ICET - 2009

INSTRUCTIONS BOOKLET
(to be retained by the candidate)
Last date for submitting Application Form to
The Convener, ICET - 2009
Besides Mechanical Engineering Department,
Andhra University College of Engineering, Time and Date of Entrance
Test:
Visakhapatnam - 530 003 (A.P.) 10.00 A.M. to 12.30 P.M.
Up to 5.00 p.m. on 28-03-2009 (Saturday) without late fee. 9th May, 2009 (Saturday)
With a late fee of Rs.500/- up to 5.00 p.m on 10-04-2009 (Friday).
With a late fee of Rs.2,000/- up to 5.00 p.m on 17-04-2009 (Friday).
In terms of orders issued by the Government of Andhra Pradesh and the proceedings by A.P. State Council of Higher Education, Hyderabad,
applications are invited for appearance at the integrated Common Entrance Test for admission into 1st year MBA/MCA Degree Course for the
academic year 2009-2010 in the following universities and their affiliated colleges offering MBA/MCA Programme.
1. Acharya N.G. Ranga Agricultural University (ANGRAU), 2. Acharya Nagarjuna University (ANU), 3. Adikavi Nannaya
University (AKNU), 4. Andhra University (AU), 5. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Open University (BRAOU), 6. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
University (BRAU), 7. Dravidian University (DU), 8. JNT University, Ananthapur (JNTU-A), 9. JNT University, Hyderabad
(JNTU-H), 10. JNT University, Kakinada (JNTU-K), 11. Kakatiya University (KU), 12. Krishna University (KrU), 13. Mahatma
Gandhi University (MGU), 14. Osmania University (OU), 15. Palamur University (PU), 16. Rayalaseema University (RU), 17.
S.K. University (SKU), 18. S.V. University (SVU), 19. Satavahana University (SU), 20. Sri Padmavati Mahila Viswavidyalayam
(Women’s University) (SPMU), 21. Telangana University (TU), 22. Vikrama Simhapuri University (VSU), 23. Yogi Vemana
University (YVU).
The Candidates are advised to submit the duly filled in Application Form for Entrance Test by Speed Post through the Head Post Offices or
delivered in person at the Office of The Convener, ICET-2009, Andhra University College of Engineering, Andhra University,
Visakhapatnam - 530 003 (A.P.) on or before stipulated date.

INSTRUCTIONS CONCERNING ENTRANCE TEST

1. ELIGIBILITY FOR APPEARANCE AT THE COMMON ENTRANCE TEST

a) The candidates should be Indian Nationals and should satisfy local/non-local status requirements laid down in the Andhra Pradesh
Educational Institutions (Regulations of Admission) Order, 1974 and amended up-to-date (As per GO.Ms No. 108, Higher Education
Dept. dated 30-07-2005).
b) The candidates other than Indian Nationals should satisfy the rules of the concerned universities.
c) A pass (or) appearance at the final year examination of Bachelor's Degree (except BOL and BFA) of any University in Andhra
Pradesh or any other university recognized as equivalent thereto.
d) The candidates seeking admission into MBA course should have passed a Bachelor's Degree Examination of not less than three years
duration from any recognized university or equivalent thereof besides passing SSC or equivalent examination with Mathematics as one
of the subjects.
e) The candidates seeking admission into MCA course should have passed Bachelor's Degree Examination of not less than 3 years
duration in any discipline with Mathematics at 10+2 level (OR) should have passed Bachelor's Degree Examination of not less than 3
years duration in any discipline with Mathematics as one of the subjects.
f) The candidates who are appearing for the final year degree examination shall also be eligible to appear for ICET-2009.
g) Admission into any college depends on its Recognition Affiliation by the respective statutory bodies.
2. SCHEDULE OF DATES:
a) Commencement of sale of application forms : 26-02-2009
b) Last date for the sale & receipt of filled in applications (without late fee) : 28-03-2009 up to 5.00 P.M.
c) Last date for the sale& receipt of filled in applications (with a late fee of Rs.500/- : 10-04-2009 up to 5.00 P.M.
through D.D in favour of The Secretary APSCHE, payable at Hyderabad )
d) Last date for the sale& receipt of filled in applications (with a late fee of Rs.2,000/- : 17-04-2009 up to 5.00 P.M.
through D.D in favour of The Secretary APSCHE, payable at Hyderabad )
e) Date and time of Entrance Test. : 09-05-2009 (Saturday),
from 10.00 A.M.to 12.30 P.M

