Documente Academic
Documente Profesional
Documente Cultură
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Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 C U U K U K U U U U U U S 4 6 3 5 8 3 3 5 3 5 5 CO 1, 2 1, 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO A2, 1, 3; E1 D2; E1 G3, 4, 2, 5 I1, 2, 4 J2, 4, 6, 8, 11; K1 J12 L6 M5, 6 M2, 4 O2 P1, 3, 5, 6
LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome
028bik
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W Z
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes lipids. Ribosomes on the rough endoplasmic reticulum (W) produce proteins. Proteins enter the lumen of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (W). Proteins pinch off the rough endoplasmic reticulum in vesicles. OR Proteins travel to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum and are carried off in transport vesicles. Golgi bodies (X) store the proteins. There is modification of proteins at the Golgi bodies. Golgi bodies package proteins into (secretory) vesicles. Vesicles (Y) carry cell products from the Golgi to the cell membrane (Z). Vesicles attach to the cell membrane and products are released through exocytosis. OR Protein is released via exocytosis. OR Vesicles fuse with cell membrane and then releases their contents out of the cell.
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2. a) Describe replication of this molecule. Unzipping, the breaking of hydrogen bonds between the bases that run down the centre of the DNA molecule, splits the two strands apart. Complementary base pairing occurs to bond new nucleotides into place along each strand. DNA polymerase acts as a proofreader. The adjacent nucleotides join together to form new sugar-phosphate backbones. The result is two identical copies of DNA. Two semiconservative copies are made.
b) What is the role of this molecule in determining the structure of a protein? The sequence of bases in this DNA molecule determines the sequence of amino acids in the resulting protein. Produce mRNA tRNA amino acid.
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c) Reading top to bottom, determine the mRNA sequence that would be transcribed from the left-hand strand of this molecule. (1 mark) C G A C U A (1 mark)
d) Give the anticodons that are complementary to this mRNA sequence. G C U G A U (1 mark)
(1 mark)
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3. a) Why do oxygen molecules enter a cell at a different rate than protein molecules. Oxygen molecules are smaller. Oxygen molecules enter by diffusion. Oxygen is a gas and gases diffuse across the cell membrane more quickly. Oxygen is neutral / unchanged / non-polar. Protein molecules are larger. Protein molecules enter by endocytosis.
(1 mark)
b) State two ways to increase the rate of oxygen movement into a cell. increase the temperature increase the concentration gradient OR explanation of oxygen gradient OR increase the respiratory rate increase the metabolic rate of the cell increase cytoplasmic streaming secretion of thyroxin Note to markers: Do not accept increase in surface area. any two for 1 mark each
(2 marks)
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4. Explain how the structure above is well-suited for its function. The stomach has folds that increase the surface area. Gastric glands in the lining secrete HCl (hydrochloric acid) that activates pepsinogen / kills bacteria. Mucous cells in the lining secrete mucus that protects the stomach lining (prevents auto-digestion or ulcers). Cells in the lining secrete pepsinogen to hydrolyze proteins into peptides. The stomach can expand to store partially digested food. Muscular walls mechanically break down food. Smooth muscles move chyme to the pyloric sphincter via peristalsis. Cardiac sphincter prevents food from re-entering the esophagus. Pyloric sphincter controls the amount of chyme entering the duodenum. Cells secrete gastrin to release more gastric juice. Gastric glands in lining secrete pepsinogen that will be activated to pepsin and digest proteins dipeptides.
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Use the following list to answer question 5 a). aorta renal vein renal artery subclavian vein subclavian artery pulmonary artery anterior vena cava
5. a) Choose the vessel names from the list above to fill in the boxes that describe the path of blood from the arm to the kidney. (Use only one term per box. Not all of the terms will be used.) (4 marks)
arm
subclavian vein
lungs
aorta
renal artery
kidney
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b) Give one function of each of the following. carotid arteries: transport / carry blood to the head* transport / carry nutrients to the head* transport / carry oxygenated blood to the head* detect / sense hydrogen ion concentrations in the blood detect / sense carbon dioxide concentrations in the blood elastic design counteracts effects of high blood pressure / can withstand high blood pressure
lymph veins: transport fats / lipids carry lymphocytes / white blood cells carry lymph (from the tissues to the circulatory system [subclavian veins]) carry excess tissue fluid back to circulatory system carry excess tissue fluid to lymph nodes for cleansing / purification any one for 1 mark
antibodies: can be used to determine blood type (blood typing) combine with antigens, inactivating them / marking them for destruction fight infection / foreign invaders provide immunity to pathogens / disease neutralize antigens / pathogens any one for 1 mark
chordae tendineae: prevent the AV (atrioventricular valves) from inverting prevent heart valves from inverting anchor AV valves stabilize / give structural support to AV valves prevent AV valves from opening in wrong direction any one for 1 mark
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6. Describe what happens to the concentrations of oxygen, carbon dioxide and nutrients in the blood as it moves between points X and Y in the skin. (3 marks) The concentration of nutrients decreases. (1 mark) The concentration of oxygen decreases (the concentration of oxyhemoglobin decreases). (1 mark) The concentration of carbon dioxide increases (the concentration of carbaminohemoglobin increases). (1 mark) OR Oxygen / nutrient concentration high at X and carbon dioxide concentration high at Y. (1 mark)
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7. Explain why the breathing rate increases in someone who is exercising strenuously. Carbon dioxide concentrations in the blood increase because of increased cellular respiration due to exercising. The medulla oblongata detects the increased levels of carbon dioxide / hydrogen ions. The medulla oblongata sends an increasing number of impulses to the diaphragm and rib muscles causing them to contract faster. Muscles need an increased oxygen supply. Increased muscle activity needs ATP. Increased hydrogen ion concentration increases the breathing rate. Increased carbon dioxide concentration increases the breathing rate. Muscles need more glucose. Note to markers: Do not give marks for the following: More oxygen needed by body or just cells. Sympathetic nervous system (adrenalin) stimulates an increase in breathing rate (fight or flight reaction). More oxygen is used for the production of ATP from glucose.
(3 marks)
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8. Describe the sequence of events required for a nerve impulse to cross a synapse. (You may use a labelled diagram as part of your answer. You may use a pencil to draw your diagram.) An action potential travelling along an axon reaches a presynaptic membrane. Calcium ions flow in. Microfilaments contract to pull synaptic vesicles filled with a neurotransmitter. Vesicles pulled to the presynaptic membrane. The neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft. The neurotransmitter diffuses across to the postsynaptic membrane. Neurotransmitter binds with a receptor. The threshold of the postsynaptic membrane is reached, resulting in the opening of the sodium gates. Sodium ions entering the postsynaptic membrane create an action potential (depolarization). Enzymes break down excess neurotransmitter / repackaged into vesicles. Note to markers: Student loses 1 mark for incorrect sequence. If diagram only, up to full marks awarded if sequence and process is clear.
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Y X
transmits nerve impulses to the brain transmits nerve impulses from the sensory neuron to the motor neuron modulates nerve impulses
Structure Y: receptor of environmental stimuli initiates nerve impulses sends nerve impulses to sensory neuron any one for 1 mark
Structure Z:
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insulates the neuron speeds up nerve impulses helps neurons regenerate causes saltatory conduction of nerve impulses - 13 -
(1 mark)
b) Describe the process that occurs between X and Y. The materials move from X (glomerulus) to Y (Bowmans capsule). Pressure filtration. The materials move due to high blood pressure. Blood plasma separates into filterable and non-filterable components.
c) Identify two components of blood that cannot move into the filtrate under normal conditions. blood proteins proteins / enzymes penicillin platelets red blood cells white blood cells formed elements any two for 1 mark each
(2 marks)
Note to markers: Student can not receive marks for red blood cells / white blood cells / platelets AND formed elements.
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11. a) Give three characteristics of semen and describe how each of these characteristics facilitates the function of semen. Semen contains water for sperm transport. Semen contains lubricants for sexual intercourse. Semen contains buffers to maintain pH. Semen is basic and sperm are more viable in a basic solution. Semen contains fructose which provides an energy source for swimming. Semen contains prostaglandins which cause the uterus to contract and propel the sperm along. Semen contains coagulants which cause the semen to coagulate and remain in the vagina. Semen contains sperm which are necessary for fertilization. Semen contains mucus which neutralizes acidic urine in urethra of male.
(3 marks)
any three characteristics for 1 2 mark each AND any three functions 1 mark each for 2
b) What would result if luteinizing hormone (LH) was not secreted in the male? There would be no sex drive. Sperm would not be able to mature. Secondary sex characteristics would not develop. The interstitial cells are responsible for testosterone secretion. The interstitial cells would not secrete testosterone. Decrease negative feedback. Note to markers: Student may give a function of testosterone not listed.
