Neuro Unit 4

L49 Control of Eye Movement

1. Which area of eye is responsible for high visual resolution? a. Fovea 2. Movements around the axis? a. X- vertical ; Y- horizontal; Z- torsion 3. Which nucleus/tract connects the 3 CNs for eye movement? a. Medial longitudinal fasciculus 4. Which gaze control centers are responsible for horizontal and vertical eye movements (respectively)? a. Horizontal- PPRF b. Vertical riMLF c. (both contain both excitatory and inhibitory burst neurons- code for pulse signals, dynamic phase) 5. Step signals (tonic position) are provided by which nuclei? a. Prepositus hypoglossi (horizontal saccades) b. Interstitial nucleus of cajal (vertical saccades) 6. Which cells provide tonic inhibition of burst cells during fixation? a. Omnipause cells 7. Distinguish between the Vestibular-ocular (a) and optokinetic (b) reflex response systems? a. Produce eye movements equal and opposite to head movement. b. Compensate for sustained or slow head movements, uses visual input from whole field (retinal slip), and terminate in nucleus of optic tract, project to vestibular n. 8. What is the role of the Superior Colliculus in eye movement? a. Contains retinopic map of contralateral visual space. Provides motor error coordinates (from sensory information). Input from cortical eye fields and project to brainstem gaze centers and frontal cortex via thalamus. Controls saccades. 9. Explain the role of frontal eye fields BA 8 and Parietal eye fields (posterior IPS)? a. BA 8- info regarding target location, volitional or memory guided saccades, projects to brainstem gaze centers and to superior colliculus

b. Parietal visual selection (attention), provides salience map, reflex saccades 10. Which cortical segment is responsible for shifting gaze/smooth pursuit? a. Extrastriate visual cortex (MT and MST)- provides info regarding target motion directly to DLPN and via FEF and posterior parietal cortex. DLPN encodes direction and velocity of pursuit. 11. Premotor neurons of which area are responsible for vergence and accommodation? a. Those in the supraoculomotor area of the midbrain 12. What eye movement defecits are expected in a PT where a stroke has affected the FEF (frontal eye fields)? a. Transient deviation of gaze to side of lesion, or difficulty in direction gaze to contralateral side. 13. Damage to the following will produce which eye movement deficits, respectively: flocculus, occulomotor vermis and fastigial nuclei, nodulus and ventral uvula, vestibulocerebellum? a. Flocculus- Ipsilateral smooth muscle impairment and inability to hold eccentric eye positions. b. Occulomotor vermis and fastigial nuclei- saccade dysmetria c. Nodulus and ventral uvula- periodic alternation nystagmus (PAN) or spontaneous horizontal nystagmus (ipsilesional) d. Vestibulocerebellum- involved in modulating VOR (velocity signal storage, gain adaption). Thus, VOR disturbances may result from vestibulocerebellar lesions. In class questions: 1. Which two cortical lobes contribute directly to saccades in eye movements (eye field areas)? a. Frontal and Parietal

L50 Somatosensory I

2. The type of sensation perceived is usually a function of or encoded by what and the process is called what and the magnitude is determined by what and called what?

