectively. The time after the collision when the string becomes
tight is
(A)
2 2
5 L a
2 2gH
(B)
2g
H
(C)
2 2
3 L a
2 2gH
(D) None of these
PHYSICS
2. In the system shown, the wire connecting two masses has linear mass density of
1
20
kg/m. A tuning fork of
50 Hz is found to be in resonance with the horizontal part of wire between pulley and block A. (Assuming
nodes at block A and pulley). Now at t = 0, system is released from rest. The ratio of time gap between
successive resonance with the same tuning fork starting from t = 0. (take g = 10 m/s
2
)
A
B
4kg
4kg 50Hz
60cm
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 :
2 1
(D) 1: 2
3. For two thermodynamic process temperature and volume diagram are given. In first process, it is a straight
line having initial and final coordinates as (V
0
, T
0
) and (2V
0
, 2T
0
), where as in second process it is a
rectangular hyperbola having initial and final coordinates (V
0
, T
0
) and (2V
0
, T
0
/2). Then ratio of work done in
the two processes must be
V
0
2V
0
V
T
2T
0
T
0
V
0
2V
0
V
T
T
0
T /2
0
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) None of these
PHYSICS
4. A block of mass m is attached to a fixed position 'O' on a smooth inclined wedge of mass M. The block
oscillates along the incline with amplitude A and angular frequency e. The wedge is located on a rough
horizontal surface of friction coefficient . Find the force of friction acting on the wedge if it always remains at
rest.
60
S
m
o
o
t
h
Rough
M
O
m
(A) (M + m)g (B)
1
2
me
2
A sin (et + |)
(C) (M + m) e
2
A sin (et + |) (D) None of these
5. Ultraviolet light of wavelength ) ( and
1 2 2 1
> when allowed to fall on hydrogen atoms in their ground
state is found to liberate electrons with kinetic energies E
1
and E
2
respectively. The value of planck's constant
can be found from the relation.
(A) ( )( )
2 1 1 2
1
h E E
c
=
(B) ( )( )
1 2 1 2
1
h E E
c
= + +
(C)
( )
( )
1 2 1 2
2 1
E E
h
c

=

(D)
( )
( )
1 2 1 2
1 2
E E
h
c
+
=
+
PHYSICS
6. The ratio of total acceleration of the electron in singly ionized helium atom and hydrogen atom according to
bohr model (both in ground state) is:
(A) 1 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) None of these
7. In the circuit shown in the figure C
1
= C, C
2
= 2C, C
3
= 3C, C
4
= 4C. Then select incorrect alternate :
C
1
C
2
C
3
C
4
(A) Maximum potential difference is across C
1
(B) Minimum potential difference is across combination of C
3
and C
4
(C) Maximum potential energy is in C
1
(D) Minimum potential energy is in C
2
SECTION - II
True & False Statement Type
This Section Contains 3 questions. Each questions contains 3 or 4 statements S
1
, S
2
, S
3
or S
4
. Each
statement is either true (T) or false (F). Each questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) each of
which contains whether S
1
, S
2
, S
3
or S
4
are true or false. Exactly one choice contains the correct order
of truthness or falseness of S
1
, S
2
, S
3
or S
4
respectively and is the correct choice.
8. S
1
: When an electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state, its
kinetic energy increases, its potential energy decreases and its total energy remains constant.
S
2
: A nucleus at rest split into two nuclear parts having radii in ratio 1 : 2. Their velocity will be in the ratio 8:1.
S
3
: A sphere is rolling up on a rough incline plane. If suddenly the friction becomes zero, the retardation of
the COM of the sphere will increase.
(A) F T T (B) T F T (C) T T T (D) F F F
PHYSICS
9. S
1
: A man is standing on a circular platform which is free to rotate about a fixed vertical axis. If the man
starts moving on the peripheri of the platform, the COM of the system (man + platform), Starts moving w.r.t.
ground.
S
2
: A charged particle is kept at rest in a uniform magnetic field. If now the magnetic field starts increasing
with time, the particle may start moving.
S
3
: If the angular momentum of a system is constant in magnitude then the torque (if any) acting on the
system must be perpendicular to the angular momentum.
(A) F T T (B) T T T (C) F T F (D) T T F
10. S
1
: The COM of a rod is at its geometrical centre. This means the rod is uniform.
S
2
: The total potential energy of an electrostatic system may be positive.
S
3
: The line integral of electric field over a closed loop drawn in a region having only a time varying magnetic
field is zero.
(A) F T T (B) T T T (C) F T F (D) F T T
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 2 multiple choice questions have to
be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 11 to 12
A uniform soild sphere of mass m and radius R is kept on the rough horizontal surface with co-efficient of
friction = 1/3 as shown in figure. An impulse of J = mv
0
is applied tangentially on the sphere at an angle 37
with the horizontal as shown in the figure. (assuming J >> mgdt, g = 10 m/s
2
, tan 37 = 3/4)
37
J
R
PHYSICS
11. Find the velocity of centre of mass of the sphere just after impulse is applied.
(A) 0
4
v
5
(B) 0
6
v
5
(C) 0
7
v
5
(D) v
0
12. Find the angular velocity of sphere just after impulse is applied.
(A)
0
2v
R
(B)
0
v
R
(C)
0
v
2R
(D)
0
3v
R
The circuit shown in the figure consists of two resistances R
1
& R
2
connected to two ideal voltmeters V
1
& V
2
.
Assume that a voltmeter reads .
b
a
V E d A =
}

