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IIT/ELITE/PET/PCM(Adv)/P(II) - 1
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BRILLIANTS
PROGRESSIVE EVALUATION TEST

FOR STUDENTS OF
OUR ONE/TWO-YEAR POSTAL COURSES
TOWARDS
JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2014




QUESTION PAPER CODE

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS:
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions. The booklet has 24 pages.
2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on
the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers, and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
4. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment
No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided
separately, in which appropriate bubble for each question must be darkened with Black
Ball Point Pen only.
6. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
7. Do not break the seals of the question paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the
invigilators.
B. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 24) of this
booklet.
C. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 24) of this booklet.


Name: . Enrollment No.:




PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS
1

I have read all the instructions and
shall abide by them.


Signature of the Candidate
I have verified all the informations
filled in by the Candidate.


Signature of the Invigilator
S
E
A
L

S
E
A
L

JEE 2014
PET I/PET IV/PCM/ADV (PII)/Qns 813
PAPER II
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Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/ELITE/PET/PCM(Adv)/P(II) - 2

SECTION I
One or more options correct Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
1. Select which of the following statements are correct.
(A) The units expressed by (Megasec), (Parsec) and (Microsec) all belong to the same
physical quantity.
(B) The equivalence of the electrical unit of energy, expressed by (volt. ampere hour)
and mechanical unit of energy expressed by (joules) is established by the First
Law of Thermodynamics.
(C) The various units of energy expressed in the following statement are correctly
placed in the decreasing order of magnitude as indicated, where the units have
their normal values.
1 kilo calorie (KC) 1 BTU 1 KJ 1 a.m.u 1 MeV > > > >
(D) The dimensions of the physical quantity/quantities expressed by the units, HP
(horse-power) coulomb volt/hour, and kilo candela (KCd) are identical.
2. A particle of mass m is projected from a point O on a horizontal plane at an angle
to the horizontal with initial velocity
0
v

. Which of the following statements are true


for this motion. (Assume the air drag is negligible)?
(A) The change of linear momentum, P,

during the first t sec (< its time of flight)


of its motion will be P mg t.

=
(B) The change of linear momentum P

during the first t sec (< its time of flight)


of its motion will be P mg t.

=
(C) The total change in its linear momentum during its motion will be
0
v g
P 2m
g
| |

=
|
|
\


(D) The total change in its linear momentum during its motion will be
0
P 2mv sin =


PART A : PHYSICS
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3. A river of uniform width d flows at a constant speed of u. A boat, which is rowed at
the speed of
u
2
sets off at an angle to the direction of flow of the river. For the
motion of the boat, which of the following statements will be true?
(A) The drift of the boat down the river will be minimum when 120 =
(B) The total time t taken by the boat to reach the other bank and instantly starting
off at the same angle to come to its initial bank will also be minimum when
120. =
(C) If 90 , = the drift of the boat down the river when it reaches the other bank
will be
d
.
2

(D) The drift of the boat down the river when the boat reaches the other bank can
never be less than d.
4. Two spherical bodies rotate about stationary mutually perpendicular intersecting
axes, OX and OY with constant angular velocities of 3.0 rad/s and 4.0 rad/s
respectively. Then
(A) The relative angular velocity of one body relative to the other is 5 rad/s
(B) The relative angular acceleration of one body relative to the other is zero
(C) The relative angular velocity of one body relative to the other is 12 rad/s
(D) The relative angular acceleration of one body relative to the other is
2
12 rad / s
5. Select which of the following statements are correct.
(A) Experiments show that the temperature of the Earths crust increases about
1 C for each 30 m of depth. Assume that the earths crust has a thermal
conductivity of 0.80 Wm/C. Then the amount of heat that flows out through the
Earths surface each second per square metre of area will be
2
2.4 mW/ m
(B) A sphere of radius 3 cm, acts like a black body. It is in equilibrium with its
surroundings and absorbs 30 kW of power radiated to it from the surroundings.
The temperature of the body will be 2600 K [Assume
8 2 4
5.67 10 W/ m K ]

