Test - 6 (Answers & Hints )

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2013

T EST 6

ANSWERS
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. (1) (1) (3) (2) (2) (4) (4) (4) (3) (2) (3) (4) (4) (3) (1) (3) (2) (2) (4) (3) (4) (2) (4) (3) (1) (3) (4) (4) (1) (2) (1) (1) (4) (3) (2) (1) 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. (3) (2) (2) (4) (2) (1) (1) (1) (2) (2) (2) (4) (4) (3) (1) (3) (1) (4) (2) (2) (1) (3) (3) (3) (3) (2) (4) (3) (2) (3) (3) (4) (1) (2) (1) (1) 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. (1) (1) (1) (3) (2) (1) (1) (3) (3) (2) (2) (1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (1) (2) (4) (3) (1) (3) (3) (2) (2) (3) (4) 109. (2) 110. (1) 111. (3) 112. (4) 113. (1) 114. (3) 115. (4) 116. (4) 117. (3) 118. (3) 119. (3) 120. (3) 121. (1) 122. (1) 123. (1) 124. (2) 125. (4) 126. (3) 127. (2) 128. (4) 129. (4) 130. (4) 131. (1) 132. (4) 133. (3) 134. (1) 135. (2) 136. (3) 137. (1) 138. (3) 139. (4) 140. (1) 141. (3) 142. (1) 143. (4) 144. (3) 145. (2) 146 (1) 147. (2) 148. (1) 149. (4) 150. (1) 151. (2) 152. (4) 153. (4) 154. (4) 155. (2) 156. (1) 157. (3) 158. (1) 159. (1) 160. (3) 161. (3) 162. (4) 163. (4) 164. (3) 165. (1) 166. (2) 167. (4) 168. (2) 169. (2) 170. (3) 171. (4) 172. (1) 173. (2) 174. (2) 175. (4) 176. (1) 177. (2) 178. (4) 179. (4) 180. (3)

100. (3) 101. (4) 102. (3) 103. (1) 104. (4) 105. (3) 106. (2) 107. (3) 108. (4)

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2013

Test - 6 (Answers & Hints)

Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (1) Excess of electron can make the body negatively charged. 2. Answer (1) G E 10i 3 j
G s i

2 C r
F K 16 r2

+8 C

4k
6.

F 2

Answer (4)

G G E s
= 10 units 3. Answer (3)
A Q
A Q 2 a/2 C a /2 FB 3Q FA 4

2q B FB
B Q
B 3Q 4

+2q C FA q0 FD D q

1 Q 2 0 a

FC A +q
FA = FD FB = FC

FC

FB

FA B FB FD C

1 9Q 2 4 1 3Q 2 4 = 40 16 a 2 40 8(a 2 )

1 3Q 2 4 0 4a 2
3F 4

FC FA A D
Net F perpendicular to the side AB. 7. Answer (4)

4.

Answer (2)
y pj +q1 q1 (r, 0) q x

G E
G E

V i x

V j y

V k z
1 2

( 2)i (2y ) j

G E
G E

] [2i 2yj
i y j

Force on charge towards y axis. Force on dipole towards +y axis. 5. Answer (2)

1 2

G E at (1 , 1)
8. Answer (4)
V 1 r

+4 C r
F 32 K 2 r

+8 C

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Test - 6 (Answers & Hints ) 9. Answer (3)

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2013 16. Answer (3)

V
6= 6 6

total charge total capacitance

(4 0 r1 )V1 40 (r1 + r2 ) rV 1 1 r1 r2 10(24) 10 r2

2 1.5 6

60 + 6r2 = 240 6r2 = 180 r2 = 30 cm 10. Answer (2) On inner surface we get non-uniform distribution of charge but on outer surface every time this will be same and uniform. 11. Answer (3) Inside the metal sphere the potential is equal to V. 12. Answer (4) K = qV
KP K q qp 2 (V same) 1

6V
Req = 1.5
i 6 1.5 4A

17. Answer (2)

2q 2q P 2q
P(resultant)

P 2q

13. Answer (4) i2 r3 Independent of length. 14. Answer (3)

V2 R P 1 R P PA < PB RA > RB Bulb B draws more current due to less resistance. 15. Answer (1) R1 10 R2

P2
P 3

P2

2P P cos 60

2qa 3
Resultant bisects the angle between equal vectors. G ) P (resultant) 2qa 3( j 18. Answer (2) E = 16 0.04 2
dE d 16 0.08 dE d

R1 10 R2

1 1

50 cm

For neutral temperature,

50 cm

= 200C
i n c

R1 G
R1 R2 40 60

R2

, c = 0C

i = 400C

40 cm

60 cm

19. Answer (4)

R= V2 = 10 , i = 3 A P

On solving, R1 = 20

Resistor should be connected in series

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2013

Test - 6 (Answers & Hints)

i (R3 ) V V3 R3
20 2 = 0.6 A 30

120 V
120 = 3(R + 10) R = 30 20. Answer (3)
V2 R Coil in out into half R l P1

23. Answer (4)

Q Q Q

are connected in parallel.