3. COST OF APPLICATION FORM FOR ENTRANCE TEST : Rs.250/-

(inclusive of Registration fee and Test fee)
4. REGIONAL CENTRES FOR ENTRANCE TEST:
The Convener reserves the right to add or delete any centre from the list and allot accordingly:
Code Place Code Place Code Place Code Place
11 Anantapur 16. Kakinada 21. Nalgonda 26. Srikakulam
12. Bhimavaram 17. Karimnagar 22. Nellore 27. Tirupati
13. Guntur 18. Khammam 23. Nizamabad 28. Vijayawada
14. Hyderabad 19. Kurnool 24. Ongole 29. Visakhapatnam
15. Kadapa 20. Mahabubnagar 25. Rajahmundry 30. Warangal
5. The application form must be affixed with an attested Black & White passport size photograph taken after 01-01-2009. The computerised
ICR summary sheet must be pasted with unattested identical Black & White photograph.
6. Candidates indulging in Impersonation are liable for prosecution, inviting a punishment of imprisonment for 3 to 7 years with or without
fine ranging from Rs.5,000/- to Rs.20,000/-
7. The Convener ICET-2009 reserves the right to reject the application of the candidate at any stage if;
(a) the application is incomplete or filled by others : (b) the application is not signed; (c) the candidate fails to satisfy the eligibility
conditions, (d) any false or incorrect information is furnished; (e) the entries in the application form are illegible; and (f) the application is
received after the last date and time notified.
No correspondence for whatsoever reason will be entertained with regard to rejection of application
8. Any change whatsoever including that of Caste/Community/Status of category and change of examination centre made in the application
form will not be permitted once the form is received by the Convener. As per G.O.Ms. No. 58 Social Welfare Dept., Govt. of A.P. Dt.
12.5.1998, the candidates claiming admission into this course under reserved quota meant for SC, ST and BC are required to produce
Integrated Community Certificate issued by the competent authority.
9. MEDIUM OF TEST : English only for Section-C and English & Telugu for Section-A & Section-B of the question paper.
10. The Original Hall Ticket will be sent only by post, and will not be issued to the candidate in person. The Convener will not be held
responsible for non-receipt or postal delay of the Hall Ticket. The candidate has to ensure affixing of postal stamps on envelops provided.
11. In case of non-receipt of Original Hall Ticket, a Duplicate Hall Ticket will be issued to the candidate by the Convener at his office or by
the Chief Superintendent of the test centre concerned to which the candidate is allotted, two days before the entrance test during office
hours on production of the following.
(i) Acknowledgement Card; (ii) Two passport size photographs duly attested by Gazetted Officer with stamp (iii) Demand Draft for Rs.
250/- (Rupees two hundred and fifty only) drawn in favour of the Convener, ICET-2009 payable at any Nationalised Bank in
Visakhapatnam.
12. ICET RESULTS
a) Qualifying Marks for ICET-2009 - The qualifying percentage of marks in the Entrance Test 25% (i.e. 50 marks out of total 200
marks). However, for candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes, no minimum qualifying percentage of marks is
prescribed.
b) Ranking :Candidates will be given State-wide ranks in the order of merit at the ICET - 2009. For the preparation of merit list, in case
more than one student scores the same ranks at ICET, the tie will be resolved as follows:
(i) By considering the marks scored in Section-A
(ii) If the tie persists, marks obtained by a student in Section-B will be taken into consideration.
(iii) If the tie still persists, the tie will be resolved by taking into account the age of the candidate giving the older candidate
priority.
c) Rank obtained in ICET - 2009 is valid for admission into MBA/MCA Course (Full Time / Part Time / Evening / Distance Model of
all universities in Andhra Pradesh for the academic year 2009-2010 only.
d) Evaluation : Every care will be taken to avoid errors in the evaluation, checking, scrutiny, tabulation and ranking. However, request
for re-verification will be entertained on payment of Rs.1000/- by D.D. drawn in favour of the Convener, ICET – 2009 (payable at
Visakhapatnam drawn on any Nationalized Bank), within fifteen days from the date of declaration of results. After this date no
request will be entertained.
e) Rank card will be sent to the candidate by post. Duplicate Rank Card will be issued on payment of Rs.50/- by
D.D. drawn in favour of the Convener, ICET-2009 payable at Visakhapatnam drawn on any Nationalized Bank.
13. The candidates should preserve the Hall Ticket and Rank Card which will have to be produced for verification, at the time of
admission.