=
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(C) The thermodynamic states of 1 mole of an ideal diatomic gas are represented by
the four points A [3P, 2V], B [2P, 3V], C [2P, 6V] and D[4P, 2V] on the P V
diagram. Nothing is known about the processes AB, BC and CD. Then
no work will be done if the gas is taken along the process DA.
(D) An air bubble is of diameter 4.0 m, when it is located in water at the depth
5.0 m. The pressure above the water surface is 1 atmos. Then the pressure inside
the air bubble will be 2.2.atmos (Surface tension of water
1
0.073 Nm .


1 atmos 101.3 kPa = )
6. Select which of the following statements are correct.
(A) Two mass points of masses
1
m and
2
m are located at a distance r from each
other. Assume all other objects are very far off. Then the gravitational potential
energy
g
E between the two masses will be
1 2
g
Gm m
E
r
=
(B) Inside a uniform sphere of density , there is a spherical cavity whose centre is
at a distance from the centre of the sphere. All points within the cavity will
have the same gravitational potential.
(C) Two perfectly free rigid bodies A (mass
1
m ) and B (mass
2 1
m m > ) initially at
rest move under an identical constant force F

acting on each of them. Soon


they undergo a perfectly elastic collision and separate. The total linear
momentum of the two bodies will be conserved during the collision even when
the force F

continues to act on them after the collision.


(D) The temperature on the surface of water in an open vertical tank is 1.5 times the
temperature at its bottom. An air bubble just formed at the bottom of the tank
has a volume V. When the air bubble rises to the surface its volume is 2V.
Assume air to be an ideal gas. The height of the water in the tank will be 3.4 m.
7. A uniform sphere of mass M and radius R starts at t = 0 to roll down from rest at a
point O on an inclined plane inclined at angle to the horizontal. The rolling is
perfect without any slip. At the pint P at instant t, its angular velocity is and its
linear acceleration is a. For this motion,
O
P a
R
M


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(A) The angular momentum of the sphere relative to the point O at time t will be
L Rmgtsin =
(B) The angular momentum of the sphere relative to the point P at time t will be
L I = where I is the moment of inertia of the sphere about its own axis
(C) The angular acceleration of the sphere at the point P will be
a
R
=
(D) The angular momentum of the sphere relative to the point O will not change if
the inclined plane had been perfectly smooth.
8. Three point masses m, 2m and 3m are placed at the vertices A, B and C respectively
of an equilateral triangle of side a. For this system,

(A) The centre of gravity of the three masses will be located at O, the centroid of the
triangle
(B) The centre of gravity of the three masses will lie on the medium line AO but not
at the point O
(C) If the mass m is given an initial velocity V in the direction OA,

then the
smallest value
0
V of V for which the mass m will escape from the gravitation
field of the two masses 2m and 3m will be given by
0
V 10 GM/ a =
(D) If the mass m be given the velocity V in the direction AO

[instead of 0A

] then
the least velocity needed for m to escape from the gravitation field of 2m and 3m
will be the same (viz)
0
V as obtained in (C).
6
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SECTION II
Paragraph Type
This section contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data, etc. Eight
questions relate to four paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question
of a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Questions 9 and 10
O
T
P
3 m
5 m 3 m
A B
u 2 m/ s =
C

A frictionless pulley P of mass 3m is suspended by a light massless thread from a
point O. Two masses A and B of mass 3m and 5m respectively are connected by a
light inextensible thread which runs over the pulley as shown in the diagram. The
point O along with the system is given a uniform vertically upward velocity of
= u 2m/ s, and simultaneously the masses A and B are released to move freely.
(
=