between its terminals. A time varying magnetic field B(t)
exists in a circular region of radius a and it is directed into the plane of the figure B(t) = B
0
t where B
0
is a
positive constant of proper dimensions and t is the time
( ) B t
1
R
B
A
2
R 1
v
b b
2
v
13. The emf induced in the circuit is :
(A)
2
0
2 a B (B)
2
0
a B (C )
2
0
2
a B
(D)
2
0
2
a B
PHYSICS
14. The reading of V
1
is :
(A)
2
0
a B (B)
2
0 1
2
a B R
R
(C)
2
0 1
1 2
a B R
R R
+
(D)
2
0 1
1 2
a B R
R R

+
SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the questions is
a single digit integer, ranging from 00 to 99. The appropriate bubble below
the respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened.
15. A train is moving with a constant speed 15 m/s along a circular track. The length of the train makes an angle
90 at the centre. A siren in its engine is emitting a sound of frequency 1.5kHz. The apparent frequency of
sound as heard by a passenger at the rear end of the train is 100x Hz, then find x. (In Hz)
16. Figure shows the variation of internal energy "U" with the density" "of one mole of ideal diatomic gas.
Process BA is a part of rectangular hyperbola. If the work done by gas in the process BA is W joules.
Find W ?
PHYSICS
17. In Young's Double slit experiment, a thin glass mica strip of thickness (t = 15 ) is pasted infront of slit S
1
.
If the same strip is now shifted in front of other slit S
2
. If the number of fringes which will cross the central
point on the screen is N. Find N ? (d >> D, << d and n
mica
= 1.5)
18. Initial charges (with proper sign) on the plates of two identical capacitors , each of 1 F, are as shown. When
both S
1
and S
2
are closed, the potential difference between A and B in volts will finally become
19. To reduce the light reflected by the glass surface of a camera lens, the surface is coated with a thin layer of
another material which has an index of refraction 7 / 4 smaller than that of glass. The least thickness of
the layer, to ensure that light falling perpendicularly on the surface and having wavelengths,
1
= 700nm and
2
= 420nm will be weekly reflected for both wavelengths is x x 10
8
m. Find x ?
20. Consider a huge charge reservoir at potential V = 2000 volts . A spherical capacitor C
1
= 40nF is brought in
contact with the charge reservoir and then removed. Next another spherical capacitor C
2
= 30nF is brought
in contact with C
1
and removed. We repeat this process a large number of times. Assume that potential of
reservoir does not change during this exercise. Then the charge (in C ) on C
2
after a very long time is?
21. A long straight wire is carrying current I
1
= 2/5A in +z direction. The x - y plane contains a closed circular loop
carrying current I
2
= 5/2A and not encircling the straight wire, then the force (in newton) on the loop will be ?
(radius of the circular loop R = 3/4m).
CHEMISTRY
PART II : CHEMISTRY
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,
P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75,
Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
SECTION - I
This section contains 7 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
22. In which case vant Hoff factor is maximum (assuming no hydrolysis) :
(A) KCl, 50% ionised (B) K
2
SO
4
, 40% ionised
(C) FeCl
3
, 30% ionised (D) SnCl
4
, 20% ionised
23. Following is the graphical presentation of volume occupied by different gases at S.T.P. Which is/are
placed at correct position ?
x-axis : mass of the gas sample ; y-axis : volume of the gas sample at STP
(A) H
2
,He (B) He, NH
3
(C) NH
3
, CH
4
(D) CH
4
,H
2
24. Which of the following statements is true for azide ion ?
(A) It can act as bidentate ligand. (B) Two NN bond lengths are different in the anion.
(C) It is isoelectronic and isostructural with CO
2
. (D) There are two o and three t bonds.
CHEMISTRY
25. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Sodium (ethylenediaminetetraacetato)chromate(II) Na
2
[Cr(CH
3
COO)
4
(en)]
(B) Dichloridobis(ethane-1, 2-diamine)cobalt(III) ion [Co(Cl)
2
(en)
2
]
+
(C) Tris(bipyridyl)iron(II)ion [Fe (NH
4
C
5
C
5
H
4
N)
3
]
2+
(D) Ammineaquadibromidocopper(II) [Cu(NH
3
)(H
2
O)Br
2
]
26. In which of the following option, second compound gives a precipitate more rapidly then the first compound
when reacted with AgNO
3
in ethanol.
(A) or (B) or
(C) or (D) PhCH
2
Br or CH
2
=CHCH
2
Br
27.
Y & W are :
(A) Geometrical Isomers (B) Enantiomer
(C) Identical (D) Structural Isomer
28.
Identify E :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - II
1
, S
2
, S
3
or S
4
. Each
1
, S
2
, S
3
or S
4
1
, S
2
, S
3
or S
4
29. S
1
: All adiabatic processes are isoentropic processes.
S
2
: When (AG
system
)
T, P
< 0; the reaction must be exothermic.
S
3
: Radial nodes can appear when radial probability distribution function become zero.
(A) T T F (B) F F T (C) T F T (D) T F F
30. S
1
: Addition of inert gas to the equilibrium mixture at constant volume, does not alter the equilibrium.
S
2
: Equilibrium H
2
(g) + I
2
(g) 2HI(g) is stablished in V(L). If complete equilibrium mixture is transfered
to 2V(L) container then the partial pressure of HI will remain same in the new container.
S
3
: Formation of diamond is favourable at very high temperature and very high pressure.
(A) TFF (B) TFT (C) FTT (D) FFT
31. S
1
: Secondary-butyl magnesium bromide react with alcohol gives n-butane.
S
2
:

H ) 2 (
MgBr nCH ) 1 (
3
the value of n is two.
S
3
:

4
LiAlH
product is
(A) TTT (B) FFT (C) TFT (D) TTF
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, there are 2 questions. Each question has
4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
There are three bottles labelled as A, B and C contain weak acid, strong acid and strong base in random
order. All are monobasic/monoacidic. A student performs some experiment then the following observations
are made.
(A) When solution 'A' and 'B' are mixed completely then it form buffer of pH = 4.7
(B) When 'B' and 'C' mixed completely then solution will have remaining strong acid along with neutral salt.
(C) When 'A' and 'C' solutions are mixed completely then the resultant solution is acidic and pH of solution
is 2log 5
32. The bottles (A), (B) and (C) contain the solutions which are respectively :
(A) Weak acid, strong base and strong acid (B) Strong base, weak acid and strong acid
(C) Strong acid, weak acid and strong base (D) Strong acid, strong base and weak acid
33. What will be degree of ionisation when complete weak acid solution is mixed with complete strong acid
solution ?
(A) 5 10
3
(B) 2 10
3
(C) 2 10
4
(D) 5 10
4
CHEMISTRY
Compound (X) (C
8
H
7
N) on treatment with cold SnCl
2
/dil.HCl (aqueous), produces Y (C
8
H
8
O). (Y) on heating
with sodium acetate in acetic anhydride followed by acidification forms (Z) (C
10
H
10
O
2
). All these compounds
(X,Y,Z) on oxidation under severe conditions form a diacid which gives only one mononitro isomer in nitrating
mixture.
34. The reductive ozonolysis products of (Z) are :
(A)
CH
3
CHO
+ CHO
COOH
(B) CHO H C
3
+
COOH
COOH
(C)
COOH
CHO
COOH +
CH
3
(D) CHO + H C
3
COOH
CHO
35. What is not true about (Y) :
(A) It can give cannizzaro reaction (B) It gives Iodoform test positive
(C) It gives Tollen's test positive (D) It gives 2, 4-DNP test positive
SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type
a double digit integer, ranging from 00 to 99. The appropriate bubble below
CHEMISTRY
36. The percentage of copper in a copper(II) salt can be determined by using a thiosulphate titration. 0.305 gm of
a copper(II) salt was dissolved in water and added to an excess of potassium iodide solution liberating iodine
according to the following equation.
2Cu
2+
(aq) + 4I
(aq) 2CuI(s) + I
2
(aq)
The iodine liberated required 24.5 cm
3
of a 0.100 mole dm
3
solution of sodium thiosulphate
2S
2
O
3
2
(aq) + I
2
(aq) 2I
(aq) + S
4
O
6
2
(aq)
the percentage of copper, by mass in the copper(II) salt is. [Atomic mass of copper = 63.5]
37. If for the equilibrium :
NH
2
COONH
4
(s) N
2
(g) + 3H
2
(g) + CO(g) +
2
1
O
2
(g)
the value of Kp at 800 K is 27 x 2
/2
and the equilibrium pressure is 22 atm value of is :
38. 30 litre gas at 400 K and 300 atm pressure is compressed to a pressure of 600 atm and 200 K. The
compressibility factor is changed from 1.2 to 1.6 respectively. Calculate the final volume of the gas.
CHEMISTRY
39. For a given reaction, energy of activation for forward reaction (E
af
) is 80kJ.mol
1
. AH = 40kJ.mol
1
for the
reaction. A catalyst lowers E
af
to 20 kJ.mol
1
. Find out the ratio of energy of activation for reverse reaction
before and after addition of catalyst.
40. Total number of |-Keto monocarboxylic acids (including stereoisomers) which on heating give .
41. 'M' is smallest optically active branched alkane. This alkane has a straight chain of six carbon atoms. Find
out the total number of isomeric alkenes which on hydrogenation give 'M'.
42.
A