a. The type of receptor responding, it is called population code. Magnitude is determined by frequency of APs, and is called frequency codes. 3. What is dynamic range? What is the process of recruitment called? a. The range of intensity of stimulus over which a receptor or its neuron will respond after reaching threshold. The process is called successive recruitment, where receptors with higher thresholds are recruited at higher stimulus intensities. 4. Where are rapidly adapting, low threshold receptors utilized? Slowly adapting, higher threshold? a. Rapid adapting, low threshold used tactile sensation, such as those of the dorsal columns. b. Slow adapting, high threshold are used in anterolateral system. 5. What types of sensations do dorsal columns carry? Where are these types of receptors found? a. Primary sensations of epicritic (discriminative) touch, vibration, and proprioception or position sense. Receptors are found primarily in skin, but also joints, muscles, tendons, deep fascia, mesenteries, and periosteum. 6. Sensory receptors are typically located in glabrous or hairy skin. What are the types of sensory receptors, and what type of sensations do they detect? a. Meissners- Rapidly adapting and detect transient stimuli such as events and motions. Along with Merkels, also detect texture. b. Pacinian- detect vibration and event on/off. Also present in dermis as deep tactile receptors, around muscles, bone and in peridontium. They respond to pressure, vibration, stretch, distension or tooth displacement. c. Ruffini endings also present in dermis as described above and have similar function. d. Merkel cell complexes and Ruffini endings are more slowly adapting and detect skin displacement and duration. They help to detect shear stress (motion, direction) and texture. e. Hair follicles are rapidly adapting and may be innervated by several different axons. This may allow some discrimination of motion, its direction or orientation and velocity. 7. The discriminative ability of an area of sensation (on skin) is determined by what? a. Determined by the size of the receptive field. (small fields on fingers, body larger) 8. The axons carrying tactile discrimination information are primarily direct projections of what? a. DRG, and travel in dorsal columns

9. What is the role of the postsynaptic posterior column pathway? a. Conveys nondiscriminative touch to the dorsal column nuclei, and help to define the event of sensory activation (contact/release). 10. Where does the first more complex processing of dorsal column information occur? a. Within the nucleus gracilis, cuneatus, and the more rostrally placed nucleus Z (conscious proprioception from the lower limb via spinocerebellars) 11. What does the term lateral inhibition refer to? a. The mechanism for focusing higher intensity input thorough the dorsal column nuclei to define edges and boundaries. Essential for two point discrimination tasks. 12. The neurons of the dorsal column nuclei ascend and form what after its axons cross the midline? a. Medial lemniscus 13. Where does the medial lemniscus ascend to? a. The somatosensory nuclei of the thalamus, the VPL 14. Describe the Trigeminal system, its major sensory nuclei and pathway. a. Trigeminal system in sensory for face. For tactile information and proprioception, the principal sensory nucleus and mesencephalic nucleus are the counterparts to the dorsal column nuclei. b. The principal nucleus is responsible for first order processing of receptive fields, similar to gracilis and cuneatus. c. Mesencephalic nucleus of V is in CNS (an exception) and carries modalities of proprioception to jaw muscles and other face muscles. First order processing for conscious sensation is processed in the thalamus. d. CN V sensory info is also projected to spinal trigeminal nuclei, which then send ipsi and contralateral info to dorsal and ventral trigeminothalamic tracts. Info is then sent from here to the VPM. 15. What is the pathway of VPM and VPL to the postcentral gyrus? a. Through internal capsule and superior thalamic peduncle in a somatotopic pattern. 16. Name the somatosensory cortex areas and their respective areas of the body from which the receive input. a. Area 1- responds to texture of an object detected by multiple fingers b. 2- golgi tendon organ c. 3a- muscle proprioception

d. 3b- receives information from cutaneous receptors related to size, shape and texture 17. What does the secondary somatosensory cortex (SII) do? Where does it project to? a. Receives info from both sides of body, permits tactile discriminative task that is learned with one hand to be performed by the other. b. Connects to insular corted, and from there to limbic system involved in the memory of tactile stimuli. 18. Which Parietal regions receive tactile inputs? a. Areas 5 and 7 are associated with sensory motor interrelationships (7- reaching for an object in the visual field. Area 5- joint receptors and position) In class questions: 1. What rapidly adapting peripheral receptor responds most specifically to stimulus onset and offset? a. Pacinian corpuscle 2. A lesion in VPM of thalamus would be expected to primarily disrupt what? a. Sensation to the contralateral face 3. A receptor can code the magnitude of a sensory stimulus: a. Within its dynamic range