2
Take g 10m/ s
9. Which of the following statements are true?
(a) The system of masses A&B is moving in an inertial frame of reference
(b) The acceleration of mass B relative to the pulley P will be
2
2.5 m/ s vertically
down.
(c) The acceleration of mass A relative to the mass B will be
2
5 m/ s vertically
upwards
(d) The pulley P remains at rest with respect to the point O.
Make the correct choice from:
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(A) All the statements are true
(B) Only (a) and (b) are true
(C) Only (b) and (c) are true
(D) Only (a), (b) and (d) are true.
10. Which of the following statements are true?
(a) The tension in the thread = OP, T 11 mg upwards
(b) The tension in the thread OP, ( )
= T 10.5 mg upwards
(c) The relative velocity of mass B (5m) relative to the point O, after 1 second of
motion will be 4.5 m/s vertically down.
(d) The relative velocity of A (3m) relative to the point O, after 1 second of motion
will be 2.5 m/s upwards.
Make the correct choice from:
(A) Only (a) and (d) are correct
(B) All the statements are correct
(C) The statements (b) and (d) only are correct
(D) The statements (a) (c) and (d) only are correct.
Paragraph for Questions 11and 12
T
S
1
L

1
M
2
L

2
1
h
2
h

T is a vertical tank containing two immiscible, non-reacting liquids
1 2
L and L of
densities
1 2
and filled to the heights
1 2
h and h in the tank as shown in the
figure. M is a wooden cylindrical body of length floating at rest at the interlayer
between
1 2
L and L with its length submerged in the ratio 11:9 in the liquids
1 2
L and L respectively. The density of wood is .
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11. The difference of pressure P between the upper and lower surfaces of the wooden
body is given by
(A) = P mg / A where m is the mass of the wooden body and A the area of its
cross-section.
(B)
2 2 1 1
P h h g
10
(
= +
(


(C) = P g
(D)
(
= +
(

2 2 1 1
P h h g
20

12. The wooden block is now removed and a small orifice S at the bottom of the tank is
opened so that the liquids flow out. Then the speed v of the liquid
2
L flowing out of
S just when it is opened is given by
(A) ( )
1 2
v 2g h h = +
(B)
1 1 2 2
1 2
h h
v 2g
| | +
=
|
+
\

(C)
1 2
1 2
h h
v 2g
h h
| |
=
|
+
\

(D)
2
v 2gh =
Paragraph for Questions 13 and 14
A thin uniform copper rod AB of length L and mass M rotates uniformly with an
angular velocity in a horizontal plane about a vertical axis AO through its
end A. The Youngs modulus of copper is E. Density of copper is .
O
A
B
L


9
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. IIT/ELITE/PET/PCM(Adv)/P(II) - 9
13. The tension T in the rod as a function of r the distance from the rotation axis will
be
(A)
2
2
2
r
T M L 1
L
| |
= |
|
\
(B)
2 2
2
M L r
T 1
2
L
| |

= |
|
\

(C)
2 2
M r
T
L

= (D)
2 2
M r
T
2L

=
14. The elongation L of the rod will be
(A)

=
2 3
L
L
E
(B)

=
2 3
L
L
2E

(C)

=
2 3
L
L
3E
(D)

=
2 3
L
L
4E

Paragraph for Questions 15 and 16
A body of mass
1
m experiences a perfectly elastic collision with another body of
mass
2
m at rest in two ways.
1. In a head-on collision, the two bodies fly apart in exactly opposite direction with
equal speeds.
2. In a non-head-on collision, the two bodies after collision fly apart symmetrically to
the initial direction of the first body before collision, with an angle of divergence of
60 between their directions after collision.
15. For the head on collision, the ratio of the masses
1
m and
2
m will be
(A) =
1 2
m m (B) =
1
2
m 1
m 2

(C) =
1
2
m 1
m 3
(D) =
1
2
m 1
m 4

16. For the non-head-on collision the ratio of the masses
1 2
m and m will be
(A) =
1 2
m m (B) =
1
2
m
2
m

(C) =
1
2
m 2
m 3
(D)
1 2
3
m / m
2
=
10
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SECTION III
Matching List Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists.
The codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct
17.
S
P
2
4
3
2
1
4
3
1

In the diagram, S is a spool of thread resting on a horizontal rough table top, such
that it can roll without any slipping at the point P. While the spool is resting, the
loose end of the thread is pulled gently when the thread is leaving the spool at the
points 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the spool. The directions of the pull are

11, 22, 33 and 44
respectively. As a result the spool will roll to the right or left, winding or unwinding
the thread or remain stationary. These are shown in a jumbled way in list II
corresponding to the pulls shown in list I. Use the code below to select the correct
motions of the spool from the choices A, B, C and D.
List I List II
P.

