Molecular Biology 1. I (Ionosine) can base pair with a) A, U or G b) A, G or C c) A, C or U d) U or C 2.

Amino acids encoded by GC rich codons a) Lysine, Isoleucine and Phenylalanine b) Alanine, Glycine, Arginine and Proline c) Isoleucine, Threonine and Leucine d) None of the above 3. Which of the following is not correct? a) A minimum of 32 tRNAs are required to translate all 61 codons b) 5 anticodon show wobble c) 26S proteasome is involved in protein degradation d) O-linked glycosylation takes place exclusively in endoplasmic reticulum 4. Chose the correct one I i) Puromycin ii) Diptheria toxin iii) Cycloheximide iv) Chloramphenicol a)i)-III), ii)-IV), iii)-II), iv)-I) b)i)-III), ii)-IV), iii)-I), iv)-II) c)i)-IV), ii)-III), iii)-I), iv)-II) d)i)-I), ii)-III), iii)-IV), iv)-II) 5. DNA methylation is not found in a) Animals b) Worms c) Plants d) Bacteria 6. Which of the following is not correct? a) Eukaryotic activators are modular protein is proved by immunoprecipitation b) Igf2 and H19 show imprinting c) Deamination of methylated-Cytosine forms Thymine d) Histone code hypothesis says that different patterns of modifications on histone tails can be read to mean different things 7. Which on is correct about CpG island a) CpG island is the site of methylation b) House keeping genes have unmethylated CpG islands c) CpG island is site of gene silencing d) All tissue specific genes have methylated CpG islands 8. Function of Insulators sequences a) It overcomes position effect b) It inhibit silencing c) It prevents crosstalk during expression of gene d) all are correct II I) inhibit peptidyl transferase activity in prokaryotes II) inhibit peptidyl transferase activity in eukaryotes III) premature translation termination in prokaryotes and eukaryotes IV) ADP ribosylation of eEF2

9. Tamoxifen and Raloxifen are a) Competitive inhibitors of enzyme b) Antagonists c) Used to prevent breast cancer d) All are correct 10. Which on is not correct a) Lysine on N region of histone commonly undergoes acetylation and deacetylation b) Basic amino acids Arginine and Lysine present on histones give them net positive charge c) Addition of acetyl group to the histone occurs through methyl transferase d) Chromatin Immunoprecipitation can reveal the acetylation state of histones in chromatin 11. Xeroderma Pigmentosum is associated with a) Nucleotide Excesion Repair b) Base Excesion Repair c) Mismatch Repair d) Direct repair 12. What is the function of Mut T protein? a) It changes oxo-G into G b) It removes mismatched A from the site and incorporate C c) It leads to hydrolysis of free 8-oxo dGTP d) All are correct 13. Which of the following is not correct? a) Human telomeric sequence is 5...TTAGGG...3 b) In bacteria consensus sequence for -35 box and -10 box (pribnow box) are respectively 5 TTGACA3 and 5TATAAT3 c) Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacteria is 5...AGGAGG...3 while Kozak sequence in eukaryote is 5...G/ANNAUG...3 d) Most highly conserved sequence are the GU in the 5 splice site, the AG in the 3 splice site and the G at the branch site 14. Find out the mismatch a) Rho dependent termination-----Hair pin b) Rut site-----rich in C and poor in G c) Nus A-----slows down transcription d) Nus G-----supports termination 15. Which of the following is not correct about transcription initiation by RNA pol II? a) At first TBP component of TFIID bind to TATA box b) TFIIF is associated with RNA pol II c) TFIIH has helicase as well as protein kinase activity d) TFIIA and TFIIB are last to join in the transcription initiation process by RNA pol II 16. Which of the following is not correct about assembly, rearrangement and catalysis with in the spliceosome? a) Initially the 5 splice site is recognized by U1 snRNP, then U2 snRNP binds to branch site and create an A-bulge b) U4 and U6 snRNP along with the U5 snRNP help in bringing together all splice sites c) U1 snRNP leaves the complex and U4 replaces it at 5 splice site d) First transesterification reaction is carried out by the interaction of U2 and U6 snRNPs while second transesterification is carried out by the help of U5 snRNP

17. Which of the following is not correct about prokaryotic initiation of translation? a) At first IF3 binds to 30S subunit then 30S-IF3 bind to mRNA at SD sequence b) IF1 binds near the A site and thereby directs fMet-tRNA iMet carried by IF2(GTP) to the P site c) 50S join the 30S complex only when IF1 is ejected d) Joining of 50S and 30S leads to hydrolysis GTP to GDP+iP and release of IF2(GDP) from the complex 18. Which of the following is not correct about eukaryotic initiation of translation? a) eIF4E bind to cap and then eIF4G binds to PAB b) Activated eIF2 is a key factor in binding Met-tRNA iMet c) Initiation codon (part of Kozak sequence) is recognized by scanning d) Initiation does not require ATP 19. Which type of chromatin contains genes that are being expressed? a) Euchromatin b) Facultative heterochromatin c) Constitutive heterochromatin d) All of the above 20. If a diploid individual has three X chromosomes, how many of X chromosomes are inactivated? a) One b) Two c) Three d) It varies and can be either one or two 21. Which of the following types of DNA modification results in silencing of a region of the genome in such a way that the silencing can be passed on to offspring? a) Acetylation b) Methylation c) Phosphorylation d) Ubiquitination 22. Which of the following is not a type of histone modification? a) Acetylation b) Methylation c) Phosphorylation d) ADP ribosylation 23. Riboswitch mediated gene regulation in bacteria are usually involved in a) Sugar catabolism b) Amino acid biosynthesis c) Vitamin and nucleotide biosynthesis d) AARS (Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase) expression 24. Which of the following proteins not encoded by the host genome and involved in phase a) Hfl protease b) IHF c) Nus A d) Int 25. Riboswitch mediated gene regulation in bacteria are usually involved in a) Sugar catabolism b) Amino acid biosynthesis c) Vitamin and nucleotide biosynthesis d) AARS (Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase) expression

