REFERENTIAL QUESTIONS (Updated 2010 by FL) 1 . Visual approach is : a.

An approach made by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed . b.An approach made by VFR flight . c.Executed in visual reference to terrain . d.a and c . 2.Estimated time of arrival is : a.The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome b.The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over the designated point , defined by reference to navigation aids , from which it is intended that an instrument approach procedure will be concerned . c.The time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will land on the runway . d.a or b. 3.Airway means (ICAO rules ): a.A defined space which an aircraft uses for its flight . b.A profile of an actual track of an aircraft . c. A control area or a portion thereof established in form of a corridor equipped with radio navigation aids . d.A control area or a portion thereof established in form of a corridor . 4.The current flight plan is : a.The flight plan that the pilot has submitted to the ATS reporting office . b.The flight plan that the pilot has submitted to the ATS reporting office and the reporting office has checked and approved . c. The flight plan which comprises all possible changes due to subsequent clearances . d.The flight plan concerning repetitive flights . 5.Clearance limit means : a. The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance . b.The destination airport at which an aircraft plans to arrive . c.The flight level at which an aircraft pans to fly . d.To point at which an aircraft is going to hold . 6.Minimum flight altitude ensures (Vietnam rules of the air ): a.At least 300m (1000ft) above MSL. b.At least 300m (1000ft) above terrain . c.At least 300m(1000ft) above highest obstacle in plain area , 600m(2000ft) above highest obstacle in mountain area . d.None of the above . 7.IFR flights shall be carried out in compliance with : a.General rules of the air . b.Instrument flight rules. c.Visual flight rules and general rules . d.Instrument flight rules and general rules . 8.If two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level , the aircraft , which shall give the way is : a.The one that has the other on its left . b.The one that has the other on its right . c.The one that has the other in sight first . d.The one that is faster than the other . 9.The request to change from IFR flight to VFR flight is : a.Made by the pilot in command . b.Suggested by ATC when VMC exists . c.a and b. d.a or b. 10.Which aircraft along the following has first priority : a.Departing aircraft b.Taxiing aircraft c. Arriving aircraft on final approach . d.Arriving aircraft in the traffic pattern . 11.. shall be given priority over other aircraft listed below a.VIP aircraft b.Military aircraft c.Hospital aircraft d.Emergency aircraft 12.When a pressure type altimeter is set to a QNH altimeter setting , it shall indicate: a. Flight level b. Altitude c. Height d. Pressure on runway surface . 13.After departure , an IFR aircraft loses two- way communications. What should the pilot s course of action be:

a. Continue to fly to the destination airport , whatever the weather conditions are. b.Return to the departure airport immediately , whatever the weather conditions are . c.Return to the departure airport immediately if the weather is VMC or continue the flight to the destination airport if the weather is IMC. d.Land at the most suitable nearest aerodrome while enroute. 14.RNAV is .which permits aircraft operation on a any desired flight path within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids orwithin the limits of the capacity of self-contained aids , or a combination of these . a.A method of navigation b.A procedure of navigation c.A system of navigation d.A rule of air traffic control 15.Two way communication between aircraft and stations on the surface of the earth. That is the definition of : a.CPDLC ( Controller Pilot Data Link Communication) b.Air- ground communication c.Air- to- ground communication d.Air- Air Traffic Service communication 16.The accuracy value is expected to be achieved at least .. per cent of the time by the population of aircraft operating within the RNP-10 airspace . a. 99 b. 95 c. 90 d. 100 17.The ground component of the DME system shall be referred to : a.As transponder b.As transceiver c.As interrogator 18.All current civil SSR systems use : a.The same frequencies i.e. 1030MHz for the ground to air transmission and 1090MHz for the air to ground transmission. b.The same frequencies i.e. 1090MHz for the ground to air transmission and 1030MHz for the air to ground transmission. c.The same frequency i.e. 1030MHz for transmissions on both directions . 19.The aerodrome forecasts have the validity period of : a.9,12,18 or 24 hours b.2 hours c.(a) and (b) 20.The meteorological information provided to ATS units contains : a.METAR (with TREND), SPECI( with TREND) b.taf, landing forecast , take-off forecast c.SIGMET( AIRMET if appropriate) d.(a), (b) and (c) 21.At aerodrome ,the weather observations and reports include: a.Routine observations and reports at hourly or half hourly intervals , special (selected) observations and reports b.Reports for take-off and landing c.(a)and (b) 22.The sequence of emergency phases are: a.ALERFA, INCERFA, DESTRESFA b.INCERFA , ALERFA , DETRESFA c.DETRESFA , ALERFA , INCERFA d.No difference 23.If an arriving is making a straight-in-approach, A departing aircraft may take off in any direction until..before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway. a. 10 minutes b. 2 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 3 minutes 24.If an arriving aircraft is making a complete instrument approach , a departing aircraft may take off in any direction until : a.The arriving aircraft has started its procedure turn or base turn leading to final approach. b.The arriving aircraft has commenced initial approach. c.The arriving aircraft has entered ILS glide path . d.The pilot of the arriving aircraft has observed the departing aircraft. 25.If two departing aircraft of the same type propose to follow the same track and the following aircraft will be flown through the level of the preceding aircraft . Action must be taken to ensure that the . Separation will be maintained or increased when cruising levels are crossed . a. 5 minutes b. 3 minutes

c. 2 minutes d. 10 minutes 26.The standard controller-pilot phraseology for a controller to ascertain the RVSM approval status of an aircraft is : a.(callsign ) confirm RVSM approved b.(callsign) affirm RVSM c.(callsign) do you have RVSM approval. d.None of the above . 27.Aircraft reports at FL 100 but the radar display shows FL 115. What action should the radar controller take ? a.Draw the pilots attention on the difference in levels b.Inform the pilot of the difference and request him to check his altimeter setting and confirm his level c.request the pilot to stop mode C transmission d.Inform the pilot of the difference and request him to keep his mode C on . 28.A light aircraft is approaching for landing behind a heavy aircraft , the time separation minima between them must be : a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 4 minutes 29. What should the radar controller do if the code displayed on the radar screen is different from the code he has just asked the pilot to squawk ? a.Request the pilot to stop squawk b.Request the pilot to confirm that he has correctly set the assigned code c.Request the pilot to recycle the assigned mode and code d.Request the pilot to switch the transponder from ON to STANDBY 30.Air traffic clearances are issued by : a.Area control center b.Approach control unit c.Aerodrome control tower d.All the above 31.Aerodrome control tower shall provide departing aircraft with information related to the operation of aircraft: a. Prior to engine start-up b. Prior ti taxiing for take- off c. prior to line-up d. Prior to acceleration for take-off 32. Recording tapes of air ground communication shall be normally kept for at least : a. 10 days b. 15 days c. 20 days d. 30 days 33.Coordination between ACCs is based on : a.Letter of agreement between them b.ICAO rules of the air c.En-route flight procedures d.Regional supplementary procedures 34.Without prior arrangements made by appropriate ATS authority, APP unit shall clear . To aerodrome control tower a.All arrivals `which reach transfer of control point b. Not more than one arrival c.As many arrivals as possible d.Up to two arrivals. 35.The pilot of an aircraft experiencing two-way radio communication failure set his transponder to code: a.A/3 7400 b.A/3 7500 c. A/3 7600 d. A/3 7700 36.An aircraft will be considered to be maintaining FL 190 when SSR mode C derived level information indicates : a. 195 b. 197 c.193 d. 196 37.To determine effect of wake turbulence , aircraft are grouped into the follwing categories : a.CAT I , CAT II , CAT III b.SMALL, MEDIUM , LARGE c.LIGHT , MEDIUM , HEAVY d.CAT A, CAT B, CAT C 38.Radar controller should give traffic information in the following form : a.Relative bearing distance direction level aircraft type b.Relative bearing distance heading altitude speed c.Relative bearing distance level speed aircraft type d.Relative bearing aircraft type heading level speed 39.The process of correlating a particular radar blip or radar position symbol with a specific aircraft is: a.Radar monitoring b.Radar identification c.Radar vectoring d.Radar separation 40.Whenever a code is assigned to an aircraft , the setting of this code shall be verified by controller :

a.At the first contact b.At the second communication c.At the appropriate opportunity d.At the earliest opportunity 41.Manoeuvring area is: a.That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off , landing and taxiing of aircraft. b.That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off , landing and taxiing of aircraft , including aprons. c.That part of an aerodrome to be used for the landing and taxiing of aircraft , excluding aprons. d.That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off , landing and taxiing of aircraft , excluding aprons 42.Touchdown zone is: a.The portion of a runway , beyond the threshold , where it is intended landing airplanes first contact the runway . b.The portion of a runway , at the threshold, where it is intended landing airplanes first contact the runway . c.The beginning of a runway where it is intended landing airplanes first contact the runway . d.The portion of a runway where it is intended landing airplanes first contact the runway . 43.Runways markings shall be : a. yellow b. Green c. Red d. white 44. Taxiway markings and aircraft stand markings shall be : a. Yellow b. green c. red d. white 45.The missed approach point (MAPt) in a procedure may be: a. the point of intersection of an electronic glide path with the applicable DA/H. b.a fix or navigation facility c.a specified distance from the final approach fix (FAF) d.all are correct. 46.Air traffic means : a.All aircraft in the air . b.All aircraft in flight or operating on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome. c.All aircraft and helicopters flying within a FIR. d.All aircraft in the air , aircraft on apron , and aircraft operating in a hangar. 47.Transition level is : a.300m (1000ft) above transition altitude b.The lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude c.The lowest flight level an aircraft can use during its flight. d.The lowest flight level that can be given to an arriving aircraft by air traffic unit. 48.Radar separation is: a.The separation used when the aircraft equipped with airborne radar . b.The separation used when aircraft operating in radar coverage area. c.The separation used by an air traffic controller having radar control rating d.The separation used when aircraft position information is derived from radar sources . 49. When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is danger of collision , each shall alter its heading a. to the left b. to the right c. upwards d. downwards 50.Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone , or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern . a.When the ceiling is less than 450m (1500ft) b.When the ground visibility is less than 5km c.a or b d.a and b 51.An arriving aircraft is descending for approach . The pilot of the aircraft is to change altimeter setting from standard air pressure (760 mm Hg ) to QNH ( or QFE).. a.At above transition level b.Below transition level but above transition altitude c.At transition altitude d.Below transition altitude 52. A radio telephony distress message transmitted by an aircraft should commence with the word preferably spoken three times . a. SOS b. MAYDAY c. PAN PAN d. EMERGENCY 53. When two or more aircraft are at the same cruising level , the ..aircraft shall normally have priority : a. Preceding b. Succeeding c .Fastest d. Biggest

54.The missed approach procedure is showed in the .. a.Aerodrome Obstacle Chart type A b.Aerodrome Obstacle Chart type B c.En-route chart d.Instrument Approach Chart 55.An ILS CAT I can guide an arriving aircraft to : a. Decision height of 30m b. Outer marker

c. Middle marker d. Decision height of 60m 56. Which facility among the following provides aircraft with azimuth and distance:

a. NDB b. VOR/DME c. ILS d. DVOR 57. Aerodrome control radio station is a station providing radio communication between :

a.An aeronautical station and aircraft or mobile aeronautical stations b.An aerodrome control tower and aircraft or mobile aeronautical stations c.An aeronautical fixed station and aircraft or mobile aeronautical stations 58 . The wing bar of a PAPI shall be constructed and arranged in such a manner that , a pilot making an approach and being on the approach slope will see : a.All 4 units as red b.All 4 units are white c. 1 unit nearest to the RWY as red and 3 units farthest from the RWY as white and when further above the approach slope see all 4 units as white d. 2 units nearest to the RWY as white and 2 units farther from the RWY as red 59.The aerodrome forecasts are presented in the following formats : a.TAF code , abbreviated plain language form b.ROFOR code , tabular ( using abbreviated plain language) form c.Abbreviated plain language , TAF code , tabular (using abbreviated plain language ) form 60. In METAR , SPECI reports , the surface wind is encoded as VRB/VV refer to 10-minute period preceding the observation : a. The mean speed =2mps b.The wind direction has varied =60 and the mean speed =2mps: or wind direction has varied >180 and the mean speed =2mps c.The wind direction has varied =180 , mean speed =2mps 61.When no significant changes to any elements concerned surface wind , visibility , weather and cloud are expected within 2 hours , the TREND forecast is indicated by the abbreviation : a. NOSIG b. NO CHANGE c. SKC d. CAVOK 62 . Time separation minima between holding aircraft in a holding pattern and en-route aircraft which are on the same flight level is : a. 10 minutes b. 5 minutes c. 3 minutes d. As long as outbound time is

63.When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on crossing tracks , the longitudinal separation minima is ..when the level is crossed : a.10 minutes if preceding aircraft is 74 km/h (40kts ) or more faster than the following b.10 minutes if the tracks are 30 degrees or more divergent c.15 minutes d.b and c 64.How many methods do you use for identification by SSR ? a. 4 b. 5 c.6 65. Which item on flight plan indicates RNP10 approved aircraft : a. Item 1/R b. Item 10/R c. Item 18/R Item 18/NAV/R 66.What type of separation must be maintained at all times between aircraft holding pattern ? a. Vertical b. Lateral c. Longitudinal d. A combination of lateral and vertical 67. An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last . of the approach . a. 5 NM b. 4NM c. 3 NM d. 2 NM 68. The tolerance value which should be used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be : a.200 Ft b.300 ft c.500 ft d.1000ft 69.The standard minimum radar separation in Vietnam is : a. 5 NM within 40NM from TSN , DAN and NBA airports and 10NM elsewhere b. 5 NM within 40NM from TSN , DAN and NBA airports ; the 10NM between 40NM to 80NM from those airports and 15 NM elsewhere c. 5 NM within 80nm from TSN , DAN and NBA airports and 15 NM elsewhere d.5 NM within 40 NM from TSN , DAN airports and 10NM elsewhere 70.The surveillance radar normally used by ATC does not display altitude information unless the aircraft is equipped with an altitude encoding transponder . This is referred to as : a. DME b. Mode B c. Mode C d. Altimeter 71. An aircraft class of Heavy indicates the aircraft is capable of takeoff weights of :

a. 136 tons b. 126.000 kg or more c. more than 136.000 kg d. a or c 72. Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus .. of UTC at all time :

a. 10 seconds b. 20 seconds c. 30 seconds d. 1 minute 73.ATIS broadcasts shall be provided at aerodrome where there is a required : a.to reduce the communication load on the ATS VHF air ground communication channels . b.to assist the air traffic controllers to know information about weather at aerodrome . c.to notice the information about the condition of runway in use d.to announce information about departing and arriving aircraft to passengers 74.A transferring center shall forward an accepting center :

a. Necessary flight plan b. Control information c. a and b d. a or b 75.When should the specified element of information including meteorological data , runway in use and other data be transmitted by approach control to an arriving aircraft ? a.During the initial contact b.When the arriving aircraft reports over the holding point c.When the arriving is on final approach d.As early as practicable after the communication has been established 76.During a tour of duty a Watch supervisor in any ATS unit should be responsible for : a.Training controllers in new procedures and operating techniques b.The disposition of the personnel on duty and the adjustment of the function of operating positions so as to meet the traffic demand in a satisfactory manner c.Maintaining continous watch on all visible operations on and in the vicinity of the aerodrome d.all the above 77.The radar controller should inform the pilot of his position except in the following case: a.The aircraft reports over a NAVAID b.The pilot requests position information c.The aircraft resumes its own navigation d.The controller observes that the aircraft has deviated from its intended route 78.Minimum flight altitude has been established for ATS routes : a.At least 600m above MSL b.At least 300m above terrain c.At least 300m above the highest obstacles in plain area , 600m above the highest obstacles in mountain area d.At least 600m above the highest obstacles in the plain area , 900m above the highest obstacles in mountain area . 79.The number assigned to a particular multiple pulse signals transmitted by a transponder is : a.mode b.code c.interrogation d.response 80.What should a radar controller do if he observes an aircraft under his control sign ificantly deviating from its intended route ? a.inform the pilot of the aircraft s position b.inform the pilot of the deviation from the intended route . c.request the pilot to squawk ident. d.request the pilot s intentions . 81.An aircraft system based on secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponder signals which operates independently of ground-based equipment to provide advice to the pilot on potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped with SSR transponders . That is the definition of : a.Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) b.Automatic Dependent Surveillance (ADS) c.Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS) d.Precision Approach Radar (PAR) 82.The direction in which the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is pointed usually expressed in degrees from North (true , magnetic, compass, or grid). That is the definition of : a. Track b. Bearing c. Heading d. Desired Track 83. The altitude at which or below which the position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes . That is the definition of : a.Transition altitude b.transition level c.Minimum sector altitude (MSA) d.Minimum En-route Altitude (MEA) 84.What action should a pilot take to overtake another aircraft : a.He should alter his course to pass the others right b.He should alter his course to pass the others left c.He should climb to pass above the other aircraft d.He should decent to pass under the other aircraft . 85. In a primary radar system , the energy is: a. Transmitted continuously and sent out in the form of pulses b.Not transmitted continuously but is sent out in the form of pulses c.Transmitted continuously and sent out in the form of continuous waves. 86.The wind direction is encoded as VRB only if: a.The wind speed is 2 MPS or less .