(2 marks)
END OF KEY
028bik
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Biology 12
June 2002 Provincial Examination
1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 DELETED 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 3
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Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C U U H U U U U U H U S 6 4 6 6 5 3 4 6 7 3 CO 1 2 2 2, 3 3, 2 3 3 3 3 3 PLO C9, 11, 2, 1 E1 G1, 3, 4, 7 H1; I4 I9, 2, 4; B3 J1 L1, 3, 5 N2, 3 O1, 2, 3, 4; J12 P3
LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer
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1. a) Identify each of the following parts of the molecule. Part X: amine group amino group either one for 1 mark
Part Y: acid group carboxyl group (acid) either one for 1 mark
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b) State two different polymers that are synthesized from the molecule and give a function of each. (4 marks: 1 mark each for polymer; 1 mark each for function)
Polymer
hemoglobin
structural proteins
catalyzes reactions OR lowers the activation energy OR increases the rate of a reaction
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2. Describe how the following are related in terms of their function in protein synthesis. DNA and mRNA: DNA serves as a template for the production of mRNA. (1 mark) mRNA carries a complement of the DNA code to the cytoplasm. (1 mark) (2 marks)
tRNA and ribosomes: tRNA brings amino acids to the ribosomes. (1 mark) Anticodons on tRNA pair with mRNA codons at the ribosomes. (1 mark)
(2 marks)
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3. The cells of the thyroid gland are able to take in iodine atoms and may contain iodine concentrations up to 25 times that of the surrounding tissue fluid. In an experiment designed to study factors affecting the rate of iodine intake, thyroid cells were cultured and placed in a medium containing normal blood concentrations of iodine. Temperature and glucose concentrations were varied and the effects recorded. The results of the study are shown in the table below. Glucose Concentration (%)
0.20 0.01 0.20
Temperature (C)
38 38 60
a) Explain the observed results for sample A. The concentration of iodine is lower because iodine is transported by active transport which requires energy. (1 mark) Since there is less glucose available which fuels ATP (energy) production, less active transport occurs. (1 mark)
(2 marks)
b) Explain the observed results for sample B. Active transport requires carrier proteins and carrier proteins are denatured at high temperatures ( 60o C). (1 mark) Metabolic enzymes needed to produce ATP are denatured which leads to a lack of ATP. (1 mark)
(2 marks)
c) Explain how the movement of amino acids into the cells would be affected by the conditions in sample B. The rate decreases. (1 mark) Amino acids are transported by carrier proteins that are denatured. (1 mark)
(2 marks)
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4. Describe the pH in each of the following regions along the digestive tract. Identify the secretion which determines the pH of the region and give the source of the secretion. stomach: pH: The pH is low (23). (1 mark) secretion: hydrochloric acid (HCl) (1 mark) source of secretion: gastric glands (1 mark) (3 marks)
small intestine: pH: The pH is high (88.5). (1 mark) secretion: sodium bicarbonate ( NaHCO3 ) (1 mark) source of secretion: pancreas (1 mark)
(3 marks)
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5. For each of the following processes, describe how the small intestine functions to digest food and absorb nutrients. digestion: contains glands which produce enzymes secretes maltase which breaks down maltose secretes peptidases which break down peptides secretes nucleases which break down nucleic acids to nucleotides creates peristaltic waves which aid in mixing of food and enzymes length allows time for enzymatic reactions to occur (3 marks) any three for 1 mark each
absorption: is warm and moist to increase diffusion is very long which increases absorptive area intestinal wall is folded to increase absorptive area contains millions of villi, which are further covered with microvilli to increase absorptive area each villus contains lacteal to absorb the products of lipid digestion contains large numbers of capillaries to absorb nutrients into blood
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6. a) Identify the type of blood vessel shown in the diagram. artery (1 mark)
(1 mark)
b) State two functions of the blood vessel in the diagram. maintains blood pressure carries blood away from the heart carries nutrients and oxygen to the tissues controls amount of blood going to various parts of the body any two for 1 mark each
(2 marks)
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7. Place the correct number for each of the following characteristics in the appropriate box at the locations in the diagram. (Only put one number per box. Not all of the characteristics will be used.) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. has stretch receptors prevents collapse of the lungs filters, warms and moistens air stops food from entering the lungs allows food and air to pass through has cilia, cartilaginous rings and mucous membranes
(4 marks)
3 5
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8. a) In what type of situation does the sympathetic nervous system respond? emergency fight or flight either one for 1 mark
(1 mark)
b) What division is the sympathetic system part of? autonomic nervous system peripheral nervous system either one for 1 mark
(1 mark)
c) State four effects on the body when the sympathetic nervous system is active. releases noradrenalin increases breathing rate causes dilation of the pupils inhibits the digestive system causes an increase in heart rate increases blood flow to the skeletal muscles any four for 1 mark each
(4 marks)
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Y Z
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b) In an experiment, fluids were removed at point X and at point Y and the composition of each sample was analyzed. Describe three ways in which the fluid obtained at point X is different from the fluid obtained at point Y. (3 marks) higher concentration of glucose in X and lower in Y (glucose used to produce ATP for active transport in the proximal tubule or amino acids or nucleotides) higher concentration of urea at point X (or lower at point Y) higher concentration of histamines at point X (excreted by tubular excretion at distal convoluted tubule) than point Y higher concentration of antibiotics (e.g. penicillin) at point X than Y (excreted by tubular excretion at distal convoluted tubule) higher concentration of uric acid at point X than Y any three for 1 mark each
c) Explain how an increase in blood pressure from 120/80 to 160/100 would increase the volume of urine produced. more fluid would be moved from the glomerulus to Bowmans capsule (1 mark) less antidiuretic hormone (ADH) would be produced and more fluid would be excreted as a result (1 mark)
(2 marks)
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10. Give one function for each of the following substances found in seminal fluid. (3 marks: 1 mark each)
Substance
Function
fructose
prostaglandins
to neutralize the acidity of the vagina OR to provide suitable pH for sperm survival OR to provide suitable pH for sperm motility
END OF KEY
026bik
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Biology 12
January 2002 Provincial Examination
H 1 U 1 U 1 U 1 U 1 H 1 U 1 K 1 U 1 U 1 H 1 U 1 H 1 U 1 LETED K 1 K 1 U 1 H 1 U 1 K 1 K 1 U 1 K 1 H 1
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Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 C K U U U K H U U U U S 4 4 6 6 6 4 5 2 7 6 CO 1 2 2 1, 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO D3, 4; A1 E1 G3, 7 B3; I1, 9; P3, 7 J9 K1, 4 M5, 6 M8 O2, 4, 5 P3, 1
LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer
021bik
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(1 mark)
DNA having genes from two different sources / cells / organisms / species. (1 mark)
b) Give two uses of recombinant DNA. producing vaccines / antibodies / antibiotics determining sex of the fetus diagnosis of infections and genetic diseases production of human proteins (e.g., insulin and growth hormone, interferon) genetically-modified organisms improving crops / livestock for superior yields any two for 1 mark each
(2 marks)
c) In which organelle of a human cell would recombinant DNA be found? nucleus mitochondria either one for 1 mark
(1 mark)
021bik
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2. Give a role of each of the following nucleic acids in the production of an enzyme. (4 marks: 1 mark each) DNA: Contains sequence of bases that codes for the enzyme. Contains triplet code / blueprint / recipe / genetic code. Transcription. Produces mRNA. any one for 1 mark
mRNA: Transcribes DNA sequence A=U, G=C and travels to the site of enzyme production in the cytoplasm. Involved in translation. Carries triplet code / genetic code / codon from nucleus to ribosome / endoplasmic reticulum. any one for 1 mark
rRNA: Involved in translation as a component of ribosomes (along with protein). Attaches to tRNA / mRNA. Reads mRNA. Site of codon / anticodon matching. any one for 1 mark
tRNA: Carries specific amino acids to rRNA. Translation. Attaches to ribosome / rRNA. Contains anticodon. Matches mRNA codon. any one for 1 mark
021bik
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3. In an experiment, 10 cubes of potato each weighing 10 grams and cut from the same potato were placed in 10 different numbered beakers. Each beaker contained a different concentration of sucrose solution as shown in the table below. After 24 hours, the potato cubes were removed, blotted dry and their weights entered into the data table. Concentration of Sucrose (%) 0.0 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 Weight of Potato Cube After 24 Hours (grams) 13.4 12.5 11.2 10.3 9.2 8.5 8.0 7.7 7.5 7.4 Percent Change in Mass (%) 34 25 12 3 8 15 20 23 25 26
Beaker 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
a) Why were all the pieces cut from the same potato? to ensure consistent results as a control (same amount of solute) different potatoes may contain different quantities of water and solutes and therefore gain or lose more or less water by osmosis any one for 1 mark
(1 mark)
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b) Graph the data that compares the concentration of sucrose to the percent change in mass. (2 marks: 1 mark for plotting points; 1 mark for drawing line)
30 20 10
0 10 20 30
concentration of sucrose (%) Mark distribution: 1 mark for plotting the points correctly 1 mark for drawing the line
c) Use your graph to estimate at what point the concentration of sucrose in the potato is equal to the sucrose concentration in the beaker. accept a range of 1.5 to 1.9 (1 mark)
(1 mark)
d) Explain why some of the potato cubes gained mass. Water moved into the cells by osmosis. (1 mark) AND The potato cytoplasm has a higher sucrose concentration. The potato cubes were in a hypotonic solution. The potato cytoplasm was hypertonic to the surrounding solution. The solution had a lower solute concentration.
021bik
(2 marks)
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4. For each of the following, indicate whether the optimum pH is acidic, basic or neutral and explain why that pH is needed for normal functions. (6 marks: 1 mark each for optimum pH; 1 mark each for explanation) stomach: Optimum pH: acidic either one for 1 mark between 2.0 and 3.0 Note: any pH less than 7.0 accepted Explanation: acid environment kills bacteria acid environment needed to convert pepsinogen into pepsin
small intestine: Optimum pH: basic alkaline between 7.5 and 9.0 Note: any pH greater than 7.0 accepted
Explanation: neutralizes acid chyme alkaline environment needed for optimum enzyme function for any enzyme activated in the small intestine
Explanation: counteracts acidity of the vagina sperm are more viable in a basic solution
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5. Complete the following table describing components of the blood. Red Blood Cells
Platelets
Structural Description
cell fragments OR
Function
to initiate clotting
Site of Production
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6. When people are involved in an exercise program, changes in the circulatory system occur. a) Explain why the number of capillaries in the skeletal muscle tissue increases. to increase oxygen delivery to the cells to increase nutrient delivery to the cells to increase removal of carbon dioxide / heat / lactic acid / hydrogen ions / bicarbonate ions / wastes produced (2 marks)
b) Explain why the maximum heart rate is lower for the same amount of exercise. The left ventricle is larger due to increased contractions / hypertrophy of the heart muscle results. The heart is more efficient at pumping blood. The cardiac output has increased; therefore, more blood moves out of the heart per beat (increased stroke volume). The heart has become stronger. An increased red blood cell concentration means greater oxygen delivery, and fewer heart beats are required.
