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CH : CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator. 2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully. If you find that the Question Booklet Code printed at the right hand top corner of this page does not match with the Booklet Code on the ORS, exchange the booklet immediately with a new sealed Question Booklet. 3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and put your signature at the specified location. 4. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response. 5. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken the bubbles in the ORS very carefully. 6. Questions Q.1 Q.25 carry 1 mark each. Questions Q.26 Q.55 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions include two pairs of common data questions and two pairs of linked answer questions. The answer to the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to the second question in the pair will not be evaluated. 7. Questions Q.56 Q.65 belong to General Aptitude (GA) section and carry a total of 15 marks. Questions Q.56 Q.60 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.61 Q.65 carry 2 marks each. 8. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, 1/3 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, 2/3 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. 9. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall. 10. Rough work can be done on the question paper itself. Blank pages are provided at the end of the question paper for rough work. 11. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided below using a black ink ball point pen.

Name Registration No.

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Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Bentonite clay is an example of (a) Pseudoplastic fluid (b) thixotropic fluid (c) Rheopectic fluid (d) Dilatant fluid

Q.2 Find the transition length at the entrance to a 30mmm tube through which 100% Glycerol at 60oC flowing at velocity of 0.5m/s. The density of Glycerol 1240Kg/m3 , Viscosity of Glycerol = 98Cp (a) 43mm (b) 16.8mm (c) 56mm (d) 28.47mm

Q.3 Removal of ____________heat is involved in the condensation of vapour under saturated condition (a) Sensible Q.4 A stable system is (a) output response is bounded for unbounded input (b) output response is unbounded for bounded input (c) output response is unbounded for unbounded input (d) output response is bounded for bounded input Q.5 For flow through a horizontal system the ratio of exit pressure to inlet pressure is less than one (a) System is diverging pipeline (c) System is a pipeline of uniform diameter Q.6 The second law of thermodynamics states that (a) It is not possible to transfer heat from a lower temperature to higher temperature (b) Total Energy of the system and surroundings remains constant (c) The energy change of a system undergoing any reversible process is zero. (d) Heat transfer do not take place at zero order Q.7 The following correlation for the friction factor is valid : f=CRe-0.5 for turbulent flow through a smooth pipe, where C is a constant. Suppose that density is doubled, then the pressure drop (a)Decreased by less than 100% (b) Increased by less than 100% (c) Decreased by more than 100% (d) Increased by more than 100% Q.8 For a servo problem in a control system (a) Load changes, set point constant (b) Load constant, set point changes (b) System is converging pipeline (d) None of these (b) Latent (c) Super (d) Both (a) & (b)

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(c) Load changes, set point changes

(d) Load constant, set point constant

Q.9 In diffusion process in liquid, d is the average distance travelled between and Dm is the molecular diameter. Which relation is correct? (a) d=Dm (b) d > Dm (c) d < Dm (d) d Dm

Q.10 For work index, amount of energy required to reduce unit mass of material from an infinite particle size to a size of (a) 25 m m (b) 50 m m (c) 100 m m (d) 200 m m

Q.11 For impeller multiplication of power no. and Froude number is (a)

p ND 3 gg

(b)

p N D 4 gg
2

(c)

p ND 4 r g

(d)

p ND 3 gg

Q.12 Experimental studies of a specific decomposition of A in a batch reactor shows the rate at two different temperature at 400 K - rA = 2.3 p A2 , at 500 K energy (a) 2.303 J / mol (b) 4.666 J / mol (c) Zero (d) Infinity

- rA = 2.3 p A3 Evaluate the activation

Q.13 A batch of crude pentane contains 45mole n-butane and 55 percent n-pentane. If a sample batch distillation at atmospheric pressure is used to remove 90 percent of butane , how much pentane will be removed? Relative volatility of mixture =3.5 (a) 0.1666 mol (b) 1.666 mol (c) 0.4285 mol (d) 0.2849 mol

