AIEEE SAMPLE PAPER

Time: 3Hours

Max.Marks:270

Date: 26-04-2011

Candidates will be awarded three marks each for indicated correct response of each question. One mark will be deducted for indicated incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.

Subject: Physics
1. The velocity of a 2kg body is changed from 4i m/s to 3j m/s. The work done on the body is (1) 9 J (2) 11 J (3) 1 J (4) zero

2. A body of mass 1 kg moves from point A (2m, 3m, 4m) to B (3m, 2m, 5m). During motion of body, a force F = (2N) i (4N) j acts on it. The work done by the force on the particle during displacement is (1) (2 i -4 j) J (2) 2 J (3) -2 J (4) None of these

3. A particle of mass 100g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 5m/s. The work done by the force of gravity during the time the particle goes up is? (1) -0.5 J (2) -1.25 J (3) 1.25 J (4) 0.5 J

4. The potential energy of a certain spring when stretched through a distance s is 10J. The amount of work (in joule) that must be done on this spring to stretch it through additional distance s will be (1) 30 (2) 40 (3) 10 (4) 20

5. A 10 kg object collides with stationary 5 kg object and after collision they stick together and move forward with velocity 4m/s. What is the velocity with which the 10kg object hit the second one? (1) 4m/s (2) 6m/s (3) 10m/s (4) 12 m/s

6. If the linear momentum is increased by 50%, then kinetic energy will be increased by (1) 50% (2) 20% (3) 125% (4) none of these

7. For inelastic collision between two spherical rigid bodies (1) The total kinetic energy is conserved (2) The total mechanical energy is not conserved

(3) The linear momentum is not conserved (4) The linear momentum is conserved

8. A body of mass M moving with a speed u has a head-on collision with a body of mass m originally at rest. If M>>m, the speed of the body of mass m after collision will be nearly (1) um/M (2) uM/m (3) u/2 (4) 2u

9. Three identical blocks A,B and C are placed on horizontal frictionless surface. The blocks B and C are at rest. But A is approaching towards B with a speed 10m/s. The coefficient of restitution for all collisions is 0.5. The speed of the block C just after collision is

(1) 5.6m/s

(2) 6m/s

(3) 8m/s

(4) 10 m/s

10. In a two block system an initial velocity v(with respect to ground) is given to a block A. Choose the correct statement. (1) The momentum of block A is not conserved. (2) The momentum of system of blocks A and B is conserved. (3) The increase in momentum of B is equal to the decrease in momentum of block A. (4) All of the above three statements correct

11. A ball collides elastically with another ball of the same mass. The collision is oblique and initially one of the body was at rest. After the collision, the two balls move with same speeds. What will be the angle between the initial and final velocities of the colliding ball (1) 300 (2) 450 (3) 600 (4) 900

12. A simple pendulum of length 1m has a bob of 200 g. It is displaced through o 60 and then released. What will be its kinetic energy when it passes through the mean position (1) 0.5 J (2) 1.0 J (3) 1.5 J (4) 2.0 J 13. A motor pump set lifts 300 kg of water per minute from a well of depth 20m and delivers to a height of 20m. Then its power is (1) 3 kW (2) 1.96 kW (3) 0.98 kW (4) 3.92 kW 14. A circular disc of radius R is removed from a bigger circular disc of radius 2R such that the circumferences of the discs coincide.The centre of mass of the new disc is a / R form the centre of the bigger disc. The value of a is (1) 1/4 (2) 1/3 (3) 1/2 (4) 1/6 15. Consider a car moving on a straight road with a speed of 100 m/s. The distance at which car can be stopped is [k = 0.5] (1) 800 m (2) 1000 m (3) 100 m (4) 400 m 16. A gaseous mixture consists of 16 g of helium and 16 g of oxygen. The ratio C p/Cv of the mixture is (1) 1.59 (2) 1.62 (3) 1.4 (4) 1.54 17. A system goes from A to B via two processes I and II as shown in the figure. If U1 and U2 are the changes in internal energies in the processes I and II respectively, the

(1) U1 = U2 (2) Relation between U1 and U2 cannot be determined (3) U2 > U1 (4) U2 < U1 18. A circuit has a resistance of 12 and an impedance of 15 . The power factor of the circuit will be (1) 0.8 (2) 0.4 (3) 1.25 (4) 0.125