R 2 R 2
R 4
V2 R /4

R 2 R 2

Q 1

1 K

K>1 Q < Q 24. Answer (3)

C = 0 A 3d (t1 + t 2 ) + 1 (t + t ) K 1 2

R
P2

P1 P2

1 4

(conductor) K

21. Answer (4)

2A

C =

0 A A = 0 3d 2d + 0 d
0A 3d

C0

r m cells
i mE mr R

C = 3C0 25. Answer (1)

C A B C D E

m = 10 22. Answer (2)

30 V = V1 10 = R1

R2 = 20 V2 = 12 V V R3 = 30 V3 = 2 V

V A, B, C, D, E are same potential points.

Ceq = C. 26. Answer (3)

V1 V2 V3 30 12 2 + + + + R1 R2 R3 = 10 20 30 V = 1 1 1 1 1 1 + + + + R1 R2 R 3 10 20 30
180 + 36 + 4 60 V = 20 volt = 6+3+ 2 60

C2

C6 C5

C1 A

C3 P

C4 Q

C7

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Test - 6 (Answers & Hints ) APQ are at same potential.

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2013

C2

M C6

C0 K 1 K

Charge on each capacitor q = C(2V0)

C1

C3
C4

C5

2q0 1 (1/K )
C7
30. Answer (2)

C3, C4, C5 are parallel.

C1

C2

C6

120 V +

C1

C2

C
P.D. across capacitor is 120 V.

C7
Ceq. = 8 F 27. Answer (4) 50 V each capacitor can bear, so 4 capacitor can be connected in series, each branch getting capacitance

1 C1C2 V2 2 C1 C2
= 9.6 103 J

31. Answer (1)

10 F = 2.5 F 4

For 10 F such 4 branches are possible. Minimum capacitor require = 4 4 = 16 28. Answer (4)
q (E1 E2 )C1C2 C1 C2 q C2 Vx Vy (E1 E2 )C1C2 C2 (C1 C2 ) (E1 E2 )C1 C1 C2

q1

q2

Outer surface of A Inner surface of A

Q1 Q2 2 Q1 Q1 Q2 2 Q1 Q2 2

Vx

Vy

Outer surface of D Inner surface of D

Vy

Vx

Q1 Q2 2 Q2 Q2 2 Q1 Q2 2 Q1
Q1 2 Q1 2 Q2

29. Answer (1) Before the introduction of dielectric, the charge on each capacitor will be same. q0 = C0V0 After inserting the dielectric C1 = C0K C2 = C0
q2 q1 Q1 Q2 2 Q2 2 Q1

Q2

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2013 32. Answer (1)
1 q2 2C On decreasing the separation, q remains constant. U

Test - 6 (Answers & Hints) 38. Answer (2) i (through PQ)

VPQ 2E 3

E 3r

K C

1 x

KPQ (Potential gradient) = (x separation between the plates)

E 2 E 2 K PQ 2E 300 PC

2E V/cm 3 100

U = Kx

dU dx U x P.E. also decreases by 2%.

PC

33. Answer (4) 34. Answer (3)

R

PC = 75 cm 39. Answer (2)

D + 500 C

12 V A R

2V +

total = 0 in = out
out

A B

R2 2

35. Answer (2) E = 2 dE 2 d P = 2 36. Answer (1) i = 2 + 3t

No reading is shown by Ammeter. VAB = 2 V V (across 500 ) = 10 V.

i 10 A 500

For ABCD
i 12 500 R

dq dt
q 0

2 3t
3 0

R = 100

dq

(2 3t )dt

40. Answer (4)

vd = eE m mR ne 2 A

q = 19.5 C 37. Answer (3)

D I1 2A 2V C VB 10 2I2 = VC 2
VB VC = 10 + 2I2 I2 = 1 A I1 = 2 + I2 I1 = 3 A

2 2 10 V I2 B

m ne 2 decreases with temperature increase. P

41. Answer (2) We know that m = z it zvt
m1 m2 v1t1 or v 2t2 m2 = v 2t 2 m1 = 1.5 g v1t1

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Test - 6 (Answers & Hints ) 42. Answer (1) Faradays constant = charge of 1 mole electrons F = Ne 43. Answer (1)

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2013 From A to B FE remains perpendicular to v. W = W (electrostatic force) + W (gravity) = 0 + (mg) (2r) = mg2r 44. Answer (1)
a a O q

+ FE A Fg v

+q

At, OV = 0 towards +x axis V < 0 towards x axis V > 0 45. Answer (2)