Q.14 The ratio of partial of vapour to the vapour pressure of liquid is (a) Percentage humidity (c) Absolute humidity Q.15 In autocatalytic reaction (a) At low conversion PFR is superior to the MFR reactor (b) At high conversion MFR is superior to the PFR reactor (c) At high conversion PFR is superior to the MFR reactor (d) None of these Q.16 A solution of specific gravity 1 consist of35% A by weight and the remaining B. If the specific gravity B is 1.3 then the specific gravity A is (a) 0.7 (b) 0.95 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.56 (b) Relative humidity (d) Saturation humidity

Q.17 Mollier diagram is (a) Enthalpy versus Temperature diagram (b) Entropy versus Temperature diagram ENGINEERS INSTITUTE OF INDIA-EII

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(c) Internal energy versus Entropy diagram (d) Enthalpy versus Entropy diagram Q.18 In the vicinity of the triple point, the vapour pressure of liquid and solid ammonia are respectively ln p = 13.16 (a) 220.6 kelvin

3000 3574 & ln p = 17.60 T T

[ p=atm, T=kelvin] (d) 338.6 kelvin

(b) 80.4 kelvin

(c) 129.3 kelvin

Q.19 In thermal radiation, for a grey body (a) a = 1

E =1

(b) a 1

E =1

(c) a = 1

E 1

(d) a = E 1

Q.20 The feed enters in a evaporator at a rate of 20kg/s and at a temperature of 298K. An aqueous solution is concentrated from 3% to 35% in single effect evaporation. Find the concentrated product mass rate (kg/sec) (a) 2.08kg/sec (b) 1.71kg/sec (c) 2.71kg/sec (d) 2.80kg/sec

Q.21 In water treatment, hydrazine is used for removal of (a) Chlorines taste (b) Turbidity (c) Dissolved oxygen (d) Colloidal impurities

Q.22 The temperature distribution with conduction through a sphere is represented by (a) Hyperbola (b) straight line (c) Parabola (d) Exponential curve

Q.23 An electronic proportional has an input range of 5 to 21mA and output range of 2 to 6 V. For an input change of 4mA, what will be the output voltage change, if the proportional band of controller is 60% (a) 4.66V (b) 3.66V (c) 2.66V (d) 1.66V

Q.24 The solution of the differential equation (a.) (1 + x)e x

2 2

2 dy + 2 xy = e- x with y (0) = 1 is dx

(b.) (1 + x)e - x (c.) (1 - x)e x

(d.) (1 - x)e - x

Q.25 A and B are required to solve a problem independently. If and 1/3 are their respective probabilities of solving the problem, then find the probability that at least one of them solves the problem. (a.) 1/3 (b.) 2/3 (c.) 3/4 (d.) 1/9

Q.26 Water is pumped from a tank A to B using a 10cm diameter pipe and a pump with delivery head of 80m. Both the tanks are uncovered and water level in the tank B is 50m above the water level in the tank A. The total pressure loss coefficient for the piping is 50. Calculate the velocity of water through the piping. Take g=10m/s2 (a) 4.98m/sec (b) 1.434mm/sec (c) 2.98m/sec (d) 3.464m/sec

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Q.27 A gas stream of A is passed through a packed column to remove 99 percent of A by absorption in water.. Mass transfer coefficient and equilibrium data are given y*=3.1x at 25oK, Kx=42 mol/h.ft3 unit mole fraction , Ky=18 mol/h.ft3 unit mole fraction. Find the total resistance in gas phase. (a) 0.129

hft 3 mol

(b) 0.372

hft 3 mol

(c) 0.428

hft 3 mol

(d) 0.222

hft 3 mol

Q.28 5 meter height, 3.5 meter diameter of a vertical cylinder reactor is cooled by spraying water on the top and allowing the water to flow down the outside wall. Viscosity of water at 40oC is 0.656 Cp . The water flow rate is 0.20m3/min. The thickness of the layer of water is (a) 0.245mm (b) 0.392m/sec (c) 0.111mm (d) 0.567mm

Q.29 Aqueous A at a concentration CAO=0.5mol/ltr is introduced into a btch reactor where it reacts away to form product R according to stoichiometry AR. The concentration of A in the reactor is monitored at various times, as shown below

t(min)

100 333

200 250

300 200

400 167

C A( mol / m3 ) 500

For CAO=333 mol/m3, find the conversion after 5 hour in the batch reactor. (a) 0.3 (b) 0.4 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.6

