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1 Service Strategy
1.1 Generic
1. Setting policies and objectives is the primary concern of which of the following elements of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
4. Which of the following ITIL Core volumes covers the design principles and methods for converting strategic objectives in to portfolios of services and service assets?
a) Continual Service Improvement b) Service Transition
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3. By introducing budgeting and accounting for IT services, which of the following will be a DIRECT benefit?
a) Better value for money b) Clearer charging policies c) Improved financial forecasting d) Higher quality support
4. Which ITIL process is responsible for annually allocating the costs of underpinning contracts?
a) Capacity Management b) Availability Management c) Financial Management for IT services d) Service Level Management
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5. Which ITIL process is responsible for setting up the cost allocation system?
a) Availability Management b) Financial Management for IT Services c) Capacity Management d) Service Level Management
1. Which of the following identifies two Service Portfolio components within the Service Lifecycle?
a) Requirements Portfolio and Service Catalogue b) Service Knowledge Management System and Service Catalogue c) Service Knowledge Management System and Requirements Portfolio d) Requirements Portfolio and Configuration Management System
2. Application Portfolio 1. A database or structured Document is used to manage Applications throughout their Lifecycle. 2. The Application Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications. 3. The Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented as part of the Service Portfolio, or as part of the Configuration Management System. Which of the above statements is correct? a) 1 only
b) 2 & 3only c) All of above d) 1 & 2 only
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a) How should our resources and capabilities be allocated? b) What opportunities are there in the market? c) Why should a customer buy these services? d) What are the pricing or chargeback models?
1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about patterns of demand generated by the customers business?
a) They are driven by patterns of business activity b) It is impossible to predict how they behave c) It is impossible to influence demand patterns d) They are driven by the delivery schedule generated by capacity management
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2 Service Design
2.1 Generic
1. Which of the following will complete the Four P's of Service Strategy? 1. Perspectives 2. Positioning 3. Plan 4. ???
a) People b) Product c) Patterns d) Partners
2. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Design phase of the Lifecycle? 1. Hardware and Software design 2. Environmental design 3. Process design 4. Data design
a) 1, 3 and 4 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) All of the above d) 2, 3 and 4 only
4. Which aspect of Service Design is missing from the list below? 1. The design of services 2. The design of Service Management systems and tools 3. The design of technology architecture and management systems 4. The design of the processes required 5. ?
a) The design of Functions b) The design of Service Level Agreements c) The design of applications d) The design of measurement systems, methods and metrics
Which of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service Management software tool?
A. 1, 2 & 4 B. 2 & 3 C. All of them D. None of them
B. A Service Catalogue describes concisely and specifically the IT services that the IT
department can offer a customer. a) Only the first b) Only the second c) Both d) Neither
2. Which of the following best describes the goal of the Service Level Management?
a) To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements b) To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with Customers their minimum requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not exceed these targets
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c) To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuously improve on this through ensuring all services operate at maximum availability d) To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost
3. Service Level Requirements are used in the Service Level Management process. Which statement best describes what these Service Level Requirements represent? a) The amount of defined IT service that the customer requires. b) What the IT organization expects of the customer.
c) The conditions required for the Service Level Agreement (SLA). d) A paragraph of the SLA with additional specifications required to execute the SLA.
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c) Operational Level Agreements are between Service Level Management and external providers and are written in business language d) Service Level Agreements are between user departments and Service Level Management and are written in technical language
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2. Which ITIL process is responsible for determining the hardware necessary in order to support an application?
a) Capacity Management b) Configuration Management c) Change Management d) Availability Management
3. A steel company merges with a competitor. The IT departments, along with the IT infrastructures of both companies will be combined. Which process is responsible for determining the required disk and memory space required for applications running in the combined IT infrastructure?
a) c) d) Application Management Computer Operations Management Release Management
b) Capacity Management
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Which two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity Management?