L51 Somatosensory II- Protopathic Sensory Processing

1. Differentiate between protopathic and epicritic (discriminative) and proprioceptive sensation. a. Protopathic involves naked free nerve endings (non-encapsulated) conducting slow, higher threshold sensations. b. Epicritic touch involves encapsulated (meissner and pacinian), specialized nerve endings. 2. Differentiate between nociceptors and innocuous (non-noxious) receptors. a. Nociceptors detect pain, innocuous detect poorly localized sensation b. Innocuous- respond to rough, nondiscriminitive physical stimuli. Innocuous also have thermorecptors, responding with graded increase in temp., become sensitized. 3. What are the two major categories of Nociceptors and their functions? a. A-mechanical- respond to mechanical injury from tissue damage b. C-polymodal- respond to mechanical, thermal and chemical stimuli. 4. What types of receptors overlap C-polymodal and what are their functions? a. Thermo- high threshold receptor responding to levels of stimuli that can produce tissue damage.

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6. 7. 8.

9.

10.

11.

12. 13. 14.

15.

b. Chemo- respond to chemical irritant, including those produces in tissue damage, venoms, bradykinin, H+, ions, etc. What are Primary hyper, hyper, and secondary hyper algesia? a. Hyper- with tissue damage or repeated stimulation of free nerve endings, sensory specializations such as Meissners and Merkels show lowered thresholds b. Primary hyper- increased sensitization of free nerve endings due to increase of local tissue damage by products. c. Secondary hyper- results from changes in CNS, product of central sensitization (cells in dorsal horn acquire a lower threshold) The flare response (redness and swelling) is caused by what? a. Axon reflex- adjacent neurons to injured area are activated. What is allodynia? a. Normal stimuli evokes pain, as a result of central sensitization Which lamina do sensory neurons project to in the lateral dorsal horn? a. Lamina I, which then cross the midline to form the anterolateral tract on the opposite side. What are the two pathways for anterolateral system to reach the somatosensory cortex? a. Direct (neospinothalamic)- SC-thalamus-cortex. Somatotopic in SC, projects to VPL. Then passes through posterior limb of internal capsule to primary sensory cortex. b. Indirect (paleospinothalmic)- SC-reticular formation-thalamus-broad regions of cortex What is the spinocervicothalamic system? a. An ipsilateral projection of the dorsal horn in the lateral funiculus to end in the lateral cervical nucleus C1-C3. From here joins medial lemniscus to project to thalamus and cerebral cortex. May be responsible for return of pain after anterolateral tract lesion What nuclei are protopathic touch and pain in the face processed through? a. Protopathic touch- pars oralis and interpolaris b. Pain- pars caudalis (teeth through pars interpolaris) Axons of trigeminal nuclei project to where? a. VPM of thalamus. Will stimulation of primary somatosensory cortex produce pain? a. No, but stimulation of thalamus might. What is pre-synaptic inhibition? a. Rubbing a site of painful stimulus. Causes the inhibitory signal to hyperpolarize the second synapses membrane and reduce or block its response to an incoming AP. At what level does the descending cortical (central) tract control nociceptive neuron firing? a. At the dorsal horn.

In class questions 1. The first major processing of discriminative tactile receptive field information occurs in: a. Nucleus gracillus and cuneatus

2. Which receptor type would be expected to respond to bradykinin released as a result of tissue damage? a. Chemoreceptors 3. Localizable pain is most likely to be carried in which of the following tracts? a. neospinothalamic

L52 Histology of the Ear

In class questions: 1. Which of the following is a tract that carries protopathic pain sensation and ascends ipsilaterally in the spinal cord? a. spinocervicothalamic Study questions 1. Where does the malleus attach? a. Middle of tympanic membrane, causing it to shape like cone 2. Which is the last bone in the ossicle chain, and what does it attach to? a. Stapes, attaches to oval window. 3. Which component of the bony labrynth is continuous with the subarachnoid space of the cranial cavity? a. Vestibule, connects to subarach space via cochlear aqueduct 4. What are the membranous labyrinth divisions of bony labrynth? a. Cochlea- cochlear duct b. Vestibule- saccule and utricle c. Semicircular canals- semicircular ducts and ampullae 5. Endolymph is secreted by what? a. Stria vascularis 6. The organ of corti is located where? What does it do? a. On basilar membrane within the cochlear duct (scala media). Composed of hair cells (detectors), tectorial membrane (creates shear), supporting cells (structural). It is the site of actual transduction of sound into action potentials 7. Which direction does stereocilia need to bend in order to open mechanoeletric transduction ion channels? a. In direction of tallest stereocillium. 8. What are the primary receptor cells for afferent sound and frequency stimulation? a. Inner hair cells (outer receive lots of efferent from superior olive) 9. What is the protein in outer hair cells that allows them to contract? a. Prestin 10. Which part of the vestibular apparatus detects rotary motion? Linear motion?