Q.30 100 kg of water is to be heated in a steam jacketed vessel from 30oC to 90oC. Steam is condensing at 120oC. Find the time required for heating the water. Given : Cp=4180J/kgoC , Area (A)=0.35m2 , hwater=500w/m2 oC , hsteam=1000w/m2 oC (a) 4220 sec (b) 1090 sec (c) 3940 sec (d) 2720 sec

Q.31 Match the catalyst for these manufacturing process Manufacturing process Catalyst

P. Sulphur produced by oxidation reduction of H2S 1. Diastasis Q. low pressure zeigler process for polyethylene 2. Al2O3 R. starch is converted into maltose 3. Aluminium triethyl with TiCl4 S. Ethylene oxide by oxidation of ethylene 4. AgO (a) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4 (b) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1 (c) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3 (d) P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4

Q.32 What is the composion of Durichlor? (a) 14.5% Silicon, 0.95% Carbon & 3% molybdenum (b) 29% Silicon, 0.55% Carbon & 0.2% molybdenum (c) 19% Chromium, 2% Carbon & 4% Nickel (d) 14% Chromium, 0.95% Carbon & 2.8% Nickel Q.33 Match the following reaction P. C+ H2OCO+ H2 1. Boudouard reaction Q. CO+ H2OCO2+ H2 2. Water gas shift reaction ENGINEERS INSTITUTE OF INDIA-EII

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R. C+ CO22CO S. CO+ 3H2CH4+ H2O (a) P-4,Q-2,R-1,S-3

3. Methanation 4. Gasification (c) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3 (d) P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4

(b) P-4,Q-3,R-2,S-1

Q.34 A pipe is loosing heat to atmosphere which is at 290K. the outside surface temperature of pipe is 390K ( radius=0.12m). The film heat transfer coefficient is 12W/m2K. to reduce the rate of heat the pipe is isolated be 50mm thick layer of asbestos. Given : K=0.5 W/mK, Calculate the percentage reduction in rate of heat loss ? (a) 30.5% (b) 20.8% (c) 41.45% (d) 49.00%

Q.35 For a binary fractionating column, given data are feed=200kmol.hr and 50% vapourised Distillate=120kmol/hr with 0.97 mole fraction of more volatile component. Reboiler steam demand=430kg/hr Latent heat of column liquid= 3 10 4 J / mol

Latent heat of steam used in Reboiler= 2200 J / g Find the reflex ratio? (a) 0.321 (b) 0.096 (c) 0.066 (d) 0.0491

Q.36 The inverse of a matrix

ab 0 is 0 1
1 a (c.) 0 0 1 b
a 0 (d.) 0 1 b

a 0 (a.) 0 a

b 0 (.b) a b

Q.37 A single dice is thrown twice, what is the probability that the sum is neither 8 nor 9? (a.) 1/4 (b.) 2/4 (c.) 3/4 (d.) 1/9 Q.38 If the absolute humidity of benzene is 0.5 kg benzene/kg Nitrogen, the partial pressure of benzene in mmHg is 137. The total pressure in a mixture of benzene vapour and nitrogen gas is (a) 750mm Hg (b) 600mm Hg (c) 900mm Hg (d) 1200mm Hg

Q.39 A suspension of glass beads in Ethylene glycol has a hindered settling velocity 1.9mm.sec. What will be the terminal setting velocity of a single glass bead in ethylene glycol? If the Richardsonzaki hindered settling index is 4.5 and the volume fraction of solid in the suspension is 0.5 (a) 44mm/sec (b) 34mm/sec (c) 24mm/sec (d) 14mm/sec

Q.40 The transfer function of a system

Y 12 = 2 . A step change of 3 units magnitude is X s + 1.5s + 3

(c) 23% (d) 16.5%

introduced in the system . the decay ratio is (a) 4.9% (b) 38%

Q.41 Pasteurized milk is heated to 61oC for 28 minute, but if it is heated to 72oC it only needs 13 second for the same result. Find the activation energy for sterilization process? ENGINEERS INSTITUTE OF INDIA-EII