14. The answer scripts of candidates taking the ICET-2009 will be preserved for six months from the date of announcement of ICET-2009
results.
15. The conduct of ICET-2009 is subject to orders and instructions issued from time to time by the Govt, of Andhra Pradesh and A.P. State
Council of Higher Education.
16. All disputes arising out of any matter concerning ICET-2009 shall be subject to the jurisdiction of AP High Court only. In such disputes,
only the Convener, ICET-2009 and the Secretary, APSCHE can be impleaded as respondents.
SYLLABUS AND INFORMATION ABOUT THE TEST
GENERAL INFORMATION: The test is designed to measure the candidate's ability to think systematically, to employ the verbal and
mathematical skills and to assess his/her aptitude for admission into MBA/MCA programme. The Test emphasises accuracy. Therefore, the
candidate is required to go through the instructions carefully. This is an objective type test and the questions are of multiple choice. Out of the
given options, the candidate has to choose the correct answer. If the Candidate gives more than one answer to any question, such answers will be
ignored while awarding marks.
PATTERN OF THE TEST: The test consists of 200 questions of one mark each in the following topics.
No. of Questions
Section-A: Analytical Ability
(i) Data Sufficiency 20 Duration of
(ii) Problem Solving 55 The Test :
Section-B: Mathematical Ability
(i) Arithmetical Ability 35 2 1/2 Hours
(ii) Algebraical and Geometrical Ability 30
(iii) Statistical Ability 10
(150 minutes)
Section-C: Communication Ability
(i) Vocabulary 10
(ii) Business and Computer Technology 10
(iii) Functional Grammar 15
(iv) Reading Comprehension 15
Total 200
I. IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
1. Candidates are directed to carry to the examination hall the following:
(a) Ball Point Pen (Blue or Black); (b) One or Two HB Pencils; (c) Eraser (Rubber) and (d) Sharpener
2. Besides the items listed above, the candidate should not bring any other material including the instructions booklet, Papers, Cell
Phones, etc., into the examination hall. Any candidate found in possession of any forbidden material, will be sent out of the
examination hall.
3. Candidates must remain seated in their allotted places till the completion of the examination. In no case they will be allowed to leave
the examination hall till the end of the examination. Before leaving the examination hall, the candidates must return both the
Question Paper Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator.
4. Every candidate appearing for ICET – 2009 shall be provided with a specially designed Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer sheet on
which the candidate has to mark the answer and other relevant data. The method of marking the answers is illustrated in this section.
Candidates are advised to go through the instructions given for marking the answers and other entries on the Optical Mark Reader
(OMR) answer sheet thoroughly and practice the same at their residence which should make it easy for them to answer in the
examination hall.
5. The Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer sheet should be handled carefully by the candidates. They are advised not to fold, wrinkle or
tear the answer sheet under any circumstance. Further, the candidates are advised not to scribble or make any marks on the answer
sheet except marking the answers and other relevant data at the appropriate place on the answer sheet. Any violation of these
instructions will automatically lead to disqualification of the candidate.
6. Candidates shall note that they will not be given a second blank Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer sheet under any circumstance.
Hence they are advised to be careful while handling their answer sheet.
7. Candidates shall read carefully the instructions before starting to answer the questions.
8. The question paper booklet given to the candidate shall consist of 200 multiple choice type questions in three different sections with
four responses given to each question, out of which only one response is correct for the given question. Candidates shall mark the
correct answer in Optical Mark Reader (OMR) answer sheet by darkening the appropriate circle with HB pencil. They should not use
Ball Point Pen for this purpose under any circumstance.
II. Instructions to fill up OMR answer sheet:
1. Follow the Instructions given on the OMR answer sheet. Fill up information and darken all the relevant circles on the OMR answer
sheet carefully, otherwise your answer sheet will become invalid.
2. Use HB Pencil only for darkening the circles for information and answering on the answer sheet. Use Ball Point Pen wherever directed
on the answer sheet to write information.
Example :