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3
C. 3 & 4 D. 2 & 4
a) Services and Resources b) Services and Business Processes c) Resources and Business Processes d) Services, Resources and Business Processes
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1. In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary measures are taken, for example using an emergency power provision. Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind of measure?
a) Availability Management b) Capacity management c) Change Management d) Incident Management
2. Which if the following would you NOT expect to see in an IT Service Continuity Plan?
a) Contact lists b) The version number c) Full Service Level Agreements d) Reference to change control procedures
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5. Intermediate Recovery is initially concerned with which of the following time periods?
a) 4 to 24 hours b) More than 72 hours c) 24 to 72 hours d) 4 to 8 hours
2. Every time when Susan (the database administrator) checks the HR database, some records seem to be missing. After some further investigation it looks like someone has been accessing the data without proper authorization. We seem to have a/an _____ issue.
a) Availability b) Integrity c) Stability d) Confidentiality
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a) IT service continuity management b) Availability management c) Release management d) Information Security management
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3 Service Transition
3.1 Generic
2. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?
a) b) c) d) Data mining and workflow tools Measurement and reporting systems Release and Deployment technology Process Design A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. All of the above
d) The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB) 3. Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change Management. What information is this?
a) Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs) b) RFCs resulting from Known Errors c) RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change Management d) RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change Management
4. Changes are divided into categories. What criterion defines a category for a change?
a) The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial, significant, etc. b) The speed with which the change is made c) The sequence in which the change is made d) The Request for Change number that the change is assigned
6. In the change management process, which role is ultimately responsible for the entire process?
a) Change Advisory Board b) IT Manager c) Change Manager d) Change Coordinator
7. "...a change to the infrastructure that follows an established path, is relatively common, and is the accepted solution to a specific requirement or set of requirements." Which change are we referring to?
a) Standard Change b) Urgent Change c) Normal Change d) Service Request
8. For which ITIL process is the determination of priorities based on impact and urgency an essential activity
a) Change Management b) Configuration Management c) Financial Management for IT Services d) Service Level Management
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10. The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately described as?
a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and implemented in a controlled manner
12. What is missing in the 7 Rs of Change Management? Raised, Reason, Return, Risks, Resources, _________, _________
a) Responsible and Remedy b) Responsible and Relationship c) Remove and Refurbish d) Remove and Remedy
d) Change Authorization
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4. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is most accurately described as?
a) To understand the performance characteristics of assets and Configuration Items (CIs) in order to maximize their contribution to service levels b) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective
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c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they were designed to achieve d) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure and maintain accurate configuration records
5. Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?
a) Capacity Management b) Change Management c) Service Asset and Configuration Management d) Financial Management for IT services
6. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an interruption of a Configuration Item?
a) Availability Manager b) Incident Manager c) Problem Manager d) Service Level Manager
7. Optimize the service assets, IT configurations, capabilities and resources is the goal of which process area
a) IT Service Continuity Management b) Service Asset and Configuration Management c) Information Security Management d) Capacity Management
8. The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should: a) Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced
to avoid spending a lot of money b) Be as high level as possible c) Match the organizations requirement for information to be held d) Vary according to cost
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9. Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and depth of the information to be held in a CMDB?
a) You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of CIs b) You shouldnt collect detailed information about CIs that are not under Change Control
c) You shouldnt worry too much about Change Control; the main objective is
to get the database loaded d) You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff
10. Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational Management stage of the Continuity Management Life-cycle?
a) Develop Procedures and Initial Testing b) Education and Awareness c) Review, Audit and Assurance d) Ongoing Training and Testing
3. Which of the following statements fully describes the aim of Release and Deployment Management?
a) To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the Intended objectives
d) To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to the new or
changed service
4. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment Management process? a) To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans b) To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and support staff c) To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services d) To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the business
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. All of the above C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 3 and 4 only
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c) Service Solution
d) Service Release
4 Service Operation
1.1 Generic
1. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Operation? a) Thorough testing, to ensure that services are designed to meet
business needs b) To deliver and support IT services c) To manage the technology used to deliver services d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes
2. Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following? 1. Incident Management 2. Problem Management 3. Access Management 4. ? 5. ?