4 3
PO H
Total no. of alkenes (X)
n distilatio
Fractional

No. of Fractions obtained (Y).
Find out Y.
RESONANCE
P1JP&JFMT2XI/XII301212C0-16
MATHEMATICS
PART- III - MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I
This section contains 7 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
43. Consider the sequence 2,3,5,6,7,8,10,11,12,13,14,15,17......... of all positive integers that are not perfect
squares. Determine the 2011
th
term of this sequence.
(A) 2056 (B) 2011 (C) 2053 (D) 2055
44. Suppose that x and y are real numbers that satisfy the system of equations
2
x
2
y
= 1,
4
x
4
y
=
3
5
.
The value of (x y) is
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4
45. An ordinary die is rolled. From the following choices, the number thrown is most likely to be
(A) odd (B) even (C) a factor of 18 (D) a factor of 12
46. The largest prime factor of 7
99
+ 7
100
+ 7
101
is
(A) 7 (B) 13 (C) 17 (D) 19
47. The solution of the equation
dx
dy
+ x(2x + y) = x
3
(2x + y)
3
2 is
(C being arbitrary constant)
(A)
1
2x xy +
= x
2
+ 1 + Ce
x
(B) 2
1
(2x y) +
= x
2
+ 1 +
2
x
Ce
(C)
y x 2
1
+
= x + 1 +
2
x
Ce (D) 2
1
(2x y) +
= x
2
+ 1 + C
RESONANCE
MATHEMATICS
48. If f : [1, 5] [10, 2] is an invertible function and g(x) is inverse function of f(x), then range of
( )
( )
2
1
2
log g(x) 2(g(x)) 3 + +
is
(A)
(
(
11 log , 83 log
2
1
2
1
(B)
(
(
1 , 38 log
2
1
(C)
(
(
1 , 38 log
2
1
(D) [2, 1]
49. If sin
-1
x
x x
+
|
\
|
.
|
|
2 3
2 4
....... + cos
-1
x
x x
2
4 6
2 4
+
|
\
|
.
| ....... =
t
2
for 0 < | x | <
2
, then x equals
(A) 1/2 (B) 1 (C) 1/2 (D) 1
SECTION - II
1
, S
2
, S
3
or S
4
. Each
1
, S
2
, S
3
or S
4
1
, S
2
, S
3
or S
4
50. Consider the following statements :
S
1
: It is possible that for a triangle inradius = 4 and circumradius = 7.
S
2
: It is possible to have four circles to touch three non concurrent and non parallel lines.
S
3
: There always exists director circle to hyperbola.
State, in order, whether S
1
, S
2
, S
3
are true or false
(A) TTF (B) FTT (C) TTT (D) FTF
S
1
: A straight line can not have more than one set of direction cosines.
S
2
: The range of the function f(x) = (sin
1
x) sin x is
(
t
2
, 0
S
3
: If log
10
x = 2.314 then characteristics is 2
1
, S
2
, S
3
are true or false
(A) FFT (B) FFF (C) TFT (D) FTT
RESONANCE
MATHEMATICS
S
1
: Equation of director circle of
1
b
y
a
x
2
2
2
2
= +
is x
2
y
2
= a
2
+ b
2
.
S
2
: If f : [a, b] [a, b] be a continuous increasing function, then there exists c e [a, b] such that f(c) = c
S
3
: If A, B, C are angles of a triangle, then maximum value of sin A + sin B + sin C is
2
3 3
1
, S
2
, S
3
are true or false
(A) FTF (B) FTT (C) FFT (D) TFT
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, there are 2 questions. Each question has
4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Counting by critical paranthesis method
Suppose we have to arrange n-pairs of parenthesis in such a way that every arrangement is matched
i.e., number of left paranthesis are always greater than or equal to number of right paranthesis in any
length of the chain from start.
S is the number of ways of arranging n - right and n - left paranthesis in a row =
! n ! n
! n 2
.
Let T be the arrangement of (n + 1) right and (n 1) left paranthesis =
)! 1 n ( )! 1 n (
! ) n 2 (
+
.
It can be shown that set of mismatched arrangements of paranthesis in S has bijective relation with
the set of arrangements of T.
Since the set of mismatched arrangements in S has bijective relation with the set of arrangements in T.
number of the mismatched arrangements in S =
)! 1 n ( )! 1 n (
! n 2
+
Number of matched arrangements in S =
! n ! n
! n 2