9 ×
Correct method of Wrong method of Wrong method of Wrong method of Wrong method of
Darkening Darkening Darkening Darkening Darkening
3. Please darken the most appropriate response chosen by you, only in the corresponding circle against the number corresponding to the
question, you are attempting.
4. Please do not make any stray marks ELSEWHERE on the Answer Sheet, ELSE the Answer Sheet will become invalid.
5. If you wish to change an answer, please ERASE COMPLETELY the already darkened circle and then darken a new circle.

CHECK LIST FOR THE CANDIDATES

I. If you have passed the qualifying Examination

Enclose Xerox copies of the Certificates in the order given below with your application : (DO NOT ENCLOSE ORIGINAL
CERTIFICATES)

1. Provisional /Degree Certificate of the Qualifying Examination

2. Memorandum of Marks
3. S.S.C. Certificates showing Date of Birth
4. Integrated Community Certificate (if belong to SC/ST/BC)

II. If you are appearing for final year of the qualifying examination in March/April, 2009, enclose the following :
1. A Certificate from the Principal of the College where the candidate is appearing for the final year examination or any other evidence to show
that the candidate is appearing for final year examination in March/April, 2009.
2. Xerox copies of Certificates mentioned against serial Nos. 3 and 4 above.
Note: 1. Ensure that you have filled in all the particulars required in the Application Form and in the ICR Summary Sheet and that the
information is identical. Write your address legibly on the computerised ICR Summary Sheet. Fill your address on the
acknowledgement card and affix the required postage stamp. Affix the required postage stamps on the hall ticket cover and rank card
cover. Send the material to the Convener at the earliest in the envelope supplied (Don't send the instruction booklet)
2. DO NOT staple, wrinkle, scribble, tear, wet or fold the ICR summary sheet.
 ICET-2009 APPLICATION FORMS ARE SOLD AT THE FOLLOWING HEAD POST OFFICES

ADILABAD CHILAKALURIPETA JANGAON MANCHERIAL PEDDAPALLY TADEPALLIGUDEM

ADONI CHIRALA JANGAREDDYGUDEM MANDAPETA PRODDATUR TANUKU
ALLAGADDA CHITTOOR KAKINADA MANGALAGIRI PULIVENDULA TEKKALI
AMALAPURAM CHODAVARAM KAMAREDDY MARKAPUR RAJAHMUNDRY TENALI
AMUDALAVALASA KADAPA KANDUKUR ME DAK RAJAMPET TIRUPATI
ANAKAPALLY DARGAMITTA KANIGIRI MIRYALAGUDA REPALLE TRIMALGHERRY
ANANTAPUR DHARMAVARAM KARIMNAGAR NARASRAOPET RAZOLE VIJAYAWADA
ARMOOR ELURU KAVALI NARSIPATNAM RAMACHANDRAPURAM VIKARABAD
ARUNDALPET GADWAL KHAIRATABAD NALGONDA SAMARLAKOTA VISAKHAPATNAM
ATTILI GUDIWADA KHAMMAM NANDYAL SANGAREDDY VIZIANAGARAM
AVANIGADDA GUDUR KOTHAGUDEM NELLORE SATTENAPALLY WALTAIR R.S.
BAPATLA GUNTAKAL KOTHAPET NIZAMABAD SECUNDERABAD WANAPARTHY
BHADRACHALAM HANAMKONDA KOWUR NUZIVIDU SIDDIPET WARANGAL
BHIMAVARAM HINDUPUR KURNOOL ONGOLE SRIKAKULAM
BHONGIR HYDERABAD GPO MACHILIPATNAM PALAKOLLU SRIKALAHASTHI
BOBBILI HYDERABAD JUBILEE HILLS MADANAPALLY PALAMANER ST JEDCHERLA
BUCKINGHAMPET HUZURABAD MAHABOOBNAGAR PARKAL ST. KACHIGUDA
CHANDRAGIRI JAGTIAL MAHABUBABAD PARVATHIPURAM SURYAPET