b.The wind speed is higher and the wind direction is varying by 180 degrees or more and a single direction is impossible to determine. c.Both a and b 87.At aerodrome the weather observations and reports include: a.Routine observations and reports at hourly or half hourly intervals , special (selected ) observations and reports . b.Reports for take off and landing c.a and b 88.The term CALM in METAR/SPECI reports is encoded as: a.00000 followed by the abbreviation for the wind speed units. b.00000. c.CALM 89.How many parts are there in the new AIP-VN? a. 6 parts b. 3 parts c. 8 parts d. 5 parts 90.In radio communications , the correct way to describe an altitude of 9,500 feet is: a.Ninety five hundred feet b.Nine thousand fiver hundred feet c. Nine- thousand five hundred feet d. Nine point five feet 91.The phraseology used when an aircraft with transmitter failure has been given a turn and the echo is seen to follow instructions is : a.turn observed , will continue to pass instructions. b.reply not received , will continue instructions . c.turn observed , continue visually. d.I have one-way contact with you , will continue to control you. 92.The correct phraseology to issue traffic information in the radar environment is: a. Unidentified target to your north , closing fast b.Traffic 12 oclock , 5 miles , southbound , Cessna 150, 3 thousand feet c.Target 5 miles west of your position , Cessna 150 , southbound d.Conflict approaching from the north , a Cessna on converging course 93.A radar beacon target is observed on code 760 0 . This would indicate that : a.The radar is in radar contact and under the control of an approach control facility b.The aircraft is experiencing a radio failure c.The aircraft is being hijacked d.The pilot is lost and request assistance 94.Minimum descent altitude (MDA) is : a.A specified height in non-precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made without the required visual reference . b.A specified height in precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made without the required visual reference. c.A specified altitude in non-precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made without the required visual reference. d.A specified altitude in precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made without the required visual reference . 95.Circling approach is : a.An extenuation of an instrument approach procedure which provides for visual circling of aerodrome prior to landing . b.An extenuation of a visual approach procedure which provides for visual circling of aerodrome prior to landing . c.An extenuation of an instrument approach procedure which provides for visual circling of aerodrome prior to missed approach . d.An extenuation of an instrument approach procedure which provides for visual circling of aerodrome after landing . 96.Differences from ICAO standards are included in page of AIP: a.ENR 1.7 b. GEN 1.7 c. GEN 2.7 d. ENR 2.7 97.An aircraft altimeter is set with standard pressure reference (760 mm Hg or 1013.2 hPa ). Circle the correct report from the aircraft : a. Maintaining 5000 feet , VN 790. b. Maintaining FL 50, VN790. c. Maintaining 1500 meters , VN 790. c. None of the above 98. ATC replies to aircrafts request to start up a. VN 790, cleared start up b. VN 790, clear to start up c. VN 790 , start up approved d. VN 790 , approved start up 99. A revised expected approach time shall be transmitted to the aircraft without delay whenever it differs from that previously transmitted by . minutes or more :

a. 5 b. 3 c. 2 d. 15 100.In the event of a radio failure , an Air Traffic Control Tower may use a light gun to signal aircraft and /or vehicles on or near the airport. The light gun is capable of signaling 3 different colors . They are: a. red , white, blue b. red , green , white c. red , yellow , green d. orange , white , blue 101.Who is most directly responsible for the avoidance of collisions : a.The aerodrome traffic controller b.The approach controller c.The pilot d.All of the above 102.Except when necessary for take-off or landing or except when specifically authorized by the appropriate authority , an IFR flight shall not be flown at : a.A level below minimum flight level b.A level above minimum flight level c.A level above FL 150 d.A level below FL 150 103.Pilots should notify air traffic control a revised estimated time if the reported estimate for the reporting point is found to be in error in excess of : a.5 minutes b.4 minutes c.3 minutes d.2 minutes 104.TWY edge lights shall be :

a. red b. yellow c. blue d. white 105.In the METAR /SPECI reports , the minimum horizontal visibility will be reported in meters using 4 figures , when : a.There is NO marked directional variation in visibility. b.There is marked directional variation in visibility. c.When the visibility is less than 1500m and in another direction is more than 5000m 106. A0130 910726 VIE/UFN. RWY 25R/07L closed due to repair . The above is : a. A NOTAM CLASS A b. A NOTAM CLASS 1 c.A NOTAM CLASS 2 d. AN AIRAC 107.What are the significant dates associated with the AIRAC system ? a.The effective date b.The publication date c.The latest date for the raw data to reach AIS d.All of a, b, c 108.If two departing aircraft of the same type propose to follow the same track and the preceding aircraft is 74 km/h (40kts) or more faster than the following aircraft , the separation between their take-offs is : a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d . 4 minutes 109.Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR is at least .and at a distance of .or more from the faculty . a. 10 degrees, 18,5 km(10NM) b. 15 degrees, 18,5 km(10NM) c. 10 degrees , 28 km(15 NM ) d. 15 degrees , 28 km(15NM) 110.Longitudinal separation minima for aircraft at the same cruising level and on the same track is : a. 15 minutes b. 10 minutes c.10 minutes if aircraft are of the same type d.10 minutes if aircraft have the same Mach number 111.A medium aircraft is approaching for landing behind a heavy aircraft , the time separation minima between them must be :

a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 4 minutes 112. Longitudinal separation minima between aircraft flying on crossing track with no navigational aids is :

a. 10 minutes if navigational aids permit . b. 10 minutes c. 10 minutes if aircraft have the same TAS d. 15 minutes 113. Radar position symbol includes:

a. PSR symbols b. SSR symbols c. Combined PSR/SSR symbols d. all the above 114.Radar monitoring shall not be terminated until: a.The aircraft has established radio contact with tower control visual separation is applied. b.The aircraft has landed , or in case of missed approach , is at least 2 km (1 NM) beyond c.The departure end of the runway and adequate separation with another traffic is established . d.b or c 115.Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB is at least .and at a distance of ..or more from the faculty. a.15 degrees , 18,5km(10NM) b. 30 degrees , 18,5 km(10NM) c. 15 degrees , 28km (15NM) d. 30 degrees ,28 km (15NM) 116.If two aircraft have departed from the same aerodrome and the preceding aircraft is 37 km/h (20kts)or faster than the succeeding aircraft speed , the longitudinal separation minima between the aircraft is: a. 10 minutes b. 5 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 2 minutes 117. When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track , the longitudinal separation minima must be .when the level is crossed : a. 10 minutes b. 10 minutes if aircraft are of the same type c.10 minutes if aircraft have the same mach number d.10 minutes if navigational aids permit frequent determination if position and speed . 118.For traffic on reciprocal tracks where lateral separation is not provided , vertical separation shall be kept for at least ..prior to and after the time the aircraft are estimated to pass , or are estimated to have passed: a. 10 minutes b. 5 minutes c. 15 minutes d. As long as the aircraft are estimated to have passed each other 119. Put the following AFTN message indicators : FF, GG ,SS ,KK , DD in correct order of priority: a. FF, KK,GG,SS,DD b. SS, GG , FF ,DD, KK c. SS, DD, FF ,GG ,KK d. DD, FF, GG,SS, KK 120.The minimum ceiling required for standard operations using Visual Flight Rules in a control zone is : a. 3 miles b. 3000feet c. 1 mile d. 1500feet 121. An authorization by ATC , for the purpose of preventing collision between known aircraft to proceed under specified traffic condition within controlled airspace is called a/an : a. ATC clearance b. Pilot briefing c. Flight plan d. Course 122. Who is directly responsible for , and is the final authority on , the safe operation of an another ? a. The aircraft owner b. The air traffic controller in contact with the flight c.The flight dispatcher d. The pilot in command of that aircraft 123.During an instrument approach , the pilot reached the Decision Height (DH) and visual reference to the runway environment is insufficient to complete the landing . The pilot would be expected to : a.request a 180 degrees turn for return to the starting point

b.execute a missed approach and advise ATC c.continue the approach and land without visual reference d.proceed to the holding pattern for another approach 124. Which of the following is a precision approach ? a. ILS b. VOR c. NDB d. LIZ only 125.Minimum sector altitude is the lowest altitude which provides a minimum clearance of . above all objects located in an area contained within a sector of a circle of ..radius centered on a radio aid to navigation . a.300m(1000ft); 46km (25NM) b.150m (500ft) ; 46km (25NM) c.300m (1000ft) ;75km (40NM) d.600m (2000ft) ; 75km(40NM) 126.An IFR flight may be cleared to execute a visual approach provided that the pilot can maintain visual reference to the terrain and; a.the reported ceiling is at or above the approved initial approach level for the aircraft so cleared b .the pilot reports at the initial approach level or at any time during the instrument approach procedure that the meteorological conditions are such that with reasonal assurance a visual approach and landing can be completed c.a and b d.a or b 127.Succeeding aircraft shall be cleared for approach when the preceeding aircraft a.has reported that it is able to complete its approach without encountering instrument meteorological conditions . b.is in communication with and sighted by the aerodrome control tower and reasonable assurance exits that a normal landing can be accomplished. c.a or b d.none of the above 128.Speed control should not be applied after a point of ..miles from the threshold on final approach . a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 129.The final clearance should be given at : a. 5 miles b. 4 miles c. 6 miles d. 8 miles 130.An APP unit issues VN 790 instructions for straight-in approach runway 25L: a.VN 790 straight-in approach runway 25L approved b.VN 790 straight in approach approved c.VN 790 cleared straight-in approach runway 25L d.VN 790 cleared straight-in approach 131.Minimum flight altitude ensures : a.At least 300m (1000ft )above MSL b.At least 300m (1000ft) above terrain c.At least 300m(1000ft ) above highest obstacles in plain area , 600m(2000ft ) above highest obstacles in mountain area . d. All the above 132..NOTAM contain information of concern to long or medium range flight , given selected international distribution. a. A series b. B series c. C series d. none of above 133. Which of the following weather phenomena will reduce the visibility? a. rain b. fog c. haze d. all of above 134.When a pressure type altimeter is set to QFE Altimeter setting , it shall indicate :

a. Flight level b. Altitude c. Height d. pressure on the runway surface

135. The take-off clearance shall be issued when the aircraft is: a. ready for take off b. approaching the runway in use c. The traffic situation permits d. all of the above 136. What do you do in the first action if you receive the information hijack on the aircraft from the pilot in command of the taxiing aircraft : a. stop taxi b. taxi the aircraft to the apron c. taxi to the separate place

d. clear for take off 137. An IFR may request : a. A straight in approach b. An ILS approach c. A visual approach d. All the above 138. The distance between a taxi holding position and the centerline of a non precision approach runway of an aerodrome code 3 shall be : a. 40m b. 60m c. 75m d. 90m 139.Aerodrome control tower shall provide arriving with information related to the operation of aircraft .: a.prior to issuing of landing clearance b.prior to the aircrafts passing abeam outer marker c.prior to aircraft entering the traffic circuit d.prior to having the aircraft in sight 140.An electrical discharge from a thunderstorm : a. lightning b. thunder c. rain d. mist 141. The AIRAC AIP Amendments or supplements should be reached recipients at least .in advance of the effective date ? a. 28 days b. 14 days c. 42 days d. 56 days 142.The AIRAC AIP Amendments or supplements shall be distributed at least in advance of the effective date ? a. 28 days b. 14 days c. 42 days d. 56 days 143. The minimum difference between the AIRAC puplication date and effective date is at least ? a. 42 days b. 28 days c. 7 days d. 56 days 144. The schedule of AIRAC effective dates must be based on interval of : a. 14 days b. 28 days c.28 days d. 56 days 145. AIRAC stands for : a. Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control b. Aeronautical Information Regulation and Check c.Aeronautical Information Rules and Control2 d.Aeronautical Information Rules and Check 146.Which cloud may give thunderstorm and moderate (MOD) or severe (SEV) turbulence and ice : a. Sc Stratocumulus b. Cb Cumulonimbus c. Cu Cumulus d. St- Stratus 147. Which phenomenon always reduces visibility below 1 km : a. HZ b. BR c. FG d. TSRA 148.A METAR is: a.An aerodrome routine weather report b.An area routine weather report c.An aerodrome routine weather forecast d.An area forecast 149.A TAF is: a.An aerodrome routine weather observation b.An aerodrome routine weather forecast c.An aerodrome special weather report d.An aerodrome amended weather forecast 150.At TSN airport , TORA of runway 25L is : a. 3036m b. 3059m c. 3800m d. 4100m 151.METAR VVTS 021230Z 13012G26KT 1200NW +SHRA BKN010 SCT015CB 28/27 Q1002= a.the observation time is 0212Z b.the observation time is 1230Z c.the observation time is 1230LT d.the observation time is 0212LT 152.METAR VVTS 021230Z 13012G26KT 1200NW +SHRA BKN010 SCT015CB 28/27 Q1002= a.the present weather is heavy rain b.the present weather is light shower rain c.the present weather is heavy thunderstorm with rain d.the present weather is heavy shower rain 153.SPECI VVBB 080320Z 25019KT 3000 TSRA SCT013 SCT015CB 24/23 Q1000= a.cloud amount and cloud base of CB are 2..>3 oktas and 1500m b. cloud amount and cloud base of CB are 3..>4oktas and 1500m c.cloud amount and cloud base of CB are 2..>3 oktas and 1500ft