[ CHEMISTRY]
46. 47. 48. Answer (2) van Arkel method is used to refine Zr and Ti. Answer (2) Fact Answer (4) During the extraction of copper, slag formation takes place as follow: FeO + SiO2 FeSiO3 49. 50. 51. Answer (4) Answer (3) Fact Answer (1) Na3AlF6 is used to decrease the melting point and to increase conductivity of Al2O3. 52. Answer (3) Fact 53. 54. 55. Answer (1) Fact Answer (4) Fact Answer (2) Due to presence of two electrons in d-orbital in excited state of sulphur. 56. 57. Answer (2) Fact Answer (1)
8NH3 + 3Cl2 N2 + 6NH4 Cl
(Excess)

58. 59.

Answer (3) Ca3P2 + 6H2O 3Ca(OH)2 + 2PH3 Answer (3) Mg3N2 + 6H2O 3Mg(OH)2 + 2NH3 Ca3N2 + 6H2O 3Ca(OH)2 + 2NH3 NH3 + HCl NH4Cl (White fumes)

60. 61.

Answer (3) Fact Answer (3) SO3 is first absorbed in H2SO4 to form H2S2O 7 (oleum) to which, water is then added.

62.

Answer (2)

O OH
63. 64. 65. 66. 67. Answer (4) Fact Answer (3) Answer (2) H2SO4 + HI I2 + SO2 + H2O Answer (3)

O OH

Structure of H2P2O7 is H O P O P O H

Cl2 cannot be oxidised with respect to I2. Answer (3)

O H O Cl O O O H O Cl O O

Cl2O7 + H2O

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2013 68. 69. 70. 71. Answer (4) Fact Answer (1) ZnS is white. Answer (2) Fact Answer (1) 86. 85. 83. 84. Answer (2) Answer (1)

Test - 6 (Answers & Hints)

Ni(CO)4 sp3 hybridisation Tetrahedral Answer (2) Fact Answer (3) K3[Co(NO2)6] in solution will furnish 3K+ ions and [Co(NO2)3]3 i.e., a total of 4 particles. 87. Answer (1) Fact 88. Answer (2) The charge on co-ordination complex ion is +4 to balance and neutralize, there should be present 2SO42 ions. 89. Answer (1) In square planar complex, d8 configuration would have no unpaired electrons, so the dipole moment would be zero. 90. Answer (2) With 6 co-ordination number and no water of dehydration, the formula should be [M(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 + 2AgNO3 [M(H2O)5Cl](NO3)2 + 2AgCl
Number of Cl ions = 200 0.01 2 = 0.004 1000

XeF6 + 3H2O

XeO3 + 6HF Explosive in nature

72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78.

Answer (1) XeF2 + SbF5 [XeF]+ [SbF6] Answer (1) Answer (1) Fact Answer (1) Fact Answer (3) Fact Answer (2) 6, Cr O bond are equivalent due to resonance. Answer (1) In VOSO4, V is in +3 oxidation state and has d2 configuration. Hence, paramagnetic and coloured due to d d transition.

0.004 mol of Cl would react with 0.004 of AgNO3 So the vol

79. 80. 81.

Answer (1) Ionic radii of lanthanides decrease along the series. Answer (3) Fact Answer (3) In acidic medium the oxidation state of chromium changes from +6 to +3.

M=

n 1000 V (ml)
0.004 1000 V

0.1 =

82.

Answer (2) Fact

V=

0.004 1000 = 40 ml 0.1

[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Answer (4) Alternation of generation is observed in sexual reproduction when syngamy produces sporophyte and meiosis produces gametophyte. 92. Answer (3) Potato tuber forms axillary bud. Lotus forms rhizome. 93. Answer (1) Statements (b) and (e) represent post-fertilization development. 94. Answer (3) Red algae do not produce flagellated gametes. 95. Answer (3) Vascular joining called inosculation is required.

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Test - 6 (Answers & Hints ) 96. Answer (2) CChara is usually monoecious. Chara shows internal fertilization. 97. Answer (2) Zygote is the mean to withstand unfavourable conditions. 98. Answer (3) Most algae show external fertilization. 99. Answer (4) Date palm is dioecious. 100. Answer (3) Only a diploid plant body can produce meiogametes. 101. Answer (4) Perennial polycarpic do not show clear distinction into these phases. 102. Answer (3) 103. Answer (1) Grasses spread by runners. 104. Answer (4) Conidia are mitospores that arise exogenously. 105. Answer (3) False fruit arise when beside ovary other parts are also associated in fruit formation. 106. Answer (2) Emasculation prevents self-pollination. 107. Answer (3) It is ovarian wall which develops into pericarp. 108. Answer (4) A Thalamus, B Seed, 109. Answer (2) Nonalbuminous seeds store food in their cotyledons. 110. Answer (1) Both monocot and dicot show similarity in development uptill octant stage. 111. Answer (3) Epicotyl terminates as plumule. 112. Answer (4) Syngamy in egg (i) False fruit (ii) Parthenocarpic