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(a) 421.48 kJ/mol

(b) 416.35 kJ/mol

(c) 418.26 kJ/mol

(d) 423.43 kJ/mol

Q.42 The coefficient of friction is 0.29. What would be the diameter of rolls, if a pair of rolls is to take a free equivalent to sphere of 4cm in diameter and crush them to 1.5cm diameter? (a) 2.21 cm (b) 2.68 cm (c) 2.34 cm (d) 2.83 cm

Q.43 Open loop transfer function for a process is system (a) 4.34 (b) 5.78

1 , determine the ultimate gain for a stable 5(2 s + 1)3

(c) 9.29

(d) 3.64

Q.44 In a vapour compression refrigeration system, enthalpy of saturated liquid leaving the throttle valve is 59kJ/kg. Enthalpy of refrigerant vapour leaving the compressor is 204kJ/kg. Enthalpy of saturated refrigerant vapour is 175kJ/kg. find the COP in the cycle ? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

Q.45 N2 obeys the equation of state P(V-b)=RT at higher temperature and pressure. Find the fugacity coefficient at temperature 950oC and 950 atm, if b = 38.2 (a) 1.329 (b) 1.298 (c) 1.645

ml mol
(d) 1.433

Q.46 For acetone at 293.15K and 1 bar, calculate the pressure at the final condition when acetone is heated upto 323.15H (50oC). Given : Constant volume condition At T=293.15K, b = 1.487 10-3 K -1 , (a) 721 bar (b) 245 bar

K = 62 10 -6 bar -1 , V = 1.287 10 -3 m3 / Kg
(c) 481 bar (d) 540 bar

Q.47 A steam power plant rated at 750,000 KW, generates steam at 585 K and discards heat to a river at 305K. If the thermal efficiency of the plant is 65% of the maximum possible value, how much heat is discarded to the river at rated power? (a) 1224222.429KW (b) 1338532.685 KW (c) 1660800.386 KW (d) 1860352.925 KW

Common Data Questions

Common Data for Questions 48 and 49: Air enters a convergent nozzle at a temperature of 555.6 K and a pressure of 18 atm. The throat area is one-half of the discharge of divergent section. Mach no. in the throat is 0.75. Hence
1.4 & R 82.056 10
3

atm.m3 Kg mol. k

Q.48 Find out the velocity at the throat? (a.) 320.64 m/sec (b.) 354.06 m/sec (c.) 288.54 m/sec (d.) 412.32 m/sec ENGINEERS INSTITUTE OF INDIA-EII

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Q.49 Find out the temperature at the throat? (a.) 512.26 Kelvin (b.) 667.18 Kelvin (c.) 618.09 Kelvin (d.) 580.69 Kelvin Common Data for Questions 50 and 51: A heat pump is used to heat a house in the winter and to cool it is the summer. The heat transfer rate through the walls and roof of the house is 0.70 KW for each Kelvin of temperature difference between the inside and outside of the house in summer and winter. The heat pump motor is rated at 1.6 KW Q.50 Determine the minimum outside temperature for which house can be maintained at 303.15K during the winter: (a.) 276.82 Kelvin (b.) 284.69 Kelvin (c.) 279.43 Kelvin (d.) 300.32 Kelvin Q.51 Determine the maximum outside temperature for which the house can be maintained at 308K during the summer. (a.) 322 Kelvin (b.) 334 Kelvin (c.) 326 Kelvin (d.) 329 Kelvin

Linked Answer Questions

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 52 and 53: Chlorine is stripped from water by sparging with air, a vessel of 1.2 metre in diameter and 3.2 metre deep is to be used. The water will flow continuously upward at the rate 10 10 4 m 3 / sec. Airflow will be 0.045 Kg/sec at 25C. The sparger is in the form of ring 30 cm in diameter containing 50 orifices each 2.4 mm in diameter.

mG = 1.8 10-5 kg / m.s. Given : VG V = 0.11 S

Q.52 Estimate the gas holdup for the above process (a.) 0.2640 (b.) 0.1160 (c.) 0.0891 (d.) 0.1130 Q.53 Find out the specific interfacial area? (a.) 120.14
m2 m3