d.cloud amount and cloud base of CB are 3..>4 oktas and 1500ft 154.TAF VVTS 200330Z 200624 23010KT 9999 BKN017 TEMPO 0814 1500+TSRA SCT013 SCT015CB= a.the prior- of validity of forecast is 1-2 hours b.the prior -of validity of forecast is 18 hours c.the prior -of validity of forecast is 24 hours d. the prior- of validity of forecast is 15 hours 155.TAF VVTS 200330Z 200624 23010KT 9999 BKN017 TEMPO 0814 1500+TSRA SCT013 SCT 015CB= a.9999 means forecast horizontal visibility is 9999m b.9999 means forecast vertical visibility is 9999 m c.9999 means forecast horizontal visibility is 10km or more d.9999 means forecast vertical visibility is 10km or more 156.TAF VVTS 200330Z 200624 23010KT 9999 BKN017 TEMPO 0814 1500+TSRA SCT013 SCT015CB= a.the forecast wind direction and wind speed are 10KT and 230 degrees b.the forecast wind speed and wind direction are 10 KT and 230 degrees c.the forecast wind direction and wind speed are 230KT and 10degrees d.the forecast wind speed and wind direction are 230KT and 10degrees 157.The closest layer of the atmosphere to the earth is called : a. Troposphere b. Stratosphere c. Lower d. neither of the above 158.QFE means :

a.Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation b.Altimeter sub-scale to obtain elevation when on the ground c.All are correct d.None is correct 159.NOTAM with series C used for : a. Domestic flight b. international flight c. Both of them d. None of them 160. At Tan Son Nhat airport , validity of the TAF is : a. 6 h b. 12 h c. 18h d. 24h 161.SCT 020 means: a.Cloud 3-4/8 , Ceiling 2000ft b.Cloud 5-7/8 , ceiling 2000ft c.Cloud 3-4/8 , Ceiling 2000m d.Cloud 5-7/8 , Ceiling 2000m 162.VVTS 242130Z 250018Z 24003MPS 9999 SCT020 BEMG 0708 FEW017 BKN020 TEMP 1013 21005G14MPS 2000 TSRA. Validity of the TAF is : a.From 242130Z b.From 250018Z c.From 242130Z to 250018Z d.None is correct 163.Integrated Aeronautical Information Package includes: a.AIP, AIP Amendment , AIC and AIPSUP b.NOTAM and PIB c.CHECK LIST and SUMMARY d.All of above 164.RCF message is : a.Coordination message b.Supplementary message c.Emergency message d.Field flight plan and associated update message 165.CNL DLH 773 - VVTS VTBS means: a.Cancel the flight plan of the aircraft identification DLH773 from VVTS to VTBS b.Cancel the flight DLH773 from VVTS to VTBS c.Delay the flight DLH773 from VVTS to VTBS d.None is correct 166.Filed flight plan message and associated update message comprise: a.Filed flight plan message , delay message and flight plan cancellation

message b.Modification message c.Departure message and arrival message d.All of them 167.In the case of an aircraft is approaching FIR (or boundary of the two areas of responsibility )but the coordination has not been successfully made , the transferring center shall : a.Hold the aircraft within the transferring center area until coordination can be effected with the adjacent center b.Release the aircraft to the adjacent center then make coordination as required c.Request the aircraft itself to communication d.Send the aircraft back to the aerodrome of departure 168.According to the regulation of TSN International airport Authority , maximum speed of vehicles operating in the manoeuvring area is: a. 20km/h b. 25km/h c. 30km/h d. 35km/h 169. When approaching an aircraft , maximum speed of all vehicles is: a. 5km/h b. 8 km/h c. 10km/h d. 15km/h 170. Preventing all domestic animals from entering the movement area is the responsibility of: a.Airside Operation Center b.Airport Authority Department c.Aviation Security Center d.All of the above 171.When emergency case occurs in the movement area , which gate is used : a.Gate number 1 (the gate next to the VIP A hall) b.Gate number 5 (the entrance to the apron) c.Gate of the fuel farm d.All of the above 172.The tow-truck is towing the aircraft ATR72 from the parking number 3 to maintenance base (A75) . The special service truck is carrying a patient from parking number 24 to the domestic terminal . They meet each other at the intersection of the North Taxi and Service Road 4 . Which truck has priority? a.Special service truck b.Tow-truck c.None of the above d.All of the above 173.To save time , the second refueling tank refuels for the first tank which is refueling for an aircraft so that the first one continues its refueling . What is your opinion ? a.It is very convenient , fast for aircraft , saving total time from staying at the parking . b.Not permitted , due to safety c.Permitted when time is needed for serving another aircraft d.Permitted when the airport authorities approved 174.In which case , the ground equipment operating staff must reduce to minimum or stop immediately to ensure the safety: a.When an aircraft is taxiing b.When driving to the intersection Service Road 4 and the taxiway c.When passing by the parking aircraft area , loading area d.All of the above 175.When a VIP aircraft operating at TSN International Airport, the time limit is : a.Before 5 minutes and after 5 minutes b.Before 10 minutes and after 10 minutes c.Before 10 minutes and after 15 minutes d.Before 15 minutes and after 10 minutes 176.Are ground equipment and vehicles permitted to turn the high beam of the headlights in the foggy condition or at the night time ? a.Permitted b.Not permitted at any time c.Depending on practical situation . It is not stipulated by the airport authorities d.It is not necessary the headlights must be changed into the high beam can be turned on when necessary , if not , the low beam shall be used: 177.According to the regulations of aviation law, each airport has its own Vicinity to ensure the safety of airport activities and the local residents in the vicinity . The limitation of the vicinity is : a.8 km from the border line of the airport perimeter b.8 km from the reference point c.15km from the reference point d.30km from the reference point 178.According to the current regulations , what is the parking number used for unlawful interference aircraft ? a.North South TWY b.Parking 70 c.Parking 50 d .All of the above

179. What is the minimum safety distance of a vehicle following an operating aircraft ?

a. 80m b. 125m c. 200m d. 250m 180. Who is responsible for establishing the prohibited area and restricted area in Vietnam: a.President b.Prime Minister c.Minister of National Defense Ministry d.Minister of Transport and Communication Ministry 181.When an aircraft (take off or landing ) is having an incident on the runway , the Tower laterally solves the problem , not inform the airport authorities , is that right or wrong ? a.Right . Because the runway is controlled by the Southern Air Management Center b.Right . Because the Tower controller is only liable for reporting to the Southern Air Management Center c.Both a and b d.Wrong . The Tower has responsibility to inform Tan Son Nhat International Airport Authority all the Technical Incidents of aircraft as coordinated 182. Which is the safe distance for an aircraft taxiing on the taxi lane from an obstacle around ?

a. 42m b. 42.5m c. 47m d. 47.5m 183. The speed of the tow truck when towing an aircraft is : a. 10km/h b.15km/h c. 20km/h d. 25km/h 184.All of the new terminal air bridges are equipped with portable water supply system , electric and refueling system as well . If a certain airline does not need all these available services but uses other kind of services (for example : do not use potable water supply service ), is it acceptable ? a.Acceptable . If they use any services , they have to pay for theses services . b.Acceptable . All the attached equipments are on service .. These services are used on demand and are not used if not necessary . c.Unacceptable . All the above equipments have been installed with reducing the number of vehicles moving on the ramp for a better safety d.Unacceptable . Airport Authority has already had the regulations 185.In the following cases , which one has the priority ? a.The aircraft is ready for take off to do its search and rescue operation b.Aircraft that reports that he is in nearly short of fuel situation and requests emergency landing . c.Hospital aircraft carrying patient requests landing d.Military aircraft carrying ammunitions , equipment requests take off 186.For engine-test and compass test , the aircraft operator shall: a.Establish a plan first and inform the Ground control for coordination b.Establish a plan first and inform the duty Manager and get approved by General Director of SAA c.Establish a plan first and inform ATC Tower for coordination d.All of the above 187.Critical positions of aircraft in the aerodrome traffic and taxi circuits are : a.Where an aircraft receives aerodrome information , take off or landing clearance b.Where an aircraft operating on manoeuvring area may experience dangerous condition c.Where an aircraft within an aerodrome needs urgent from an aircraft unit d.None of the above 188.Primary RADAR means: a.A RADAR system which provides primary information of air traffic to ATC unit. b. A RADAR system which uses reflected radio signal c. A RADAR system which uses primary information from aircraft and displays them on the RADAR screen . d. A RADAR system which ATC uses first to determine aircraft position in distance and azimuth. 189. Airfield lighting system CAT I consists of : a.Approach lights , RWY edge lights , RWY threshold lights , RWY end lights , apron edge lights , PAPI , TWY edge lights , apron edge lights b.Approach lights , RWY center lights , RWY threshold lights , RWY edge lights , RWY end lights , touch down zone lights , PAPI , TWY edge lights , TWY center lights .

c.And apron flood lights d.None of the above 190.Secondary RADAR can provide : a.Aircraft position information azimuth and range b.Aircraft identification code c.Aircraft pressure altitude d.all the above 191.Expected approach time is : a.The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft , following a delay will leave the holding point to complete its approach for landing . b.The time at which the pilot of an arriving aircraft expects to leave the holding point to complete its approach for landing c.The time at which it is estimated that an arriving aircraft will commence its approach for landing d.All the above 192.Altitude means: a.The vertical distance of a point or an object considered as a point measured from the ground level b.The vertical distance of a point or an object considered as a point measured from the aerodrome level c.The vertical distance of a point or an object considered as an point measured from the mean sea level d.The vertical distance of a point or an object considered as a point measured from the highest obstacle within a radius of 8 km from estimated position of the aircraft. 193.Missed approach procedure is : a.The procedure to be followed if an aircraft cannot land b.The procedure which aircraft uses when there are many obstacles on the Runway-in use c. The procedure to be commenced by aircraft decision height d. The procedure to be followed if the approach cannot be continued 194. A flight plan for a flight to be provided with air traffic control service shall be submitted at least ..before departure: a. 60 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 15 minutes d. 10 minutes 195.Unless authorized by the appropriate ATS AUTHORITY , VFR flight shall not be operated : a.Above minimum flight level b.Below minimum flight level c.Above FL 200 d.Below FL 200 196.The air traffic services comprise: a.Area control service , approach control service , aerodrome control service b.Air traffic control service , search and rescue service c. Air traffic control service , aeronautical telecommunication service and aeronautical meteorological service d. Air traffic control service , flight information service , alerting service 197.When an aircraft has been cleared into a center s control area at a cruising level which is below established minimum cruising level for a subsequent portion of the route , the ATC shall immediately : a.Request the aircraft to maintain the level b.Issue a revised clearance to the aircraft for cruising higher than minimum c.Inform the adjacent ACC d.Inform approach control unit 198.In so far as practicable for two aircraft flying to the same destination , higher cruising level shall be assigned : a.To the aircraft , which arrives first b.To the aircraft , which arrives later c.In a manner that will be correct for an approach sequence at destination d.To the aircraft , which first enters the area of responsibility. 199.Aerodrome control tower is responsible for controlling the traffic of on the manoeuvring area: a. Aircraft b. Vehicles c. Pedestrians d. All the above 200. Red pyrotechnic directed by tower to an aircraft in flight means: A .Return for landing b. Not withstanding any previous instruction, do not land for the time being c.Give way to other aircraft and continue circling d.Clearance to and taxi will be given in due course 201.A ground controller shall instruct an aircraft which is known or believed to be subjected to unlawful interference to . a.A holding point b.Terminal apron c.A stand for VIP aircraft

d.An isolated parking position 202.An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within five minutes of the estimated time of landing and communication has not been re-established . The aircraft should be considered in: a.Uncertainty phase b.Alert phase c.Distress phase d.Emergency phase 203.The air density generally .with height: a. Increases b. Remains the same c. Decreases d. Rises 204. Temperature generally .. as altitude is gained :

a. Stay the same b. Decreases c. Rises d. Increases 205.Atmospheric pressure with height:

a. Does not change b. Increases c. Rises d. Falls 206. The smaller the spread between temperature and dew point the will be the relative humidity:

a. Smaller b. Lower c. Higher d. Longer

207.A SPECI is a.An aerodrome corrected weather report b.An aerodrome routine weather report c.An aerodrome special weather report d.An aerodrome amended weather report 208.A trend-type landing forecast is : a.A take-off forecast b.A take-off report c.A complete landing forecast d.A self contain landing forecast 209.VVR35 GND 1500m: The above indicates : a.Prohibited area number 35 within Vietnam territory from ground up to 1500m b.Restricted area number 35 within Vietnam territory from ground up to 1500m c.Danger area number 35 within Vietnam territory from ground up to 1500m d.None of the above 210.The first ATS unit receiving a flight plan shall: a.Check it for completeness with the format and data convention b.Check it for completeness and to the extend possible for accuracy c.Take action , if necessary , to make it acceptable to the air traffic services. d.All of the above 211.In the event of a delay of ..minutes in excess of the estimated off-block time for a controlled flight or delay of minutes for an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted , the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old flight plan cancelled , whichever is applicable :

a. 30,30 b. 30,60 c. 60,30 d.60,60 212. What are the international aviation urgency signals? a. SOS b. MAYDAY c. PANPANd. All the above 213.Which of the following statements is likely true a METAR? a.An aviation weather report b.An aviation weather forecast c.An aerodrome warning d.An AIRMET information 214.In the METAR /SPECI , when the RVR has increased during the 10 minutes preceding the observation , the tendency is indicated by: a.U b. D c .N d. P 215.. In the METAR/SPECI , when the RVR has decreased , the tendency is indicated by: a.U b. D c. N d. P 216.In the METAR/SPECI , when the RVR has no distinct change , the tendency is indicated by: a.U b. D c. N d. P 217.Landing forecast TREND type as: a.TREND forecasts appended to METAR or SPECI b.TREND forecasts appended to METAR c.TREND forecasts appended to aerodrome forecast d.All wrong 218.TREND forecast contains specific information presented in a fixed order . The information and order are as follows: a.Change indicator ; Surface wind ; Weather phenomena ;Cloud or vertical visibility b.Surface wind ; Visibility , Weather phenomena ; Cloud or vertical visibility c.Change indicators; Surface wind ; Visibility ; Weather phenomena d.Surface wind ; Visibility ; Weather phenomena 219.WMO data type designator used for OPMET data, which of the following statements is likely true for WS?

