Brand Management 1. refers to a brands objective (functional) attributes in relation to other brands. A. Brand position B. Product position C.

Brand relationship D. Both a and b 2. defines what the brand thinks about the consumer, as per the consumer. A. Brand attitude B. Brand positioning C. Brand relationship D. Brand image 3. includes two aspects of a brand its associations and its personality. A. Brand attitude B. Brand positioning C. Brand relationship D. Brand image 4. includes all that is linked up in memory about the brand. It could be specific to attributes , features, benefits or looks of brand. a. Brand attitude b. Brand Associations c. Brand relationship d. Brand image 5. ..includes two visual signals of a brand its character (e.g. Amul girl, Pillsbury doughboy) and its logo. Both are elements of brand identity. a. Brand attitude b. Brand Image c. Brand Symbol d. Brand Positioning 6..can be thought of as a perceptual map of in which like products of the same company (say, toothpaste) are positioned very close to one another and compete more with one another than with brands of other companies. a. Brand Comparison b. Cannibalization c. Positioning d. Brand Associations

7. A marketer need to understand that some general traits of a brand name are: a. Easy to recognize b. Easy to pronounce c. Easy to memorize or recall d. All of the above e. None of the above 8. Close up, Doordarshan, Frooti, Babool, Fair and Lovely, Band aid and Ujala are the examples of.. a. Descriptive Brand Name b. Suggestive brand name c. Free Standing brand name d. None of the above 9. Kodak, Xerox, Exxon, Fidji are the examples of a. Free Standing brand name b. Descriptive Brand Name c. Suggestive brand name d. Bothe b and c 10. Visa, Tropicana, Surf, Limca, Crush, Denim are the examples of a. Descriptive Brand Name b. Suggestive brand name c. Free Standing brand name d. None of the above 11. Watches sold as a Jewellery is related to a. Titan Raga b. Tanishq c. Swatch d. GoldPlus 12. Vaseline- petroleum jelly sold as lip salve and moisturizer, is an example of a. Benefit related positioning b. Positioning by usage occasion and time of use c. Category related positioning d. Price Quality positioning 13. Jodjotooteganahin tagline is related with brand a. M-Seal b. Fevikwik c. Fevicol d. Ambooja cement 14. Lifebuoy kills the germs you cannot see, is an example of a. Emotional benefit related positioning b. Functional benefit related positioning c. Usage occasion related positioning d. Health related positioning 15. Match the correct 1. Close up i. Fresh 2. JK Tyres ii. Caring 3. J&J iii. In control

4. Liril iv. Confident Options: a. 1(ii), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(iv) b. 1(ii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(iii) c. 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4(i) d. 1(ii), 2(iii), 3(iv), 4(i) 16. Which is not an example of Positioning by usage occasion and time of use? a. Listerine night time rinse b. Nescafe Great start to the morning c. NIIT (Inspiredlife begins at NIIT) d. Dominos (When families are having fun) 17. _____ measures the degree to which a brand is seen as different from others. a) Relevance b) Differentiation c) Esteem d) Knowledge e) Brand equity 18. _____ measures the breadth of a brand's appeal. a) Relevance b) Differentiation c) Esteem d) Knowledge Brand equity 19. Nike has the distinctive "swoosh" logo, the "Just Do It" slogan, and the "Nike" name based on a mythological goddess. These items are called ____ a) brand equities b) brand identities c) brand resonance d) brand elements e) brand salience 20. Burton, a maker of snowboards, is introducing a new snowboard called "The Dominator." This snowboard will be associated and identified with top professional riders. What marketing strategy is Burton using? a) b) c) d) e) building brand image leveraging secondary association positioning the product targeting a submarket branding

21. The purpose of the _____ is to provide a current, comprehensive profile of how all the products and services sold by a company are marketed and branded. a) brand audit b) brand tracking study c) brand inventory

d) brand analysis e) brand valuation study 22. A _____ typically employs quantitative measures to provide marketers with current information as to how their brands and marketing programs are performing on the basis of a number of key dimensions. a) b) c) d) e) brand audit brand exploratory research brand valuation tracking study brand analysis

23. Nivea, a strong European brand, has expanded its scope from a skin-cream brand to a skincare and personal-care brand through carefully designed and implemented brand extensions. This is an example of _____. a) b) c) d) e) brand valuation brand equity brand enhancements brand reinforcement brand management