26. In the attenuator sequence of trp operon these four regions (1, 2, 3 and 4) involved in stem loop formation (RNA secondary structures) in the nascent transcript. Which of the following paring is not possible? a) 1-2 b) 1-3 c) 2-3 d) 3-4 27. Which of the following gene expression is not affected by CII protein in phage a) cI b) int c) N d) Q 28. Which of the following is correct? a) Initiation of translation is highly conserved among the three kingdoms of life b) All factors involved in initiation of translation in eukaryotes possess GTPase activity c) The cognate tRNA for AAA codon is tRNA bearing UUU anticodon d) EF-Tu/ eEF1A is involved in translocation 29. Which of the following is sole energy source for E. coli? a) Glucose b) Fructose c) Lactose d) All of the above 30. The replicative DNA polymerase in E. coli is: a) DNA polymerase I b) DNA polymerase II c) DNA polymerase III d) DNA primase 31. Which of the following is not a posttranscriptional modification? a) Splicing b) 5 capping c) 3 polyadenylation d) Glycosylation 32. Reverse transcriptases are encoded by retroviruses. The only enzyme from mammalian cells with reverse transcriptase like activity is a) Telomerase b) Ribonuclease c) Ribozyme d) Caspase 33. Which of the following enzyme enzymes in cancer cells could help them proliferate indefinitely? a) Telomerase b) DNA polymerase I c) Ribonuclease H d) Chymotypsin

34. In cell-free lysates of E. coli, radioactive isotope, [-32P]ATP can be used to label the following: a) Closed circular duplex DNA b) Protein containing serine threonine and tyrosine c) Protein devoid of serine threonine and tyrosine d) Peptidoglycan 35. Which of the following organelle does not carry out transcription? a) Nucleus b) Peroxisome c) Chloroplast d) Mitochondrion 36. Which of the following is not correct? a) Signal sequence is a sequence of 10-15 hydrophobic amino acids residues, usually located carboxyl terminus of the nascent polypeptide b) ER-resident luminal proteins contain KDEL signal sequence c) t-SNARE is present on target membrane d) The formation of buds is facilitated by the binding of coat proteins to the cytoplasmic side of the bud 37. Which of the following is not correct? a) Complementation tests are valuable in determining whether or not two mutations belong to the same gene b) Alleles that fail to complement on another are placed in the different complementation groups c) Alleles that complement each other are usually present on different genes d) Number of complementation groups is equal to number of genes 38. Which of the following is not correct? a) Phage genome is linear, ds-DNA b) Decision between lysis and lysogeny depends on condition of growth of E. coli c) In good growth condition hfl gene product is active which destroy CII protein d) CII favors lytic development while Cro favors lysogeny 39. Which of the following is/ are correct about retroregulation? a) int gene can undergo retroregulation b) Retroregulation is a regulation downstream of the gene c) Retroregulation is a energy saving process d) all are correct 40. Which of the following is correct? a) cro and N genes are late genes b) cro gene product is a repressor that blocks transcription of repressor gene cI c) Promoters used for immediate early and delayed early transcription are different d) In lysogenic mode almost all of the phage genes are transcribed 41. Q and N gene product are antiterminators. (True/ False) 42. Genes are often controlled by extracellular signals. (True/ False) 43. ppGpp and pppGpp (stringent response) increases the synthesis of stable RNA (rRNA and tRNA) in cell. (True/ False) 44. phage having defective CII protein will form turbid plaque. (True/ False) 45. Attenuation mode of gene regulation usually involved in catabolic pathways. (True/ False)

46. i+o+z+y-/ i-ocz-y- merodiploid E.coli strain have a high -gal constitutively. (True/ False) 47. Operator is a trans acting element. (True/ False) 48. Conversion of 1st trp codon to stop codon in the leader sequence of trp operon will increase the expression of trp operon. (True/ False) 49. Name a protein that functions as an activator and repressor simultaneously binding to a site. 50. Two component regulation system usually involved in +ve gene regulation. (True/ False)

Answers: 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a, 5-b, 6-a, 7-b, 8-d, 9-d, 10-c, 11-a, 12-c, 13-d, 14-a, 15-d, 16-c, 17-c, 18-d, 19-d, 20-b, 21-b, 22-d, 23-c, 24-d, 25-c, 26-b, 27-c, 28-c, 29-c, 30-c, 31-d, 32-a, 33-a, 34-a, 35-b, 36-a, 37-b, 38-d, 39-d, 40-b, 41. True, 42.True, 43. False, 44. False, 45. True, 46. False, 47. False, 48. False, 49. repressor, 50. False.