(2 marks)
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X Z
7. a) Identify each of the following structures. Structure X: synaptic knob synaptic ending synaptic button terminal end bulb presynaptic membrane / axon
Structure Y: postsynaptic membrane dendrite / cell body / muscle cell gland effector
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b) Identify the substance stored and released by structure Z and describe its function. (2 marks: 1 mark for substance; 1 mark for function) Substance: neurotransmitter name of a specific neurotransmitter
Function: diffuse across the synapse and fit into receptor sites cause depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane which continues the nerve impulse cause the sodium gates to open cause hyperpolarization transport impulse excitatory effects inhibitory effects
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c) Draw an arrow on the diagram above to indicate the direction of the nerve impulse. (1 mark)
X Z (1 mark)
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8. a) Identify structure X. interneuron association neuron relay neuron any one for 1 mark
(1 mark)
b) What is the function of structure Y? receive sensory information from the external environment initiates the electrical impulse either one for 1 mark
(1 mark)
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9. a) Write the names of the structures indicated by each of the arrows in the boxes provided. (3 marks)
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b) Give a function of each of the following in the excretory system. (4 marks: 1 mark each) carrier proteins: Specific carriers actively transport amino acids / glucose / penicillin / histamines / bicarbonate ion / creatinine out of the filtrate. (1 mark)
peritubular capillary network: Returns water and nutrients entering the nephron to the circulatory system. Excretion of wastes. either one for 1 mark
aldosterone: Causes re-absorption of sodium ions increasing blood plasma levels. Causes excretion of potassium ions. Promotes water reabsorption. any one for 1 mark
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10. Identify three components of seminal fluid and give one function of each component. (6 marks: 1 mark each for name; 1 mark each for function)
Component
Function
prostaglandins
mucus
water
sperm
END OF KEY
021bik
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Biology 12
November 2002 Provincial Examination
0211bik
December 9, 2002
Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 C K U U U U U H U U K U S 6 3 4 4 9 5 3 3 6 3 4 CO 1 1 2 2 3 3, 2 3 3 3 3 3 PLO A1; B2; C8 D5 E1 H3, 1, 6 I1, 2, 4, 5, 7 K1, 3, 4, 6; L6; G7 J9, 11, 8 J12 N4 O1, 2 P9, 10, 12
LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer
0211bik
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December 9, 2002
PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks 1. Give two functions of each of the following. water: solvent lubricant hydrolysis temperature regulator any two for 1 mark each (2 marks) Suggested Time: 75 minutes
lipids: digestion of macro molecules steroids / hormones membrane component long-term energy source thermal insulation as fats padding for organs as fats myelin sheath on neurons specific example (destruction of tadpole tails or webbed fingers in human embryos) recycle molecular content inside cell any two for 1 mark each
(2 marks)
lysosome: intracellular digestion autolysis / autodigestion digestion of food vacuoles digestion of macromolecules recycle molecular content inside cell digestion of worn-out cell organelles hydrolysis of macrophages (granular leukocytes) specific example (destruction of tadpole tails or webbed fingers in human embryo) any two for 1 mark each
(2 marks)
0211bik
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December 9, 2002
2. Complete the table below by giving three differences between DNA and RNA. (3 marks: 1 mark for each contrasting pair)
DNA
RNA
double-stranded molecule
single-stranded molecule
linear
one type
three types
contains deoxyribose
contains ribose
0211bik
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December 9, 2002
3. Describe the structure and function of each of the following molecules. (4 marks: 1 mark each for structure; 1 mark each for function) mRNA: structure: single stranded contains codons linear chain of molecules / nucleotides complementary to DNA template but has uracil not thymine
function: dictates the sequence of amino acids transports genetic code transcribed from DNA to ribosomes
tRNA: structure: single stranded clover leaf / T / L / hairpin shape contains anticodons has attachment site for amino acids anticodons are made up of three nucleotide bases
function: transport a specific amino acid to ribosome / mRNA-ribosome complex anticodon bonds to mRNA codon to place the amino acid translates the mRNA strand into a polypeptide at the ribosome by bringing the amino acid to the mRNA
0211bik
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December 9, 2002
4. Explain how enzymes catalyze reactions in cells. The substrate(s) fit into the active site of the enzyme. An enzyme-substrate complex is formed. The product(s) are released from the enzyme leaving the enzyme unchanged. / Products are produced (explain in the process) and released. / Enzyme is NOT changed by the reaction. / Enzyme specificity (each enzyme can only catalyze a specific reaction or can only bind to a specific substrate). / Coenzymes or cofactors are needed by some enzymes for the reaction to proceed. / An enzyme can only function at an optimum temperature and/or pH. The active site has unique shape. The energy of activation is lower. any four for 1 mark each
(4 marks)
0211bik
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December 9, 2002
5. a) Describe how carbohydrates are digested and absorbed in the human digestive system. (6 marks) In the mouth physical digestion occurs. In the stomach physical digestion occurs. any five for In the mouth, salivary amylase hydrolyzes the starch into maltose. 1 mark each In the small intestine, pancreatic amylase hydrolyzes the starch into maltose. In the small intestine, maltase hydrolyzes the maltose into glucose. AND Glucose is actively transported into the capillary net in the villi. (1 mark) Note to markers: Student must discuss absorption to receive full marks.
b) Describe the role of the pancreas and the liver in maintaining blood sugar levels. (3 marks) When blood glucose levels are high, insulin is released by the pancreas. Increases cell permeability to glucose. This makes cells take up glucose from the blood. The liver stores excess glucose as glycogen. The blood glucose level drops, and the liver converts glycogen back to glucose which is released into the blood. Insulin stimulates conversion of glucose to glycogen. Note to markers: Answer must include one liver and one pancreas. any three for 1 mark each
0211bik
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December 9, 2002
6. In an effort to improve fitness level, an adult participates in a tennis program for five months. The following data were collected over this time period. April resting pulse rate (beats/min) pulse rate during exercise (beats/min) time for pulse to return to resting rate after exercising (min) resting blood pressure (mm Hg) resting breathing rate (breaths/min) breathing rate during exercise (breaths/min) 75 140 13 125/89 17 35 August 65 110 2 120/80 15 25
a) In August the persons resting blood pressure is 120/80. Explain how the numbers 120 and 80 relate to heart function.
(2 marks)
120 is the systolic pressure, the highest pressure after the heart contracts. (1 mark) 80 is the diastolic pressure, the lowest pressure (heart at rest) (contraction / relaxation of left ventricle). (1 mark)
b) Explain why the pulse rate during exercise went down between April and August. The heart muscle is stronger, producing greater volume with every pump (increased cardiac output). Larger, more efficient heart with increased vascularization results in stroke volume.
(1 mark)
c) Explain the change in breathing rate from resting to exercise. Exercising produces increased concentrations of CO2 (carbon dioxide) and H+ (hydrogen ions). These stimulate the medulla oblongata, which stimulates breathing rate. There is increased demand for oxygen by the muscle cells. There is increased need for ATP at muscle. any two for 1 mark each
(2 marks)
0211bik
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December 9, 2002
7. Explain how the lymphatic and circulatory systems respond to a viral infection. Antibodies are produced by white blood cells. Antibodies attach to specific antigens. White blood cells engulf the inactivated virus. The number of lymphocytes increase in the lymph nodes. Viruses are removed from the lymph by the lymph nodes. Histamines released cause inflammation. Lymphatic system produces T-cells / T-helper cells. Circulatory system produces B-cells. any three for 1 mark each
(3 marks)
0211bik
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December 9, 2002
8. Using the following table, distinguish between the chemical composition of the blood in the arterial end and the venous end of a capillary bed in a muscle.
(3 marks)
Arterial End
Venous End
higher oxyhemoglobin
0211bik
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December 9, 2002
Y Z
9. Identify structures X, Y and Z and give one function of each. (6 marks: 1 mark each for name; 1 mark each for function) structure X: name: medulla oblongata / brain stem (1 mark) function: reflex centres controls autonomic nervous system detects carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions regulates heart rate / breathing rate / vasoconstriction OR name: pons (1 mark)
function: Medulla to regulate breathing rate and has reflex centres to respond to visual and auditory stimuli. (1 mark)
structure Y: name: hypothalamus (1 mark) function: maintains homeostasis synthesizes ADH / oxytocin controls the pituitary gland / centres for hunger / thirst / body temperature / blood volume (water balance) / blood pressure / sleep releases GNRH to stimulate anterior pituitary
0211bik
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structure Z: name: cerebellum (1 mark) function: coordinates muscle for posture / tone / balance proprioception one for } either 1 mark
0211bik
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December 9, 2002
10. Give one function of each of the following. renal pelvis: passes urine to the ureter collects urine from collecting ducts either one for 1 mark
proximal convoluted tubule: reabsorbs water selective (tubular) reabsorption actively transports Na + (sodium ions) out of the tubule reabsorbs nutrients (glucose, amino acids, etc.) back into the blood any one for 1 mark
ureter: carries urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder (1 mark)
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December 9, 2002
(2 marks)
Pituitary Hormone Responsible for Changes in the Ovary FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) LH (leuteinizing hormone)
b) Describe the hormonal changes that occur as a result of implantation. HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) is produced. FSH secretion is inhibited. Progesterone continues to be produced. Progesterone inhibits LH production. Less GNRH from hypothalamus. Estrogen levels increase. any two for 1 mark each
(2 marks)
END OF KEY
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December 9, 2002
Biology 12
August 2003 Provincial Examination
Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 C K U K U U U U K U U H U S 4 3 4 7 4 4 3 4 5 6 4 2 CO 1, 2 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO A1, 2, 3; E1 B1 E1 G2, 3, 4, 6 H1, 3 I9 J8 K2 L7, 8 N2, 3 O5 P9
LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer
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September 3, 2003
PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks Suggested Time: 75 minutes Use the following diagram to answer question 1.