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(b.) 138.35 (c.) 456.32 (d.) 155.14

m2 m3 m2 m3 m2 m3

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 54 and 55: An isothermal plug flow reactor for a second order reaction AB is designed to give 78% conversion. The flow rate of pure A is 4.8m3/hr and concentration of 1.2Kmol/ m3 in the feed. When the reactor is actually operated based on this design, it was found that 25% of initial reactor behaved as a well-mixed reactor and the remaining behaved as a plug flow reactor. The rate constant for the reaction at a specified temperature is 0.5 m3/kmol.hr Q.54 Calculate the conversion after the initial 25% part of reactor that behaves as well mixed reactor? (a) 43.42% (b) 43.42% (c) 43.42% (d) 43.42%

Q.55 Calculate the overall conversion obtained in such a reactor? (a) 76.34% (b) 79.44% (c) 73.55%

(d) 82.86%

General Aptitude (GA) Questions (Compulsory) Q. 56 Q. 60 carry one mark each. Q. 56 Find the missing number in given number series 1, 8, 3, 16, 5, 32, 7, ., 9 (a) 64 (b.) 55 (c.) 77 (d.) 40

Q. 57 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following sentence: There are no permanent ___________in politics (a) associates (b.) allies (c.) collaborators (d.) partners Q. 58 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following sentence: In final conclusion, the use of final is superfluous because conclusion _____ always final. (a) was (b.) is (c.) are (d.) has been Q.59 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below? Plethora (a.) excess (b.) lack (c.) rarity (d.) scarcity

Q.60 One of the parts (A, B, C, D) in the sentence given below contains an ERROR. Which one of the following is INCORRECT? I don't think / that your friend has any illusions / about his scholarship. / No error (a) (b) (c) (d) ENGINEERS INSTITUTE OF INDIA-EII

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Q. 61 - Q. 65 carry two marks each. Q. 61 Shreya starts walking towards the east and, after covering a distance of 20 m, she turns left and runs for 15 m. She then turns to her right and moves 25 m. From here, she again turns right and walks for 15 m. How far is she from the starting point? (a.) 40 m (b.) 45 m (c.) 50 m (d.) 60 m

Q. 62 Ten judges were asked to judge the relative sweetness of five compounds(A, B, C, D and E) by the method of paired comparisons. In judging each of the possible pairs they were required to state unequivocally which of the two compound was sweeter a judgement of equality or of no difference was not permitted. The results of their judgements are summarized in the given table. In studying the table, note that each cell entry shows the number of comparisons in which the row compound was judged to be sweeter than the column compound.

A B C A B C D E 5 5 2 0 8 7 1 4

8 10 2 3 9 6 7 8 3 4 2 6

How many comparisons did each judge make? (a.) 5 (c.) 15 (b.) 10 (d.) 20

Q. 63 I tried a smile-there was no response. I offered the customary gifts-he waved them aside. I tried the few words I knew-and with a gesture of dignity and scorn he handed me a present, a solitary egg; white and chilled it nestled in my palm. I smiled again but even I felt that my smiles had become mechanical. There was obviously nothing for it: I would have to put on my little act, which in my opinion is worth a whole Platoon of Assam riffles as a safety measure. I removed my dentures. There was a roar of interest and excitement from the crowd. I put them back another roar after I had conducted this humiliating performance several times, there was at least a reaction. The chiefs lips began to twitch, and finally he broke into a hearty laugh. Pointing to his grey hair, he declared, I am an old man too and soon he was sitting beside me very affably. The removing of dentures by the author was intended to show that: (a.) he was not frightened. (b.) he was old and weak in some ways. (c.) he knew a lot of tricks to amuse people. (d.) he did not wish to be treated as a friend. Q.64 300 gram of sugar solution has 40% sugar in it. How much sugar (in gram) should be added to make it 60% in the solution? (a.) 10 (b.) 40 (c.) 90 (d.) 60 ENGINEERS INSTITUTE OF INDIA-EII

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Q. 65 Indian army can fire four shots at a time with an anti aircraft gun, If the probabilities of the 1st , 2nd , 3rd and 4th shot hitting the enemy aircraft are 0.7, 0.6, 0.5 and 0.4. What is the probability that four shots aimed at an enemy aircraft will bring the aircraft down? (a.) (c.) 0.964 0.166 (b.) (d.) 0.123 0.888

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