11. 12. 13.

14. 15.

a. Rotary- Semicircular canal b. Linear- utricle and saccule The neural motion detectors in the utricle and maccule are called what? a. Maculae What do vestibular hair cells have that auditory do not? a. Cilia Which direction are maculae of utricle and saccule oriented? a. Utricle- parallel b. Saccule-vertical Type I hair cells of the maculae play what role? a. Receive afferent information, type II receive efferent. Which structure is responsible for detection of angular motion? a. Crista of the ampulla (of semicircular canals)

L53 Auditory I
1. The peak and trough of a sound wave represent what, respectively? a. Peak- Compression of air; trough- rarification 2. What is the main function of the ossicles? a. Convert air waves to waves in fluid filled inner ear. 3. Which muscles are responsible for the dampening of loud sound? a. Tensor tympani (V) and stapedius (VII) 4. In the basilar membrane, where do higher and lower frequency sounds resonate? a. High- near base; lower- near apex 5. How are sound waves of different frequencies detected in the cochlea? a. Different neurons along the spiral ganglia detect different frequencies. These must then be converted into APs, a process provided by hair cells of organ of corti. 6. Which inner ear structure is responsible for converting sound into APs? a. Organ of corti 7. What are the channels called that produce either depolarization or hyperpolarization of the hair cell membrane? a. Mechanoelectrical transduction channels 8. Which membrane rubs against the hair cells causing them to depolarize? a. Tectorial membrane. 9. Perilymph and endolymph have high concentrations of which ions? a. Peri (below basilar membrane)- Na+ ; Endo (above tectorial membrane)- K+. 10. Which hair cells are primarily responsible for sound and frequency discrimination? a. Inner hair cells (mainly afferent) 11. Which hair cells are responsible for sharpening/focusing of sounds?

12. 13. 14. 15.

16.

17.

a. Outer hair cells (mainly efferent), which project to oliviocochlear bundle What frequency range is normal speech in? a. 2000- 4000 Hz What determines the frequency that a hair cell detects? a. Its positioning along the cochlear spiral What is the characteristic frequency of a spiral ganglion cell? a. The frequency at which its threshold is lowest. Explain dynamic range of spiral ganglion cells. a. The range (appx. 40 db range) at which higher frequency detected results in increased frequency of AP firing. Beyond dynamic range, cell response saturates. What are the two types of spiral ganglion neurons and what are their functions? a. Type I- 95% of processes innervation hair cells. Respond to very narrow frequency range, but have different thresholds of discrimination. b. Type II- more sensitive to low intensity sounds than type I, but are less precisely tuned to frequency. c. Thus, inner hair cells used as primary frequency detectors, while outer hair cells are low intensity detectors that are less specific Where is volume and frequency information sent after being processed by spiral ganglion cells? a. Dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei brainstem

L54 Auditory II
1. What are the neurotransmitters of the central auditory pathway? a. Aspartate or glutamate 2. Explain/list the primary auditory pathway from spiral ganglion cells up to primary auditory cortex. a. Spiral ganglion cell > ventral and dorsal cochlear nuclei > superior olivary nuclei > inferior colliculus > medial geniculate body of thalamus > primary auditory cortex 3. What is the only brainstem level at which a unilateral lesion can produce monaural defness? a. Ventral and dorsal cochlear nuclei 4. Explain the tonotopic organization of the cochlear nuclei. a. Low tones lateral, high tones medial 5. What are the two types of parallel pathways of the brainstem? Which of these pathways do the ventral and dorsal cochlear nuclei contribute to? a. Mononaural- routed to contralateral side; binaural- used to compare differences in sounds that reach both ears (routed to both sides). b. Ventral and dorsal cochlear nuclei both contribute to mono and binaural pathways. 6. Mononaural pathways from both nuclei are also called direct pathways. Why? Which nuclei contribute to indirect pathways? How do indirect pathways reach the superior olivary nuclei?