1. Name structures X and Y and explain how each functions in protein synthesis. (4 marks: 1 mark each for structure; 1 mark each for function) structure X: name: nucleus nucleoplasm
function: The nucleus is the site of production of mRNA (or transcription). It contains DNA which contains the code for amino acid sequence in protein. DNA code is transcribed into codons or mRNA or amino acid sequence. structure Y: name: nucleolus (1 mark) function: The nucleolus is the site of the production of rRNA. The nucleolus forms ribosomal subunits. Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis. The nucleolus produces ribosomes.
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September 3, 2003
2. Draw a diagram showing the bonding between water molecules and explain how the structure of the water molecules allows these bonds to form. (You may use a pencil for your diagram.) (3 marks: 1 mark for diagram; 2 marks for explanation)
O H H
+
O H
+ +
Water molecules are polar. Electrons are shared unequally between the oxygen and the hydrogen. The oxygen has a slight positive charge and the hydrogen has a slight negative charge. Opposite polarities (charges) attract each other. OR Bond forms between the positive end of one molecule and the negative end of another molecule. (2 marks)
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September 3, 2003
3. Describe how each of the following contributes to the production of a protein. DNA: involved in transcription serves as a template for mRNA production contains or carries the genetic information for the protein to be produced contains the code which determines the sequence of a protein DNA code determines the mRNA codons
(4 marks)
codon: determines the specific amino acid carries the information from the nucleus to the cytoplasm binds with the anticodon on tRNA
any one for 1 mark
tRNA: joins to mRNA through complimentary base pairing carries a specific amino acid to the ribosome carries a specific amino acid to the mRNA strand has anticodon for specific amino acid
ribosome: is the site of protein synthesis binds to the mRNA strand is where translation occurs
any one for 1 mark
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September 3, 2003
side A
side B
15% salt
distilled water
membrane
4. An experiment was carried out to study the movement of molecules through a membrane. Two solutions were placed into a container on either side of a membrane which is permeable to salt and water. The temperature was maintained at 40C . a) Describe what happens to the volume of the solution on both side A and side B after five hours. Explain your answer. (2 marks) Volume stays the same because both salt and water permeable. (2 marks) The volume of water on side A increases. The volume of water on side B decreases.
Water moves from an area of lower solute concentration on side B to an area of higher solute concentration on side A, causing the level of the solution to rise on side A. Water moves to a hypertonic environment. Side B is hypotonic which causes water to leave it. The solution can eventually be isotonic.
b) Describe what happens to the solute concentration on side B. Explain your answer. (3 marks) The solute concentration will increase on side B. (1 mark) Salt diffuses from side A to side B, increasing the solute concentration. (1 mark) Water diffuses from side B to side A, reducing the amount of water and increasing the solute concentration. (1 mark)
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September 3, 2003
c) If the temperature at the beginning of the experiment was at 5C , describe how the results obtained at 5C would be different from the results obtained at 40C . Explain your answer. The experiment would take longer for the same results. The water levels change more slowly. Less kinetic energy would slow the rate of diffusion / particles would move more slowly. There would be fewer collisions.
(2 marks)
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September 3, 2003
tra
te
products
enzy
me
5. Using all of the symbols above as often as necessary, produce a diagram to illustrate how enzymes function. Explain your diagram. (You may use a pencil for your diagram.) (4 marks: 2 marks for diagram; 2 marks for explanation)
products
substrate substrate
enzyme
enzyme
enzyme
(1 mark)
(1 mark)
(Note: First step is not required in the diagram. The diagram does not need to be labelled.) substrate attaches to enzyme (at active site) and an enzyme-substrate complex is formed product is formed from substrate products are released enzyme is re-used enzyme decreases the activation energy active site is specific to the enzyme OR substrate fits into active site reaction occurs
any two for 1 mark each
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September 3, 2003
6. Explain how the small intestine is specialized for the absorption of nutrients. The surface area of the small intestine is large due to its length. The numerous villi increase the surface area of the small intestine. The inside of each villus contains capillaries to absorb nutrients. The inside of each villus contains a lacteal (lymph capillary) to absorb fats. The numerous microvilli increase the surface area of the small intestine. Thin epithelium, moist, warm which speeds up diffusion / absorption. There are more mitochondria in cells to provide energy for active transport. The small intestine has folds. Peristalsis increases the surface area of the food.
(4 marks)
any four for 1 mark each
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September 3, 2003
7. Describe three roles of the lymphatic system. The lymphatic capillaries pick up excess tissue fluid and return it to the blood system. The lymph nodes purify the lymph of any infectious organisms or debris through the action of white blood cells. The lymph capillaries (lacteals) absorb fats in the intestinal villi and transport them to the blood stream. The lymphocytes produce antibodies. The spleen purifies the blood. Red bone marrow produces red and white blood cells. Produces histamine as part of the inflammatory reaction. Spleen acts as a blood reservoir. Fights infection.
(3 marks)
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September 3, 2003
8. Complete the following table. (4 marks: 1 mark each for location; 1 mark each for function)
Structure
Function sends nerve impulses to the AV node acts as pacemaker causes both atria to contract initiates the heartbeat
throughout muscle tissue surrounding both ventricles Purkinje fibres ventricles ventricular walls septum
deliver impulse from AV node to walls of venticles, cells of ventricles and muscle cells of ventricles cause ventricles to contract
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September 3, 2003
9. a) Compare the pH and temperature of the blood in the lung capillaries with the blood in the capillaries of other body tissues. The lungs have a higher (7.4) pH / the tissues have a lower (7.38) pH. The lungs are more basic / less acidic. The tissues are more acidic / less basic. AND The lungs have a lower (cooler) temperature / the tissues have a higher (warmer) temperature. (1 mark)
(2 marks)
b) How does the pH and temperature of the blood in the body tissues affect the ability of oxygen to bind to hemoglobin? (1 mark) Oxygen is released more readily from hemoglobin due to the lower pH and the higher temperature. Hemoglobin is denatured and releases oxygen at a lower pH and a higher temperature.
c) How would the conditions of the blood in the body tissues change during strenuous exercise? pH would decrease temperature would increase more oxygen released from hemoglobin decreased oxyhemoglobin ( HbO2 ) in blood greater concentration of bicarbonate ions in blood increased carbaminohemoglobin ( HbCO2 ) produced more reduced hemoglobin (HHb) would be produced increased lactic acid concentration increased hydrogen ions ( H+ ) more waste ( CO2 ) sweating causes decreased blood volume blood velocity increases increased solute concentration due to sweating
(2 marks)
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September 3, 2003
10. Identify the division of the autonomic nervous system that is involved in the fight or flight response. sympathetic division (1 mark)
(1 mark)
b) Identify the hormone involved in the fight or flight response, name its source gland, and give three effects that the hormone has on the body. (5 marks: 1 mark for hormone; 1 mark for source gland; 3 marks for effects) hormone: adrenalin noradrenalin epinephrine norepinephrine
038bik
effects: dilated pupils increased heart rate increased blood flow to the skeletal muscles decreased blood flow to the digestive system increased blood pressure increased metabolic rate (cellular respiration) increased blood glucose level (released by liver) increased conversion of glycogen to glucose by liver increased release of glucagon by pancreas increased respiration inhibits flow of saliva inhibits peristalsis and secretion in gut dilates bronchi bladder voids / releases constriction of skin blood vessels muscles tense up can perform feats of strength heightened senses make person more alert to stimuli inhibits tears decreases urine production
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11. Describe how the secretion of each of the following will affect the composition of blood. (4 marks: 2 marks each) aldosterone: sodium ion concentration will increase potassium ion concentration will decrease the amount of water in the blood will increase Cl concentration will increase salt in blood increases retention of Na+ AND excretion of K+ H2 O is reabsorbed to increase blood pressure or volume
antidiuretic hormone: the amount of water in the blood will increase blood will become more dilute / solute concentration drops blood becomes hypotonic H2 O reabsorption causes blood volume to increase
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September 3, 2003
12. Explain what happens to the uterine lining during the first five days of the uterine cycle and explain why this occurs. Menses occur / menstruation. The uterine lining / endometrium is sloughed off with blood flow. This occurs because the corpus luteum degenerates. The corpus luteum stops secreting progesterone and estrogen. Low levels of female sex hormones.