a) Event management and Request Fulfillment
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b) Event Management and Service Desk c) Facilities Management and Event Management d) Change Management and Service Level Management
3. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are CORRECT? 1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication between IT and its users for all operational issues 2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process
a) 2 only b) 1 only c) All of the above d) None of the above
4. Which activity is NOT a Service Desk activity? a) Relating an incident to a Known Error
b) Registering incidents c) Solving a problem d) Applying temporary fixes
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8. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to carrying out Service Operations?
a) The internal IT view is most important as Service Operations has to monitor and manage the infrastructure
2. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Event Management? a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the
appropriate control action b) The ability to implement monitoring tools c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
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a) A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT service. b) The term Event is also used to mean an Alert or notification created by any IT Service, configuration Item or Monitoring tool.
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3. What activity takes place immediately after recording and registering an incident?
a) Solving and restoring b) Analysis and diagnosis c) Matching d) Classification
5. Which one of the following is NOT necessarily a direct benefit of implementing a formal Incident Management process?
a) Improved user satisfaction b) Incident volume reduction c) Elimination of lost incidents d) Less disruption to both IT support staff and users
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3. What is the term for user requests which are classified as incidents, but do not involve a failure in the IT infrastructure?
a) Service Requests b) Non-standard Changes c) Error Reports d) Priority Requests
a) Co-ordination of all changes to the IT infrastructure. b) Approval of all changes / modifications made to the Known-Error database. c) Classification of Requests for Change (RFCs). d) Recognising user's requirements and subsequently implementing changes to the IT infrastructure.
6. Which ITIL process provides change proposals in order to eliminate structural errors?
a) Availability management b) Problem Management c) IT service continuity management d) Security Management
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7. Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident Management process in place?
a) Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there is no reliable information available b) No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to proactive Problem Management c) No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems d) Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate Incident Management information
1. Which of the following statements is true about Access Management? e) The Process responsible for allowing Users to make use of IT Services,
data, or other Assets.
h) All of the above 2. Which of the following statements are NOT included in Access Management? 1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services 2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized users 3. Defining security policies for system access 4. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to
a) 3 and 4 b) 1 and 3
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c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 2
1. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
a) What is the vision? b) Did we get there? c) Is there budget? d) Where are we now?
2. Consider the following statements: 1. CSI provides guidance on how to improve process efficiency and effectiveness 2. CSI provides guidance on how to improve services 3. CSI provides guidance on the improvement of all phases of the service lifecycle 4. CSI provides guidance on the measurement of processes and services Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) 1, 2 and 3 only d) All of the above
3. Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the following elements of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement b) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation c) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement d) Continual Service Improvement
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4. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
a) Assess the current business situation b) Understand high-level business requirements c) Agree on priorities for improvement d) Create and verify a plan
5. What activity happens as part of the Where should we be step of the CSI model
a) Define Measurable targets to achieve b) Baseline c) Assign Resources d) Verify the measures
1. When planning and implementing a Continual Service Improvement (CSI) initiative, which of the following benefits is LEAST useful in supporting a business case?
a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate capacity and performance modeling processes
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3. Deming - one of the people behind the philosophy of TQM (Total Quality Management) uses a cyclic model with four recognized stages. What is the right sequence of these stages?
a) Plan - Do - Review - Check b) Do - Check - Plan - Act c) Plan - Do - Check - Act d) Do - Check - Act Plan
4. What is the CORRECT order of the first four activities in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
a) Define what you should measure, define what you can measure, gather data and process data b) Gather data, process data, analyze data and present data c) What is the vision, where are we now, what do we want to be, how do we get there? d) Gather data, process data, define what you should measure and define what you can measure
5. Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service improvement (CSI) Model? a) Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate
the Solution; continually improve
6. Which of the following is the 4th step for the Continual Service improvement (CSI) Model?
a) What is the vision?