AT ALL THE POST OFFICES LOCATED IN UNIVERSITY CAMPUSES IN ANDHRA PRADESH

AT THE AUTHORISED e-seva CENTRES IN ANDHRA PRADESH

SYLLABUS AND MODEL QUESTION PAPER OF THE TEST

(General Information: 200 Questions: 200 Marks: Time 150 minutes)

Section-A: Analytical Ability: 75Q (75 Marks)
1. Data Sufficiency: 20Q (20 Marks)
A question is given followed by data in the form of two
statements labeled as i and ii. If the data given in i alone is
sufficient to answer the question then choice (1) is the correct
answer. If the data given in ii alone is sufficient to answer the
question the choice. (2) is the correct answer. If both i and ii
put together are sufficient to answer the question but neither
statement alone is sufficient, then choice (3) is the correct
answer, if both i and ii put together are not sufficient to answer
the question and additional data is needed, then choice (4) is
the correct answer.
2. Problem Solving 55Q (55 Marks)
a) Sequences and Series 25Q (25 Marks)
Analogies of numbers and alphabet, completion of blank spaces
following the pattern in a:b::c:d relationship; odd thing out:
missing number in a sequence or a series.
b) Data Analysis 10Q (10 Marks)
The data given in a Table, Graph, Bar diagram, Pie Chart, Venn
Diagram or a Passage is to be analyzed and the questions
pertaining to the data are to be answered.
c) Coding and Decoding Problems 10Q (10 Marks)
A code pattern of English Alphabet is given. A given word or a
group of letters are to be coded or decoded based on the given
code or codes.
d) Date, Time & Arrangement Problems 10Q (10 Marks)
Calendar problems, clock problems, blood relationships,
arrivals, departures and schedules, seating arrangements,
symbol and notation interpretation.
time, distance and work problems, areas and volumes,
mensuration, modular arithmetic.
II. Algebraical and Geometrical Ability 30Q (30 Marks)
Statements, Truth tables, implication converse and inverse,
Tautologies-Sets, Relations and functions, applications -
Equation of a line in different forms.
Trigonometry - Trigonometric ratios, Trigonometric ratios of
standard angles, (0°, 30°, 45°, 60°, 90°, 180°): Trigonometric
identities: sample problems on heights and distances,
Polynomials; Remainder theorem and consequences; Linear
equations and expressions; Progressions, Binomial Theorem,
Matrices, Notion of a limit and derivative; Plane geometry -
lines, Triangles, Quadrilaterals, Circles, Coordinate
geometry-distance between points.
III. Statistical Ability: 10Q (10 Marks)
Frequency distributions, Mean, Median, Mode, Standard
Deviations, Correlation, simple problems on Probability.
Section-C: Communication Ability: 50Q (50 Marks)
Objectives of the Test
Candidates will be assessed on the ability to
1. identify vocabulary used in the day-to-day communication.
2. understand the functional use of grammar in day-to-day
communication as well as in the business contexts.
3. identify the basic terminology and concepts in computer and
business contexts (letters, reports, memoranda, agenda,
minutes etc.).
4. understand written text and drawing inferences.

Part 1. Vocabulary 10Q (10M)

Section -B: Mathematical Ability 75Q (75 Marks) Part 2. Business and Computer terminology 10Q (10M)
I. Arithmetical Ability 35Q (35 Marks) Part 3. Functional Grammar 15Q (15M)
Laws of indices, ratio and proportion; surds; numbers and Part 4. Reading Comprehension (3 Passages) 15Q (15M)
divisibility, l.c.m. and g.c.d; Rational numbers, Ordering.;
Percentages; Profit and loss; Partnership, Pipes and cisterns,