19. A heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only one part is now used in the heater. The heat generated will now be (1) doubled (2) four times (3) one fourth (4) halved

20. A thin glass (refractive index 1.5) lens has optical power of 5D in air. Its optical power in a liquid medium with refractive index 1.6 will be (1) 1 D (2) -1D (3) 25 D (4) None of these

21. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world contained in a circular horizon. If the refractive index of water is 4/3 and the fish is 12 cm below the surface, the radius of this circle in cm is (1) 36 7 (2) 36 / 7 (3) 36 5 (4) 4 5 22. The potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator when the particle is half way to its end point is (where E is the total energy) (1) 1/8 E (2) E (3) E (4) 2/3 E

23. The velocity of a particle in simple harmonic motion at displacement y from mean position is

24. The potential energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is 2.5 J, when its displacement is half of amplitude. The total energy of the particle be (1) 18 J (2) 10 J (3) 12 J (4) 2.5 J

25. The acceleration of a particle performing S.H.M. is 12 cm/sec2 at a distance of 3 cm from the mean position. Its time period is (1) 0.5 sec (2) 1.0 sec (3) 2.0 sec (4) 3.14 sec
26. If S is stress and Y is Youngs modulus of material of a wire, the energy stored in the wire per unit volume is (1) 2S2Y (2) S2/2Y (3) 2Y/S2 (4) S/2Y 27. A particle of mass 10 g is kept on the surface of a uniform sphere of mass 100 kg and radius 10 cm. Find the work to be done against the gravitational force between them to take the particle far away from the sphere (you may take G = 6 . 67 10-11 Nm2 / kg2) (1) 13.34 1010 J (2) 3.33 1010 J (3) 6.67 109J (4) 6.67 1010J 28. Two sources of equal emf are connected to an external resistance R. The internal resistance of the two sources are R1 and R2 (R2 > R1). If the potential difference across the source having internal resistance R2 is zero, then (1) R = R2 (R1 + R2)/R2 R1) (2) R = R2 R1 (3) R = R1R2 / (R1 + R2) (4) R = R1R2 / (R2 R1)

29. The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. If the separation between the earth and the satellite is increased to 4 times the previous value, the new time period will become (1) 10 hours (2) 80 hours (3) 40 hours (4) 20 hours

30. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M & radii R & 2R respectively are released in free space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12 R. If they attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body just before collision is (1) 2.5 R (2) 4.5 R (3) 7.5 R (4) 1.5 R

Chemistry

Q1. Knowing that the Chemistry of lanthanoids (Ln) is dominated by its +3 oxidation state, which of the following statements is incorrect? a) Ln (III) hydroxides are mainly basic in character b) The ionic sizes of Ln (III) decrease in general with increasing atomic number c) because of the large size of the Ln (III) ions the bonding in its compounds is predominently ionic in character. d) Ln (III) compounds are generally colourless Q2. A liquid was mixed with ethanol and a drop of concentrated was added. A compound with a fruity smell was formed. The liquid was: a) b) c) d) Q3. Arrange the carbanions, , , , , in order of their decreasing stability: a) b) c) d) Q4. The alkene that exhibits geometrical isomerism is : a) 2 methyl propene b) 2 methyl 2 butene c) 2 butene d) Propene Q5. In which of the following arrangements, the sequence is not strictly according to the property written against it? a) : increasing oxidising power b) : increasing first ionization enthalpy c) : increasing acid strength d) : increasing basic strength Q6. The major product obtained on interaction of phenol with sodium hydroxide and carbon dioxide is: a) Benzoic acid b) Phthalic acid c) Salicylaldehyde d) Salicylic acid Q8. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding physisorptions? a) Under high pressure it results into multi molecular layer on adsorbent surface b) Enthalpy of adsorption is low and positive c) It occurs because of van der Waals forces d) More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed readily Q9. Which of the following on heating with aqueous KOH, produces acetaldehyde? a) b) c) d) Q10. In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed of 600 m / s with an accuracy of 0.005%. Certainity with which the position of the electron can be located is ( kg , mass of electron, kg): a) m