11

1.Remains stationary
Q.

22

2. Rolls clockwise winding the thread
R.

33

3. Rolls counter clockwise unwinding the thread
S.

44

4. Rolls clockwise unwinding the thread.
11
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Code
P Q R S
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 1 3 2 4
18. An ideal gas of ratio of specific heats , undergoes a general polytropic process
given by the equation =
n
PV constant where n is a constant. For specific values, or
range of values of n, the gas has characteristic value or range of values for its molar
specific heat C for the process expressed in terms of the gas constant R. List I gives
the chosen values for n for which the molar specific heat is shown in List II in a
jumbled way. Use the code given below to select the correct values from amongst the
choices A, B, C and D. The gas is given to be a diatomic gas.
List I List II

P. n = 1.2 1. =
R
C
2

Q. n = 1.3 2. C is negative

R. n = 1.5 3. =
5R
C
2


S. n = 0 4. =
7R
C
2

Code
P Q R S
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 2 1 4
12
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19. Conservation of total linear/angular momenta and total mechanical energy of a
system are important principles occurring in physical events. Four situations may
arise which are categorised as follows:
Category 1 (C1) Total linear/angular momenta and total energy are both
conserved separately
Category 2 (C2) Total linear/angular momenta are conserved, but total energy
is not.
Category 3 (C3) Total energy is conserved but not total linear/angular
momentum
Category 4 (C4) Total linear/angular momenta and total energy are both NOT
conserved.
Four events are mentioned below (List I) for which the above categories are given in
List II in a jumbled manner. Use the code given below to select the correct categories
from among choices A, B, C and D.
Event Category
(List I) (List II)
P. A body falls freely under gravity 1. C4
Q. The Earth moves around the sun in elliptic orbit 2. C3
R. Two bodies undergo an oblique inelastic collision 3. C1
S. An insect climbs up a vertical wooden pole 4. C2
Code:
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 3 1 4
13
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20. A composite body is made up of a solid sphere of radius R of material of uniform
density 2 covered by another concentric solid spherical shell of inner radius R and
outer radius 2R of another material of uniform density .
2
R
C
2R
3R
A
B
P

The common centre of the composite body is C. Four points, C, A, B and P are located
as shown in the diagram, the point P being at distance PC = 3R from C. The
gravitational potentials
C A B
V , V , V and
P
V (only magnitudes) at the points C, A,
B and P respectively are listed in List II in a jumbled way against the points in
List I. Select the correct values of the gravitational potentials (only magnitudes
being taken) against each of the points C, A, B and P using the code that shows only
one of the choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) being correct [Take =
3
0
4
R m ]
3

(List I) (List II)
P.
C
C V
1.
| |
|
\
0
Gm
3
R

Q.
A
A V
2.
| |
|
\
0
Gm 13
2 R

R.
B
B V
3.
| |
|
\
0
Gm 9
2 R

S.
P
P V
4.
| |
|
\
0
Gm 13
2 R

Code:
P Q R S

C
(V )
A
(V )
B
(V )
P
(V )
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 4 3 1 2

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m

SECTION I
One or more options correct Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
21. An oxalate salt (0.15 g) dissolved in 100 mL of water required 45 mL of N/20
4
KMnO solution for complete oxidation. The percent of oxalate ion in the sample is
(A) 76% (B) 86% (C) 66% (D) 46%
22. A solution is saturated with respect to
3
SrCO and
2
SrF . The
2
3
[CO ] was found
to be

3
1.5 10 M. The concentration of

F ions in the solution is about


Given:

=
10 3
sp 3
K (SrCO ) 7 10 M ;

=
10 3
sp 2
K (SrF ) 7.9 10 M
(A)

2
4.1 10 M (B)
2
4.1 10 M
(C)

2
1.4 10 M (D)
2
1.4 10 M
23. The equilibrium

+

2 3
I I I is set up in aqueous solution. When started with
one mole of
2
I and 0.5 mole of

I in a 2L flask, at equilibrium, addition of excess


3
AgNO gave 0.25 mole of yellow precipitate. The value of equilibrium constant is
(A) 1.33 (B) 2.66 (C) 3.33 (D) 4.44
24. Which of the following statements are true?
(A) The ratio of mean velocity of RMS velocity of a given gas is independent of
temperature.
(B) Square of mean velocity of
2
O molecules is equal to the square of RMS velocity
of
2
SO molecules at 20C.
(C) Mean K.E. of gas molecules at any given temperature is independent of the
mean velocity of the gas molecules.
(D) The difference between RMS velocity and mean velocity at any temperature for
different gases decreases as larger the molar masses of gases.
25. Liquation process is employed for the purification of the metals
(A) Pb (B) Sn (C) Bi (D) Mg
PART B : CHEMISTRY
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26. Which of the following thermodynamic relationships are correct?
(A)

=


P
d G
S
dT
(B)

=


T
d G
V
dP

(C)

=


P
dE
S nF
dT
(D)

=


P
d G
H nF
dS

27. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) At critical state, the value for compressibility factor is 0.375
(B) If a gas is allowed to expand below its inversion temperature cooling effect is
caused.
(C) For triatomic gases =
P
V
C
1.44.
C

(D) At constant temperature, the collision frequency is proportional to
2
P .
28. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Among halogens oxidizing nature increases down the group.
(B) Helium has the least ionization potential among the inert gases.
(C) Size of the species increases in the order
+ +
< < <
2
Mg Na F A
(D) The correct order of electron affinities is > > > O C B N
SECTION II
Paragraph Type
This section contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data, etc. Eight
questions relate to four paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question
of a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Questions 29 and 30
In the case of molecular orbitals, they are obtained by combining atomic orbitals of
comparable energy. These molecular orbitals are more stable and have complex
shapes and represented by

, , , etc as bonding and antibonding.
29. Relative stabilities and bond dissociation energies are in the order
(A)
+
> > >
2
2 2 2 2
O O O O (B)
+
> > >
2
2 2 2 2
O O O O
(C)
+
> > >
2
2 2 2 2
O O O O (D)
2
2 2 2 2
O O O O
+
> > >
30. Following are some species
(i)
2
C (ii)
2
N (iii)
2
B (iv)
2
Be
Diamagnetic species amongst them are
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) ii, iii, iv (C) iii and i (D) All
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Paragraph for Questions 31 and 32
The rate constant for the I order decomposition of a certain reaction is given by the
equation


=
4
1
1.3 10
n k (s ) 15.0
T

31. The energy of activation for the reaction is
(A) 58.2 k.cal (B) 25.8 k.cal (C) 100 k.cal (D) 852 k.cal
32. The rate constant at 500 K is,
(A)

5
1.66 10 (B)
5
6.16 10 (C)
5
1.66 10 (D)
3
2.77 10
Paragraph for Questions 33 and 34
Nucleophilic substitution reactions are those substitution reactions involving the
attack of a nucleophile. These are usually written as SN. They follow two
mechanisms via unimolecular and bimolecular.
33. The incorrect statement regarding
N
S 1 reactions is
(A) These are first order reactions
(B) Rearrangement is possible
(C) Order of reactivity of alkyl halides is Allyl > > > >
3
1 2 3 CH C .
(D) Favoured by polar solvents.
34. Which one of the following is not a nucleophile?
(A)
2
R NH (B) R O R (C)

3 2
CH COCH (D)
+
2
R N
Paragraph for Questions 35 and 36
The uncertainty of movement of position x and the uncertainty of momentum
p or mv are related to Heisenbergs relationship as

h
x p .
4
i.e.,

h
x mv .
4
For an electron of mass

=
28
m 9.10 10 g the product of
uncertainties is quite large.