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10. 11.

12. 13. 14.

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a. Because they project directly to the inferior colliculus, crossing at dorsal (posterior) acoustic stria, and ascending in the lateral lemniscus b. indirect pathways are multisynaptic and have contributions from both ventral and dorsal cochlear nuclei. Indirect pathways cross the midline at the trapezoid body to reach superior olivary nuclei on the contralateral side. Which is the first nucleus in which binaural information converges? a. Superior olivary, it has medial and lateral divisions What roles doe the medial and lateral superior olive play in sound processing? a. Medial- Sound localization, summation of sound from contra and ipsilateral ear. b. Lateral- does same as medial, but also measures sound intensity Which ascending auditor pathways does the inferior colliculus receive? How is it tonotopically organized? a. All auditory pathways. Low frequencies lateral, high frequencies medial. What projection connects the inferior colliculus with the medial geniculate of thalamus? a. Inferior brachium. What are the three divisions of the medial geniculate, and what are their roles, and where in the cortex do they project to? a. Anterior division- complex sound patterns, projects to primary auditory cortex b. Posterior division- conveys info about moving or novel stimuli. Projects to secondary auditory cortex. c. Medial division- responds to wide range of frequencies and other sensory stimuli. Projects to temporal and parietal association areas. What connects medial geniculate to auditory cortex? a. Retrolenticular portion of internal capsule. Where are the primary and secondary auditory cortex located? a. In medial and lateral transverse gyri of Heschel, in depths of lateral fissure. What is the auditory association cortex, what does it do? a. Wernickes area, surrounds primary auditory cortex. 7 times larger on left than right. Identified sound as language related. Where does the olivocochlear efferent system project to and what does it do? a. Projects from superior olive to inner and outer hair cells (more to outer). Can change the membrane potential of hair cells, auditory sharpening. What is the middle ear reflex? a. Protective reflex against high frequency/loud sounds via motor nuclei of V and VII. Works by restricting the movement of middle ear osicles. The afferent arm is provided by the cochlear nuclei and superior olive, projecting to motor nuclei of V and VII. What is the acoustic startle reflex? a. Turn head, eyes toward a sound. Connections via tectospinobulbar system.

L55- Eye Histo

1. What are the three layers of the eyeball? a. Fibrous (outer), vascular (inner), retinal (inner) i. Fibrous- sclera (5/6) and cornea (1/6) 1. Sclera a. Episclera i. Loose CT b. Stroma i. Thick collagen, fibroblasts c. Lamina fusca i. Suprachoroid with melanocytes d. Lamina cribrosa i. Where optic nerve fascicles and vessels penetrate the sclera. Collagen fibrils are arranged in circles or figure eight patterns spiraling around openings for central retinal a and v. 2. Cornea- avascular, transparent, refractive element of eye; curvature irregularities result in astigmatism (blurred vision) a. Five layers: epithelium, bowmans membrane, storma (substantia propria), descemets membrane, endothelium i. Bowmans- acellular, collagen fibers ii. Stroma (substantia propria)- flattened collagenous lamellae layers. iii. Descements- basement membrane for cornea iv. Endothelium- hydration, passage of nutrients ii. Vascular layer- Choroid, ciliary body, iris 1. Choroid- b/w sclera and retina, vascular, net like cap bed, nourishes outer retina, consists of: a. bruchs membrane (laminae vitrea) basal lamina for retinal pigment b. Choriocapillaris- bed of fenestrated capillaries c. Suprachoroid- transition layer b/w choroid and lamina fusca of sclera 2. Ciliary Body- ring shaped structure surrounding lens. Controls thickness of lens. Connects to lens by zonular fibers of suspensory ligament a. Ciliary musclei. Contraction thickens lense (accomadate) ii. Relaxation- suspensory ligament tightens and lens flattens