(2 marks)
END OF KEY
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September 3, 2003
Biology 12
June 2003 Provincial Examination
-1-
Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 C U K H U U U U K U H U K U K S 3 3 2 4 3 6 6 2 4 4 4 4 2 3 CO 1 1 1, 2 2 2 2 3, 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO A1, 2 B2, 3 D5, 2; E1 F1, 4 G3 H1, 3, 6 I1, 5; G7 I4, 6 K2 L8, 7; J9, 4 M2, 1 O1 P1, 6 P5, 6, 8, 10
LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer
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1. Describe how the function of the cell membrane, vacuoles and lysosomes are related. (3 marks) The cell membrane folds in to produce a vacuole. The vacuole contains food or large particles. The lysosome binds to the vacuole. Hydrolytic enzymes in the lysosome break down the molecules within the vacuole.
any three for 1 mark each
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2. Describe three ways that water is important to living organisms. serves as a solvent acts as a lubricant regulates temperature helps hydrolytic reactions is used in chemical reactions/hydrolysis protects aquatic organisms from freezing freezes on top, which insulates fish/underwater organisms over the winter
(3 marks)
any three for 1 mark each
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Substance Y
3. A radioactive molecule is added to a cell culture where the process shown in the diagram is taking place. Upon analysis, it is found that substance Y is radioactive but substance X is not. Give a possible identity for the radioactive molecule which was added and explain why it is only in substance Y. (2 marks: 1 mark for molecule; 1 mark for explanation) molecule: radioactive uracil (1 mark) explanation: The radioactive uracil was incorporated into the mRNA during complementary base pairing during transcription. (1 mark) OR molecule: radioactive ribose (1 mark) explanation: RNA contains ribose while DNA contains deoxyribose. (1 mark)
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4. Each of the following diagrams illustrates an event in the growth and development of cancer in the body.
Event X Event Y Event Z
X ray
a) Place the events in the correct order from the start of carcinogenesis. event Z event Y event X (1 mark)
(1 mark)
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b) Explain what is occurring in each of the events. event X: vascularization blood vessels are growing
event Y: anaplasia mitosis neoplasia rapid cell division cells reproduce without contact inhibition cancerous cells begin to divide rapidly cells grow in disorganized layers tumour formation
event Z: mutation initiation promotion oncogene is expressed X ray causes change in cells DNA proto-oncogene is converted into an oncogene carcinogenesis
any one for 1 mark
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5. Compare the process of facilitated transport with that of active transport. Facilitated transport does not use energy (ATP). Active transport uses energy (ATP).
(3 marks)
Facilitated transport uses protein carriers and active transport uses protein carriers. (1 mark) During facilitated transport material moves from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration (with the concentration gradient). During active transport material moves from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration (against the concentration gradient). Both move amino acids and glucose. (1 mark)
either one for 1 mark
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6. Explain how each of the following affects the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction that occurs in the mouth. (6 marks: 2 marks each) adding more enzyme: increase the number of active sites available increase the number of collisions between enzyme and substrate this would increase the rate of the reaction (1 mark)
changing the pH from 7.2 to 12: this would denature the enzyme this would decrease the number of active sites available this would decrease the rate of the reaction (1 mark)
lowering the temperature from 37C to 10C : decreasing temperature slows down the particles fewer particles have energy of activation less kinetic energy fewer effective collisions between substrate and enzyme this would decrease the rate of the reaction (1 mark)
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Use the following graph to answer question 7. Blood Glucose Concentration vs. Time of Day
130
85
time of day 7. A person eats a well-balanced meal at 7 a.m. and again at 12 p.m. Explain the changes that occur in blood glucose concentration at each of the times indicated below. (6 marks: 2 marks each) between 7 a.m. and 8 a.m. Following the ingestion of food, carbohydrates are digested into glucose. (1 mark) Glucose is absorbed from the small intestine into the blood causing an increase in blood glucose concentration. (1 mark)
between 8 a.m. and 9 a.m. The liver decreases blood glucose concentration. Glucose is converted into glycogen which is stored in the liver. Insulin levels are high. Body cells become permeable to glucose. any two for 1 mark each
between 11 a.m. and 12 p.m. In the liver cells, glycogen is converted to glucose. Insulin secretion is reduced. Glucagon levels are high.
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8. a) Name the substance which emulsifies fat in the digestive system. bile bile salts
(1 mark)
b) Explain how emulsification assists in the chemical digestion of fat. Bile produces fat droplets from fat. This increases the surface area. Fat digestion is more efficient if the enzyme lipase can act on a substrate with a larger surface area. Emulsification also causes fat droplets to disperse in water.
(1 mark)
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9. a) What is the name of the pacemaker of the heart and where in the heart is it located? (2 marks) name: SA node (1 mark) location: right atrium (1 mark)
b) Explain how the Purkinje fibres function to control heartbeat. The AV node stimulates the Purkinje fibres. The Purkinje fibres stimulate the ventricles. This causes the ventricles to contract.
(2 marks)
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10. a) State three functions of hemoglobin. to act as a buffer to carry oxygen / form oxyhemoglobin to carry hydrogen ions / form reduced hemoglobin to carry carbon dioxide / form carbaminohemoglobin to increase the pH of the blood by picking up hydrogen ions
(3 marks)
b) How does the hemoglobin found in the pulmonary artery differ from the hemoglobin found in the pulmonary vein? (1 mark) The pulmonary artery will have more reduced hemoglobin than the pulmonary vein. / The pulmonary vein will have less reduced hemoglobin than the pulmonary artery. The pulmonary artery will have more carbaminohemoglobin than the pulmonary vein. / The pulmonary vein will have less carbaminohemoglobin than the pulmonary artery. The pulmonary vein will have more oxyhemoglobin and the pulmonary artery will have less oxyhemoglobin.
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11. Compare the structural similarities and differences of motor and sensory neurons. (4 marks: 2 marks for similarities; 2 marks for differences) similarities: both have axons both have dendrites both are myelinated both have cell bodies both have long fibres both have myelinated fibres any two for 1 mark each
differences: Motor neurons have branched dendrites on the cell body. Sensory neurons have shorter axons / motor neurons have longer axons. Sensory neurons have longer dendrites / motor neurons have shorter dendrites. Sensory neurons have a myelinated dendrite and axon / motor neurons only have a myelinated axon.
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W X Y
12. Identify each of the labelled regions or structures. region W: renal cortex (1 mark) region X: renal pelvis (1 mark) structure Y: ureter (1 mark) structure Z: bladder (1 mark)
(4 marks)
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13. Identify the source of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) in males and describe its effect on the testes. (2 marks) source: anterior pituitary pituitary gland
effect: stimulates the testes to produce sperm stimulates the testes to produce inhibin
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14. Give one function of each of the following hormones. testosterone: stimulates the production of sperm responsible for secondary sex characteristics in males
progesterone: causes the uterine glands to mature causes the uterine lining to increase in thickness causes the uterine glands to produce a thick mucous secretion causes negative feedback on the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus to reduce luteinizing hormone
any one for 1 mark
oxytocin: causes uterine contractions causes release of milk from the breasts
either one for 1 mark
END OF KEY
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Biology 12
January 2003 Provincial Examination
-1-
Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 C U U U U K H K U H U K U H U S 3 4 3 3 2 3 2 7 3 5 3 4 2 6 CO 1, 3 1, 3 1 2, 1 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 PLO A1, 3; I7; P1, 7 B3; I1, 4 D1 E1; D5 G1 H6; G7 I4 J1; K6 K4, 6; N2 M6, 5, 7 N4 O2 O4, 5 P9, 10
LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer
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PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 50 marks Suggested Time: 75 minutes Use the following diagram to answer question 1.
1. a) Name an organ whose cells contain large amounts of the organelle shown in the diagram. (1 mark) liver testes ovaries adrenal gland
b) Describe two functions of the organelle. to produce lipids to detoxify drugs to form vesicles to transport molecules to produce steroid hormones (or any specific example)
(2 marks)
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2. In an experiment investigating conditions in the digestive tract, the concentration of hydrogen ions was measured in three areas, A, B and C. The following graph shows the results.
area of digestive tract Identify areas A and B and explain how the conditions there contribute to proper digestion. (4 marks: 1 mark each for name; 1 mark each for explanation) area A: name: duodenum small intestine
area B: name: stomach (1 mark) explanation: acidic conditions needed for enzyme function (1 mark)
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3. List three structural components of the unit molecule that form the polymer shown. (3 marks) phosphate group (1 mark) deoxyribose (1 mark) a base (adenine, cytosine, guanine and thymine) (1 mark)
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(3 marks)
Molecule X contains deoxyribose whereas molecule Y contains ribose. Molecule X contains thymine whereas molecule Y contains uracil. Molecule X is double stranded and molecule Y is single stranded. Molecule X is found in the nucleus whereas molecule Y is found in the cytoplasm and in the nucleus.
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(1 mark)
b) Give one function of the molecules labelled Y. identifies the cell catalyzes a specific reaction shaped so specific molecules bind to it allows a specific ion or substance to enter or exit the cell carries material across the cell membrane during active transport / facilitated transport
(1 mark)
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reaction rate
6. The graph shows the change in the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction over time. a) Explain why the rate became constant at time X. All of the active sites were occupied. (1 mark) (1 mark)
b) Which labelled line correctly illustrates what would occur if more enzyme was added at time Y. Explain your answer. (2 marks) line A (1 mark) More active sites are available to bind with substrates. (1 mark)
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7. Name the organ that produces an enzyme which chemically digests fats and identify the enzyme it produces. organ: pancreas (1 mark) enzyme: lipase (1 mark)
(2 marks)
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heart
capillaries
8. a) Name and explain what is occurring in the heart to cause the conditions shown on the graph at point X and point Y. point X: systole (1 mark) explanation: The left ventricle contracts, causing blood to enter the aorta under high pressure. (1 mark)
(4 marks)
point Y: diastole (1 mark) explanation: The left ventricle relaxes, decreasing pressure in the aorta. (1 mark)
b) Explain why blood pressure decreases as blood flows from the arteries to the capillaries. (1 mark) This decrease is due to the progressive increase in total cross-sectional area as blood nears the capillaries. (1 mark)
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(1 mark)
The slow speed of the blood in the capillaries is necessary to allow sufficient time for the exchange of substances between the blood in the capillaries and the surrounding tissues. (1 mark)
d) Explain why blood velocity increases slightly as it moves from the capillaries to the veins. (1 mark) Contraction of skeletal muscles helps to increase blood velocity. Blood velocity increases as it moves from the capillaries to the veins because of the progressive decrease in total cross-sectional area.
either one for 1 mark
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150 125 100 average of systolic and diastolic blood pressure 75 (mm Hg) 50 25 0 1 2 3 4
time (min.)