MODEL QUESTION PAPER appropriate choice form (1) to (4) as per the following
guidelines.
SECTION A
(1) If the statement i alone is sufficient to answer the question;
Analytical Ability
(2) If the statement ii alone is sufficient to answer the question;
(i) Date Sufficiency (3) If both the statements i and ii are sufficient to answer the
question but neither statement along is sufficient.
In each of the questions numbered 1 and 2, the question is
(4) If both the statements i and ii together and not sufficient to
followed by data in the form of two statements labeled as i and
answer the question and additional data is required.
ii. You must decide whether the data given in the statements are
sufficient to answer the questions. Using the data, make an
1. What is the value of the non-negative integer x? 2. The ratio of the area of square of side ‘a’ to the area of an
(i) 2x is odd (ii) 3x is odd equilateral triangle of side ‘a’ is
(1) 4: 3 (2) 2: 3 (3) 3 :2 (4) 3 :4
2. What is the length of the train?
(i) It crosses a pole in 8 seconds. 3. If in a group of people, m persons can speak Telugu, n persons
(ii) It crosses a bridge of length 100 m in 12 seconds. can speak Tamil and t persons can speak both Tamil and
Telugu, then, the number of persons who can speak either
(i) Problem solving Telugu or Tamil is
a) Sequence and Series (1) m-n+1 (2) m-n-t (3) m+n-1 (4) n-m+t

Note: In each of the questions numbered 3 and 4, a sequence of 4. If a:b 1; 3 and b:c = 2:5, then, a:b:c =
numbers or letters that follow a definite pattern is given. Each (1) 1:3:5 (2) 1:6:5 (3) 2:6:15 (4) 6:2:15
question has a blank space. This has to be filled with the correct
answer chosen from the given four options to complete the (ii) Algebraical and Geometrical Ability
sequence without breaking the pattern. 5. If one root of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 is double the other
root, then
3. AZBY, CXDW …………………. GTHS (1) b2 = 9ac (2) 2b2 = 3abc (3) b = 2a (4) 2b2 = 9ac
(1) EXUV (2) EVFU (3) EVRU (4) EVSU
6. Equation of the line passing through the point (2, -3) and
4. 9, 19, 40, ………………, 146 perpendicular to the line segment joining the points (1, 2) (-1, 5)
(1) 70 (2) 59 (3) 69 (4) 64 is
(1) 2x-3y-13 = 0 (2) 2x-3y-9 = 0
Note: In questions 5 and 6 pick the odd thing out (3) 2x-3y-11 = 0 (4) 2x-3y-7 = 0
5. (1) 65 (2) 126 (3) 217 (4) 343
7. If (0, 0), (2, 2) and (0, a) form a right angled isosceles triangle,
6. (1) BFH (2) MQS (4) GJL (4) NRT then a =
(1) 4 (2) -4 (3) 3 (4) -3
b) Data Analysis
(iii) Statistical Ability:
Note: The following figure has four intersecting circles, each 8. The mean deviation of the values 21, 23, 25, 28, 30, 32, 38, 39,
representing a group of persons having the quality written 46, 48 from the mean is
against it. Study the figure carefully and answer questions 7 and (1) 7.6 (2) 6.7 (3) 7.8 (4) 8.7
8.
Hard-working Intelligent 9. Eight coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability of
A B C getting at least six heads is
F 39 29 31 37
M (1) (2) (3) (4)
D E G 256 256 256 256
I
H
J K 10. If the standard deviation of a1, a2, …., an is s, then, the standard
Truthful L Honest deviation of a1 + b, a2 + b, …., an + b is
(1) s + b (2) s – b (3) s (4) sb
7. The region which represents people who are not honest but
possess all other three qualities, as denoted by SECTION – C
(1) B (2) F (3) D (4) M Communication Ability
Part – 1 : Vocabulary
8. The region which represents the people who are neither honest
Choose the correct meaning for the word:
nor truthful but are intelligent and hard working, is denoted by
(1) A (2) C (3) D (4) B 1. Alleviation
(1) Decoration (2) Exaggeration (3) Mitigation (4)
c) Coding and Decoding Problems: Aggravation