b. Ciliary processes- produce aqueous humor, nourishes avascular lens and cornea 2. What is the purpose of the iris of the eye? a. Control amount of light let into eye. Sphincter (contraction- miosis- decrease pupil sizeparasympathetic) and dilator pupillae (dilate muscles-decrease (misosis) pupil sizesympathetic) 3. What is the Limbus? a. Transition area b/w cornea and sclera 4. What produces aqueous humor? a. Ciliary processes 5. What is glaucoma? a. Increased resistance to aqueous humor outflow, raised intraocular pressure. i. Open angle- obstruction of trabecular meshwork ii. Closed angle- iris physically blocks inner surface 6. Which structures are located in the inner neural layer of the retina? In the outer pigmented layer? a. Sensory and neural cells (rods/cones), optic disc, macula lutea b. Retinal pigment epithelium, fused with choroid 7. Which is sensitive to light, rods or cones? a. Rods, cones are for color (in fovea) 8. What are bipolar cells and where are they found? a. Found in inner nuclear layer of retina. They transmit signal from photoreceptor to ganglion cells. cone: bipolar cell, 1:1; 50-100 rods: 1bipolar cell 9. Where are muller cells found and what is their function? a. In internal limiting membrane (10th layer) of retina. Separates vitreous and retina. 10. What are crystallins? a. Specialized proteins found in lens fibers.

L55-56 Vestibular System

1. Which portion of vestibular system detect linear acceleration and head position? Which detects angular acceleration? a. Saccule and utricle detect linear a (static labrynth). Semicircular canals (kinetic labrynth) detect angular. 2. Which artery supplies the vestibular system? a. Labyrinthine 3. Hair cells release which NTs? a. Excitatory- aspartate and glutamate

4. Which direction depolarizes vs. hyperpolarizes hair cell? a. Stereocillia bend towards kenocillium (largest stereocilia) depolarizes, bend away hyperpolarizes 5. Which structures make up the static labyrinth? a. Utricule and saccule, each contain small patch of hair cells, the macula 6. Where are hair cells of the kinetic labyrinth found? a. In the ampulla of each canal 7. What is the cupula? a. Gelatinous structure in which hair cells are embedded. Cupula is pushed in direction opposite that of head movement deflecting cilia 8. What does yaw refer to? a. Head rotation 9. Which type of movements are anterior and posterior canals sensitive to? a. Role and pitch, helps code for angular movement. 10. The lateral (Dieter) vestibular nucleus receives projections from which structure? a. Cerebellum 11. Which connections are responsible for vestibular compensation in the event of trauma or disease? a. Commissural connections (vestibulovestibular) between the different nuclei of the vestibulocochlear nuclei. 12. Vestibular nuclei receive input from which structures? a. Cerebellum, spinal cord, occulomotor system (accessory optic system). Output from vestibular nuclei is directed toward these same structures. 13. What are the two subdivisions of the vestibulospinal tract? What information do they transmit? a. Medial and lateral vestibulospinal b. Medial is involved in integration of head and eye movements associated with changes in body position. c. Lateral- travels full length of SC. helps maintain upright posture and balance. 14. What is the role of the vestibulo-ocular system? a. Causes eye movements in same direction. Provides fixed gaze with ongoing horizontal head and body movements. Links pairs of eye muscles for cooperative function. 15. Functional output of the vestibular system is a function of which system? a. Thalamocortical system 16. In caloric testing, warm water in external auditory meatus produces gaze to which side? a. Opposite side, in conscious PT, eyes will quickly reposition to center. In comatose patient, fast phase is absent, Dolls eye syndrome. 17. What are the signs of damage to the vestibular system? a. VANN. Vertigo, ataxia, nystagmus, nausea and vomiting.