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2013 113. Answer (1) Coconut shows free nuclear endosperm where at later stage cellularization takes place. 114. Answer (3) 115. Answer (4) In GSI system, rejection reaction occurs in style. 116. Answer (4) Pollen grains most commonly (> 60%) have 2-celled condition. 117. Answer (3) 118. Answer (3) Cross-pollination is the rule for dioecious groups. 119. Answer (3) Commelina shows self-pollination. 120. Answer (3) Any one nucellar cell behaves as MMC. 121. Answer (1) Agamospermy involved seed formation without fertilization. 122. Answer (1) PEN and aleurone layer are triploid. 123. Answer (1) Male gametophyte i.e. pollen grain maximally have three cells. 124. Answer (2) Most of the plants are pollinated by bees. 125. Answer (4) A typical anther is bilobed and each lobe with two theca. 126. Answer (3) 127. Answer (2) Pinus have colourful pollen grains due to pollenkitt substances. 128. Answer (4) 129. Answer (4) Tapetum is inner wall layer of anther. 130. Answer (4) Ornithophilous flowers are scentless. 131. Answer (1) Flies and beetles visit flowers with foul smell. 132. Answer (4) Pea have only chasmogamous flowers.

Triple fusion sec nucleus (2n) fuse with male nucleus in central cell

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2013 133. Answer (3) Adventive embryony involves sporophytic budding. 134. Answer (1) Simple polyembryony involves formation of supernumerary embryo sacs with in an ovule. 135. Answer (2) Zygote starts division only when endosperm is developed to certain extent. 136. Answer (3) Relaxin and hCG are produced during pregnancy. 137. Answer (1) Zygote is a single celled structure, therefore, (c) is wrong. 138. Answer (3) Relaxin facilitates child birth by relaxing pubic symphysis. 139. Answer (4) Decrease in hCG due to removal of ovaries. 140. Answer (1) By the end of 12 weeks, most of the major organ systems are formed. 141. Answer (3) Two meiotic divisions are required. 142. Answer (1) Males have a long urethra which transports both semen and urine. 143. Answer (4) Testosterone Estrogen 144. Answer (3) LH is called ovulation hormone and LH surge occurs prior to ovulation. 145. Answer (2) Sertoli cells provide nourishment. 146 Answer (1) a Urethra and b Prostate gland are unpaired structures. 147. Answer (2) Bartholins gland occurs in female reproductive system. 148. Answer (1) Glans is enlarged head of penis and epididymis stores sperms. 149. Answer (4) Ligament attaches uterus to ovary and body wall. 150. Answer (1) 151. Answer (2)

Test - 6 (Answers & Hints)

Endometrium is absorbed in mammals with estrous cycle. 152. Answer (4) 153. Answer (4) 154. Answer (4) Ovum 23 Oogonia 46 155. Answer (2) Oogenesis has many blocks. Only primary oocyte are present at birth. 156. Answer (1) Spermiation is release of mature sperms from tubule to its lumen. 157. Answer (3) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone from hypothalamus is key player in attaining puberty. 158. Answer (1) 159. Answer (1) Sperm head has haploid nucleus. 160. Answer (3) Meiosis resumes at puberty and primary oocyte matures to form tertiary oocyte. 161. Answer (3) LH is ovulation hormone. 162. Answer (4) hCG secreted only in first trimester and then its amount falls. 163. Answer (4) 164. Answer (3) Progesterone is a dominant hormone of secretory phase. 165. Answer (1) Estrogen and progesterone together in females and testosterone in males exert negative feedback on hypothalamus. 166. Answer (2) 167. Answer (4) Less progesterone triggers menstruation in uterus. 168. Answer (2) Zygote is unicellular. 169. Answer (2) Capaciation starts in vagina.

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Test - 6 (Answers & Hints ) 170. Answer (3) Release of acrosin fast block slow block 171. Answer (4) Blastocyst is enclosed by zona pellucida which is lost during implantation. 172. Answer (1) Duration of luteal phase is fixed i.e., 14 days. 173. Answer (2) Size of successive blastomeres decreases due to intact zona pellucida. 174. Answer (2) Chorion develops from trophoblast.

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2013 175. Answer (4) Gastrulation is marked by obliteration of blastocoel. 176. Answer (1) Haemochorionic placenta in man. 177. Answer (2) Colostrum is rich in IgA. 178. Answer (4) Formation of eyelash is seen at end of 24 weeks. 179. Answer (4) Inner cell mass has undifferentiated cells. 180. Answer (3) Viability of ovum is one day.

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