24. Dannon Yogurt offers several types of new yogurts, Fruit on the Bottom, Natural Flavours, and Fruit Blends to name a few. This is an example of a _____. a) b) c) d) e) sub-brand parent brand brand variant category extension line extension

25. Honda uses the company name to cover different products such as automobiles, motorcycles, snowblowers, and snowmobiles. This is an example of a _____. a) b) c) d) e) sub-brand parent brand brand variant category extension line extension

26. A _____ brand may be kept around despite dwindling sales because they still manage to hold on to a sufficient number of customers and maintain profitability with little or no marketing support. a) Flanker b) cash cow c) low-end entry level

d) question mark e) hound dog 27. All products marketed by Heinz carry the brand name 'Heinz'. This is an example of ___________. a) b) c) d) e) individual names blanket family names separate family name for all products corporate name combined with individual product names none of the above

28. Which of the following is the characteristic of personality of a brand? a. Logo. b. Packaging. c. Color. d. Durability. 29. A strong brand. a. offers greater potential to charge a premium price. b. Helps to recover development and launch costs. c. Provides large base of loyal customers. d. All of the above. 30. A fashion clothing company getting into perfumes is an example of a. perceived difficulty to manufacture. b. know-how transferability. c. complementarily. d. awareness and reputation of parent. 31. Which of the following brand strategy gives you the benefit of premium pricing? a. Umbrella brand strategy. b. line brand strategy. c. Product brand strategy. d. Family brand strategy. 32. Which of the following is a set of promises that the brand makes to customers? a. Brand contract. b. Brand persona. c. Brand equity. d. Brand association. 33. When Brand management becomes the heart of marketing then which one becomes the heart of brand management? a. Owners equity. b. Brand equity. c. Brand assets. d. Brand value.

34. To be successful, the company must have all its________ at work to deliver superior value. a. resources. b. brands. c. employees. d. communication. 35. Which of the following is created by management for the consumer and for the company through good brands? a. Value. b. Price. c .Cost. d. Rate. 36. When two brands join hands to create one brand by using strong expression. This is known as: a. Bundling. b. Branding. c. Brand management. d. Brand equity. 37. Intel Inside is a classic example of which one of the following? a. Bundling. b. Ingredient co-branding. c. Joint venture. d. Effective packaging. 38. The prices of luxury products fall under: a. plus-one pricing. b. Skim pricing c. Strategic account pricing. d. segment pricing. 39. Introducing additional items in the same product category by adding new flavors, forms, colors, ingredients or package size under the same brand name is known as: a. Line extensions. b. Product mix. c. Interactive marketing. D. service intangibility. 40 .A brand manager usually reports to: a. a marketing manager. b. a category manager. c. a venture team. d. a committee of marketing executives.

41. Which of the following is an example of a functional modification? a. stronger pain relief pills. b. blue Smarties . c. screw-top beer bottles . d. multicoloured computers . 42. The length of each phase of the product life cycle is: a. six months. b. two years. c. one year. d. variable. 43.The growth stage is characterized by: a. rapid sales growth and low marketing expenditures. b. rapid sales growth and increased competition. c. growing sales and declining profits. d. lower prices and decreased competition . 44.Which of the following is not a good strategy to use when selling a product in the maturity stage? a. lower prices and develop more sales promotions . b. make changes in style, features, or quality . c. invest heavily in advertising . d. tap into new markets. 45. Which of the following is a false statement regarding the product life cycle theory? a. Iit encourages new product development. b. It is very helpful in decision making. c. There is no way to extend the life of a product once it hits the maturity stage. d. It accurately reflects today's markets.

46.Firms develop new products through: a. mergers. b. acquisitions. c. research and development. d. all of the above . 47.At the screening stage of product development: a. a complete marketing plan is developed. b. consumer reaction is solicited. c. a prototype is developed. d. different ideas are compared using a rating checklist.

48. The major disadvantage of test marketing a product is that it: a. is not reliable. b. lets competitors know about a product . c. is costly. d. is time consuming . 49. According to research, innovators make up ___ % of the population. a. 7.5. b. 2.5. c. 10. d. 5 50. At which stage of the product life cycle will an early adopter be most likely to begin purchasing a product? a. maturity . b. saturation. c. growth. d. decline.