L58- Eye and Optic Nerve

1. What is accommodation? How is it achieved? a. If object close than 20 ft, lens needs to be made more round. Achieved by ciliary muscle (parasympathetic) 2. Vitamin A deficiency can lead to what problem? a. Night blindness, needed by rods in retina 3. Where are cones located? a. In Fovea 4. What occurs in the retina in the dark? a. In the dark, retinal binds to opsin, cGMP is high in the cell and the cyclic nucleotidegated channel (CNG) is open, allowing Na+ and Ca++ to flow in and keep cell depolarized. Glutamate released 5. What occurs in the retina when light is present? a. cGMP destroyed, glutamate release goes down.

L59 Central Visual Pathway

1. Which part of thalamus do retinal ganglion cells project to? a. Lateral geniculate nucleus, via optic tract 2. What is the portion of the visual field that is only received by one eye? a. Monocular crescent 3. The lateral geniculate is has 6 layers, grouped according to cell type in each layer. List the layers and their cell types, and type of retinal input they receive. a. Layers 1 and 2- Magnocellular layers- receive input from alpha (Y) type RGCs, with large receptive fields that receive input from rods in peripheral region of retina. b. Layers 3-6- Parvocellular layers- receive input from smaller, beta (X) type RGCs with small receptive fields from cones and process high acuity color visions. 4. Which side and layers of lateral geniculate do axons in the temporal retina project to? Axons in nasal retina? a. Axons in temporal retina project to ipsilateral side, to layers 2,3,5 b. Axons nasal retina project to contralateral side, to layers 1,4,6 5. Describe the retinotopic map of the calcarine area of the visual cortex. a. Superior visual fields (lower retinal/lateral LGN) are represented on inferior banks b. Inferior visual fields (upper retinal/medial LGN) are represented on the superior banks c. Peripheral fields located rostrally d. Central vision- the macula and fovea- are represented more caudally toward the occipital pole.

6. What are the two cell types in the Visual Cortical Columns and what patterns of light do they respond to? a. Simple cells- respond to bar of light with particular orientation b. Complex cells- respond maximally to same type of stimulus as a simple cell, but over a much larger area of visual space. 7. Bands of cells that respond maximally to right or left eye are found in which column? a. Ocular dominance column 8. What are blob zones and what do they do? a. Dispersed between ocular dominance columns that process only color information, prominent in cortical layers 2 and 3 9. What are hypercolumns? a. Set of dominance and orientation columns that together provide a complete representation of a particular region in space. Found uniformly throughout primary visual cortex. 10. The magnocellular stream projects to which area of visual cortex? What specific types of information about vision does it convey? a. Posterior parietal area (area 7a). Conveys the where objects are located, as well as position and motion, depth, spatial info. 11. The parvocellular stream projects to which area? Which specific information does it convey? a. Projects to inferior temporal region, areas 20, 21, 37. The ventral (what) stream processes color and high resolution aspects of form (shape). Also responsible for depth perception, binocular vision.

L62 Epilepsy
1. Define Simple Partial, complex partial, and atonic, tonic, myoclonic, clonic, tonic-clonic and absence Generalized seizures. a. Partial- begin locally (focal) w/disturbed consciousness (complex), or not (simple) i. Simple1. consciousness not impaired; variable in length (5-30 secs) 2. Symptons point to region of brain in which it occurs 3. Most occur in temporal lobe b. Complex i. Begins as simple, lasts <3 mins, automatisms, can become general seizures, consciousness is impaired c. Generalized- bilaterally symmetric without local onset. Maybe either convulsive or nonconvulsive depending on presence of significant motor signs. i. Atonic- sudden decrease in muscle tone, awareness altered ii. Tonic- increased muscle tone, loss of awareness iii. Myoclonic (myoclonic jerk)- brief, shock-like, involuntary muscle contractions

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4. 5.