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1. What aspects would you NOT expect to see in a Service Level report designed for the customer?
a) The average utilization level of the Service Desk b) The level of availability realized and the time not available per period c) The percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target
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6 GENERIC
1. What is the RACI model used for?
a) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity b) Defining requirements for a new service or process c) Analyzing the business impact of an incident d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service Management
5. When analyzing an outcome for creation of value for customers, what attributes of the service should be considered?
a) Objectives, Metric, Desired outcome b) Business Objectives, IT objectives, Process metrics c) Desired outcome, Supplier metrics, IT objectives d) People, Products, Technology
6. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about Functions? a) They provide structure and stability to organizations b) They are self-contained units with their own capabilities and resources c) They rely on processes for cross-functional coordination and control d) They are costlier to implement compared to processes
A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1, 2 and 4 only C. All of the above D. None of the above
7. If an organization is able to become more proactive in its ITSM processes, what is likely to happen to support costs?
a) They are likely to increase gradually b) They are likely to increase dramatically c) They are likely to gradually reduce d) They are likely to reduce initially and then gradually return to current level
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15. Which of the following Roles is responsible for identifying opportunities for improvement?
a) Service Owner b) Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Manager c) Process Owner A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. All of the above D. d) 2 and 3 only
16. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in creating value?
a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production management b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery
17. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of the following?
a) Service Portfolio Management
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b) Demand Management c) Financial Management A. Service Operations B. Service Strategy C. Service Transition D. Continual Service Improvement
19. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of organizing Continual Service Improvement (CSI) using the RACI model? a) Facilitates clear communication and workflow practice across all parties
involved in the CSI program b) Clarifies the roles and responsibilities of individual in the CSI program which could otherwise be overlapping and confusing c) Identifies where internal Service Level Agreements (SLAs) can be established to implement CSI d) Provides a clear focus for matching the CSI processes to financial planning
20. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented within which of the following?
a) The Glossary of Terms b) A Service Level Agreement c) An Incident Management record d) A Configuration Item (CI)
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b) It is always documented in international standards c) It is something that is in wide industry use d) It is always based on ITIL
22. Consider the following statements: 1. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger 2. A characteristic of the Process is that it is performance driven and able to be measured Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
a) 1 only b) All of the above c) None of the above d) 2 only
23. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and Outsourcing delivery model options?
a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on external organization(s) resources b) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies on internal resources c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on application service provisioning
24. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve services?
a) To validate, direct, justify and intervene b) To validate, measure, monitor and change c) To validate, plan, act and improve d) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people
b) To help ensure that events are detected as quickly as possible c) To help enable different applications to work together
d) To help implement architectures that supports the business strategy 26. Consider the following statements: 1. Processes should be implemented in such a way that the Role and Function in an organization are defined 2. The RACI model is beneficial to design a Function Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
a) 1 Only b) Both of the above c) Neither of the above d) 2 only
27. Which of the following may be defined in a process? 1. Roles 2. Activities 3. Functions 4. Guidelines 5. Standards 6. Governance Framework
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only b) All of the above c) 1. 2, 5 and 6 only d) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
29. The Design Manager Is responsible for the overall coordination and deployment of quality solution designs for services and processes. Which of the following are NOT responsibilities included In this role?
a) Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages b) Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organization c) Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced d) Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the Service Design and supporting processes
d) The degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level Agreement
(SLA) are complied with.