a. SIGMET b. SIGNET for TC c. SIGMET for VA d. VAA

220.WMO data type designator used for OPMET data , which of the following statements is likely true for FK ? a.Tropical cyclone advisories b.Air-report c.Aerodrome forecast d.Administrative 221.WMO data type designator used for OPMET data , which of the following statements is likely true for WC? a. SIGMET b. SIGMET for TC c. SIGMET for VA d. TCA 222. A tropical cyclone has wind speeds :

a. 34kts or more b. 32 kts or more c. 33kts or less d. 31 kts or more 223. Transfer of control for arriving aircraft shall be forwarded by Tan Son Nhat APP to Tan Son Nhat TWR at :

a. 5000ft b. 2000ft c. 7000ft

d. 10000ft 224.Transfer of control information of over flight (below 10000ft ) shall be notified by the transferring unit to Tan Son Nhat APP at least 20 minutes prior to estimated time over the transfer of control point . The transfer message shall contain information in the following format : a.Aircraft identification and type ; Departure point and destination ; Estimated time over the transfer of control point ; flight level or altitude b.Aircraft identification and type ; Estimated time over the transfer of control point ;Altitude ; Any other necessary information c.Aircraft identification and type ; Departure point and destination ; Altitude ; Any other necessary information d.Aircraft identification and type ; Departure point ; Estimated time over the transfer of control point ; Flight level . 225.The holding pattern over AC is denoted in words as follows : a.+Inbound track 259 degree ; outbound track 079 degree, left hand pattern ; outbound time 1 minute ; Altitude 1500m b.+ Inbound track 079 degree ; outbound track 259 degree , left hand pattern ; outbound time 1 minute ; altitude 1500m c.+Inbound track 259 degree ; outbound track 079 degree ; right hand pattern ; Outbound time 1 minute ; altitude 1200m d. +Inbound track 079 degree ; outbound track 259 degree , right hand pattern ; outbound time 1 minute ; altitude 1200m 226. What is the minimum Visibility for Cat C aircraft using VOR/DME approach procedures for RWY 25L/R at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome ? a. 3000m b. 2000m c. 2400m d. 2800m 227. There are holding patterns in Tan Son Nhat airport area : a. 5 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6 228.The holding pattern over VTV is denoted in words as follows : a.+Inbound track 315 degree , outbound 135 degree ; left hand pattern , outbound time 1 minute ; altitude 1500m b.+Inbound track 135 degree , outbound track 315 degree , left hand pattern ; outbound time 1 minute ; altitude c. +Inbound track 315 degree , outbound track 135 degree , right hand pattern ; outbound time 1 minute ; altitude 900m d. +Inbound track 135 degree , outbound 315 degree , right hand pattern ; outbound time 1 minute ; altitude 900m 229. The missed approach procedure of NDB SG RWY 07L Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is denoted in words as follows : A .Maintain RWY heading to 300m , then turn left to join the holding pattern or follow ATC instructions b.Maintain RWY heading climb to 900m , then turn left to join the holding pattern or follows ATC instructions c.Maintain RWY heading climb to 450m , then turn left to join pattern or follow ATC instructions d.Maintain RWY heading climb to 600m , then turn left to join the holding pattern or follow ATC instructions 230.Tan Son Nhat TWR CONTROLLER isnt allowed to issue landing clearance for aircraft in case of : a.Obstacles on runway b.Weather condition is below minimum for approach procedure conducted by aircraft c.There are dangerous phenomena in the landing area affected to the air safety d.All the above 231.The minimum visibility for Cat A , B, C aircraft using ILS approach procedures runway 25R (without GP )at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome ? a. 2000m b. 2800m c. 2400m d. 1000m 232. The minimum visibility for Cat D aircraft using ILS approach procedures runway 25L (without GP) at Tan son Nhat aerodrome ? a. 2400m b. 1000m c. 2800m d. 2000m 233. How many activities are considered to violate the ATS Regulation of Vietnam ?

a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 11 234. How many actions shall the civil officer on duty take when strange aircraft appear(s) in the responsibility area ? a. 3 b. 5 c. 4

d. 6 235. The time validation of permission for arriving /departure aircraft in Vietnam is ..hour(s) after the estimated time of arrival/departure time accepted in the flight permission . a. 1 b. 24 c. 12 d. 72 236.The time validation of permission for over flight aircraft in Vietnam is hour(s) after the estimated time over the FIR entry point accepted in the flight permission. a. 1 b. 72 c. 12 d. 24 237.The overall width of domestic airway over the Vietnams airspace is . a. 10km b. 20km c.30km d.40km 238. The overall width international airways is . a. 10km b. 20km c. 30km d. 40km 239.Vertical limitation of prohibited area over Ho Chi Minh City (VVP4 ) is : a.From ground / water surface up to 3000m b.From ground/water surface up to 2700m c.From ground/ water surface up to 1500m d.From ground / water surface up to unlimited 240.The weather operation minima (ceiling / visibility )for ILS/DME approach RWY 25R at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is : a. 80m/600m b. 60m/800m c. 80m/1000m d. 120m/2000m 241.The weather operation minima(ceiling / visibility ) for VOR/DME approach RWY 25L at Tan son Nhat aerodrome is : a. 85m/1000m b. 120m/2000m c. 85m/1200m d. 120m/2400m 242. The weather operation minima (ceiling /visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 25R/L(CAT D) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is : a. 120m/1200m b. 120m/2000m c. 120m/1000m d.120m/2400m 243. The weather operation minima (ceiling /visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07L(CAT A,B) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is : a. 130m/2400m b. 130m/2000m c. 120m/2800m d.120m/2400m 244.The weather operation minima (ceiling /visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07L (CAT C ) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is: a. 130m/2000m b. 130m/2400m c. 130m/2800m d. 130m/3000m 245. The weather operation minima(ceiling /visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07L(CAT D) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is : a. 130m/2800m b. 130m/2000m c. 120m/2000m d.120m/2400m 246. The weather operation minima (ceiling /visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07R (CAT A, B) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is: a.120m/2000m b.130m/3200m c.120m/2800m d.130m/2400m 247. The weather operation minima (ceiling /visibility ) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07R (CAT C) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is: a. 120m/2400m b.130m/2800m c.120m/2000m d.130m/3200m 248.The weather operation minima (ceiling /visibility) for VOR/DME approach RWY 07R(CAT D) at Tan son Nhat aerodrome is: a. 120m/2000m b. 120m/2400m c. 130m/2800m d.130m/3200m 249. The weather operation minima (ceiling /visibility) for NDB approach RWY 25R/L (CAT A, B, C ) at Tan son Nhat aerodrome is: a. 120m/2400m b. 120m/2000m c. 120m/1000m d.120m/2800m 250.The weather operation minima (ceiling /visibility) for NDB approach RWY 07R(CAT D) is : a. 120m/2400m b. 120m/2800m c.130m/2400m d.130m2800m 251.The weather operation minima (ceiling /visibility) for GN NDB approach RWY 07R/(CAT A,B)at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is: a. 120m/2000m b. 145m/2000m c.130m/2400m

d.120m/1000m 252. The weather operation minima (ceiling /visibility) for GN NDB approach RWY 07R (cat c ) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is: a. 130m/2000m b.130m/2400m c. 145m/2000m d.145m/2400m 253. The weather operation minima (ceiling /visibility) for GN NDB approach RWY 07R(CAT D) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is: a. 145m/2000m b. 145m/2800m c.145m/2400m d. 145m/3200m 254. The weather operation minima(ceiling /visibility) for GV NDB approach RWY 07L(CAT A, B) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is: a. 145m/2000m b.145m/2400m c.145m/2800m d.145m/3200m 255. The weather operation minima (ceiling /visibility) for GV NDB approach RWY 07L/(CAT C) at Tan Son Nhat aerodrome is: a. 130m/2000m b.130m/2400m c.145m/2400m d.145m/2800m 256. The weather operation minima (ceiling /visibility) for GV NDB approach RWY 07L(CAT D) at Tan son Nhat aerodrome is: a. 145m/3200m b.130m/3200m c.145m/2400m d.130m/2400m 257. The changes to AIP should be published by:

a. AIP AMDT b. AIP SUP, AIP AMDT and NOTAM c. AIC d. All the elements 258. The distance of TORA and TODA of RWY 07L declared in the Flight regulation in Tan Son Nhat aerodrome area are: a. 3408m and 4100m b. 2540m and 2800m c. 3059m and 3538m d. 3048m and 3358m 259. The significant date(s) associated with the AIRAC system is (are): a. The effective date b. The latest date for raw material to reach AIS c. The publication date d. All the above 260.TORA is a.take off distance available b.take off run available c.take off available d.take-off distance 261.The period of validity of a SIGMET message shall be not more than ? a. 4 hours b. 6 hours c. 12 hours d. 18 hours 262. WMO date type designator used for OPMET date , which of the following statements is likely true for SA? a. Aerodrome report b. Aerodrome forecast

c.Volcanic ash advisory d. Administrative 263.WMO date type designator used for OPMET date , which of the following statements is likely true for FT? a. TAF b. TCA c. METAR d. VAA 264.The first stage of a thunderstorm is the ? a. Cumulus stage b. Mature stage c. Dissipating stage d. All the above 265. OPMET bulletins transmitted via AFTN priority indicator FF used for OPMET data as follows : a. SIGMET b. AIREP SPECIAL c. VAA, TCA and TAF AMD d.All are correct

266. A tornado over water is called a: a. waterspout b. mixer c. washer d. all the above 267.When two aircraft are executing a visual approach , the succeeding aircraft must: a.Have the airport in sight b.Be sighted by tower c.Have the runway in sight d.Have both Runway and preceding aircraft in sight 268.VASIS is one of the landing aids that we have in our airport. When an aircraft flies on the correct slope , what color does the pilot see when descending ? a.Intermittent RED and WHITE b.Intermittent BLUE and WHITE c.RED color only d.WHITE color only 269.Aircraft taking off can positively be identified only if they are seen: a.Within 5 miles of the upwind end of the runway b.Within 3 miles of the upwind end of the runway c.Within 1 mile of the upwind end of the runway d.Actually leaving the runway 270.According to the LOA between Ho Chi Minh ACC and Tan son Nhat APP , the responsibility of Ho Chi Minh ACC for the deviated flights from the ATS route is : A .To coordinate with the flight control and Management Center III prior to issuing clearance for deviation b.For safety reason , Ho Chi Minh ACC can approve for deviation or level change prior to informing the Flight Control and Management Center III c.a or b d.a and b 271.According to the LOA between Ho Chi Minh ACC and Tan Son Nhat APP , the receiving shall notify the transferring unit in the event that communication with aircraft is not established within of the estimated time over the transfer of control point : a. 30 minutes b. 10 minutes c. 20 minutes d.15 minutes 272. Choose the correct statement from the following : a.A control zone extends from a specified height above sea level and also has an upper limit b.An airway is a control area and extends from ground level to specified limit. c.An advisory route is a corridor from ground level to specified upper limit. d.A control zone extends from ground level to a specified upper limit. 273.The information concerning meteorological services provided to aircraft in flight as : a. METAR , SPECI , TAF , TREND , SIGMET : b. Forecast of upper wind and upper air temperatures information , aircraft observation and report. c. Both a and b d. None of the above 274.What is the unit of measurement used to express radius in the Q line ( NOTAM format)? a. NM b .M c. KM d. FT 275. How often is the Regular Amendment to AIP-VN issued ? a.twice a year b.on 25 MAR and 25 OCT c.based on AIRAC effective dates d.once every four months 276.Which of the following statements is likely true for a METAR? A .An aviation weather report b. An aviation weather forecast c. An aerodrome warning d. An AIRMET information 277.How long should NOTAM remain in force? a. six months b. one year c. one month d. not more than three months

278. Which of the following statements is likely true for QNH ? a.Pressure at mean sea level b.Pressure to mean sea level at the same condition c.Pressure level in accordance with ICAO standards d.All the above 279. Wind shear warning is issued when expected existence of wind shear ? a.between runway level and 500m above that level b.between runway level and 1500m above that level c.at any level d.in thunderstorm 280. The declared distances are shown in the . a.Aerodrome Obstacle Chart Type A b.Aerodrome Obstacle Chart Type B c.Aerodrome Obstacle Chart Type C d.Both a and c 281. . is a mandatory Chart: a.Aerodrome Obstacle Chart Type A b.Aerodrome Obstacle Chart-Type B c.Aerodrome Obstacle Chart Type C d.Standard Instrument Departure (SID) Chart 282. In which section of the AIP can you find the location indicators used in a state ? a. AD b. ENR c. GEN and AD d.GEN 283.In order to calculate the landing and parking fees of an aircraft at a particular aerodrome , you have to refer to the . a.GEN section of the AIP of that country b.GEN section of any AIP c.AD section of the AIP of the country d.AD section of any AIP 284. The elevation of the RWY 07R displacement threshold specified in the Flight regulation in the Tan Son Nhat aerodrome area are: a. 7.2 m b. 7.3m c. 7.4m d.7.5m 285. The separated distance between center lines of RWY 25R/07L and RWY 25L/07R specified in the Flight regulation in the Tan Son Nhat aerodrome area are :

a. 356m b. 365m c. 536m d. 563m 286.The dimension of the runway strip of RWY 25L/07R specified in the Flight regulation in the TSN aerodrome area are : a. 3358m x 150m b. 3668m x 150m d. 3358m x 300m d. 3358m x 300m 287.The operational altitude(s) of VVR 86 specified in the Flight regulation in the TSN aerodrome area are : a. From 600m to 6000m b. From 50m to 1000m c. From 300m to 1000m d. From 2100m to 6000m 288.The position of the glide path transmitter (GP) of RWY 25R specified in the Flight regulation in the TSN aerodrome area are : a. 314m from RWY 25R threshold and offset 120m from RWY 25L centerline b.314m from RWY 25R threshold and offset 120m from RWY 25R centerline c.300m from RWY 25R threshold and offset 112m from RWY 25R centerline d.300m from RWY 25R threshold and offset 112m from RWY 25L centerline 289. The weather equipment used to measure wind direction and speed , visibility , RVR , cloud ceiling , temperature , dew point , altimeter setting , precipitation specified in the : Flight regulation in the TSN aerodrome area are : a. DWSR 93C b. AWOS II c. WAFS SADIS d. GMS -5 290.The AFTN address of TSN TWR and APP specified in the Flight regulation in the TSN aerodrome area are : a. VVTSZTZX and VVTSZAZX b. VVTSYFYX and VVTSYQYX c. VVTSZRZX and VVTSZAZX d. VVTSYQYC and VVTSYQYX 291.Airborne collision avoidance system is : a.An aircraft system based on secondary surveillance transponder signals . b.An aircraft system based on GPS signals c.An aircraft system which provides advice to the pilot of potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped with SSR transponder d.a and c 292. Cruising levels at which a flight is to be conducted mean : a. Flight levels

b.Altitudes c.Flight level for flights at or above the lowest usable flight level or altitude for flights below the lowest usable flight level d.Flight level used for en-route flight 293.In normal circumstance , for flight on route not defined by designated significant point , position report shall be made : a. As soon as possible after the first half hour of flight b. At hourly intervals there after c. a or b d. a and b 294.The procedures to be applied for the provision of air traffic services to aircraft equipped with ACAS ( airborne collision avoidance system ) shall be : a. Difference from those applicable to non-ACAS equipped aircraft b.Identical to those applicable to non ACAS equipped aircraft c.better for ATC , because they release ATC from responsibility to provide separation between aircraft equipped with ACAS d.a and b 295. When an aerodrome controller desires to inform an aircraft with radio failure to move off the landing area or taxiway and watch out for aircraft, he would use. Light signals : a. Green flashed b. Steady green c. Red flashed d. Steady red 296.Means which ATC can use for flow control are: a. Flow control restriction message b. Flow delay advice message c. Flow control cancellation message d. All the above 297.Upon receipt of information that an aircraft making an emergency descent through other traffic , ATC shall immediately: a. introduce all aircraft within the specified areas to maintain own navigation b.take all possible actions to safeguard all aircraft concerned c.issue climb clearance to all aircraft , whose flight level or altitude may be crossed d.inform the ATC unit which shall receive control transfer of the emergency aircraft 298. Airplane A with an air traffic clearance is flying in VFR condition within acontrolled area . Airplane B with no air traffic clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on converging course . Which has the right of-way ? a.Airplane A regardless of the direction from which airplane B is approaching . b.Airplane B regardless if the direction from which airplane A is approaching . c.Airplane A if it has airplane B on its right. d.Airplane B if it has airplane A on its left. 299.A pilot who estimated an arrival time of 0750 over the facility serving his destination , was estimated over the facility at 0744 by the center . Earlier he was given an expected approach time at 0747 which he acknowledged, but when cleared for an approach at 0745 no reply was received and contact with him cannot be re-established . To minimize the possibility of collision with the unreported aircraft , until what time other traffic will be restricted ? a. 0814 b. 0820 c.0815 d. 0817 300. If a pilot who has experienced two-way radio failure during an IFR flight proceeds according to his latest clearance , which was the navigational aid serving his destination airport , where should he commence his descent for landing ? a.When he is 80 miles from the airport b.When he enters the TMA c.When he is over the airport d.From the navigational aid serving his destination 301. An aircraft is considered to be in the phrase of INCERFA when : a. no communication has been established within 30 minutes from the time there should have communication . b. Information received reveals that the operation efficiency of aircraft has been impaired but not to extend that a forced landing is necessary. c. It is believed that the fuel on board is not enough to fly to the destination safely. d. It is believed that a forced landing has been made. 302. In the case os an aircraft is approaching FIR boundary (or boundary of the two areas of responsibility) but co-ordination has not been successfully made , the transferring center belong to : a. The accepting center b. The transferring center c. Both centers d. None of them 303. Information on arriving aircraft shall be forwarded by ACC to APP not less than minutes before EAT:

a. 5 minutes b. 10 minutes c. 15 minutes d. 20 minutes 304. Time of take-off shall be specified by the ACC when it is necessary to : a. Co-ordinate the departure with traffic not released to the unit providing APP control services b.Provide en-route separation between departing aircraft following the same route. c.a and b d.a or b 305.