27
1
6.624 10
x v 0.57 sec. g .
4 m

35. The uncertainty in the position of a particle when the uncertainty in the momentum
is zero is
(A) zero (B) infinity
(C)

3 1
1 10 g cmsec (D) cannot be calculated
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36. Find the uncertainty in the velocity of a ball (in
1
msec ) of mass 0.15 kg, if its
uncertainty in position is of the order of

1A .
(A)

24
6.62 10 (B)

24
8.0 10 (C)

24
3.51 10 (D)

24
10.0 10
SECTION III
Matching List Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists.
The codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct
37.
List I List II
P. Reduction by Mg 1. Zr
Q. Reduction by Al 2. PbO
R. Reduction by C 3.
4
TiC
S. Van Arkel method 4.
2 3
Fe O .
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 2 4 3 1
38.
P. Boyles law 1. = + PV RT Pb

Q. Charles law 2. =
1 2
2 1
r d
r d

R. Helium gas 3. = + log V log T constant
S. Grahams law 4. = + log P log V constant
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 3 4 2

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39.
Units for k

P. zero order
1.
1 1
mol L s



Q. first order
2.
1
s



R. second order
3.
1 1
L mol s



S. nth order
4.
1 1 n 1
(mol L ) s
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 1 2 3 4
40.
P. rays
1.

27
1.66 10 kg
Q. positron 2. positive electron
R. rays 3. He nucleus
S. 1 amu 4. Electromagnetic radiation
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 3 2 1

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SECTION I
One or more options correct Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
41. If a, b, c, x are positive and not equal and if a, b, c are in G.P, then
a b c
log x, log x, log x are not in
(A) A.P (B) H.P (C) G.P (D) None of these
42. If the number of solutions of the equation
2 2
sin x cos x
16 16 10 + = 0 x , and
x 2 < are m and n respectively, then
(A) m < n (B) m = n (C) m = 4 (D) n < m
43. If
2 2
x ax b 0 and bx x a 0 + + = + + = have a common root and the first equation
has equal roots, then the value of
2
a 2b + is
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 1
44. The locus of a point in a plane sum of whose distances from two perpendicular lines
in the plane is 2 is
(A) a circle (B) a rectangle (C) a square (D) None of these
45. An equation of a tangent to the hyperbola
2 2
16x 25y 96x 100y 356 0 + =
which makes an angle
4

with the transverse axis is


(A) y = x + 2 (B) y = x 4 (C) x = y + 3 (D) x = y 4
46. If ( )
1 1 1
f x sin x cos x tan x

= + + then
(A) Domain of ( ) ( ) = f x ,
(B) Domain = [ 1, 1]
(C) Range = [ ] 0,
(D) Range =
3
,
4 4




PART C : MATHEMATICS
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47. The minimum value of
2 2
3 sec 12 cosec 15 + is
(A) 12 (B) 12
(C) 0 (D) 3
48. The sum to n terms of the series 7 + 77 + 777 + is
(A)
( )
n
10
10 1
81
(B)
( )
n
70
10 1
81

(C)
n 1
10
+
< (D)
( )
n
70 7n
10 1
81 9

SECTION II
Paragraph Type
This section contains 4 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data, etc. Eight
Questions relate to four paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph. Each question
of a paragraph has only one correct answer among the four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Paragraph for Questions 49 and 50
The equation of a curve is represented by
2 2
9x 4y 36x 8y 4 0 + + + =
49. Which of the following is a focus of the curve?
(A)
( )
2, 5 (B)
( )
2, 5 (C)
( )
5 1, 2 (D)
( )
2, 5 1
50. The equation of a directrix of the curve is
(A) 5x 3 5 5 = (B) 5y 3 5 5 =
(C) 5y 9 5 5 = (D) None of these
Paragraph for Questions 51 and 52
In ABC, the sides a, b, c are in A.P.
51. Then
A B C
tan , tan , tan
2 2 2
are in
(A) A.P (B) G.P (C) H.P (D) None of these
52.
A B C
cot cos A, cot cos B, cot cos C
2 2 2
are in
(A) A.P (B) G.P (C) H.P (D) None of these
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Paragraph for Questions 53 and 54
Let
n n
cos x sin x 1 = where n is a natural number.
53. When x and n is an even integer the number of values of x satisfying the
equation is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 3
54. When 0 x 2 and n is an odd integer > 1 then the number of values of x
satisfying the equation is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0