)! 1 n ( )! 1 n (
! n 2
+
=
! ) 1 n ( ! n
! n 2
+
RESONANCE
MATHEMATICS
53. The number of ways in which 4 pairs of paranthesis be arranged so that every arrangement
is matched is:
(A) 3 (B)
5
C
4
8
(C)
8
C
4
(D)
8
C
5
54. If a stamp vendor sells tickets of 1 rupee each and there are 3 persons having 1 rupee coin and 3 having
2 rupee coin standing in a row. Then the probability that stamp vendor do not run out of change if he
does not have any money to start with is (assume each person will purchase one stamp)
(A)
4
1
(B)
2
1
(C)
4
3
(D) None of these
The curve which is touched by each member of a series of lines, which are all drawn to satisfy some given
condition is called the envelope of these lines.
The envelope of the straight line x + my + 1 = 0 where the quantities and m are connected by the relation
a
2
+ bm
2
+ 2gm + 2f+ 2hm+ c = 0 can be obtained by removing m or from the condition with the help
of the line x + my + 1 = 0. This gives us a quadratic in one of the parameters or m. Further make
discriminant of that quadratic equal to zero to get required envelope.
55. If 2m +
2
3m
2
+ 1 = 0, then the variable line x + my 1 = 0 always touches a fixed
(A) circle (B) parabola (C) ellipse (D) hyperbola
56. The locus of the points from which two perpendicular tangents can be drawn to the curve obtained in the
above question is
(A) x
2
+ y
2
= 8 (B) x = 1 (C) x
2
+ y
2
= 2 (D) x = 0
RESONANCE
MATHEMATICS
SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type
a double digit integer, ranging from 00 to 99. The appropriate bubble below
57. Consider a family of circles passing through two fixed points A(3, 7) and B(6, 5). The chord in which the
circle x
2
+ y
2
4x 6y 3 = 0 cuts each member of family of circles passes through a fixed point (a, b).
Find the numerical value of a + 3b.
58. If eccentricity of ellipse
1
a 4 a
y
a
x
2
2
2
2
=
+
+
is less than
2
1
, and complete set of values of a is
( ) ) , ( , , then find the value of | + |
59. In a town of 10,000 families it was found that 40% families buy newspaper A, 20% families buy newspaper B
and 10% families buy newspaper C, 5% families buy A and B, 3 % buy B and C, 4% buy A and C and 2%
families buy all the three news papers. If probability of families to buy only newspaper B is
100
, then find the

value of .
RESONANCE
MATHEMATICS
60. If C
n
C
n2
+ C
n1
C
n3
+ C
n2
C
n4
+ ...+ C
3
C
1
+ C
2
C
0
=
2n
C
n
where C
i
=
n
C
i
, e N, then find the value
of .
61. If f(x) =
4 3 2
3 2
x x 2 ) x 1 ( n x 2
x cx bx x sin a
+ +
+ +
, when x = 0 and f(x) is continuous at x = 0, find value of 200 f(0).

62. If
}
+
3
x x
dx
= x a + b ) x (
3
+ ) x ( c
6
+ d n ) 1 x (
6
+ + e, e being arbitrary constant then find the
value of 20a + b + c + d.
63. If equation of the plane through the straight line
2
1 x
=
3
2 y
+
=
5
z
and perpendicular to the plane
x y + z + 2 = 0 is ax by + cz + 4 = 0, then find the value of a
2
+ b
2
+ c
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filled in by the Candidate.
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, then find the

, when x = 0 and f(x) is continuous at x = 0, find value of 200 f(0).

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