In a code TANK is written as SZOL and FRIEND is written as Fill in the blank choosing the correct word:
EQHFOE. Find the process of coding and answer the question 9.
2. The old lady is an …………. Story-teller
(1) adept (2) adopt (3) adapt (4) adrift
9. The code for ZENITH is
(1) YDMJUI (2) ADMJUI (3) YFMJUI (4) ADMJUG
Part – 2 : Business and Computer Technology
d) Date, Time & Arrangement Problems: Choose the correct answer:
10. In a row of six persons, D and C are immediate neighbours of E. 3. An Actuary is
B is a neighbour of A only. A is the fourth from F. Who are on (1) One who presents himself
the two end points? (2) One who project himself
(1) F, B (2) F, C (3) B, D (4) C, A (3) One who works in a sanctuary
(4) One who makes calculations connected with insurance
SECTION-B
Mathematical Ability Part – 3 : Functional Grammar
Choose the correct answer:
(i) Arithmetical Ability: 4. A : Would you mind lending your umbrella?
1. A wire of length 132 cm is bent to form a rectangle whose sides B : Yes, I do.
are in the ratio 7:4. The area (in square cms) of the rectangle is In this conversation
(1) 4032 (2) 4230 (3) 100 (4) 3420 (1) B is willing to lend it to A (2) B excuses himself
(3) B is hesitant (4) B is annoyed by the request
5. “If wishes were horses, beggars would ride”. This sentence Fill in the blank with the appropriate phrase/verb/ preposition
(1) speaks of an utter impossibility 6. We had a pleasant conversation …………… a cup of tea.
(2) expresses a condition (1) with (2) on (3) over (4) during
(3) implies a difficult possibility
(4) states an absurdity 7. Some bottles are not suitable ……………. Recycling.
(1) for (2) with (3) to (4) in

Part-4 : Reading Comprehension

Read the following passage and answer questions 8 to 10

The overwhelming vote given by the greater part of the public has so far been in favour of entertainment which passes the time easily, and
satisfies that part of our imagination which depends on the more obvious kind of daydreams. You can argue that these daydreams are usually
substitutes for our own inactivity, ineffectualness, and lack of power or influence, so that we make up for what we secretly regard as our
deficiencies by watching the stimulating adventures of other people who are larger, stronger, more effective, or more beautiful than we are. The
conventional stars act the roles of other people who are larger, stronger more effective, or more beautiful than we are. The conventional West, or
in the jungles we will never visit (we would not dare to, most of us, if we could), or in the underworld of great cities where crime and violence
may not pay in the end, but are very exciting to watch if your youth is being spent in the day-to-day routine of school or office, on the one hand,
or in the kitchen and living - room of 39 Blank St, on the other.

Whether we admit it to ourselves or not, most of us are very conscious of deficiencies in our looks, our clothes, and the circumstances of our
homes. But on the screen we can feast our eyes on people selected to appear because of their good looks, dressed in expensive and sometimes
extravagantly showy clothes, and moving about most of the time in the plushy environment of wealth. What you cannot have yourself, at least
you can continuously look at surrounding other people, and, who knows, one day you may have these things too, like the stars who have come
up from nowhere but now earn large fortunes!

8. Why do we enjoy films in which there are larger-than-life characters?

(1) We don't like films to be true to life
(2) We like the big screen.
(3) Art is not for art's sake
(4) They enable us to compensate ourselves for our shortcomings.

9. Why do we enjoy films based on crime and violence?

(1) Human beings admire criminals.
(2) They provide for us with some relief from the boredom of routine life
(3) Crime and violence have become part of our life.
(4) All human beings are sadists.

10. What aspect of human psychology the author does refer to in the second paragraph?
(1) Human beings enjoy the very sight of qualities and luxuries they are deprived of.
(2) Human psychology is very complex.
(3) Human beings love being poor.
(4) Human being admire themselves.
 ICET - 2009
ANDHRA UNIVERSITY: VISAKHAPATNAM – 530 003
MODEL OMR ANSWER SHEET
NOTE : USE BALL POINT PEN TO FILL UP THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION.

Hall Ticket Number Booklet Number

Booklet Code

Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

INSTRUCTIONS

1. Do not Fold, Tear, Wrinkle or Staple this sheet.

2. Use HB Pencil only to darken the circles corresponding to the answers.
3. Completely fill the circle corresponding to the answers with HB pencil.
4. If you wish to change the answer, erase it fully with eraser, and bubble your answer.
5. Bubble only one choice for each question as indicated.