9. a) Describe the mechanisms at work in the body which led to the changes that occurred between minute two and minute three. (2 marks) The sympathetic nervous system (through the neurotransmitter epinephrine / noradrenalin) causes the fight or flight response which increases blood pressure. The hormone adrenaline causes the fight or flight response which increases blood pressure. Heart rate increases so more blood is forced into the same volume. Arteriole constriction so blood is forced into smaller volume within the body.
b) If acetylcholine was administered at time X, describe the effect on the body. Arterioles will dilate. Heart rate will decrease. Breathing rate will slow. Average systolic and diastolic blood pressure will decrease.
(1 mark)
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10. a) Describe the events that occur between the time a nerve impulse reaches the end of an axon and the release of the neurotransmitters. The nerve impulse at the end of the axon increases the permeability of the presynaptic membrane to calcium ions. Calcium ions enter the axon. Calcium ions cause the microfilaments attached to vesicles to contract. The vesicles with the neurotransmitters bind to the presynaptic membrane.
(3 marks)
b) What happens to neurotransmitters after they are released into the synaptic cleft? (2 marks) The neurotransmitters diffuse across the synaptic gap. The neurotransmitters bind to receptors at the postsynaptic membrane. The neurotransmitters are broken down by hydrolytic enzymes. After the neurotransmitters are broken down, their components are re-absorbed into the presynaptic membrane. The neurotransmitters are re-absorbed into the presynaptic membrane.
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X W V
Z U
11. Write the letter indicating the part of the brain with the following functions. (3 marks: 1 mark each)
Function the neuroendocrine control centre ensures that skeletal muscle moves in a smooth and coordinated manner allows nerve impulses to pass between cerebral hemispheres
Letter V
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12. List the structures, in the correct order, through which a glucose molecule passes as it travels through the tubule from the renal artery to the renal vein. (4 marks: 3 marks for structures; 1 mark for correct order) afferent arteriole glomerulus Bowmans capsule proximal convoluted tubule peritubular capillaries any three for 1 mark each
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gland X
13. How does gland X function to regulate sodium ion concentration in the blood? increases aldosterone secretion increases sodium ion re-absorption sodium ion concentration in blood increases increases blood volume (water re-absorption)
(2 marks)
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hormone X
hormone Y
14 day
21
28
14. a) Identify each of the following. hormone X: luteinizing hormone (LH) (1 mark)
b) Describe the effect of hormone X on the female reproductive system during days 15 to 28 of a 28-day cycle.
(2 marks)
It causes the corpus luteum to secrete progesterone. (1 mark) Progesterone causes the endometrium to become thickened and secretory. (1 mark)
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c) What would occur during days 1 to 13 of the ovarian cycle if follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) was not secreted? The follicle would not mature. The follicle would not produce estrogen. Consequently the uterine lining would not increase in thickness.
any two for 1 mark each
(2 marks)
END OF KEY
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Biology 12
November 2003 Provincial Examination
Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P
K D D B A C D B D B C B A C A C B D A D D A C D C A B B B C B C C C C
C U H K U K U U H K U H K U U U U K U H K U H U U U K H H U K K H K K
S 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
CO 1 1, 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1, 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 2, 3 2, 1, 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3
PLO A1, 3 A1, 3; E1; L8 A1 C2 C5 C12 C10 C8; A3 B1, 2 B3 D1, 2; E1 D5 D2 D2; A1 E1 E1 G1 G3; I1 G3; C12; O2 G3 G5 G6 H1 H3 H1 H2 H1, 6 H6 I1, 2, 4 I1, 2, 6 I1, 7 I1, 2, 7 J2 J2 -1-
Q 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67.
K C C B D C B A D A C D A B B B C D B D A D B B D A A A A D C D D B
C K U H U H H U K K U H U U U H U U U K U U K H U H U K U H H K U U
S 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
CO 3 3 3 3 3, 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3, 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
PLO J2, 8 J2, 4 J12 J6; K1 K6, 1; G7 K2, 4, 5; N2 K2, 1 L1 L2, 1 L4, 5 L8, 7 M2, 1, 8; N1 M3 M3 M3; G3 M4 M5, 6 M5, 6 N1, 2 N4 N4 O2 O2 O5 O2 O2, 1 P1 P6, 10 P7, 9, 10 P7, 8 P9 P11 P8
Part B: Written Response Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. B 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 C U H U U U U U S 2 2 5 4 4 4 2 CO 1, 2 2 3, 2 3 3 3 3 PLO A1, 3; C12; G3, 5 E1, 2 I2, 4; G7; H1, 3, 6 J5; K1 L4, 5 O2 P5, 6
LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer
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1. Name the product of this organelle that is required in the transport of materials across a cell membrane. Explain the products role in this process. product: adenosine triphosphate (ATP) (1 mark) explanation: provides energy for active transport ATP splits into ADP and P, releasing energy. Energy comes from phosphate bond. Note: Energy is key.
either one for 1 mark
(2 marks)
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Threonine
Proline
Alanine
Serine
Serine Arginine
Arginine
Cysteine
Isoleucine Methionine
Leucine
Phenylalanine
2. Consider the following DNA base sequence read from left to right: CCA GGA ATA CCT Determine the amino acid sequence that results from this DNA strand.
1 glycineprolinetyrosineglycine ( 2 mark each)
(2 marks)
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3. The following procedure demonstrates the effect of pH on the activity of the enzyme trypsin. 10 ml of a protein solution is added to each of five numbered test tubes, each of which is buffered at a different pH. The pH of each of the test tubes is maintained. An equal amount of a trypsin solution is added to each test tube. The temperature is maintained at 37C . Each test tube is analyzed after three hours. The results are recorded in the table below:
Test Tube 1 2 3 4 5 pH 2.0 3.5 7.0 8.5 10.0 Amount of product (g) 0.3 0.8 1.7 3.5 2.1
a) Use the data from the table to produce a line graph which illustrates the Amount of product vs. pH (plot the pH on the x-axis).
(2 marks)
4.0
3.0
2.0
1.0
10
11
pH
1 (2 mark for correct labels on correct axes; 1 2 1 2
1 2
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b) Name the chemical product found in each test tube. peptides dipeptides polypeptides amino acid chains
(1 mark)
c) Explain why less product is found in test tubes 1 and 2 than in the others. Low pH (acidic) conditions denature the enzyme trypsin so it is unable to speed the reactions. It is not the optimum pH for the enzyme to function. The active site is denatured, so the substrate is unable to fit.
(1 mark)
d) Name an enzyme that could further digest the product found in each of the test tubes. (1 mark) peptidase (1 mark)
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4. Compare the chemical composition of the blood in the right atrium of a fetus to the blood in the right atrium of an adult. Give reasons for these differences. (4 marks: 2 marks for the comparisons; 2 marks for the reasons) Fetus lower dissolved carbon dioxide lower carbaminohemoglobin lower carbonic acid higher pH lower reduced hemoglobin higher oxyhemoglobin higher glucose higher amino acids lower urea lower histamine lower nitrogen containing waste higher sodium concentration Adult higher dissolved carbon dioxide higher carbaminohemoglobin higher carbonic acid lower pH higher reduced hemoglobin lower oxyhemoglobin lower glucose lower amino acids higher urea higher histamine higher nitrogen containing waste lower sodium concentration
AND Reasons: The fetal right atrium receives blood which recently returned from the systemic system and the placenta (1 mark) whereas in the adult the right atrium receives blood returning from the systemic system (1 mark). OR Adult has lower oxygen concentration and higher carbon dioxide concentration because it hasnt been to the lungs yet for oxygenation. (1 mark)
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5. Describe the process of exhalation. The stretch receptors in the alveoli send signals to the medulla oblongata. The medulla oblongata stops the signals to the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles. The diaphragm relaxes. The rib muscles relax. The ribcage moves down and inwards. Air is pushed out of the lungs as the thoracic cavity decreases in size. Decreased size of the thoracic cavity results in increased pressure to force air out. The diaphragm moves up (back to dome shaped). The elastic lungs recoil to push the air out.
(4 marks)
any four for 1 mark each
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6. Many substances are moved by active transport in the nephron. Using four examples, explain how active transport is involved in urine production. excretion of penicillin in distal convoluted tubule excretion of histamines in distal convoluted tubule excretion of hydrogen ions in distal convoluted tubule excretion of uric acid at the distal convoluted tubule excretion of creatinine at the distal convoluted tubule excretion of ammonia at the distal convoluted tubule re-absorption of glucose in proximal convoluted tubule re-absorption of sodium ions in proximal convoluted tubule re-absorption of amino acids in proximal convoluted tubule active transport of sodium ions into medulla in loop of Henle
(4 marks)
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7. Describe how the hypothalamus increases testosterone levels in the blood. The hypothalamus senses the low concentration of testosterone and secretes a releasing hormone. The anterior pituitary is stimulated to secrete LH (luteinizing hormone). LH stimulates the testes to secrete testosterone. OR The hypothalamus secretes GnRH to the (anterior) pituitary. The (anterior) pituitary secretes LH to the testes. LH stimulates the interstial cells to produce testosterone.