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iv. Clonic- repetitive muscle twitching ( up to 1 min) v. Tonic-clonic (grand mal)- most common type, loss of consciousness vi. Absence- (petit mal)- brief absence of consciousness, stair. Individual unaware What is a status epilepticus? a. Seizure of >10 min duration, or multiple seizures in close succession, often associated with precipitants or direct cause such as trauma, drugs, etc. What are some factors to consider and tools used in diagnosing seizure? a. May need witness, seizure timing, duration, frequency important b. Was seizure provoked by external factor? c. Common differentials- TIA, syncope, migraine What are some of the general causes of epileptogenesis? a. Genetic, developmental disorders, or result of injury What is the proposed model for causation of partial seizure? a. Molecular and cellular organization of neuronal and glial networks is changed. Results in hippocampal sclerosis with loss of neurons in dentate hilus and pyramidal cell layer, loss of excitatory GABA neurons (mossy fiber sprouting- loss of excitation of inhibitory neurons) b. Second hit, such as puberty, hormonal changes, etc, will result in epilepsy What are the neurobiological causes of Generalized Seizure and Generalized (Absence Seizure)? a. Associated with ion channel mutations: K, Na, Ca, GABA, Clb. Absence seizure associated with T-type Ca or GABA receptor dysfunction. What are some of the treatments for Epilepsy/seizure? a. Drugs that: inhibit sodium channels, enhance GABA action, inhibit T-type Ca channels (absence) b. Surgery- excision of epileptic focus; corpus callosotomy- severe cases

L63 Limbic System I

1. Where does dorsal medial nucleus of thalamus project to? a. Pre-frontal cortex- judgment 2. What are the borders of the hippocampal formation? a. Hippocampal sulcus- groove between parahippocampal gyrus and dentate gyrus b. Choroid fissure- blocks flow of CSF out of temporal horn into the cisternal space c. Hippocampal formation borders inferior horn of the lateral ventricle 3. Which are is responsible for processing olfaction and memory association? a. Dentate gyrus 4. What is the major projection through the fornix? a. Subiculum 5. What are the primary afferents to the hippocampus? What information do they contain? a. Entorhinal cortex- memory and olfactory

6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

13. 14.

b. parahippocampal gyrus- visual and sensory association The postcommimsural fornix projects from the hippocampal formation primarily to: a. Mammillary bodies Which are is associated with motivational associations? a. Septal area Most of the efferents of the fornix to the mammillary nucleus arise from what? a. Subiculum What is the primary purpose of the circuit of Papez? a. Incorporate new declarative memories What are some functions associated with cingulate cortex? a. Behavorial motivation, autonomics, executive, language/motor, sensory Which area is associated with sympathetic autonomic and fear related responses? a. Amygdaloid complex Which part extends from corticomedial group to septal area? What are its efferents associated with? a. Stria terminalis. Efferents associated with feeding behavior. Which part of the amygdala is associated with olfactory functions? a. Corticomedial Which part is associated with awarding behavior and addiction? a. Accumbens

L64 Limbic 2
1. The hippocampal formation and the amygdala both have major projections to the? a. Septal area 2. Which area(s) are associated with gratificiation centers? a. Acumbens and forebrain 3. The septal areas is associated with what sensations? a. Sexual and pleasure 4. Severity of depression is associated with increased blood flow to which area? a. Amygdala 5. A bad taste in the mouth or bad smell before a seizure suggests seizure in which area? a. Uncus 6. A patient presents with history of alcoholism and recent short term memory loss. Family members report Pt has been telling stories. What is a likely casue? How is it treated? a. Korsakoff syndrome- results in damage to the hippocampus, thalamus, mammillary bodies, some motor ataxia. b. Treated with thiamine. 7. What artery supplies anterior cingulate gyrus? a. Anterior cerebral

8. Akinetic mutism can result from lesion to which area? a. Bilateral lesion of anterior gyrus 9. PT presents with hypersexuality, overeating, and deadened emotional responses. Which areas are lesioned? What is this syndrome called? a. Bilateral amygdala lesion- Kluver Bucy syndrome 10. Alzheimers is associated with neuronal loss in which region? a. Substantia innominata