Coordination between ACCs is responsibility of : a. D controller b. R controller c. a or b d. a and b 306. The vertical separation minimum shall be normal 300m (1000ft). a.Below an altitude of 8850 meters ( 29.000ft) b.Below flight level 290 c.At or below flight level 290 d.a and b 307.In the event that a position report is not received at the expected time , when shall action be taken to obtain the report if it is likely to have any bearing in the control of the other aircraft ? a. Immediately b. 03 minutes after the expected time over the reporting point c. 05 minutes after the expected time over the reporting point d. A reasonable time later 308.Where lateral separation is not provided , how long should vertical separation will be provided for opposite direction traffic ? a. 15 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed b.10 minutes prior to and after the time they are estimated to have passed c.05 minutes prior to and after the time they estimated to have passed d.Until they estimated to have passed 309.When an aircraft is being held in flight , when should vertical separation be provided between holding aircraft and enroute aircraft ? a. When the en-route aircraft is within 5 minutes flying time of the holding point. b. When the en-route aircraft is within 5 minutes holding areas. c. When the en-route aircraft is within 5 miles of the holding areas. d. When the en-route aircraft is within 15 minutes of the holding areas. 310.Under what circumstances would the center need to notify an ATC unit providing approach control service of a restriction relative to the time of take-off of an aircraft? a. The center wants to provide separation between departing aircraft following the same route . b. The center wants to provide separation between departing aircraft not released to approach control c. All of the above 311.What is the purpose behind the requirement that a pilot executes the entire approved approach procedure even though visual reference with the ground is established prior to completing the procedure. a. For separation b.For expediting arriving traffic c.To make sure that the pilot can land even he is encounters bad weather d.All the above 312. What is the minimum time separation between aircraft flying at the same level on the same or converging track where navigational aids permit frequent determination of position and speed : a. 5 minutes b. 10 minutes c.15 minutes d. 20 minutes 313.Aircraft flying on the same track and at the same level may not arrive over the same position with less than the following separation : a. 3 minutes if the proceeding aircraft is 40 km/h faster than the succeeding aircraft b. 3 minutes if the preceding aircraft is 25km/h faster than the succeeding aircraft. c. 10 minutes if navigational aids permit frequent determination of position and speed. 314.The range of primary radar depends on: a.Transmitted power , altitude and level of aircraft b.Size , level and material of aircraft c.Transmitted power , size , altitude and material of aircraft d.Transmitted power , altitude and material of aircraft 315.The range of the SSR , PSR radar located at TSN airport are as follows: a. SSR: 200NM , PSR :30NM b.SSR : 200NM , PSR : 200NM c.SSR : 200NM ,PSR :40NM d.SSR: 250NM ,PSR : 80NM 316. Which ground of code should Ho Chi Minh use for AFR 175 from TSN to BKK:

a. 5500-5700 b. 1700-1777 c. 5700-5777

d. 4100-4177 317. Which ground code should Ha Noi ACC use for HVN 741 from HN to TSN:

a. 5500-5577 b. 5700-5777 c. 4700-5777 d. 4100-4177 318.If an identified aircraft is approaching heading on the controlled aircraft , what action should be taken by the radar controller? a.Immediately turn the controlled aircraft to the right b.Descend the controlled aircraft to fly below the unidentified aircraft c.When the aircraft is 5 miles apart turn the controlled aircraft to the right d.Immediately climb the controlled aircraft 319. What should a radar controller do if he observes an aircraft under his control. Significantly from its intended route? a.Inform the pilot of the aircraft s position b.Inform the pilot of the deviation from the intended route c.Request the pilot to squawk identification d.Request the pilots intension 320.If you instructed an aircraft , which you thought to be the response on your display , to turn and it did not do so , what action should you take ? a. Continue vector the aircraft in the hope that it will be eventually take the turn b. Turn the aircraft back to the original heading c. Repeat the message to the pilot and ask him to read back the new heading d. Turn the aircraft to the reciprocal heading 321.In the case that the radar fails , but communication is still good , the radar controller should : a. Instruct the aircraft to maintain level and VMC b. Inform aircraft that radar fails and maintain own separation c. Instructed aircraft to change to APP frequency d. Mark position of identified aircraft and take measure to provide non-radar separation 322.The phraseology used when an aircraft with transmitter failure has been given a turn and the echo is seen to follow instruction is: a. Turn observed , will continue to pass instructions b. Reply not received , will continue instructions c. Turn observed , continue visually d. I have one-way contact with you , will continue to control you 323.In the event of a complete radar failure , the radar controller should : a.Band all traffic back to the procedural controller immediately b.Do his best to provide procedural separation for the aircraft under his control and then hand them back to the procedural controller c.Tell all aircraft under his control to standby to ask the radio technician to take immediate action to repair the radar d.Continue to control his traffic by asking the resume own navigation 324.Radar is an acronym of: a. Radio Detecting and Range b. Radio Detection and Range c. Radio Detection and Ranging 325.In an SSR system , the interrogator transmission is made on a frequency of : a. 1090MHZ b. 1030MHZ c. 1003MHzd.1009 MHz 326.In an SSR system , the transponder responds an interrogator signal with a transmission on a frequency of :

a. 1090MHz b. 1030MHz c. 1003MHz d. 1009MHz 327. Where SSR is used , transfer of radar identification shall be affected by: a. Instructing the pilot (by the accepting controller) to operate the SPI feature b.Instructing the pilot (by the transferring controller) to operate the SPI feature c.Observing (by the accepting controller ) to operate the SPI feature d.b and c. 328. Radar separation shall only be applied between identified aircraft when : a. The aircraft are equipped with transponders b. There is a reasonable insurance that identification will be maintained c. There are radar position symbols when depicted on the radar display d. There is enough distance between identified aircraft 329. Radar separation based upon primary radar shall be the distance : a. between the edges of the radar blips b. between the centers of the radar blips c. between the edge of one blip and the center of the other d. between the nearest edges of the blips 330.Before providing radar service to an aircraft , the radar controller shall be: a. Established radar identification of that aircraft b. Provide the radar information c. Request the pilot to change heading 30 degrees or more d. Instruct the pilot to operate SPI feature 331. Transfer of identity of a radar blip from the radar controller to another should be attempted when it is considered that :

a. The aircraft is over common boundary b. The aircraft is on the frequency of the accepting controller c. The aircraft is within the coverage of the accepting controller in radar display d. The aircraft reports over the last fix displayed on the radar display of transferring controller 332. Air traffic control ratings should normally be approved by: a. ACC chief b. TWR chief c. Director of air traffic services Center d. Director of Aviation Authority of his authorisied body 333. The primary responsibility for the control of aircraft which has already had communication with the accepting center but is still operating within the control area of transferring center belong to: a. The accepting center b. The transferring center c. Both centers d. None of them 334.Holding aircraft at FL100 aircraft cat B, what is max. speed? a. 170 kts b. 190 kts c. 210 kts d. 230kts 335. VHF band specified for air ground communication is : a. From 1080 MHz to 117,975 MHZ b. From 118MHz to 137 MHz c. From 145 MHz to 190MHz d. All frequencies higher than 190 MHz 336. If the cloud amount is 4 oktas , how to report to the pilot about it ? a. OVC b. BKN c. SCT d. All the above 337. VVVV P2 GND 1500m The above indicated : a. Prohibited area number 2 within Vietnam territory from ground up to 1500m b. Restricted area number 2 within Vietnam territory from ground up to 1500m c. Danger area number 2 within Vietnam territory from ground up to 1500m A 338. ATC unit may use the following means os communication for coordination purposes a. AFTN b. Data-exchange circuits c. Direct speech circuits d. All of the above 339. Circle the correct spelling according to number by transmitting procedure for radio telephony communication: a.FL 290 : Flight level two hundred and ninety b.FL 290 : Flight level two niner zero c.FL 290 : Flight level two ninety d.FL 290: Flight level two nine thousand feet 340. ZCZC GHA 273 070407 FF VVNBZPZX(ARR HVN 322- VVTS- VVDN 0359) The message informs : a.Arrival of HVN 322 flight to VVTS at 0359 UTC b.Arrival of HVN 322 flight to VVNB at 0359 UTC c. Arrival of HVN 322 flight from VVTS to VVDN at 0359 UTC d. Arrival of HVN 322 flight from VVNB to VVDN at 0359 UTC 341. Time separation minima between aircraft in holding pattern is : a. 15 minutes b. 10 minutes c. 5 minutes d. None of the above

342. ILS reference datum is : a.A point at a specified height located vertically above the intersection of the runway centerline and the threshold and through which the downward extended straight portion of the glide path passes . b.A line at a specified height located vertically above the intersection of runway

centerline and threshold and through which the downward extended straight portion of the glide path passes. c. A point at a specified height located vertically above the intersection of the runway centerline and the threshold and through which the upward extended straight portion of the glide path passes . 343.The airborne VOR equipment is referred to : a. As airborne VOR receiver b. As airborne VOR transmitter c. As airborne VOR transceiver 344.Ground to air communication is : a.One way communication from station or location on the surface of the earth to aircraft b.One way communication from aircraft to station on the surface of the earth to aircraft c. Two way communication between aeronautical station and the aeronautical mobile service . 345. The phraseology used to decrease the speed of an aircraft to 180 IAS is : a. Reduce speed to ONE EIGHT ZERO KNOTS b. Decrease the speed to ONE EIGHTY c. If feasible reduce to ONE EIGHT ZERO KNOTS d. Decrease your speed to ONE EIGHT ZERO PRACTICABLE 346. The minimum horizontal radar is 5 NM (9.3 km) within from Danang airport:

a. 60 NM b. 50NM c. 40 NM d. 35 NM 347. Using mode A for :

a. Automatic pressure altitude information b. Civil and Military identification

c. Research and future development

348. What is the minimum angle of turn necessary to identify an aircraft ? a. 15 degrees b. 25 degrees c. 30 degrees d. 45 degrees 349. Vectoring an arriving aircraft to intercept the final approach course at an angle not greater than :

a. 15 degrees b. 20 degrees c.30 degrees d. 45 degrees 350. Radar separation may be applied between an aircraft taking off and other radar controlled flights provided there is reasonable assurance that : a. The taking -off aircraft will be identified within 1 NM from the end of the runway and at the time the required radar separation will exist b.The taking off aircraft is at or above the minimum flight altitude of minimum safety altitude c.Both taking off aircraft and other radar controlled flight are being identified 351. Radar vectoring of an arriving aircraft shall be terminated when : a. The aircraft requests and is granted permission to cancel IFR and proceed VFR b. The aircraft requests and is cleared for visual approach c. The aircraft reports established on final approach path of an instrument approach d. All the above 352. Aircraft being radar vectored for an approach as soon as practicable , be informed of : a.The type of approach to be anticipated and the runway in use b.The traffic on the aerodrome circuit c.The latest landing condition d.Both a and c 353.Transfer of identity of a radar blip from the radar controller to another should be attempted when it is considered that :

a.The aircraft is on the frequency of the accepting controller b.the aircraft is over the common boundary c.The aircraft is within the coverage of the accepting controllers radar display d.The aircraft is reports over the last fix displayed of transferring controller 354 An IFR flight requests maintain own VMC separation? a. below FL200 b .below FL100 c.the hours of daylight (ATM item 5.9, p5-40) d.visibility at least 5km 355.The frequencies used for survival radio equipment is : a.121,5 Mhz and 243 Mhz b.120,5 Mhz and 243 Mhz c.121,5 Mhz and 423 Mhz d.120,5 Mhz and 423 Mhz 356.A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way communication cannot be established but where it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission . That is the definition of : a.Broadcast transmission b.Announcement transmission c.Blind transmission d.Station transmission 357.You notice that the barometer that air pressure has been decreasing rapidly . The type of weather that would normally be expected to occur would be :

a. fog b. drizzle c. thunderstorm d. clear skies 358.The first stage of a thunderstorm is the : a. cumulus stage b. mature stage c. dissipating stage d. all the above 359. The most likely stage for large hail and damaging winds is the of a thunderstorm? a. cumulus stage b. mature stage c. dissipating stage d. all the above 360.Wind shear warning is issued when expected existence of wind shear ? a.between runway level and 500 m above that level b.between runway level and 1500m above that level c.at any level d.in thunderstorms 361.Application of the Mach number technique should always be based on : a. Mach number b. Ground speed c. True air speed (TAS) d. Indicated air speed (IAS) 362.The phrase cleared via flight planned route shall not be used : a.when clearance limit is within the same area of responsibility b.for aircraft on air filed flight plan c.when granting a re-clearance d.all a), b) c) are incorrect 363.RNAV distance-based separation may be applied between RNAV equipped aircraft when : a.operating on designed RNAV routes b.operating on ATS routes defined by VOR c.on all of ATS routes d.a or b 364.The ratio of an aircrafts true air speed to the speed of the sound is : a. Ground speed b. Relative wind c. Indicated air speed (IAS) d. MACH number 365. The MEA of W2 in the portion between DAN and QUANG NGAI is: a. FL 110 b. FL090 c. FL 100 d. FL 080 366. The Area of Responsibility (AOR ) of the Buon Me Thuot TWR limited by the circle within the following details:

a.Center point is BMT VOR , R =30KM , GND FL 090(2750m) b.Center point is BU NDB , R=30KM , GND FL 090(2750m) c.Center point is BU NDB , R=60KM , GND FL 100(3050m) d.Center point is BU NDB , R=60KM , GND FL110(3350m) 367.The MEA of W1 in the portion between PK and DAN is : a. FL120 b. FL100 c. FL110 d. FL090 368.The Area of Responsibility ( AOR) of the Tuy Hoa TWR limited by the circle with the following details : a. Center point is TH NDB , R=30KM , GND FL090(2750m) b. Center point is TH NDB , R=60KM , GND FL090 (2750m) c. Center point is Reference point , R=30KM , GND FL090(2750m) d. Center point is Reference point , R=60KM , GNDFL 110 (3350m) 369.The Area of Responsibility (AOR ) of the Cam Ranh TWR limited by the circle with the following details : a. Center point is CR NDB, R=30KM , GND FL090(2750m) b.Center point is CRA DVOR/DME , R=30KM , GND F090(2750m) c.Center point is CRA DVOR/DME , R=30KM , GND FL100(3050m) d. Center point is reference point , R=30KM , GND F090(2750m) 370.The Area of Responsibility (AOR) of the Lien Khuong TWR limited by the circle with the following details : a.Center point is reference point , R =30KM , GND F100(3050m) b.Center point is DL NDB , R=30KM ,GND F090(2750m) c.Center point is DL NDB , R=30KM , GND F100(3050m) d.Center point is LKH DVOR/DME , R=30KM , GND FL100(3050m) 371.The Area of Responsibility (AOR ) of the Phu Quoc TWR limited by the circle with the following details : a.Center point is reference point , R=30KM , GND F070(2100m) b.Center point is PQ NDB , R=30KM , GND F070 (2100m) c.Center point is PQ NDB , R=30KM , GND F050(1500m) d.Center point is reference point , R=60KM , GND F070(2100m) 372.The Area of Responsibility (AOR ) of the Ca Mau TWR limited by the circle with the following details : a.Center point is reference point , R=30KM , GND F070(2100m) b.Center point is reference point , R=30KM , GND F050(1500m) c.Center point is QL NDB , R=30KM , GND F070(2100m) d.Center point is QL NDB , R=30KM , GND F050(1500m) 373.The Area of Responsibility (AOR ) of Can Tho TWR limited by the circle with the following details : a.Center point is reference point , R=30KM , GND F050(1500m) b.Center point is reference point , R=30KM , GND F070(2100m) c.Center point is CT NDB , R=30KM , GND F070(2100m) d.Center point is TRN VOR/DME , R=30KM , GND F070(2100m) 374.The Area of Responsibility (AOR) of Con Son TWR is limited by the circle with the following details : a.Center point is reference point , R=30KM , GND F070(2100m) b.Center point is reference point , R=30KM , GND F050(1500m) c.Center point is CS NDB , R=30KM , GND F070(2100m) d.Center point is CS NDB , R=30KM , GND F050(1500m) 375.Frequency 112.1 MHZ /CH 58X , coverage 300km is parameter of DVOR/DME :

a. PCA PHU CAT b. DAN DANANG c. BMT BAN ME THUOT d. TSN TAN SON NHAT 376. The frequency of DAN (DANANG ) DVOR/DME is : a. 112.1 MHz /CH 58X b. 114.4 MHz /CH91X c. 115.1MHz / CH 98X d. 115.5 MHz / CH 102X 377. Frequency 114.1MHz / CH 88X , coverage 210km is the parameter of VOR/DME :

a. PTH PHAN THIET b. HUE PHU BAI c. PCA PHU CAT d. TSN TAN SON NHAT 378. The identification and frequency of CAMAU NDB is :

a. CM 305KHz b. QL 305KHz c. CM 333KHz d.QL 333KHz 379.The identification and frequency of DALAT NDB is : a. LK 330KHz b. LH 386KHz c. DA 517 KHz d. DL 330KHz 380.The identification and frequency of Conson NDB is : a. CN 333KHz b. CS 333KHz c. CO 333KHz d. CC 333KHz 381.The identification and frequency of Cantho NDB is : a. CA 212 KHz b. CO 305KHz c. CN 420KHz d. CT 420 KHz 382.The identification and frequency of Buon Me Thuot NDB is : a. BM 210KHz b. BU 386 KHz c. BT 420KHz d. BU 420KHz 383. The identification and frequency of Pleiku NDB is : a. PK 282KHz b. PK 386 KHz c. PL 282KHz d. PK 330KHz 384. The prohibited area VVP4 is :

a. Cam Ranh Airport b. Ho Chi Minh City c. Bien Hoa Airbase d. May Tao firing area 385.The danger area VVD32 is : a.MIG 21 MOA ( Military Operation Area ) b.SU 22 MOA (Military Operation Area ) c.SU 27 MOA ( Military Operation Area ) d.May Tao firing area . 386.The upper limit of VVR19 is : a. 9000m b. 7000m c. 8000m d. 6000m 387.The restricted area VVR19 is located over : a. Cam Ranh Airport b. Ho Chi Minh city c. Bien Hoa airbase d. May Tao firing area 388.The upper limit of VVP4 is : a. 2000m b. 4000m c. 3000m d. 5000m 389.The upper limit of VVD32 is : a. FL 250 7600m b. FL 150 4550m c. FL 200 6100m d. Unspecified 390.In the METAR/SPECI , when the RVR has no distinct change , the tendency is indicated by : a. U b. D c. N d. P 391.Landing forecast- TREND type as : a.TREND forecasts appended to METAR or SPECI

b.TREND forecasts appended to METAR c.TREND forecasts appended to aerodrome forecast d.all are wrong 392. OPMET bulletins transmitted via AFTN , priority indicators FF used for OPMET data as follows : a. SIGMET b. AIREP SPECIAL c. VAA , TCA and AMD d. All are correct 393.OPMET bulletins transmitted via AFTN , priority indicators GG used for OPMET data as follows : a. SIGMET b. AIREP SPECIAL c. VAA , TCA and TAF AMD d. All are correct 394.The maximum HMI display size of ATM system in HCM AACC is : a. 6000NM b.4000NM c.5000NMd.3000NM 395.The NO-PDC FLs for Southbound traffic on W1 are: a. FL 280, FL 320 , FL340 b. FL320 , FL360 c. FL 320 ,FL 340 ,FL360 d. FL 320, FL 340 396.The NO-PDC FLs for Northbound traffic on W1 are : a. FL270, FL310 ,FL350 b. FL290, FL330,FL350 c. FL310, FL330, FL350 d. FL 330, FL370, FL390 397.In case on-radar surveillance , the minimum longitudinal separation for traffic same track and same level between HCM ACC and HANOI ACC is : a. 9 minutes b. 11 minutes c. 15 minutes d.12 minutes

398.The Area of Responsibility (AOR) of the Phu Cat TWR limited by the circle with the following details : a.Center point is PCA VOR , R=30KM , GND F090(2750m) b.Center point is PCA VOR , R=60KM , GND F100(3050m) c.Center point is Reference point , R=30KM , GND FL090(2750m) d. Center point is Reference point , R=60KM ,GND =F100(3050m) 399.The coordination between HCM ACC and SANYA ACC : The receiving ACC shall notify the transferring ACC in the event that communication with aircraft is not established within after the estimated time over the transfer point :

a. 5 minutes b. 3 minutes c. 4 minutes d. 2 minutes 400.The coordination between HCM ACC and SANYA ACC : Transfer of control information shall be transmitted at least ..prior to the time when the aircraft is estimated to cross the transfer of control points : a. 40 minutes b. 20 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 15 minutes 401.The EUROCAT-X system : How many electronic strips are there for each flight ? a.One strip per controller b.Up to eight strips per controller c.One strip per turning point d.Electronic strips are only turning on-off by supervisors . 402. The EUROCAT X system :The Air Situation Display (ASD) can be oriented to either TRUE or MAGNETIC North . This is: a.Selected by the supervisor at OPSUP position b.Selected by the controller (Ecs or PLCs )

c.Defined off-line and indicated in the General Information Window (GIW) d.At all work stations within the center 403.The EUROCAT-X system : Electronic Strips in a strip window can be sorted by : a.Strips color b.Level , Alpha or Time as selected by the controller c.Position report d.Randomize 404.The EUROCAT-X system : The compass rose can be displayed in which window? a.Both the main screen and the second window b.The main screen only c.The second window only d.The Flight plan window 405.The EUROCAT X system : To create a flight plan route for a FDR by clicking on reporting points on ASD , which button in the Flight plan window would you use : a. CRE b. RTE c. MOD d. CRTE 406.The EUROCAT X system : When the HOLDING function has been initiated at current position for a flight plan track: a.Only flight plan track is frozen b.Only the holding strip window is displayed c.The flight plan track is frozen and Holding strip is displayed . d.Nothing happens to the flight plan track 407.The EUROCAT-X system : The responsible controller of an FDR can initiate holding via HLD button : a.Only at current position b.Only at a future position along the flight plan route c.Either at a current position or at a future position along the flight plan route . d.Either at a future position along the flight plan route or at a position not on the flight plan route 408.The EUROCAT-X system : Which of the following statements is true about the Warning window? a.Automatically closed when all messages have been acknowledged b.Manual closed when all messages have been acknowledged c.Automatically closed after a off defined time d.None of the above 409.In the CPDLC uplink message , up to how many (ELMT ) elements can you include : a. 2 b. 4 c. 3 d. 5 410.Which of the following levels are NOT displayed in an ADS track? a. MCL b. CFL c. PRL d. ADL 411.An aircraft can maintain ADS connections ( Include Airlines Operational Control AOC ) and send ADS reports to : a.Only one ground station at a time b.Up to five ground stations c.Up to ten ground stations d.Any number of ground stations within satellite coverage 412.How many ground stations are able to be the CPDLC controlling authority for an aircraft ? a.Only one ground station at a time b.Up to five ground stations c.Up to ten ground stations d.Any number of ground stations within satellite coverage 413.An aircraft can maintain CPDLC Communication to : a. As much as the same with the ADS connections b. Only one ATSU active as Current Data Authority (CDA) and one other inactive as Next Data Authority (NDA) c. Up to ten ground stations d. Any number of ground stations within satellite coverage 414.What does a + in the track label mean : a.CMA logon b.Aircraft has CPDLC capability c.CPDLC connected as Next Data Authority (NDA) d.CPDLC connected as Current Data Authority(CDA) 415.If an aircraft is in radar coverage , NOT logged on , what type of track(s) will be displayed ? a.A radar track , with a flight plan track and an ADS track (if equipped ) b.A radar track only c.A flight plan track only d.An ADS track only 416. Which of the following weather phenomena will reduce the visibility? a. rain b. fog c. haze d. all the above 417.The layer of the atmosphere where most of the worlds weather occurs is? a. stratosphere b. troposphere c. hemisphere d. thermosphere 418. The gas which comprises most of the atmosphere is? a. oxygen b. carbon c. nitrogen

d. helium 419. Which one of these clouds can produce moderate to heavy precipitation? a. cumulonimbus b. stratocumulus c. cirrus d.stratus 420.WMO data type designator used for OPMET data , which of the following statements is likely true WC? a. SIGMET b. SIGMET for TC c. SIGMET for VA d. TCA 421.WMO data type designator used for OPMET data , which of the following statements is likely true FK? a. Tropical cyclone advisories b. Air-reports c. Aerodrome forecasts d. Administrative 422. Required transit times of AFTN messages and bulletins containing OPMET information (SIGMET messages , volcanic ash and tropical cyclone advisory information and special air reports ) should achieve transit times of less than the following :

a. 5 minutes b. 1 minute c. 10 minutes d. 15 minutes

423.In the METAR and SPECI reports , the term vicinity (vc) shall be understood as:

a.Between approximately 8 and 16 km of the aerodrome reference point b.Not further away than approximately 8 km of the aerodrome reference point c.Further away than approximately 16km of the aerodrome reference point d.Between approximately 6 and 8 km of the aerodrome reference point 424.TREND forecasts contain specific information presented in a fixed order . The information and order are as follows: a.Change indicators ; surface wind ; visibility; weather phenomena ; cloud or vertical visibility b.surface wind ; visibility; weather phenomena ; cloud or vertical visibility c.change indicators ; surface wind ; visibility; weather phenomena d.surface wind ; visibility; weather phenomena 425.In the aviation meteorological services provided to aircraft in flight as: a.a cloud with the height of cloud base below 1500m (5000ft) b.a cloud below the highest minimum sector altitude , whichever is greater c.a cumulonimbus cloud or a towering cumulus cloud at any height d.all correct. 426.WMO data type designator used for OPMET data , which of the following statements is likely true SP?

a. Tropical cyclone advisories b. Special report, including trend-type c. Aerodrome forecasts d. Administrative 427. WMO data type designator used for OPMET data , which of the following statements is likely true FC? a. TAF ( vilid for 9 to 12 hours ) b. TCA c. TAF ( valid for 12 to 24 hours ) d. VAA 428. WMO data type designator used for OPMET data , which of the following statements is likely true WV?