32. The PDCA cycle can be used to plan and implement Service Management Processes:
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How many times should each stage of the cycle be visited? a) There should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should be
carried out multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement b) Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-CheckAct
34. According to ITIL The Service Level Management Process' has a responsibility to cover the following areas:
a) Monitoring and Reporting on Targets being met , service failures, total cost of providing the service, Resources being used and any shortfall, creating and updating the service catalogue b) Non negotiation on SLA c) 3rd party suppliers are ignored
35. DML is a
a) Data management library
b) Secure library where software that has been properly reviewed and
authorized is stored. c) Data Migration library
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36. Setting policies and objectives is the primary concern of which of the following elements of Service Life Cycle
a) Service Strategy b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
37. Which of the following statement is CORRECT? 1. Only one person can be responsible for an activity 2. Only one person can be accountable for an activity
a) All of the above b) 1 only c) 2 only d) None of the above
38. Business drivers and requirements for new services should be considered during?
a) Review of the router operating system patches b) Review of the current capabilities of IT service delivery c) The post implementation Review (PIR) of a change d) Decommissioning legacy servers
40. Identify the correct sequence of the CSI improvement cycle as per the PDCA
a) Identify Resources to perform the tasks
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b) Measure & Verify the performance c) Set the objectives d) Action on the CSI activities
44. An organization CORP is in need of a service from an external supplier. Two or more organizations come together to offer this service. It is called as
a) Multi-sourcing
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46. Staffs in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?
a) Extreme focus on responsiveness b) Extreme focus on cost c) Vendor focused d) Extreme internal focus
47. An IT department is seeking to set its prices to match those of external suppliers selling the same services. Which one of the following is the best description of this approach?
a) The going rate that is agreed with Customers b) Market rate c) Cost-plus d) Profitable
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48. Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational Management stage of the Continuity Management Life-cycle?
a) Develop Procedures and Initial Testing b) Education and Awareness c) Review, Audit and Assurance d) Ongoing Training and Testing
49. A remote site has recently had its network upgraded. The users are now complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems with capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?
a) Network Management b) The Service Desk c) Capacity Management d) Problem Management
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52. The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an organization resulting from disruption to critical business processes is:
a) Root Cause Analysis b) Business Impact Analysis c) Service Outage Analysis d) Component Failure Impact Analysis
QUESTION :1 Which of the following questions does guidance in Service Strategy help answer? 1: What services should we offer and to whom? 2: How do we differentiate ourselves from competing alternatives? 3: How do we truly create value for our customers? A.1 only B.2 only C.3 only D.All of the above Answer: D QUESTION :2. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Service Design Manager? A.Design and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages B.Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organisation C.Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced D.Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes Answer: A QUESTION :3. Which of the following are valid examples of business value measures? 1: Customer retention 2: Time to market 3: Service Architecture 4: Market share A.1 and 2 only
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B.2 and 4 only C.All of the above D.1, 2 and 4 only Answer: D
QUESTION :4. Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over time is part of which process? TestInside EX0-101 A.Service Portfolio Management B.Service Level Management C.Component Capacity Management D.Demand Management Answer: D QUESTION :5. The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is: A.To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services B.To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services C.To create and populate a Service Catalogue D.To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services Answer: D QUESTION :6. Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager? 1: Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) 2: Designing technology architectures to support the service 3: Ensuring required contracts and agreements are in place A.All of the above B.2 and 3 only C.1 and 2 only D.1 and 3 only Answer: D QUESTION :7. Which of the following is a good metric for measuring the effectiveness of Service Level Management? A.Customer satisfaction score B.Average number of daily Incidents managed by each service agent C.Number of services in the Service Portfolio
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TestInside EX0-101