Correct way of marking Incorrect way of marking

1. If your answer is (1) B C D A B C D

2. If your answer is (2) A C D A B C D

3. If your answer is (3) A B D A B D
4. If your answer is (4) A B C A B C D

6. Incase you do not follow the instructions, your answer sheet is likely to be rejected.
7. If the OMR Answer Sheet or Question Paper Booklet is defective, ask invigilator to change it at the
beginning of the Test.
8. Bubble the Booklet Code on Side-II.
9. Bubble all the required particulars before attempting the answers on Side-II.
 ICET - 2009
ANDHRA UNIVERSITY: VISAKHAPATNAM – 530 003
MODEL OMR ANSWER SHEET
Centre: A.U. COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, ANDHRA UNIVERSITY, VISAKHAPATNAM-(2901) 530 003
Bubble your Particulars
Name: BARKATAM SUDHEER KUM Booklet Code
A B C D
HALL TICKET NUMBER 140100130 Reservation Category

cd e f g h i j
PHOTO SC ST BC-A BC-B BC-C BC-D BC-E OC
Minority Community
c d e
Other
Muslim Christian Minority
ANSWERS
SECTION - A (1 – 75)
1 cdef 16 cdef 31 cdef 46 cdef 61 cdef
2 cdef 17 cdef 32 cdef 47 cdef 62 cdef
3 cdef 18 cdef 33 cdef 48 cdef 63 cdef
4 cdef 19 cdef 34 cdef 49 cdef 64 cdef
5 cdef 20 cdef 35 cdef 50 cdef 65 cdef
6 cdef 21 cdef 36 cdef 51 cdef 66 cdef
7 cdef 22 cdef 37 cdef 52 cdef 67 cdef
23
8 cdef cdef 38 cdef 53 cdef 68 cdef
24
9 cdef cdef 39 cdef 54 cdef 69 cdef
25
10 cdef cdef 40 cdef 55 cdef 70 cdef
26
11 cdef cdef 41 cdef 56 cdef 71 cdef
27
12 cdef cdef 42 cdef 57 cdef 72 cdef
28
13 cdef 29
cdef 43 cdef 58 cdef 73 cdef
14 cdef 30
cdef 44 cdef 59 cdef 74 cdef
15 cdef cdef 45 cdef 60 cdef 75 cdef
SECTION - B (76 – 150)
76 cdef 91 cdef 106 cdef 121 cdef 136 cdef
77 cdef 92 cdef 107 cdef 122 cdef 137 cdef
78 cdef 93 cdef 108 cdef 123 cdef 138 cdef
79 cdef 94 cdef 109 cdef 124 cdef 139 cdef
80 cdef 95 cdef 110 cdef 125 cdef 140 cdef
81 cdef 96 cdef 111 cdef 126 cdef 141 cdef
82 cdef 97 cdef 112 cdef 127 cdef 142 cdef
83 cdef 98 cdef 113 cdef 128 cdef 143 cdef
84 cdef 99 cdef 114 cdef 129 cdef 144 cdef
85 cdef 100 cdef 115 cdef 130 cdef 145 cdef
86 cdef 101 cdef 116 cdef 131 cdef 146 cdef
87 cdef 102 cdef 117 cdef 132 cdef 147 cdef
88 cdef 103 cdef 118 cdef 133 cdef 148 cdef
89 cdef 104 cdef 119 cdef 134 cdef 149 cdef
90 cdef 105 cdef 120 cdef 135 cdef 150 cdef
SECTION - C (151–200)
151 cdef 161 cdef 171 cdef 181 cdef 191 cdef
152 cdef 162 cdef 172 cdef 182 cdef 192 cdef
153 cdef 163 cdef 173 cdef 183 cdef 193 cdef
154 cdef 164 cdef 174 cdef 184 cdef 194 cdef
155 cdef 165 cdef 175 cdef 185 cdef 195 cdef
156 cdef 166 cdef 176 cdef 186 cdef 196 cdef
157 cdef 167 cdef 177 cdef 187 cdef 197 cdef
158 cdef 168 cdef 178 cdef 188 cdef 198 cdef
159 cdef 169 cdef 179 cdef 189 cdef 199 cdef
160 cdef 170 cdef 180 cdef 190 cdef 200 cdef