a. TAF b. TCA c. SIGMET information for volcanic ash d. VAA 429. WMO data type designator used for OPMET data , which of the following statements is likely true FV? a. TAF b. TCA c. Volcanic ash advisory message d. VAA 430. WMO data type designator used for OPMET data , which of the following statements is likely true UA? a. Area forecasts (AIREP) b. TCA c. Volcanic ash and advisory message d. VAA 431. WMO data type designator used for OPMET data , which of the following statements is likely true FA? a. TAF b. TCA c. Area forecast(GAMET forecast) d. VAA 432. . WMO data type designator used for OPMET data , which of the following statements is likely true FR? a. Route forecast (in the ROFOR code form) b. TCA c. Volcanic ash advisory message d. VAA 433.TODA shall be calculated equal ? a.The length of RWY b.The length of RWY and SWY c.The length of RWY and CWY d.Distance from THR to end of RWY 434. TORA shall be calculated equal.? a. The length of RWY b .The length of RWY and SWY c.The length of RWY and CWY d.Distance from THR to end of RWY 435.LDA shall be calculated equal ? a.The length of RWY b.The length of RWY and SWY( stopway) c.The length of RWY and CWY d.Distance from THR to end of RWY( THR Threshold) 436.ASDA shall be calculated equal? a.The length of RWY b.The length of RWY and SWY c.The length of RWY and CWY( Clearway) d.Distance from THR to end of RWY 437.Length of RWY 09/27 is 1850m . Length of Stopway of 27 is 300m. What is the length of TODA of RWY 27 ? a. 2150m b. 1850m c. 2350m d. 1550m 438.Length of RWY 09/27 is 1850m. Length of Stopway of 27 is 300m. What is the length of ASDA of RWY 09? a. 2580m b. 1850m c. 2350m d.2150m 439. Length of RWY 09/27 is 1850m . The threshold of RWY 09 is displayed 150m . What is the length of LDA of RWY 09? a. 2000m b. 1850m c. 1700m d.2150m 440. What are the pages in AIP-VN described prohibited , Restricted and danger area? a.ENR 5.1 b.ENR 5.2 and ENR 5.6 c.ENR 5.1 to ENR 5.6 d.ENR 5.1-1 to ENR5.1-5 441.What kind of NOTAM which doesnt need Item C? a. NOTAM N

b. NOTAM cancel c. Trigger NOTAM d. NOTAM replace 442.What pages in AIP-VN is ATS ROUTE described ? a. ENR 5 b. ENR 3.1 c. GEN 4 d. ENR 2 443.What are the declared distances of the aerodrome indicated in the AIP-VN ? a. RWY b. SWY c. TODA, ASDA d. CWY 444.Which information that shall be distributed by AIC ? a. Restricted area established b. Work in progress on the runway c. Notification of Air Crew license examination(Doc 8126) d. Standard Instrument departure procedures established 445.The AIP is an aeronautical document that contains information of : a. permanent nature (Annex 15) b. administrative nature c. temporary nature d. advisory nature 446.The NOTAM format includes: a. The Serial number b.Q-line and the items A to G c.Both a and b d.NOTAM code 447.What are the default values of lower /upper limit in Q line of a NOTAM? a. GND b. UNTIL c. 000/999 d. MSL 448.What sort of NOTAM doesnt require the item c) a. NOTAMN b. TRIGGER NOTAM c. NOTAMC d. NOTAMR 449.Which section of the AIP show information of FIRs , TMA , CTA ? a. ENR 1 b. ENR 2 c. ENR 3 d. ENR4 450. When shall the NOTAM with c) PERM be invalid? a. After 3 months b. After its information is incorporated into the AIP AMDT c. Both a and b 451. Which section of Vietnamese AIP show the differences between the Vietnamese regulations and the ICAO standards, recommended practices and procedures? a. GEN 0 b. GEN 1 c. GEN 1.7 d. both a and c 452.Temporary changes of long duration (3 months or longer) to the AIP shall be published as: a. AIP Amendments b. AIRAC AIP Amendments c. AIP Supplements (Doc 8126 ) d. AIC 453.Each AIP Amendment Page , including the cover sheet , shall display : a.a publication date( Doc 8126 ) b.an effective date c.The date when information is sent to AIS unit d.All a, b, c 454.Information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as: a.AIP Supplements(Doc 8126) b.AIP Amendments c.NOTAM d.AIC 455.Temporary changes to the AIP which doesnt contain extensive and/or graphics and needs to be distributed timely shall be published as: a. AIP Supplements b. AIP Amendments

c. NOTAM d.AIC 456.The element that isnt contained in the content of a TRIGGER NOTAM is : a.a brief description of the content of the Amendment or Supplement b.The publication date c.The effective date d.The reference number of the Amendment or Supplement 457.Who are the users of Aeronautical Information? a.the pilot , Operators of airlines b.The Air Traffic Services , chart and document producing agencies c.both a and b d.None of all 458.Which section of the AIP VN show the information of charges for aerodrome / heliports ? a. GEN 1 b. GEN 2 c. GEN 3 d. GEN 4(GEN 4.1) 459. Which section of the AIP VN show the information of charges for air navigation services ? a. GEN 1 b. GEN 2 c. GEN 3 d. GEN 4(GEN 4.6) 460.Which section of the AIP VN show the information of En-route chart ? a. ENR 1 b. ENR 2 c. ENR 5 d. ENR 6 461.Which section of the AIP VN show the details information about aerodrome, including helicopter landing areas? a. AD 1 b. AD2 c. AD3 d. AD 0 462.Which section of the AIP VN show the information of heliports ? a. AD 1 b. AD2 c. AD3 d. AD 0 463. Which section of the AIP VN show the detailed information about aerodrome chart ( standard departure chart , instrument approach chart )? a. AD 1 b. AD2 c. AD3 d. AD 0 464. The NIL AIRAC notification must be issued at least ..before the AIRAC effective date concerned : a. 42 days b. 28 days c. 14 days d. 56 days 467. A list of AIRAC effective dates , publication dates and latest dates on which material has to reach the AIS must be published on yearly basis in the form of ? a. an AIC b. a NOTAM c. a list of Valid NOTAM d. none of above 468. As regulated in Regulation on the Aeronautical Information Services of Vietnam (2007 edition) , the latest date for raw material to reach th AIS associated with AIRAC system is? a. 42 days b. 28 days c. 14 days d. 56 days 469. In Doc 7910, Location indicators to which messages cannot be addressed via the AFS are identified by..? a. a colon sign b .a semi-colon sign c. an asterisk sign(*) d.hex sign (#)

470.An AFS message used for Special Distribution is given the priority prefix ?

a. DD b. FF c. SS d. GG 471. Which one of the following should not be used in an AFS message ? a. a colon b. a comma c. an oblique d. Roman letters 472. When an AFS message is corrupted , the following message appears at the end of it?

a. QTA b. DUPE c. CFM d. COR 473. Which one of the following appears at the heading of an AFS message? a. EEE b.FM c .NNNN d. ZCZC 474. Address indicator of Singapore International NOTAM Office is ..? a. WSSSSIAO b .WSSSYNYX c. WSSSYOYX d WSSSYAYX 475.Normally , AIS messages are assigned a priority indicator in accordance with Annex 10 Volume II , that is? a. FF b. KK c. GG d. DD 476.Manila is +7 hours ahead of UTC . When the UTC time is 2330, what is the Manila time ? a. 0600LT b. 0630LT c. 1630T d. 0830LT 477.Greece is +2 hours ahead of UTC . When the local Greece is 0130, what is the UTC time ? a. 0330 b. 2330 previous day b. 1530 d. 1130, previous day 478. Ecuador is -5 hours behind of UTC . When the UTC time is 0730 , what is the local Ecuador time ?

a. 1230 b. 1430 c. 0230 d. 0030 479. Costa Rica is -6 hours behind of UTC , Guam is +10 hours ahead of UTC . When the local Costa Rica time is 0745 , what is the local Guam time ? a. 2345 b. 1345 c. 1745 d. 2045 480. Which ICAO document provides the standard NOTAM format ? a. Annex15 b. Doc 7383 c. Doc 8126 d. Doc 8585 481. In which ICAO document can you find the AIRAC effective dates ? a. Doc 8585 b. Doc 8126c. Doc 7910 d. Doc 4444 482.Which Annex contains the standard and recommended Practices for all types of aeronautical charts ? a. Annex 4 b. Annex 14 c. Annex 5 d. Annex15

483. Which of the following is significant ? a. All differences between National Rules and ICAO Standards b. All differences between National Rules and Recommended Practices c. All differences between National Rules and PANS and SUPPS d. All differences between ICAO Standards , PANS and SUPPS 484. In which ICAO document can you find the postal address of AIS of states ?

a. Doc 7910 b. Doc 8126 c. Doc 8585 d. Doc 7383 485. Which ICAO document contains the location indicators ? a. Doc 8585 b. Doc 7383 c. Doc 7910 d. Doc 8400 486. In which ICAO document can you find the Q Codes ? a. Doc 8697 b. Doc 7910 c. Doc 7383 d. Doc 8400 487. Which ICAO document titles Aeronautical Chart Catalogue ? a. Doc 7101 b. Doc 8697 c. Doc 8126 d. Annex 4 488.What is the title of Annex 11 ?

a.Aeronautical Information Services b.Air Traffic Services c.Search and rescue d.Rules of the Air 489. What is the title of Annex 14? a. Operation of Aircraft c. Aerodromes b. Security d. Facilitation 490. What is the title of DOC 9881? a.Guidelines for Electronic terrain , Obstacle and Aerodrome Mapping Information b.Obstacle and Aerodrome Mapping Information c.Guidelines for Electronic Terrain d.Guidelines for Aerodrome Mapping Information 491.What is the latest Amendment number of Annex 15 ? a. Amendment 32 b. Amendment 33 c. Amendment 34 c. Amendment 35 492. What is the date applicable for the latest Amendment number of Annex 15?

a. 16 JUL 2007 b. 22 Nov 2007 c.01 NOV 2007 d. 30 NOV 2007 493. What is the title of DOC 9674? a.Guidelines for Electronic Terrain b.Obstacle and Aerodrome mapping Information c.World Ground System

d.World Geodetic System 1984 (WGS) Manual 494.The width of domestic air route in Vietnam airspace is ..? a. 15km b. 50km c. 20km d. 10km 495. The width of international air routes in Vietnam is .. ? a. 60km b. 30km c. 70km d. 4km 496. The width of international routes over China Sea in Vietnam FIR is .? a. 20km b. 30km c. 90km d. 40km 497. The international routes are used for .? a. International flights b. Domestic flights c. International and domestic flights d. Military flights 498.In Vietnam , the establishment of the air routes is decided by ? a. Ministry of Transport of Vi etnam b. Ministry of Defense c. Civil Aviation Administration of Vietnam d. Prime Minister 499...is responsible for management of organization and operation of the air route , the airspace of civil airports in Vietnam. a. Ministry of Defense b. Civil Aviation Administration of Vietnam c.Vietnam Air Traffic Management d.Ministry of Transport of Vietnam 500.Which one of the following types of aeronautical information may be distributed as an AIC ? a. establishment of a restricted area b. work on a runway c. explanatory information relating to noise abatement d. establishment Standard Instrument Departure procedures 501.Checklist of AIC currently in force shall be issued at least . a. once a month b. once in 6 months c. once in 3 months d. once a year 502. What are the series of AIC Vietnam ? a. A and B b. A and C c. no series d. A 503. AIC must be given the same distribution as the ....: a.AIP , AIP AMDT and AIP SUP b.AIP , NOTAM and AIP SUP c.AIP , AIP SUP and PIB d.NOTAM , PIB and AIP AMDT 504. AIC should have the colour code by subject as : a. White Safety b. White Administrative c. White Maps/Charts d. White Air Traffic Control

505. What are the series of Vietnam AIP Supplement? a. A and B b. A , B and C

c. B and C d. A and C

506. How many sections are there in Part 1 (GEN) of the AIP Vietnam ? a. Two parts

b. Three parts c. four parts d. five parts

507. How many sections are there in Part 2 (ENR) of the AIP Vietnam ? a. Three sections b. five sections

c. seven sections d. eight sections

508. How many sections are there in Part 3 (AD) of the AIP Vietnam ? a. Three sections b. two sections

c. five sections d. four sections

509. As ICAO recommends in DOC 8126 , the detailed information on Heliports in the AIP should be found in ?

a. AD 0 b. AD 1 c. AD 2 d. AD 3

510. In order to calculate the landing and parking fees of an aircraft at a particular aerodrome , you have to refer to the ..? a. GEN section of the AIP of that country b.GEN section of any AIP c.AD section of the AIP of that country d.AD section of any AIP 511. In which section of the AIP can you find the lateral limits of restricted areas ?

a. GEN b. AD c. ENR d. GEN and ENR 512. In which section of the AIP can you find the length of a runway ? a. AD b. GEN c. ENR d. AD and ENR 513. In which section of the AIP can you find the location indicators used in a state ?

a. AD b. ENR c. GEN and ENR d. GEN 514.AIP Supplements contains information .: a.of temporary change of long duration and /or information requiring graphics b.of an administrative nature c.with graphics only d.with extensive text only 515. AIP Supplement pages should be coloured , preferably in .: a. white b. yellow c. green d. blue 516. Advantages of AIP Supplements are : a.wider circulation and more scope for expression b.maps and diagrams can be included c.it provides a long time record d.all of above 517. Whenever you are given an AIP amendment to insert into an AIP , you must update the Record of AIP amendments on page.: a. GEN 0.4-1 b. GEN 0.3-1 c. GEN 0.2-1 d. GEN 0.1-1

518. Differences from ICAO standards are included in page.. of AIP ?

a. ENR 1.7 b. GEN 1.7 c. GEN 2.7 d. ENR 2.7 519. .are semicircles joining the North and South Poles : a. Equators b. Longitudes c. Latitudes d. All of the above 520. On a map , 1 degree and 46 minutes is equal to a distance of .: a. 146km b. 146NM c. 106km d. 106NM 521. If the Magnetic Track is 146 and variation is 3W, the True bearing is ..:

a. 143 b. 149 c. 140 d. 164 522.What is the correct presentation of coordinate 025732N 1041610E? a. 0257N 1041610E b. 0257.5N 10416E c. 0258N 1041610E d. 0258N 10416E 523. 1 degree = 60NM , 60 minutes =..NM? a. 58NM b. 62NM c. 60NM d. 1NM 524. There are 3 ways of indicating chart scale: a. Statement, Representative Fraction (R.F) and Linear or Bar Scale b. Representative Fraction (R.F) , Calculation and Statement c. Representative Fraction (R.F), Statement in words and Linear d. Linear , Scale and Calculation 525. Which one of the following printing methods requires a paper printing plate ?

a. Letterpress b. Photolithography c. Offset d. Photocopying 526. A scale of 1:5000 is bigger than : a. 1:500 b. 1:250 c. 1:50000 d. 1:2500 527. Each NOTAM shall deal with only: a. one subject b. one condition of the subject c. a and b d. a or b

528. If item C ) contains EST , the NOTAM requires the later issue of ? a. a NOTAMN b. a NOTAMR c. a NOTAMC d. b or c 529. In NOTAM format , the field PURPOSE in Q item (Q line ) containing letters NBO means: a.NOTAM selected for the immediate attention of aircraft operators b.NOTAM selected for PIB entry c.NOTAM concerning flight operation d.all the above 530. In NOTAM format , the LOWER/UPPER limit shall be expressed in .? a. Flight level b. Height c. Altitude d. Elevation 531. Each NOTAM shall be located a series identified by . And a four -digit number followed by a stroke and two-digit number for the year? a. a letter b. a number c. a letter and number d. none of the above 532.Item B of NOTAM expressed by? a. using abbreviation WIE b. using abbreviation WEF c. using abbreviation UFN d. using the ten-figure group giving year , month , day and hour in UTC 533.Item C of NOTAM expressed by? a.using abbreviation WIE b.using abbreviation WEF c.using abbreviation UFN d. using the ten-figure group giving year , month , day and hour in UTC or using abbreviation PERM.