b) m c) m d) m Q11. In a fuel cell methanol is used as fuel and oxygen gas is used as an oxidizer. The reaction is At 298 K standard Gibbs energies of formation for , and (g) are 166.2, 237.2 and 394.4 kJ respectively. If standard enthalpy of combustioin of methanol is 762 kJ , efficiency of the fuel cell will be: a) 87% b) 97% c) 80% d) 90% Q12. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution. At 300 K, vapour pressure of the solution containing 1 mol of X and 3 mol of Y is 550 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of Y is further added to this solution, vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm Hg. Vapour pressure (in mm Hg) of X and Y in their pure states will be, respectively: a) 400 and 600 b) 500 and 600 c) 300 and 400 d) 200 and 300 Q13. The half life period of a first order chemical reaction is 6.93 minutes. The time required for the completion of 99% of the chemical reaction will be (log 2 = 0.301) : a) 46.06 minutes b) 230.3 minutes c) 23.03 minutes d) 460.6 minutes Q14. Given The value of standard electrode potential for the change, a) 0.072 V b) 0.770 V c) 0.385 V d) 0.270 V Q15. On the basis of the following thermochemical data: The value of enthalpy of formation of ion at is: a) 22.88 kJ b) 343.52 kJ c) +228.88 kJ d) 228.88 kJ Q16. Copper crystallises in fcc with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the radius of copper atom ? a) 157 pm b) 108 pm c) 127 pm d) 181 pm Q17. Which of the following has an optical isomer? a) . will be :

b) c) d) Q18. Solid is gradually dissolved in a will a precipitate begin to form? a) b) c) d) M solution. At what concentration of

Q19. Which one of the following reactions of Xenon compounds is not feasible? a) b) c) d) Q20. Using MO theory predict which of the following species has the shortest bond length? a) b) c) d) Q21. In context with the transition elements, which of the following statements is incorrect? a) In addition to the normal oxidation states, the zero oxidation state is also shown by these elements in complexes. b) In the highest oxidation states, the transition metal show basic character and form cathonic complexes. c) In the higest oxidation states of the first five transition elements (Sc to Mn), all the 4s and 3d electrons are used for bonding. d) Once the d 5 configuration is exceeded, the tendency to involves all the 3d electronss in bonding decreases. Q22. Calculate the wavelength (in nanometer) associated with a proton moving at and a) 0.40 nm b) 0.032 nm c) 14.0 nm d) 2.5 nm Q23. A binary liquid solution is prepared by mixing nheptane and ethanol. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the behavior of the solution? a) The solution is nonideal, shownign +ve deviation from Raoults Law. b) The solution is nonideal, showing ve deviation from Raoults Law. c) The solution formed is an ideal solution d) nheptane shows +ve deviation while ethanol shows ve deviation from Raoults Law. Q24. The number of stereoisomers possible for a compound of the moleuclar formula is: a) 3

b) 2 c) 6 d) 4 Q25. The IUPAC name of neopentane is : a) 2-methylpropane b) 2,2-dimethylbutane c) 2,2-dimethylpropane d) 2-methylbutane Q26. The set representing the correct order of ionic radius is: a) b) c) d) Q27. The two functional groups present in a typical carbohydrate are: a) b) c) d) Q28. The bond dissociation energy of B-F in BF3 is 646 KJ mol-1 whereas that of C-F in CF4 is . The correct reason for higher B F bond dissociation energy as compared to that of C-F is: a) significant interaction between B and F in whereas there is no possibility of such interaction between C and F in . b) lower degree of interaction between B and F in than that between C and F in . c) stronger s bond between B and F in as compared to that between C and F in . d) smaller size of Batom as compared to that of Catom Q29. In Cannizzaro reaction given below the slowest step is : a) the attack of :O H at the carboxyal group b) the abstraction of proton from the carboxylic group c) the deprotonation of d) the transfer of hydride to the carbonyl group Q30. Which of the following pairs represents linkage isomers? a) b) c) d) and and and and

Answer Keys: Chemistry: Q1.(b) Q2.(c) Q3.(d) Q4.(c) Q5.(b) Q6.(d) Q7.(b) Q8.(a) Q9.(b) Q10.(b) Q11.(b) Q12.(a) Q13.(a) Q14.(c) Q15.(b) Q16.(c) Q17.(b) Q18.(d) Q19.(c) Q20.(a) Q21.(b) Q22.(a) Q23.(a) Q24.(b) Q25.(c) Q26.(d) Q27.(d) Q28.(c) Q29.(b) Q30.(a)