(2 marks)
any two for 1 mark each any two for 1 mark each
END OF KEY
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Biology 12
August 2005 Provincial Examination
Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P
Q 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.
C U U U U U U U
S 2 4 4 3 4 3 3
CO 2 2, 3 3 3 3 3 3
LEGEND:
Q = Question Number CO = Curriculum Organizer K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score
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1. A person is diagnosed with hypothyroidism, a condition in which an insufficient amount of thyroxin is present in the bloodstream. Explain how the breathing rate is affected by the decreased secretion of thyroxin. (2 marks) Without sufficient thyroxin, insufficient metabolism will occur in body cells. (1 mark) AND Less carbon dioxide is produced. any one for Breathing rate is decreased since carbon dioxide concentration triggers the medulla oblongata. 1 mark Cell respiration requires oxygen, so less oxygen is required by cells.
2. Using two examples, explain why correct pH is important for the efficient functioning of digestive enzymes.
(4 marks)
Correct pH is required so the enzyme does not denature (1 mark) allowing it to join to its substrate molecule (1 mark). AND Examples: Pepsin requires an acidic pH of 12 to catalyze the breakdown of protein into peptides. (1 mark) Any enzyme correctly matched to its correct pH. (1 mark)
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3. How does the chemical composition of the blood in the aorta differ from that of the blood in the pulmonary trunk? (4 marks) The blood in the aorta contains higher concentrations of oxyhemoglobin. The blood in the aorta contains lower concentrations of bicarbonate ions. The blood in the aorta contains lower concentrations of reduced hemoglobin. The blood in the aorta contains lower concentrations of carbaminohemoglobin. The blood in the aorta contains lower concentrations of dissolved carbon dioxide. The blood in the aorta is slightly more basic. Note to markers: 1 mark only for each valid difference.
any four for 1 mark each
4. Explain three ways in which the alveoli are well suited to their function. There are many alveoli to increase surface area. Lipoproteins prevent the alveoli from collapsing. Alveoli are one cell layer thick to increase the rate of diffusion. Alveoli are highly vascularized to facilitate external respiration.
(3 marks)
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5. Describe the upswing and downswing of an action potential with respect to membrane polarity and movement of ions. (4 marks: 2 marks each) upswing: Sodium gates open allowing sodium ions to diffuse into the axoplasm. (1 mark) Depolarization results in a change in the polarity across the membrane from 65 mV to +40 mV. (1 mark)
downswing: Potassium gates open allowing potassium ions to diffuse from the inside to the outside of the axoplasm. (1 mark) Repolarization results in a change in the polarity across the membrane from +40 mV to 65 mV. (1 mark)
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6. Explain how the conditions in the renal medulla result in the production of urine which is hypertonic to blood. (3 marks) The renal medulla contains a high concentration of Na+, Cl and urea making it hypertonic to the filtrate. When the filtrate passes through the renal medulla, water moves from the filtrate into the renal medulla where the peritubular network absorbs it. The filtrate, having lost water, is now hypertonic to body fluids. ADH causes water reabsorption from the collecting duct making urine more hypertonic.
any three for 1 mark each
7. Describe the events which initiate and control the secretion of oxytocin. When the fetus reaches the cervix, oxytocin is released. (1 mark) AND Oxytocin is produced in the hypothalamus. Oxytocin is stored and released from the posterior pituitary gland. Oxytocin causes an increase in uterine contractions. This results in an increase in the release of oxytocin (positive feedback loop).
(3 marks)
END OF KEY
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Biology 12
August 2004 Provincial Examination
0408bik
LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer
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1. Describe four different functions of proteins found in the cell membrane. Enzymatic proteins act as enzymes to catalyze reactions. Carrier proteins transport molecules or ions across the cell membrane. Receptor proteins bind to external molecules and then activate cellular activity. Channel proteins allow the passage of molecules or ions through a pore in the cell membrane. Cell recognition proteins (glycoproteins) serve as markers on the cell membrane for identification (as antigens).
(4 marks)
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enzymes: Enzymes are used to create peptide bonds between amino acids. Enzymes are used to attach adjacent nucleotides in mRNA synthesis. Enzymes are used to break hydrogen bonds in DNA during transcription. Enzymes are used to ensure the proper sequence of bases in mRNA during transcription.
any one for 1 mark
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3. In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, the amount of substrate was measured and compared to the rate of product production. The data is shown above. a) Graph the data. (Plot the amount of substrate [independent variable] on the x-axis.) (2 marks)
1.0
1.0
2.0
3.0
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(2 marks)
As the amount of substrate increases, the rate of product production increases since there are more collisions between substrate molecules and the enzyme. (1 mark) There is a plateau of 1.3 g/min as there are a limited number of active sites available. The rate levels off because all the active sites are temporarily full. (1 mark)
c) Suggest a way to increase the rate of product production for substrate amounts greater than 3.5 grams. Add more enzyme. Increase the temperature to the optimal temperature.
(1 mark)
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4. Explain how a damaged AV valve on the left side of the heart could cause fluids to build up in the lung tissues. (4 marks) The valve might leak, causing backflow into the left atrium. This would cause a buildup in blood pressure in the pulmonary vein. The high blood pressure at the venule end of the capillary bed would prevent tissue fluid from re-entering the blood (increasing fluid buildup). Osmotic pressure in the capillary beds will be less than the blood pressure at the venule end of these beds. This would reduce wastes entering the blood from the tissues. More fluid would enter by osmosis and the tissues would swell. There is less water re-entering the bloodstream.
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5. a) Explain why the knee-jerk reflex still functions in a person with a severed spinal cord. (1 mark) The reflex is a complete circuit from receptor to muscle, so no control is needed from the brain. (1 mark)
(1 mark)
No nerves will be able to transmit impulses up the spinal cord past the injury, so the brain can neither sense the stimulus nor can it respond to it. (1 mark)
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6. Explain how ADH secretion affects the composition of the blood. ADH causes the collecting duct to become more permeable to water. More water is re-absorbed into the blood. The blood becomes less concentrated. The volume of the plasma increases.
(3 marks)
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7. Describe how the secretion of testosterone is regulated in males. When testosterone levels are low, the hypothalamus secretes GnRH. This causes the anterior pituitary to secrete luteinizing hormone. Luteinizing hormone causes the interstitial cells to produce testosterone. AND When testosterone levels rise, negative feedback is exerted on the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary which causes a decrease in testosterone production. (1 mark)
(3 marks)
any two for 1 mark each
END OF KEY
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Biology 12
January 2004 Provincial Examination
Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P
K C D A C C D B B D C D B B C D A A C D A A C A D A B C B C B A C B B
C K K U H K K U U H U K U K U U U K U K K H K U H H U U U U H U U K K
S 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
CO 1 1 1 1, 2 1 1 2, 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2 2 2, 3 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
PLO A1 A1 A1, 2 A1; C1; H1 B1 B3 B3; I1 C11 C12 D1 D3 D1, 5 D5 E2, 1 E2, 1 E1 G3 G4 H1; I2 H4 H1, 6 I1 I1, 9 I1 I2, 7, 9 I2, 1, 4 I3 I9, 4, 2 I9 J1 J5 J5 J2 J2 -1-
Q 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67.
K B C C B A A D A D B D A A D A C C D A B A B C D D B C D A C D D C
C U K H H K U U U K K H H U H K K U H H U U U K K U U U K U U K H H
S 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
CO 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3, 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 3, 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3, 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
PLO J2 J9 K2, 3, 4 K1 L1; I1 L2 L7 L7, 8, 1 L8 L5 L8; B3 M3 M4 M6, 5 N1, 2 N5, 4 N4 O1, 2, 3; G7 O1, 2, 3 O1 O3, 1; I7 O2 O2 O2 O2; A1; C12 O4 O5 P1 P3, 4 P7, 8; N5 P8 P10, 9 P10
LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer
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PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 23 marks Suggested Time: 40 minutes Use the following chart to answer question 1.
Three-letter codons of messenger RNA and the amino acids specified by the codons
AAU AAC AAA AAG ACU ACC ACA ACG AGU AGC AGA AGG AUU AUC AUA AUG Asparagine Lysine CAU CAC CAA CAG CCU CCC CCA CCG CGU CGC CGA CGG Histidine Glutamine GAU GAC GAA GAG GCU GCC GCA GCG GGU GGC GGA GGG Asparatic acid Glutamate UAU UAC UAA UAG UCU UCC UCA UCG UGU UGC Glycine UGA UGG UUU UUC Valine UUA UUG Leucine Stop Tryptophan Phenylalanine Tyrosine Stop
Threonine
Proline
Alanine
Serine
Serine Arginine
Cysteine
Arginine
Isoleucine Methionine
Leucine
G C A C C T ATA G G A AC C
Explain what would occur during the translation of this gene if ATA underwent a mutation and was converted to A T T . (3 marks) The new base sequence would code for stop. Translation would stop at the indicated DNA triplet. The resulting protein would be too short (only arginine and glycine would be coded). The polypeptide chain would be released from the ribosomes before the entire protein is complete. Ribosomal subunits would separate. Protein would look and function differently (or student gives specific example of a protein which is dysfunctional). The middle codon would now be U A A (or middle tRNA anticodon would be A U U ) .
any three for 1 mark each
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2. Compare active transport and facilitated diffusion. Differences: Active transport uses energy and facilitated diffusion does not use energy. Active transport moves molecules against the concentration gradient and facilitated diffusion moves molecules with the concentration gradient. Active transport moves large molecules and facilitated diffusion moves small molecules. Active transport uses vesicles, facilitated diffusion does not use vesicles. Similarities: Both active transport and facilitated diffusion use carrier proteins / gates / channels / pores / pumps. Both active transport and facilitated diffusion involve the movement of ions and small particles. Both require a selectively-permeable membrane or move through a membrane.