Paragraph for Questions 55 and 56
In ABC, A is a right angle and the smallest side is b = 17 units.
55. The value of
1 1
b c
tan tan
c a a b

+
+ +
equals
(A)
2

(B)
3

(C)
4

(D)
3
4


56. The perimeter of the triangle ABC is
(A) 306 units (B) 289 units (C) 324 units (D) 342 units
SECTION III
Matching List Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching lists.
The codes for the lists have choice (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
57.
P. The solution set of
( )
( )
2
10 10
log x 25 log x 5 + is 1. ( ) 2,
Q. The solution set of
( ) ( )
0.2 0.04
log x 1 log x 1 < is 2. ( ) , 1
R. The values of x such that
( )
2
1
10
x log x x 1 0 + + > lies in 3. (2, 5)
S. If x satisfies ( )
1
3
log x 1
( ) + +
1
3
log x 1 ( )
3
log 5 x 1 + <
then x lies in 4. (5, 6]
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Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 4 3 2
58.
P. The incentre of the triangle formed by the coordinate axes
and the line 4x + 3y 12 = 0 is
1. (6, 5)
Q. A circle with its centre on the focus of the parabola
2
y 8x =
touches the directrix of the parabola. Then the point of
intersection of the parabola and the circle is
2. (6, 6)
R. The coordinates of the point from which the tangents to the
ellipse
2 2
x 8y 64 + = are perpendicular are
3. (2, 4)
S. One of the foci of the conic
2 2
9x 16y 18x 160y 535 0 + = is
4. (1, 1)
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 1 2 3 4
59.
P. The value of

2
cos cos
100 100

+
3 99
cos .... cos
100 100

+ + + =
1. 2
Q. In ABC, a = 3, b = 4, c = 5 then
( ) 2 r R + equals
(r in radius
R circum radius)
2. 3
R. In an equilateral triangle,
R
..........
r
=
3. 0
S. If 2 cos A + cos B + cos C = 2 in ABC, then
B C
cot cot
2 2

equals
4. 7
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Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
60.
P. If , are the roots of
2
x x 1 0 + = then the equation
whose roots are
3 3
and is
1.
2
x 19x 120 0 + =
Q. If one root of the equation
2
x ax 6 0 + = is the
smallest even prime number and one root of
2
x ax b 0 + + = is the smallest odd prime number then
the equation whose roots are a and b is
2.
2
x 8x 209 0 =
R. If , are the roots of
2
x 7x 15 0 + + = then the
equation whose roots are ( )
2 2 2
and + is .
3.
2
5x 24x 32 0 + =
S. If , are the roots of
2
x 4x 5 0 + = then the
equation whose roots are
1
+

and
1
+

is
4.
2
x 2x 1 0 + + =
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 1 2 3


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Name: . QUESTION PAPER CODE:

Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this
purpose.


B. Question paper format
8. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part A: Physics, Part B: Chemistry and Part C:
Mathematics). Each part has 3 sections.
9. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) for its answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.
10 Section II of each part contains 4 paragraphs with two questions on each paragraph.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one is correct.
11. Section III contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching list. The codes
for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only one is correct.
C. Marking scheme
12. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the answer, and zero mark if no bubble is
darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one ( 1) mark will be awarded.
13. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case
of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.
14. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks in which you have darkened
the bubble corresponding to the correct answer. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer,
minus one ( 1) mark will be awarded.





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