QUESTION :8. Major Incidents require: A.Separate procedures B.Less urgency C.Longer timescales D.Less documentation Answer: A QUESTION :9. Which of the following should be done when closing an Incident? 1: Check the Incident categorization and correct it if necessary 2: Decide whether a Problem needs to be logged A.1 only B.Both of the above C.2 only D.None of the above Answer: B QUESTION :10. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment? A.To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them B.To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk C.To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services D.To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested Answer: B QUESTION :11. Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfilment process? A.The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses and software media) B.Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a pre-defined approval and qualification process exists C.Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the procedure for
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obtaining them D.Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards Answer: D QUESTION :12. How many numbered steps are in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) process? A.7 B.4 C.6 D.11 Answer: A QUESTION :13. Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management? A.Network Management and Application Management B.Technical Management and Application Management C.IT Operations Control and Facilities Management D.Facilities Management and Technical Management Answer: C QUESTION :14. The ITIL CORE publications are structured around the Service Lifecycle. Which of the following statements about the ITIL COMPLEMENTARY guidance is CORRECT? A.It is also structured around the Service Lifecycle B.It provides guidance to specific industry sectors and types of organization C.It consists of five publications D.It provides the guidance necessary for an integrated approach as required by ISO/IEC 20000 Answer: B QUESTION :15. Which of the following should be supported by technology? 1: Verification of Configuration Management System (CMS) data 2: Control of user desk-tops 3: Creation and use of diagnostic scripts 4: Visibility of overall IT Service performance A.2, 3 and 4 only B.1, 2 and 3 only C.1, 3 and 4 only D.All of the above Answer: D
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QUESTION :16. Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool? A.Knowledge B.Information C.Wisdom D.Data Answer: C QUESTION :17. The BEST Processes to automate are those that are: A.Carried out by Service Operations B.Carried out by lots of people C.Critical to the success of the business mission D.Simple and well understood Answer: D QUESTION :18. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Operation phase of the Lifecycle? 1: Identifying configuration of user desktop PCs when Incidents are logged 2: Control of user desk-top PCs 3: Create and use diagnostic scripts 4: Dashboard type technology A.1, 2 and 3 only B.All of the above C.1, 3 and 4 only D.2, 3 and 4 only Answer: B QUESTION :19. Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers? A.Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI) B.Customer and User satisfaction C.Understanding Service Requirements and Warranty D.Utility and Warranty Answer: D QUESTION :20. What is the Service Pipeline? A.All services that are at a conceptual or development stage, or are undergoing testing B.All services except those that have been retired C.All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA) D.All complex multi-user services Answer: A
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QUESTION :21. What are the types of activity within Demand Management? A.Activity based, Access Management B.Activity based, Business activity patterns and user profiles C.Analytical based, Business activity patterns and user profiles D.Analytical based, Shaping user behaviour Answer: B QUESTION :22. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition? A.To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported B.To provide training and certification in project management C.To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management D.To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a Release Answer: B QUESTION :23. Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media Library (DML)? A.A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held B.A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items (CIs) are stored and protected C.A database that contains definitions of all media CIs D.A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected Answer: B QUESTION :24. One organisation provides and manages an entire business process or function for another organisation. This is know as: A.Business Process Management B.Business Function Outsourcing C.Business Process Outsourcing D.Knowledge Process Outsourcing Answer: C QUESTION :25. Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
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A.Service Catalogue Management B.Service Level Management C.IT Service Continuity Management D.Capacity Management Answer: D QUESTION :26. What is the BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation? A.To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle B.To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services C.To design and build processes that will meet business needs D.To deliver and manage IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers Answer: D QUESTION :27. Availability Management is responsible for availability the of: A.Services and Components B.Services and Business Processes C.Components and Business Processes D.Services, Components and Business Processes Answer: A QUESTION :28. Which of the following is a sub-process of Capacity Management? A.Component Capacity Management B.Process Capacity Management C.Technology Capacity Management D.Capability Capacity Management Answer: A QUESTION :29. The group that authorises Changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the: A.Technical Management B.Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) C.Urgent Change Board (UCB) D.Urgent Change Authority (UCA) Answer: B QUESTION :30. Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management? A.To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the