534.How many letters are there in a Q NOTAM code? a. 3 letters b. 4 letters c. 5 letters d. 6 letters 535.If a correction is necessary , how do you correct the erroneous NOTAM ? a. The erroneous NOTAM corrected b. The erroneous NOTAM cancelled c. A new NOTAM issued d. The erroneous NOTAM cancelled and a new NOTAM issued to follow 536.What is Q NOTAM code for Trigger NOTAM in the case of AMDT or SUP containing information dealing with different subjects ? a. QRCXX b. QXXTT c. QXXXX d. QRCTT 537.What is the validity of Trigger NOTAM (item C) relative to AIRAC AIP SUP ? a. PERM b. Effective date +14 days c. End date of the supplement d. Publication date +3 months 538. What is the validity of Trigger NOTAM (item C) relative to AIRAC AIP AMDT? a. on effective date a. PERM b. UFN c. 42 days later d. effective date +14 days 539. What is ITEM B of Trigger NOTAM relative to AIRAC AIP AMDT? a. Publication date b. WIE c. effective date d. 28 days before the effective date 540.When will the Trigger NOTAMs be issued ? a. on effective date b. on publication date c. 10 days before the effective date d. 280 days before the effective date

541.What will you do at the effective date of the AIP AMDT if the content of a NOTAM PERM has been incorporated into this AIP AMDT? a.inform to all operators the AIP AMDT will be available b.inform to the buyer AIP c.Cancel the NOTAM PERM d.update the AIP 542. What 3-letter group will be used to request missing NOTAM ? a. RQR b. RQN c. RQL d. RQM 543. An AFS NOTAM checklist indicates ? a.Current NOTAM issued for the month b.Current NOTAM issued for the last 3 months c.All current NOTAM d.All current NOTAM with indications of the latest AIP Amendment, AIP Supplement and AIC 544. What are the fourth and fifth of the NOTAM Codes of a Trigger NOTAM ?

a. TT b. AK c. AL d. XX 545.In Regulation on the Aeronautical Information Services of Vietnam (2007 edition) , the air navigation warning requires.? a. no advance notice b. at least 7 dayss advance notice c. at least 3 days advance notice d. at least 1 days advance notice 546.In order to issue a NIL AIRAC NOTAM , item A of the NOTAM should be ..? a.the location indicator of the FIR of the NOTAM Office b.the location indicator of the aerodrome where the AIS office is located c.the location indicator of any aerodrome in the country d.the first 2 letters of the location indicator of the country , followed by XX 547. A NIL AIRAC NOTAM is issued when there is ? a. AIRAC information b. no AIRAC information c. AIRAC SUP d. AIRAC AMDT 548. NOTAM with radius 0.41 NM is indicated as .? a. 004 in the Qualifier line b.041 in the Qualifier line c.005 in the Qualifier line d. 001 in the Qualifier line 549 For a radius of 7.3NM , the data in the Q-line will be ..? a. 007 b. 070 c. 073 d. 008 550. System NOTAM presented in the PIB indicates .: a.Item A to G of the NOTAM format b.Item B to G of the NOTAM format c. Item B to G of the NOTAM format including the location of the facilities and the NOTAM reference number d. Item E of the NOTAM format 551.Pre-flight Information must be made available at ? a.all civil and military airport b.all aerodromes normally used for international air operations c.all aerodromes serving long haul flights d.all aerodromes service regional flights only 552.Verbal briefing should be adjusted to the pilots requirements..? a. depending upon familiarity with the route b. for all flights c. depending upon knowledge of Civil Aviation Law d. for all national airlines 553.On receipt of Post-flight information from the pilot , the AIS unit at the airport shall: a. file it away b.wait for NOTAM to be issued by the foreign authority c.issued NOTAM d.immediately inform to relevant organizations, units to verify the accuracy of those information 554. One of the factors governing an ideal layout of a wall display is : a. the size of the AIS unit b. the size of space available c. the size of the aerodrome d. the location of the NOF 555.Pre-flight information Bulletin must be made available at any aerodrome

normally used for? a. domestic air operations b. military air operations c. international air operations d. diplomatic air operation 556. Normally which unit has responsibility to prepare the Pre-flight Information Bulletin? a. ATS Unit b. MET office c. ARO d. Aerodrome AIS unit 557.PIB must be prepared in the following sequence: a.1)A heading (identify of origination, area covered and for whom prepared ) 2).En-route information 3)Aerodrome information 4)Navigation warning b.1) En-route information 2)Navigation warning 3)A heading (identify of origination, area covered and for whom prepared ) 4)Aerodrome information c.1) Navigation warning 2)A heading (identify of origination, area covered and for whom prepared ) 3)En-route information 4)Aerodrome information d.1) Aerodrome information 2)Navigation warning 3)En-route information 4)A heading (identify of origination, area covered and for whom prepared ) 558. Where is a post-flight report form available ? a. CAA office b. ATS unit c. Aerodrome AIS unit d. AIS headquarter 559.Units of measurement of wind speed to be used in AIP Vietnam are as follows: a.Meter per second ( MPS) b.Kilometers per hour (KMH) c.Knots (KT) 560. At aerodromes having precision approach runways or runways used . The RVR is reported whenever visibility or runway visual range (RVR) is : a.RVR is less than 1500 meters b.RVR is less than 1000 meters c.RVR is less than 2000 meters 561. Wind shear warnings is to give concise information on the observed or expected existence of wind shear : a.Between runway level and 500 meters b.Associated with thunderstorms c.Low-level temperature inversion 562.The group BECMG GGGeGe indicate a regular or irregular change to the forcast meteorological conditions expected at an unspecified time within the period GG to GeGe . The period will normally not exceed : a. 2 hours b. 1 hour c. 6 hours 563. In the case of significant changes in visibility of the TREND forecast : a.The phenomenon causing the reduction of visibility is indicated b.The phenomenon causing the reduction of visibility is 1500m or less is indicated c.The phenomenon causing the reduction of visibility is not indicated . 564.In the TREND forecast when a significant change is expected in one or several of the observed elements ( surface wind , visibility , weather , cloud or vertical visibility) one of the following change indicators is used : a.BECMG or TEMPO b.NOSIG c.NSW 565.In the TREND forecast when changes are forecast to take place at midnight UTC , the time is indicated as follows: a.By 0000 when associated with FM and TL b.By 2400 when associated with TL c.a and b 566. In the TREND forecast , to indicate the end of the occurrence of significant weather phenomena , the abbreviation replacing the group ww is indicated by:

a. NSW b. NOSIG c. NIL 567. In the TREND forecast , to indicate a change of clear sky , the abbreviation replacing the cloud or vertical visibility group is indicated by: a. SKC b. NOSIG c. NO 568. The wind is expected to be gusty when the maximum gust speed likely to exceed the mean speed by: a.20 km/h (10kts , 5 mps) or more b.30 km/h (15kts , 7 mps) or more c. 6km/h (3kts , 2 mps) or more 569.Aeronautical meteorological information supplied to TWR are: a.METAR/SPECI with TREND , TAF and amendments thereto , aerodrome warning b.Wind shear warning , SIGMET and AIRMET, c.a and b 570.Aeronautical meteorological information supplied to APP are: a. METAR/SPECI with TREND , TAF and amendments thereto. b. Windshear warning, aerodrome warning , SIGMET and AIRMET, c. a and b 571.Aeronautical meteorological information supplied to ACC are: a. .METAR/SPECI with TREND , TAF and amendments thereto, SIGMET and AIRMET b. Volcanic ash advisory , Upper wind and upper air temperature forecast, significant en-route weather forecast charts ,. c. a and b 572. The observed visibility : Min VIS is 8 km in the South ; Max VIS is 14 km in the East . Select the right way to report the Metar visibility group among three possible choices : a. 8000 b. 8000S c. 8000S 9999E 573.The observed visibility : min VIS is 1000m in the NE ; Max VIS is 2000m in the SE . Select the right way to report the METAR visibility group among three possible choices: a. 1000NE b. 1000 c. 1000NE 2000SE 574. The observed visibility : Min VIS is 1200m in the E ; Max VIS is 6km in the NW . Select the right way to report the METAR visibility group among three possible choices : a. 1200 b. 1200E c. 1200E 6000NW 575. The observed visibility : Min VIS is 1800m in the N ; Max VIS is 4000m in the NE . Select the right way to report the METAR visibility group among three possible choices:

a. 1800 b. 1800N c. 1800N 4000NE 576. The observed clouds: 1/8 Cu at 600m ; 1/8 Ci at 1200m . These cloud groups shall be reported in the METAR: a. SCT020 b. FEW020 c. FEW020 FEW040 577. The observed clouds: 1/8 St at 100m ; 4/8 Sc at 1500m ; 4/8 Ac at 3300m . These cloud groups shall be reported in the METAR : a. SCT003 SCT050 b. FEW003 SCT050 c. SCT050 578. The observed clouds:2/8 Sc at 900m ; 3/8 Ac at 2700m . These cloud groups shall be reported in the METAR : a. SCT030 SCT090 b. FEW030 SCT090 c. BKN090 579. The observed visibility :Min VIS is 2600m in the S ; Max VIS is 4000m in the N . Select the right way to report the METAR visibility group among three

possible choices:

a. 2600 b. 2600S 4000N c. 2600S 580. The observed visibility :Min VIS is 6000m in the E ; Max VIS is 8000m the NE. Select the right way to report the METAR visibility group among three possible choices: a. 6000 b.6000E c.6000E 8000NE 581. The observed visibility :Min VIS is 3000m in the SW ; max VIS is 4000m in the SE . Select the right way to report the METAR visibility group among three possible choices: a. 3000SW b. 3000SW 4000SE c.3000 582. In local routine and special reports and in METAR and SPECI , the runway visual range shall be reported in steps of 25 m when : a. The runway visual range is less than 400m. b. The runway visual range is less than 500m c. The runway visual range is less than 800 m d. Visibility or runway visual range is between 400m and 800 m 583. In local routine and special reports and in METAR and SPECI , the runway visual range shall be reported in steps of 50 m when : a. The runway visual range is between 400m and 500m. b. The runway visual range is between 400m and 800m c. The runway visual range is between 800m and 1500m. d. The runway visual range is between 500m and 1500m 584. In local routine and special reports and in METAR and SPECI , the runway visual range shall be reported in steps of 100 m when : a .The runway visual range is more than 500m b. The runway visual range is more than 1000m c. The runway visual range is more than 800m d. The runway visual range is between 500m and 800m 585.Special reports in the SPECI code form are issued when the visibility is improving and changes to or passes through or more of the following values , or when the visibility is deteriorating and passes through one or more of the following values: a. 800,1500 or 3000m b. 600,800 or 1500m c. 350,600 or 800m d. 800,1000, or 1500m 586 . Special reports in the SPECI code form are issued when the runway visual range is improving and changes to or passes through or more of the following values , or when the visibility is deteriorating and passes through one or more of the following values: a.350,600,800 or 1500m b.350,600,800 or 1000m c.600,800,1000 or 1500m d.150,350,600 or 800m 587.Special reports in the SPECI code form are issued when the mean surface wind speed has changed from that given in the latest report in accordance with the following criteria : a. By 20 km/h (or 10kt)or more b. By 30 km/h (15kt) or more c. By 40 km/h( or 20kt) or more d. By 10 km/h (or 5kt) or more 588.Special reports in the SPECI code form are issued in accordance with the following criteria : a. When the variation of the mean surface wind speed (gust) has increased by 10km/h ( or 5kt) or more from that given in the latest report, the mean speed before and /or after the change being 40km/h (20kt) or more . b.When the variation on the mean surface wind speed (gust) has increased by 20km/h ( or 10kt) or more from that given in the latest report, the mean speed before and /or after the change being 20km/h (10kt) or more . c.When the variation on the mean surface wind speed (gust) has increased by 30km/h ( or 15kt) or more from that given in the latest report, the mean speed before and /or after the change being 10km/h (5kt) or more . d.When the variation on the mean surface wind speed (gust) has increased by 20km/h ( or 10kt) or more from that given in the latest report, the mean speed before and /or after the change being 30km/h (15kt) or more . 589. Special reports in the SPECI code form are issued in accordance with the following criteria : a.when the mean surface wind direction has changed by 60 degrees or more from that given in the latest report , the mean speed before and /or after the change being 20km/h (10kt ) or more . b.when the mean surface wind direction has changed by 60 degrees or more from that given in the latest report , the mean speed before and /or after the change being 30km/h (15kt ) or more .

c.when the mean surface wind direction has changed by 60 degrees or more from that given in the latest report , the mean speed before and /or after the change being 40km/h (20kt ) or more . d.when the mean surface wind direction has changed by 60 degrees or more from that given in the latest report , the mean speed before and /or after the change being 10km/h (5kt ) or more . 590.Special reports in the SPECI code form are issued when the sky is obscured and the vertical visibility is improving and changes to or passes through or more of the following values , or when the vertical visibility is deteriorating and passes through one or more of the following values: a. 80, 100, 150, or 300m (250,350,500 or 1000ft) b. 60,80,150 or 300m( 200 ,250,500 or 1000ft) c. 30,60,150 or 300m( 100,200,500 or 1000ft) d. 100,150 ,300 or 600m(350,500,1000 or 2000 ft) 591.The criteria used for the inclusion of change groups in TAF or for the amendment of TAF when the visibility is improving , forecast changes to , or passes through one or more of the values below; or when the visibility is deteriorating , forecast changes through one or more of the values below: a. 60,150,600,800,1500 or 3000m b. 100,350,600,800 ,1500 or 3000m c. 80, 150,600,800,1500 or 3000m d. 150,350,600,800,1500 or 3000m 592. The criteria used for the inclusion of change groups in TAF or for the amendment of TAF when cumulonimbus clouds are: a.Forecast to dissipate b.Forecast to develop c.Forecast to develop and dissipate d.all are correct 593. Hail is reported when : a.Diameter of largest hailstones is 5 mm or more b.Diameter of largest hailstones is 4 mm or more c.Diameter of largest hailstones is 3 mm or more d.Diameter of largest hailstones is 2 mm or more 594. Small hail and /or snow pellet is reported when : a.Diameter of largest hailstones is less than 2 mm b.Diameter of largest hailstones is less than 4 mm c.Diameter of largest hailstones is less than 3 mm d.Diameter of largest hailstones is less than 5 mm 595. Fog is reported when : a.Visibility is less than 1000m , except when qualified by MI , BI ,PR or VC b.Visibility is less than 800m , except when qualified by MI , BI ,PR or VC c.Visibility is less than 600m , except when qualified by MI , BI ,PR or VC d. Visibility is less than 500m , except when qualified by MI , BI ,PR or VC 596. Mist is reported when : a. Visibility is at least 1000m but not more than 5000m b.Visibility is at least 800m but not more than 3000m c.Visibility is at least 1500m but not more than 4000m dVisibility is at least 1500m but not more than 5000m 597. When local reports are used for departing and arriving aircraft , the present weather observations should be : a.Representative of the take off/ climb out areas or the approach/landing areas , respectively. b.Representative of the take-off and climb-out. c.Representative of the aerodrome and its vicinity d.Representative of the aerodrome 598. In local routine and special reports in METAR and SPECI , cloud amount , cloud type (CB and TCU only) and height of cloud base above aerodrome elevation are reported in that order and in the sequence shown: a.The lowest layer or mass , regardless of amount ; the next layer or mass covering more than 2/8; the next higher layer or mass , covering more than 4/8; CB and /or TCU cloud , whenever observed and not reporting in previous parts of the report. b.The lowest layer or mass , regardless of amount ; the next layer or mass covering more than 3/8; the next higher layer or mass , covering more than 5/8; CB and /or TCU cloud , whenever observed and not reporting in previous parts of the report. c.The lowest layer or mass , regardless of amount ; the next layer or mass covering more than 4/8; the next higher layer or mass , covering more than 6/8; CB and /or TCU cloud , whenever observed and not reporting in previous parts of the report. d.The lowest layer or mass , regardless of amount ; the next layer or mass covering more than 5/8; the next higher layer or mass , covering more than 7/8; CB and /or TCU cloud , whenever observed and not reporting in previous parts of the report. 599. In the local routine and special reports , temperature below 0 degree Celcius is preceeded by: a. MS b. c. M d. P 600. In the METAR and SPECI reports , temperature below 0 degree Celcius is preceeded by:

a. MS b. c. M d. P Convert PDF to HTML