(4 marks)
any four for 1 mark each
Note to markers: For full marks, a student must include at least one similarity (or one difference).
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3. Describe two changes that could be made to an enzyme-catalyzed reaction which would result in a decrease in the rate of the reaction. Explain why these changes cause the reaction rate to decrease. The temperature is increased to 100C and the hydrogen bonds break, changing the shape of the active sites so the substrate can no longer bind to the active sites or denature the enzyme. The addition of a strong acid or strong base results in a disruption of the bonds between R-groups in the enzyme, changing the shape of the active sites so the substrate can no longer bind to the active sites or denature the enzyme. The addition of a heavy metal results in denaturation of the enzyme, changing the shape of the active sites so the substrate can no longer bind to the active sites or denature the enzyme. The addition of a competitive inhibitor binds to the active sites so the substrate can no longer bind to the active sites or it competes with the substrate for the active sites. The addition of a non-competitive inhibitor binds to the enzyme and alters the shape of the active sites so the substrate can no longer bind to the active sites. The temperature is decreased and there are fewer collisions between the enzyme and the substrate so fewer substrate molecules bind to the active sites. The amount of enzyme is reduced so fewer enzyme-substrate complexes are formed or fewer active sites are available. An increase in product alters the active sites of the enzyme through feedback inhibition.
(4 marks)
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4. Explain how nutrients and oxygen in the blood move first into the tissue fluids, and then into the cells. Part 1: Oxygen and nutrients diffuse from the blood into the tissue fluids. Blood carrying oxygen and nutrients reaches the capillary bed and slows down. (Blood velocity is lower in the capillary bed). Blood pressure at the arteriole end of the capillary bed is higher than the osmotic pressure. Blood pressure pushes plasma containing oxygen and nutrients into the tissue fluid. Oxygen is released from hemoglobin (red blood cells / blood) at a higher temperature. Oxygen is released from hemoglobin (red blood cells / blood) at a lower pH. Part 2: Oxygen and nutrients diffuse from the tissue fluids into the cells (moving from high to low concentration). Nutrients move by active transport (use ATP). Nutrients move by facilitated diffusion (use protein carriers) into the cells. Nutrients move into the cells by endocytosis (pinocytosis). Water moves by osmosis.
(4 marks)
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5. Explain how an action potential is passed from one neuron to another. Calcium ions enter the presynaptic membrane. Contractile proteins contract, pulling vesicles toward the presynaptic membrane. Synaptic vesicles attach to the presynaptic membrane and the neurotransmitter molecules are released by exocytosis. The neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft. The neurotransmitter binds with specific receptors on the postsynaptic membrane. Depolarization occurs on the postsynaptic membrane. The neurotransmitter is destroyed by an enzyme (cholinesterase) or reabsorbed back into the presynaptic membrane.
(5 marks)
any five for 1 mark each
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6. Describe how positive feedback functions in the female reproductive system. Option 1: Posterior pituitary produces oxytocin. (1 mark) Oxytocin causes uterine contractions and milk let-down. (1 mark) Uterine contractions cause production of more oxytocin. (1 mark) OR Option 2: Breast feeding (suckling) stimulates the release of oxytocin. (1 mark) Oxytocin causes milk let-down. (1 mark) Continued suckling causes increased release of oxytocin. (1 mark) OR Option 3: Estrogen released from the follicle increases. (1 mark) A surge of luteinizing hormone occurs during ovulation. (1 mark) There is an increased release of estrogen (from the corpus luteum). (1 mark) OR
(3 marks)
Option 4: Implanted embryo / zygote / fertilized egg releases human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG). (1 mark) There is an increased release of progesterone by the corpus luteum (maintains uterine lining). (1 mark) There is an increased release of HCG by both the embryo and the placenta. (1 mark)
END OF KEY
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Biology 12
June 2004 Provincial Examination
Sub-Organizers A, B, C, D E, F, G, H I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P
K D D A C D D B D B B B B C C D C A B C C D C C C C D D A B D D A D C
C K H K U H U U U U K H K U H K U K H U K K K U U U U K H H H K U U U
S 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
CO 1 1, 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2, 1 2 2 2 2 2, 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
PLO A1 A1; C8; P1 B3 C1, 2 C3, 4, 1 C2, 8 C3, 5 C2, 1, 10 D3, 4 E1 E1; A1, 3 E1 E1, 2 E1, 4 G1 G1; C11 G3, 5, 12 G6 G8 H3 H5 I1 I1 I2, 1, 4 I1, 2, 4 I2, 4 I3 I6, 7 J1, 2 J1 J4 J8 K1 K1 -1-
Q 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67.
K B D D C C D B C B B A B D D B B A A D A C C D A B A A A D C A B D
C H K K H U U H U U U U K K H K K K U U K H U H U U U H H K U U U K
S 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
CO 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3, 1 3 3 3 3 3 3
PLO K4 L6 L4 L7 M2; N1 M3 M3 M3 M3 M4 M5, 6 M8 M8, 2 N2 N4 O1 O1, 2 O1, 2, 3 O2, 1, 3 O2 O2 O1, 2 O5, 4 O4, 5 P1 P1 P4; C12 P6 P7 P10 P10, 9 P11 P12
LEGEND:
Q = Question Number B = Score Box Number K = Keyed Response C = Cognitive Level PLO = Prescribed Learning Outcome S = Score CO = Curriculum Organizer
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PART B: WRITTEN RESPONSE Value: 23 marks 1. Describe three cellular processes which make use of vesicles. Autolysis / enzymes from lysosomes break down worn-out cell parts or entire cells. Intracellular digestion. Viruses are packaged in vesicles. Neurotransmitters are packaged in vesicles. Cell products produced at the rough endoplasmic reticulum are packaged into vesicles at the smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Vesicles carrying cell products fuse with the Golgi bodies releasing their contents for storage and modification. Vesicles pinch off from the Golgi bodies and transport material to the cell membrane. The cell membrane folds inwards forming vesicles during the process of pinocytosis. In exocytosis, vesicles allow cell materials (e.g., wastes, hormones) to be exported from the cell. In phagocytosis, entire cells or cell fragments are brought into large vesicles. Lysosomes pinch off from the Golgi bodies and are used in intracellular digestion. Storage of macromolecules such as glycogen in liver cells and starch in plants cells. Suggested Time: 40 minutes (3 marks)
any three for 1 mark each
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2. Describe two ways in which enzymes are used during DNA replication. An enzyme causes adjacent nucleotides to join / reforms the backbone. An enzyme causes the hydrogen bonds to break between the complementary bases / unzips the DNA molecule. An enzyme ensures the correct base sequence in the new DNA strand. An enzyme joins complementary bases / allows complementary base pairing to occur. An enzyme unwinds / uncoils DNA. An enzyme proofreads or edits DNA.
(2 marks)
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3. Two digestive enzymes produced by two different glands act on the same substrate. Both enzymes function optimally at a pH of 7.1 to 8.4 and a temperature of 37C . a) Describe the similarity of the enzymes structures and explain why this affects their ability to act on the same substrate. The tertiary structure is the same. The active sites will both be the same shape. The substrate can lock into either active site due to similar shapes. The substrate and enzyme are complementary.
(2 marks)
b) What would happen to the rate of the reaction above if the pH was changed to 3.0? Explain your answer. The reaction would stop / slow down. (1 mark) AND The enzyme would be denatured. The substrate would no longer be able to fit into the active site. The bonds between the R-groups would be disrupted. The shape of the enzyme is changed.
(2 marks)
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(4 marks)
Proteins are converted to peptides (1 mark) due to the action of trypsin (1 mark). Starch is converted to maltose (1 mark) due to the action of amylase (1 mark). Fats are converted to fatty acids and glycerol (1 mark) due to the action of lipase (1 mark). Nucleic acids are converted to nucleotides (1 mark) due to the action of nucleases (1 mark). Sodium bicarbonate neutralizes acidic pH to become more suitable for enzyme action in the duodenum. (1 mark) Water is added for the hydrolytic reactions which occur in the duodenum. (1 mark)
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5. Describe the location of each of the following fetal structures and explain their function in fetal circulation. (6 marks: 2 marks each) oval opening: located between the right and left atria (1 mark) AND allows blood to bypass the non-functioning lungs allows oxygenated blood in the right atrium to enter the systemic system
venous duct: located in the liver connected to the vena cava connected to the umbilical vein located between the umbilical vein and the posterior vena cava in the liver allows oxygenated blood returning from placenta to enter the systemic circulatory system allows blood to bypass the liver
any one for 1 mark either one for 1 mark
umbilical arteries:
connected to the placenta any one for located in the umbilical cord 1 mark located between the aorta and the placenta carry wastes to the placenta any one for carry deoxygenated blood to be oxygenated 1 mark join the fetal circulatory system with the placenta
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6. Describe the events that lead to inhalation after stimulation by the respiratory centre. rib muscles (intercostals) contract / ribs move up and out diaphragm contracts / flattens this increases the thoracic volume negative pressure is created air pulled into negative pressure (or into larger unoccupied volume)
(4 marks)
END OF KEY
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