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services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives B.To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service components that are compatible with each other C.To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate D.To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service Answer: A QUESTION :31. Which of the following is step 1 in the 7 Step Improvement Process? A.Prepare for action B.Define what you should measure C.Where are we now? D.Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement Answer: B QUESTION :32. Which of the following is NOT a FUNCTION? A.Application Management B.Service Desk C.Incident Management D.Technical Management Answer: C QUESTION :33. Which of the following BEST describes a Service Desk? A.A process within Service Operation providing a single point of contact B.A dedicated number of staff handling service requests C.A dedicated number of staff answering questions from users D.A dedicated number of staff handling Incidents and service requests Answer: D QUESTION :34. Which of these activities would you expect to be performed by a Service Desk? 1: Logging details of Incidents and service requests 2: Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
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3: Restoring service 4: Diagnosing the root-cause of problems A.All of the above B.1, 2 and 3 only C.1, 2 and 4 only D.2, 3 and 4 only Answer: B QUESTION :35. Which of the following functions would be responsible for management of a data centre? A.Technical Management B.Service Desk C.IT Operations Control D.Facilities Management Answer: D QUESTION :36. Governance is concerned with: A.Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of processes B.Ensuring that defined strategy is actually followed C.Reducing the total cost of providing services D.Ensuring that agreed Service Level Requirements are met Answer: B QUESTION :37. A risk is: A.Something that won't happen B.Something that will happen C.Something that has happened D.Something that might happen Answer: D QUESTION :38. Which of the following BEST describes when a Known Error record should be raised? A.A Known Error should not be raised until a temporary resolution or workaround has been found B.A Known Error should be raised at any time that it would be useful to do so C.As soon as it becomes obvious that a quick resolution of the Problem will not be found D.Immediately following the Problem resolution, so a permanent historical record of all actions is retained in case of a recurrence Answer: B QUESTION :39. IT Operations Management have been
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asked by a customer to carry out a non-standard activity, that will cause them to miss an agreed service level target. How should they respond? A.Refuse the request because they must operate the service to meet the agreed service levels B.Make a decision based on balancing stability and responsiveness C.Accept the request as they must support customer business outcomes D.They should escalate this decision to Service Strategy Answer: B QUESTION :40. Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service components? A.Service Level Management B.Service Portfolio Management C.Service Asset and Configuration Management D.Incident Management Answer: C QUESTION :41. A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within: A.The RACI Model B.A Release Package C.A Request Model D.The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle Answer: B QUESTION :42. Which of the following might be used to define how a future Problem or Incident could be managed? 1: Incident Model 2: Known Error Record A.1 only B.2 only C.Both of the above D.Neither of the above Answer: C QUESTION :43. Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes? A.Demand Management B.Incident Management C.Release and Deployment Management
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D.Request Fulfilment Answer: D QUESTION :44. Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organisation? A.The Service Level Manager B.The Business Relationship Manager C.The Service Owner D.The Service Continuity Manager Answer: C QUESTION :45. Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process? A.Overall business risk is optimised B.Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all Changes C.All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management System (CMS) D.All budgets and expenditures are accounted for Answer: D QUESTION :46. Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design? A.The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue B.The design of new or changed services C.The design of Market Spaces D.The design of the technology architecture and management systems Answer: C QUESTION :47. One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of service solutions. Which of the following does this include? A.Only capabilities needed and agreed B.Only resources and capabilities needed C.Only requirements needed and agreed D.Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed Answer: D QUESTION :48. Which of the following is a valid role in the RACI Authority Matrix?
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A.Configuration B.Consulted C.Complex D.Controlled Answer: B QUESTION :49. What is a RACI model used for? A.Performance analysis B.Recording Configuration Items C.Monitoring services D.Defining roles and responsibilities Answer: D QUESTION :50. Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define an organisational structure? A.RACI Model B.Service Model C.Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model D.Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model Answer: A QUESTION :51. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager? A.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate B.Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate C.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio D.Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue Answer: B QUESTION :52. Which of the following delivery strategies is described as, "Formal arrangements between two or more organisations to work together to design, develop, transition, maintain, operate and/or support IT services"? A.Outsourcing B.Application Service Provision C.Multi-sourcing D.Knowledge Process Outsourcing TestInside EX0-101 Answer: C QUESTION :53. To add value to the business, what are
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the four reasons to monitor and measure? A.Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene B.Report; Manage; Improve; Extend C.Manage; Monitor; Diagnose; Intervene D.Plan; Predict; Report; Justify Answer: A QUESTION :54. Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and Deployment? A.Early Life Support B.Service Test Manager C.Evaluation D.Release Packaging and Build Manager Answer: A QUESTION :55. What does a service always deliver to customers? A.Applications B.Infrastructure C.Value D.Resources Answer: C QUESTION :56. Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service? A.The Service Provider B.The Service Level Manager C.The Customer D.Resources Answer: A QUESTION :57. Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives? A.Service Design B.Service Transition C.Service Strategy D.Service Operation Answer: C QUESTION :58. Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services? A.Change Management B.Service Transition
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C.Service Strategy D.Service Design Answer: D QUESTION :59. Which of the following are benefits that implementing Service Transition could provide to the business? 1: Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements 2: Reduced cost to design new services 3: Improved success in implementing changes A.1 and 2 only B.2 and 3 only C.1 and 3 only D.All the above Answer: C QUESTION :60. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change? A.A Change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines B.A Change that correctly follows the required Change process C.A pre-authorised Change that has an accepted and established procedure D.A Change that is made as the result of an audit Answer: C QUESTION :61. Which of the following are activities that would be carried out by Supplier Management? 1: Management and review of Organisational Level Agreements (OLAs) 2: Evaluation and selection of suppliers 3: Ongoing management of suppliers A.1 and 2 only B.1 and 3 only C.2 and 3 only D.All of the above Answer: C QUESTION :62. Which stages of the Service Lifecycle does the 7 Step Improvement Process apply to? A.Service Operation B.Service Transition and Service Operation C.Service Design, Service Transition and Service Operation D.Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition,
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Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement Answer: D QUESTION :63. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Seven R's of Change Management? A.A set of questions that should be asked to help understand the impact of Changes B.A seven step process for releasing Changes into production C.A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing the success of a recent Change D.A definition of the roles and responsibilities required for Change Management Answer: A QUESTION :64. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? An Event could be caused by: 1: An exception to normal operation, such as a device exceeding a threshold or an unauthorized Configuration Item (CI) being detected on the network 2: Normal operation, such as a user logging into an application or an email reaching its intended recipient A.2 only B.1 only C.Both of the above D.Neither of the above Answer: C QUESTION :65. Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term Service Management? A.A set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services B.A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purpose C.The management of functions within an organisation to perform certain activities D.Units of organisations with roles to perform certain activities Answer: A QUESTION :66. Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and efficient use of:
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A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers B.People, Process, Products, Technology C.People, Process, Products, Partners D.People, Products, Technology, Partners Answer: C QUESTION :67. "Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services". These specialised organisational capabilities include which of the following? A.Applications and Infrastructure B.Functions and Processes C.Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue D.Markets and Customers Answer: B QUESTION :68. The left-hand side of the Service V Model represents requirements and specifications. What does the right-hand side of the Service V Model represent? A.Validation and Testing B.The business value that can be expected from a given service C.Performance and capacity requirements of services and IT infrastructure D.Roles and responsibilities required for an effective Service Management implementation Answer: A QUESTION :69. An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of services has started to suffer. What imbalance does this represent? A.Extreme focus on cost B.Extreme focus on quality C.Excessively proactive D.Excessively reactive Answer: A QUESTION :70. What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after: 1: What is the vision? 2: Where are we now? 3: Where do we want to be? 4: How do we get there?
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5: Did we get there? 6: ? A.What is the Return On Investment (ROI)? B.How much did it cost? C.How do we keep the momentum going? D.What is the Value On Investment (VOI)? Answer: C QUESTION :71. Order the following Continual Service Improvement (CSI) implementation steps into the correct sequence in alignment with the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model. 1: Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives 2: Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved 3: Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI 4: Implement CSI enhancement A.3-1-2-4 B.3-4-2-1 C.1-3-2-4 D.2-3-4-1 Answer: A QUESTION :72. Which activities are carried out in the "Where do we want to be?" step of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model? A.Implementing service and process improvements B.Aligning the business and IT strategies C.Creating a baseline D.Defining measurable targets Answer: D
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